PRMGT - Questions Compilation.pdf

TUTORIAL QUESTIONS 1. During starting of the project, ___ is used by project manager to review the risks that have been identified at the beginning of the point to the project sponsor. a) Risk report b) Risk register c) Project Charter d) Issue log 2. A kick-off meeting marks the beginning of a pro...

TUTORIAL QUESTIONS 1. During starting of the project, ___ is used by project manager to review the risks that have been identified at the beginning of the point to the project sponsor. a) Risk report b) Risk register c) Project Charter d) Issue log 2. A kick-off meeting marks the beginning of a project or initiative. What should be covered in the meeting? a) Define what the project aims to achieve and clarify the expected outcomes. b) Discuss budget constraints, resource allocation, and any other financial considerations relevant to the project. c) Identify and introduce everyone involved in the project, including team members, stakeholders, and clients. d) All the above 3. When conducting a SWOT analysis to generate the potential of an idea for a new project, you're assessing both internal and external factors that could impact its feasibility and success. Which element in SWOT analysis is normally NOT for generating project ideas? a) Strength b) Weakness c) Opportunity d) Threat 4. You are required to select a project to approve due to the cost constraint in the given timeframe. Your company in need to invest or have better cash flow after 1 year. Which project you will select? Project A: Payback period is 12 months and Net Present Value (NPV) is 300 Project B: Payback period is 24 months and Net Present Value (NPV) is 301 a) Project A, as the project with lower NPV b) Project B, as the payback period is longer c) Project A, as the payback period is shorter d) Project B, as the with higher NPV 5. Which is NOT the evaluation criterion during the selection of a project? a) Benefit b) Net Present Value c) Emotional Value d) The number of resources required to complete the project 6. Which of the following is showing hybrid approach to perform a project? a) Use a phase gate model with overlapping phases b) Use agile methods to ensure long-term predictability c) Combine elements of predictive and agile approaches d) Apply rolling wave planning 7. Which of the following is showing analogous estimation? a) Estimation of the cost with the formula total square foot multiply with cost per square foot. b) Breaks down the software development project into specific tasks and estimates the cost for each task based on resource requirements. c) Use the previous projects’ information as the basis of the cost estimating. d) Estimates based on expertise and understanding of the project requirements and complexities. 8. What is the next step after identifying the stakeholders? a) Conduct stakeholder analysis b) Invite the identified stakeholders to the project kick-off meeting. c) Complete the Project Stakeholder Management process d) Develop the stakeholder engagement plan. 9. A/an ____ in project management is to document and track all factors or events that are true, real, or certain for planning purposes but have not been confirmed or validated. a) assumption log b) project charter c) meeting agenda d) issue log 10. During the project planning process, David defined and organized the project scope starting from the smallest, most detailed tasks and progressively building up to a broader project overview. Which approach is used by David? a) Top-down approach b) Bottom-up approach c) Mind mapping approach d) Phrase approach 11. During the project planning process, David defined and organized the project scope starting from the smallest, most detailed tasks and progressively building up to a broader project overview. Which approach is used by David? a) Top-down approach b) Bottom-up approach c) Mind mapping approach d) Phrase approach 12. What is scope creep in project management? a) The intentional expansion of project goals to include additional features b) The unauthorized changes or additions to a project's scope without proper approval c) The gradual reduction of project scope over time d) The detailed breakdown of project deliverables into smaller tasks 13. ____ is a companion document to with detailed information about each component (or work package) identified in the WBS. a) WBS Plan b) WBS Dictionary c) WBS Detail d) WBS Register 14. WBS can be presented in multiple formats. The following format is known as ____ WBS. a) Tabular b) Graphical c) Phrase d) Mind mapping 15. ____ are the results or outcomes that stakeholders and clients expect from a project, and they are typically defined and agreed upon during the project initiation phase. a) Scopes b) Milestones c) Criteria d) Deliverables 16. ____ are used to track progress, signal key achievements, and help ensure that the project stays on schedule. They serve as checkpoints that indicate whether the project