Neurology Review PDF

Neurology Review 1. What meningeal layer sits closest to the brain and spinal cord a. Arachnoid mater b. Dura Mater c. CSF d. Pia Mater 2. What branch of the spinal nerve feeds into the plexuses a. Meningeal b. Posterior c. Anteri...

Neurology Review 1. What meningeal layer sits closest to the brain and spinal cord a. Arachnoid mater b. Dura Mater c. CSF d. Pia Mater 2. What branch of the spinal nerve feeds into the plexuses a. Meningeal b. Posterior c. Anterior d. Rami communicante e. Anterior & Posterior 3. Where is CSF found a. Epidural space b. Arachnoid space c. Subdural space d. Subarachnoid space 4. What structure anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx a. Denticulate ligaments b. Conus medularis c. Filum terminale d. Cauda equine 5. The falx cerebri lies in the a. Hemispheric fissure b. Central sulcus c. Longitudinal fissure d. Central fissure 6. True or False: The perineurium is a continuation of the dura mater 7. What is a ganglion a. A collection of cell bodies in the CNS b. A collection of cell bodies in the PNS c. A collection of axons in the PNS d. A collection of axons in the CNS 8. Flexor digitorum superficialis, pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis are supplied by which nerve a. Ulnar b. Musculocutaneous c. Radial d. Median e. Axillary 9. Injury to the radial nerve produces a. Numbness to the palmar surface of digist 1,2,3, & lateral half of 4 b. Waiter’s tip position c. Clawhand d. Wrist drop e. A & D 10. Obturator nerve supplies a. Adductors of the hip b. Flexors of the hip c. Extensors of the knee d. Extensors of the hip 11. Femoral nerve supplies a. Adductors of the hip b. Flexors of the hip c. Extensors of the knee d. Extensors of the hip 12. Erb-Duchenne palsy presents with a. Loss of sensation to the hand b. Ulnar claw hand c. Waiter’s tip position d. Flexor synergy of the upper extremity 13. What are the branches of the Sciatic nerve a. Tibial & common femoral nerve b. Obturator & femoral nerve c. Tibial & common fibular nerve d. Superficial femoral and deep femoral nerve 14. What dermatome supplies the middle finger a. C5 b. C6 c. C7 d. C8 15. What receptor monitors the tension held in a muscle a. Muscle spindle b. Ruffini corpuscle c. GTO d. Proprioceptor 16. The Mesencephalon develops into what structure(s) a. Cerebellum b. Pons c. Aquaduct of the midbrain d. Medulla & lower part of 4th ventricle 17. What structure creates cerebral spinal fluid a. Arachnoid villi b. Subarachnoid space c. Dural venous sinuses d. Choroid plexus  e. Lateral ventricles 18. Where is the decussation of the pyramids a. Midbrain b. Pons c. Thalamus d. Medulla 19. Where are the nuclei for CN 5 a. Midbrain b. Pons c. Thalamus d. Medulla 20. Where is the substantia nigra found a. Midbrain b. Pons c. Thalamus d. Medulla 21. What controls Autonomic function a. Medulla b. Thalamus c. Hypothalamus d. It is auto-regulating 22. What structure is responsible for balance and coordination of movement a. Medulla b. Thalamus c. Hypothalamus d. Cerebellum e. Primary motor area and pre-frontal cortex 23. What nerve supplies the diaphragm? a. Cardiac accelerator nerve b. Vagus c. Phrenic d. 2nd Intercostal nerve 24. In a stretch reflex arc, the afferent nerve transmits the input from a. Merkel Disc b. Muscle spindle c. GTO d. Meissner corpuscle of touch 25. What structure forms the falx cerebelli a. Pia Mater b. Arachnoid Mater c. Dura Mater d. Dural venous sinuses 26. What structure makes the cerebral spinal fluid a. Choroid plexus b. Arachnoid villi c. Dural venous sinuses  d. Arachnoid granulation 27. The blood brain barrier is formed by a. Thick basement membrane b. Astrocytes c. Tight junctions d. All of the above 28. Which of the following structures are found in the diencephalon a. Substantia Nigra, Thalamus, Pituitary gland b. Red Nucleus, Hypothalamus, Epithalamus c. Epithalamus, Thalamus, Cerebellum d. Third Ventricle, Thalamus, Epithalamus 29. Effectors of the autonomic nervous system include a. Brain b. Spinal cord c. Cardiac muscle d. Skeletal muscle e. C & D 30. The part of the nervous system that is considered voluntary is the a. Sympathetic nervous system b. Parasympathetic nervous system c. Somatic nervous system d. Enteric nervous system e. Central nervous system 31. Afferent nerves conduct nerve impulses from a. the central nervous system to effectors b. effectors to the central nervous system c. receptors to the central nervous system d. central nervous system to receptors e. one effector to another 32. Spinal nerves are considered mixed, which means that a. They contain both nerves and tracts b. They contain both grey and white matter c. They contain both afferent and efferent nerves d. They use multiple types of neurotransmitters e. A single nerve arises from multiple segments of the spinal cord 33. The part of the nerve that contains only afferent fibres is the a. Dorsal root b. Ventral root c. Dorsal ramus d. Ventral ramus e. Plexus 34. The spinal cord is continuous with the a. Occipital bone b. Dura mater c. Thalamus d. Medulla Oblongata  e. Coccyx 35. All of the following are examples of autonomic reflexes except a. Raising heart rate as blood pressure drops b. Contraction of smooth muscle in the wall of the gastrointestinal tract to push food along c. Secretions of hormones from the adrenal medulla