is moving forward as planned. a) Scopes b) Milestones c) Criteria d) Deliverables 17. ____ is a financial metric used to evaluate the efficiency or profitability of an investment or project. a) Weighted Scores b) NPV c) Payback d) ROI 18. Which of the following is the reason for using Weighed Scoring Model to select a project? a) It encourages a thorough evaluation of projects across multiple dimensions. b) It calculates the time it takes for a project to recover its initial investment. c) It recognizes that a dollar received today is worth more than a dollar received in the future due to the opportunity cost of capital. d) It emphasizes customer needs and satisfaction, addressing how the organization should be perceived by its customers. 19. ___ is a document produced to justify the need for initiating a project. a) Business Case b) Project Charter c) Project Management Plan d) Proposal 20. Which of the following statements best describes a SMART objective? a) An objective that can be measured and monitored b) An objective that is simple and straightforward c) An objective that involves multiple stakeholders d) An objective that is flexible and adaptable 21. Which of the following is a key benefit of having a well-defined project budget? a) Controlling project scope b) Ensuring stakeholder satisfaction c) Facilitating effective communication d) Avoiding delay 22. Which of the following is NOT true about cost baseline? a) It is typically developed during the project planning phase, based on cost estimates and funding requirements. It sets the overall financial framework for the project. b) It is a specific snapshot of the budget that represents the original planned expenditure for the project, broken down by specific time periods. c) It is directly tied to the scope of work defined in the project's Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) and schedule, reflecting how the budgeted funds are allocated across specific tasks, deliverables, and timeframes. d) It is used for performance measurement and control, enabling project managers to track and manage variances between planned and actual costs. 23. Susan is the project manager working on a project to implement new attendance system to APU. During the project team meeting, she realized that there were several task dependencies in the project. One of them is the system development tasks which can only commence upon the delivery of the new server they ordered. What type of dependency is this? a) Mandatory b) Discretionary c) External d) Internal 24. David uses ____ to illustrate sequence of activities or tasks required to complete a project. The activity identifier or name is represented by the nodes. a) Activity on Arrow b) Activity in Node c) Activity on Node d) Activity in Node AON = Precedence Diagramming Method AOA = Arrow Diagramming Method 25. Which is NOT true about Activity on Node diagram? a) It provides a visual representation of the project schedule, showing when each activity is planned to occur. b) It can highlight the critical path, which is the longest sequence of activities that determines the minimum duration required to complete the project. c) It uses dummy activities to represent dependencies. d) It allows project managers and planners to identify and manage lag time effectively. 26. What is PERT analysis based on? a) Optimistic time b) Pessimistic time c) Most likely time d) All of the above 27. Which of the following is NOT true about critical path? a) It involves tasks that are dependent on the completion of previous tasks in the sequence. b) Tasks on the critical path have zero float (or slack). c) It is the longest sequence of tasks from start to finish. d) The shortest path in schedule. 28. Based on the network diagram. The ___ is the critical path. a) A->C->D b) B->E->F->D c) B->E->G->H d) B->E->F->H 29. Who is usually at the top of a project organization chart? a) Project Manager b) Chief Executive Operation c) Company Manager d) Project Sponsor 30. What is a project organization chart primarily used for? a) Budgeting project costs b) Scheduling project activities c) Managing project risks d) Defining roles and responsibilities 31. David created a ____ to outline the team's mission, objectives, roles, responsibilities, and processes. It serves as a foundational guide that aligns the team's efforts and clarifies expectations. a) Project charter b) Organization chart c) Gantt chart d) Team charter 32. What is a contingency reserve in project budgeting? a) Funds allocated for known risks with certain outcomes b) Funds allocated for unknown risks that may occur c) Funds allocated for salaries and wages d) Funds allocated for project overheads 33. Which technique is commonly used to estimate project costs? a) Monte Carlo simulation b) Analogous estimating c) Pareto analysis d) Fishbone diagram 34. In which phase of project management is the budget typically developed? a) Initiation b) Planning c) Execution d) Closure 35. The figure is a ____ which showing the authorized spending plan across the life cycle of the project. a) Budget b) Cost Baseline c) Gantt Chart d) Responsible Assignment Matrix 36. In a RACI matrix, who is responsible for executing a task? a) Responsible b) Accountable c) Consulted d) Informed 37. David’s name is in the “Consulted” category in RACI Matrix. Which of the following is showing the role of David in the project? a) To provide input and feedback before the task is completed b) To complete the task c) To make final decision d) To be kept up-to-date about task progress 38. David prepared a ___ to measure, monitor, and manage the quality of project deliverables and processes. a) Quality Metric b) Quality Plan c) Quality Chart d) Quality Control 39. Which of the following is NOT the purpose of Project Communication Management? a) Providing transparent communication to build trust and keep stakeholders informed about the project’s status, risks, and issues. b) Addressing and resolving conflicts promptly. c) Ensuring that materials are accessible to everyone involved in the project. d) None of the above 40. You are managing a project to renovate an office space for a small company. The initial scope includes repainting walls, replacing flooring, and upgrading lighting fixtures. As the renovation progresses, the company's leadership decides to include additional changes based on new requirements and budget considerations. Which document is used to initiate the new suggestion? a) New requirement form b) Risk register c) Suggestion form d) Change request 41. Which of the following is NOT a stakeholder engagement strategy? a) Communication management b) Power/Interest grid c) Conflict resolution d) Ignoring stakeholders 42. Which is the best strategy for stakeholder with high power and high interest? a) Keep informed b) Actively Consult c) Maintain Interest d) Regularly Engage 43. Which of the following is NOT the method to identify risks in project? a) Brainstorming b) SWOT analysis c) Lesson learnt d) Risk register 44. ____ is a crucial tool for providing a structured approach to identify, assess, prioritize, and track risks throughout the project. a) Probability/Impact matrix b) Stakeholder register c) Decision tree d) Risk register 45. The Probability/Impact matrix is used to assess the risk based on the probability and impact. The “probability” is reflecting the ____ of the risks. a) Potential severity b) Number of occurring c) Likelihood of occurring d) None of the above 46. Which risk response strategy best describe the following scenario: David is unable to hire staff with specified technical requirements due to high demand in the market. He decided to delay the project due to the resource constraints. a) Risk Avoidance b) Risk Transference c) Risk Acceptance d) Risk Mitigation 47. Which of the risk response is showing the project manager has to minimize the impact of the risk due to unable to avoid the risk? a) Risk Avoidance b) Risk Transference c) Risk Acceptance d) Risk Mitigation 48. Which of the following is NOT a factor typically considered in a make or buy analysis? a) Cost b) Time c) Quality d) Stakeholder preferences 49. Which type of contact is suitable for project that have a well-defined project scope and budget, and want to avoid cost overruns? a) Fixed Cost Contract b) Cost Reimbursement Contract c) Time-and Material Contract d) Unit Price Contract 50. The project has a defined budget allocated for purchasing office furniture and has identified specific requirements for the furniture pieces, including desks, chairs, cabinets, and conference room tables. Which procurement document is suitable for the above procurement? a) RFQ b) RFI c) RFP d) RFD 51. In procurement and project management, a ____ is a crucial document that defines the scope of work to be performed by a contractor, supplier, or vendor. It serves as a foundational document that outlines the project objectives, deliverables, timelines, performance criteria, and other specific requirements. a) Statement of Work b) Procurement Plan c) Request for Proposal d) Scope Statement 52. What is the primary purpose of using a weighted scoring model for supplier evaluation? a) To objectively evaluate and rank suppliers based on predefined criteria b) To select suppliers based solely on the lowest bid c) To negotiate contracts with suppliers d) To eliminate all but the top three suppliers 53. In a weighted scoring model, what does a higher weight assigned to a criterion indicate? a) That the criterion is more important b) That the criterion is less important c) That the criterion is optional d) That the criterion is not evaluated 54. Which of the following is NOT true about verification and validation? a) The product is validated to ensure it is built correctly, and then it is verified to ensure it meets customer needs. b) The product is verified to ensure it is built correctly, and then it is validated to ensure it meets customer needs. c) Verification focuses on answering the question, "Are we building the product right?" d) Validation focuses on answering the question, "Are we building the right product?" 55. Which of the following is NOT the purpose of a Gantt Chart? a) Display project tasks and activities along a horizontal timeline b) Show task dependencies, indicating which tasks are dependent on others and which can be worked on simultaneously. c) Allowing project managers to effectively communicate project timelines, milestones, and progress to stakeholders d) None of the above MOCK TEST 1 Q1. "Ibrahim identified in his project, there is a process which had use majority of the time and budget accumulate for the project. Unfortunately, Ibrahim have utilized most of his time in identifying the process involve." As an experience project manager, you are require to help Ibrahim in choosing the appropriate process which mostly reflect the mentioned situation above. a) Execution b) Change requests c) Planning d) Monitoring and controlling. Q2. Project ____ management involves working with all appropriate stakeholders to define, gain written agreement for, and manage all the work required to complete the project successfully. a) risk b) time c) communications d) scope Q3. ____ management is a soft skill required to achieve high performance on projects. a) Conflict b) Time c) Scope d) Cost Q4. Project portfolio management addresses _______________ goals of an organization, while project management addresses _______________ goals. a) internal, external b) external, internal c) strategic, tactical d) tactical, strategic Q5. Three primary methods for determining the projected financial value of projects include net present value analysis, return on investment, and ____ analysis. a) environmental impact b) efficiency c) payback d) growth Q6. Which of the following can be consider as ‘Positive Risk Event’? a) Change request conflicts with requirements. b) Project team misunderstand requirements and communication overhead. c) Share by allocating the responsibility to a 3rd party who can increase likelihood of capturing the opportunity. d) Learning curves lead to delays and cost overrun. Q7. Sathiya is a project manager in ExTrA Association Sdn. Bhd. He is requested by the CEO to document all aspects related to risks for a management purposes. Based on the above statement, choose the appropriate tool and technique which Sathiya need to consider to ensure the management process run smoothly. a) Risk Register. b) Qualitative Risk Analysis. c) Quantitative Risk Analysis. d) Probability/Impact Matrix. Q8. There is several medium can be used to assess the project stakeholders commitment. Based on the listed answer, you are required to decide which medium would be the most appropriate medium to be use. a) Phone call. b) Meeting c) E-mail. d) Voice call. Q9. Most project sponsors would say that the most important output of any project is _____. a) Good financial report. b) Good planning. c) The deliverables. d) Customer satisfaction. Q10. In a process of managing the risk, each project manager should identify the contingency plan if the risk occur. What you understand by term contingency plan? a) Predefined tasks by the project sponsor that can be used to mitigate cost or schedule overruns if known risks occur. b) Developed for risks that have a high impact on meeting project objectives, and are put into effect if attempts to reduce the risk are not effective; sometimes called contingency plans of last resort c) Predefined actions that the project team will take if an identified risk event occurs. d) Segregation of funds held for unknown risks that are used for management control purposes – not part of the cost baseline, but are part of the project budget and funding requirements. Q11. Three primary methods for determining the projected financial value of projects include net present value analysis, return on investment, and ____ analysis. a) growth b) payback c) efficiency d) environmental impact Q12. An organization should focus on projects with a ____ NPV if financial value is a key criterion for project selection. a) negative b) positive c) zero d) well-defined Q13. A ___________ is a project selection methodology that converts an organization’s value drivers into metrics. a) weighted scoring model b) balanced scorecard c) value matrix d) project dashboard Q14. In which of the five project management process groups is the most time and money usually spent? a) executing b) monitoring and controlling c) initiating d) planning Q15. How should you manage stakeholders with a high interest in your project and a high amount of power? a) monitor b) manage closely c) keep satisfied d) keep informed Q16. It is good practice to document meeting minutes, focusing on key decisions and ____ items. a) undisclosed b) action c) unresolved d) miscellaneous Q17. Scope statements should include, at a minimum, a product scope description, product user acceptance criteria, and detailed information on all project ____. a) Volunteers b) Meetings c) deliverables d) stakeholders Q18. Which of the following is not an output of planning for project integration and scope management? a) a project management plan b) a WBS c) a scope management plan d) a project information management system Q19. A project management plan is the main output of the project ________ knowledge area. a) Scope b) Planning c) Integration d) Communication Q20. You develop a WBS by analyzing a similar project. You are using the _________ approach. a) guidelines b) SMART c) copy-cat d) analogy MOCK TEST 2 Q1. "Ibrahim identified in his project, there is a process which had use majority of the time and budget accumulate for the project. Unfortunately, Ibrahim have utilized most of his time in identifying the process involve." As an experience project manager, you are require to help Ibrahim in choosing the appropriate process which mostly reflect the mentioned situation above. a) Change requests b) Planning c) Execution d) Monitoring and controlling. Q2. In a process of managing the risk, each project manager should identify the contingency plan if the risk occur. What you understand by term contingency plan? a) Developed for risks that have a high impact on meeting project objectives, and are put into effect if attempts to reduce the risk are not effective; sometimes called contingency plans of last resort b) Predefined actions that the project team will take if an identified risk event occurs. c) Predefined tasks by the project sponsor that can be used to mitigate cost or schedule overruns if known risks occur. d) Segregation of funds held for unknown risks that are used for management control purposes – not part of the cost baseline, but are part of the project budget and funding requirements. Q3. Three primary methods for determining the projected financial value of projects include net present value analysis, return on investment, and ____ analysis. a) efficiency b) environmental impact c) growth d) payback Q4. An organization should focus on projects with a ____ NPV if financial value is a key criterion for project selection. a) positive b) zero c) negative d) well-defined Q5. A ___________ is a project selection methodology that converts an organization’s value drivers into metrics. a) value matrix b) project dashboard c) weighted scoring model d) balanced scorecard Q6. In which of the five project management process groups is the most time and money usually spent? a) executing b) monitoring and controlling c) initiating d) planning Q7. How should you manage stakeholders with a high interest in your project and a high amount of power? a) keep satisfied b) monitor c) keep informed d) manage closely Q8. It is good practice to document meeting minutes, focusing on key decisions and ____ items. a) unresolved b) undisclosed c) action d) miscellaneous Q9. Scope statements should include, at a minimum, a product scope description, product user acceptance criteria, and detailed information on all project ____. a) deliverables b) Volunteers c) Meetings d) stakeholders Q10. Which of the following is not an output of planning for project integration and scope management? a) a project information management system b) a WBS c) a scope management plan d) a project management plan Q11. A project management plan is the main output of the project ________ knowledge area. a) Communication b) Integration c) Scope d) Planning Q12. Project ____ management involves working with all appropriate stakeholders to define, gain written agreement for, and manage all the work required to complete the project successfully. a) risk b) communications c) time d) scope Q13. You develop a WBS by analyzing a similar project. You are using the _________ approach. a) analogy b) guidelines c) SMART d) copy-cat Q14. ____ management is a soft skill required to achieve high performance on projects. a) Scope b) Cost c) Conflict d) Time Q15. Project portfolio management addresses _______________ goals of an organization, while project management addresses _______________ goals. a) tactical, strategic b) external, internal c) internal, external d) strategic, tactical Q16. Three primary methods for determining the projected financial value of projects include net present value analysis, return on investment, and ____ analysis. a) growth b) environmental impact c) payback d) efficiency Q17. Which of the following can be consider as ‘Positive Risk Event’? a) Project team misunderstand requirements and communication overhead. b) Change request conflicts with requirements. c) Learning curves lead to delays and cost overrun. d) Share by allocating the responsibility to a 3rd party who can increase likelihood of capturing the opportunity. Q18. Sathiya is a project manager in ExTrA Association Sdn. Bhd. He is requested by the CEO to document all aspects related to risks for a management purposes. Based on the above statement, choose the appropriate tool and technique which Sathiya need to consider to ensure the management process run smoothly. a) Probability/Impact Matrix. b) Qualitative Risk Analysis. c) Risk Register. d) Quantitative Risk Analysis. Q19. There is several medium can be used to assess the project stakeholders commitment. Based on the listed answer, you are required to decide which medium would be the most appropriate medium to be use. a) Meeting b) Voice call. c) E-mail. d) Phone call. Q20. Most project sponsors would say that the most important output of any project is _____. a) Customer satisfaction. b) Good financial report. c) Good planning. d) The deliverables. Q21. Steve, an engineer in a construction company, is at present working on a home construction project. The home is being built for the Robinson family, the owners of the home. Steve is working with his project team and support staff to ensure the project is completed on time. In such a scenario, the project sponsor is _____. a) The Support Staff b) The Robinson Family c) The Project Team d) Steve Q22. A company has a goal of increasing customer satisfaction within 6 months. A project is initiated to meet this goal. The Project Manager needs to identify best practices. What should the Project Manager utilize to accomplish this? a) Gantt Chart b) Benchmarking c) Root Cause Analysis d) Interviews Q23. A Project Manager works for a company that is preparing to develop a new system. The new system will require currently unavailable technical skills. To initiate this project, what should the Project Manager do? a) Document the risk in the project charter b) Develop a competitor analysis c) Develop detailed project requirements d) Focus on quality control Q24. A Project Manager is working with three key stakeholders. Each stakeholder has a different vision regarding the project and its goal. They each feel strongly about their opinion. The Project Manager needs to obtain approval of the project charter. What should the Project Manager do? a) Use facilitation and conflict management to ensure the three stakeholders are in agreement. b) Use the project kick-off meeting to settle the project goals. c) Request that the project sponsor resolve the conflict. d) Conduct a stakeholder analysis. Q25. A new project sponsor asks for a project team that includes resources working in three different time zones and locations. The project sponsor did not consider the implications of this requirement and believes that the request will save costs while creating the ideal project team. Where should the Project Manager document this request in the project charter? a) High-level requirements b) Overall project risks. c) Resource management plan. d) Key stakeholder list Q26. In a software company, a large number of simultaneously performed projects utilize the same groups of human and other resources. What is the term commonly used for this situation? a) Concurrent engineering. b) Resource pooling. c) Program management. d) Resource over-allocation. Q27. You are a member of your company's project office. The company is running many concurrent projects; most of them share a resource pool. Understanding how resources are utilized across projects is seen as being essential to cost-effectiveness and profitability. You recently received an inquiry to assess the benefits of using project management software to manage the company's project portfolio. Which of the following is TRUE? a) Supporting project portfolio management is not the project office's business. b) Evaluating project management software is not the project office's business. c) Project management software will dramatically simplify the task of leveling resources across projects with different project management teams. d) Project management software has the capability to help organize resource pools. Q28. Which is NOT a trend in project integration practices? a) Use of automated tools b) Use of visual management tools c) Hybrid methodologies d) Use of autocratic decision making Q29. You are a project manager for a national bank. Currently, you are about to start the development of the assumption log for a project to build a new customer relationship management system. What should you do first? a) Review the project scope statement. b) Start the Identify Stakeholder process as the assumption log is an output of this process. c) Read the project business case. d) Examine the project management plan. Q30. Which of the following is TRUE? a) Monte Carlo analysis is a qualitative risk analysis tool/technique. b) There are 49 project management processes, which can be grouped by process groups or knowledge areas. c) There are 10 project management knowledge areas, whose processes are performed sequentially. d) There are five project management process groups, and they are Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Tracking, and Closing.