during stress d. Contraction of the quadriceps femoris when the patellar tendon is stretched e. Dilation of blood vessels in the skin when body temperature increases 36. The cranial nerve that has a dermatome is the a. Optic b. Vagus c. Trigeminal d. Facial e. Glossopharengeal 37. The main relay centre that conducts information between the spinal cord and cerebrum is the a. Corpus callosum b. Cerebral peduncles c. Thalamus d. Insular cortex e. Cerebellum 38. The primary visual area and association visual areas of the cerebral cortex are located in the a. Frontal lobe b. Parietal lobe c. Temporal lobe d. Occipital lobe e. Insula 39. The primary somatosensory area of the cerebral cortex is located in the a. Frontal lobe b. Parietal lobe c. Temporal lobe d. Occipital lobe e. Insula 40. The primary motor area and higher cognitive function are associated with the a. Frontal lobe b. Parietal lobe c. Temporal lobe d. Occipital lobe e. Insula 41. Slowing heart rate and stimulating peristalsis in the GI tract are motor functions of cranial nerve a. V b. VII  c. VIII d. X e. XII 42. The cranial nerve that terminates in the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus is the a. Accessory nerve b. Trigeminal nerve c. Trochlear nerve d. Olfactory nerve e. Optic nerve 43. The primary somatosensory area of the cerebral cortex is located in the a. Thalamus b. Occipital lobe c. Postcentral gyrus d. Precentral gyrus e. Hippocampus 44. In the autonomic nervous system, all preganglionic neurons release the neurotransmitter a. Acetylcholine b. Norepinephrine c. Seritonin d. Dopamine e. Epinepherine 45. Terminal ganglia are where a. The cell bodies for parasympathetic preganglionic fibres synapse with sympathetic fibres b. Parasympathetic preganglionic fibres synapse with parasympathetic postganglionic fibres c. The cell bodies of sensory neurons are located d. Symphathetic preganglionic fibres synapse with sympathetic postganglionic fibres e. Symphathetic preganglionic fibres synapse with parasympathetic postganglionic fibres 46. Most autonomic sensory neurons are associated with a. Interoreceptors b. Exteroreceptors c. Proprioceptors d. Somatic efferent neurons e. Special senses 47. An adrenergic neuron produces the neurotransmitter a. Serotonin b. GABA c. Norepinephrine d. Acetylcholine e. Glycine 48. The principal active ingredient in tobacco is nicotine. You might expect smoking to enhance the effects of: a. Acetylcholine of parasympathetic visceral effectors b. Acetylcholine of any postganglionic neuron c. Norepinephrine on the heart and blood vessels d. Norepinephrine on most sympathetic effectors 49. The lumbar region of the spinal cord is the location of cell bodies of a. Parasympathetic preganglionic fibres b. Parasympathetic postganglionic fibres c. Sympathetic preganglionic fibres d. Sympathetic postganglionic fibres e. A & C 50. The limbic system a. Controls the ANS b. Is the emotional brain c. Is found primarily in the brain stem and spinal cord 51. Which of the following are found in the celiac ganglion a. Cell bodies of symphathetic preganglionic fibres b. Cell bodies of symphathetic postganglionic fibres c. Cell bodies of parasymphathetic preganglionic fibres d. Cell bodies of parasymphathetic postganglionic fibres e. B & D 52. Which of the following are found in the otic ganglion a. Cell bodies of symphathetic preganglionic fibres b. Cell bodies of symphathetic postganglionic fibres c. Cell bodies of parasymphathetic preganglionic fibres d. Cell bodies of parasymphathetic postganglionic fibres e. B & D 53. What structure separates right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum a. Central sulcus b. Cerebral fissure c. Longitudinal fissure d. Hemispheral sulcus 54. The corpus callosum is an example of a a. Association tract b. Commissural tract c. Projection tract d. Thalamic tract 55. Nearly 80% of the total craniosacral outflow is carried by the vagus nerve a. True b. False 56. Which of the following are sympathetic responses a. Contraction of circular muscle of the eye b. Contraction of the radiate muscle of the eye c. Production of saliva d. Cessation of sweat production 57. Cranial nerve I ends in a. Olfactory epithelium b. Retina c. Primary olfactory area d. Primary visual area 58. The optic chiasm is a. Located above the pituitary gland b. Where all the axons from each retina cross to the contralateral side c. Found on the pathway of Cranial nerve I d. Where all the axons from the extrinsic muscles of the eye cross to the contralateral side 59. Shifting the gaze of your eyes to the left involves cranial nerves a. IV, VI b. IV c. IV, III d. VI e. III, IV, VI 60. What cranial nerve supplies the tongue with temperature sensation a. V b. VII c. IX d. V, VII e. V, VII, IX 61. Which cranial nerve supplies movement to the jaw a. Opthalimic branch of CN V b. Maxillary branch of CN V c. Mandibular branch of CN V d. Hypoglossal Nerve 62. CN VIII supplies a. Motor b. Sensory c. Motor & Sensory d. Sensory & Autonomic 63. CN IX is the _________________ nerve a. Glossopharengeal b. Hypoglossal c. Vagus d. Accessory 64. Which ganglion is associated with the prevertebral ganglia of the parasympathetic nervous system a. Ciliary b. Otic c. Submandibular d. Superior cervical e. None of the above 65. Bell’s Palsy involves which cranial nerve(s)  a. V b. VII c. IX d. X 66. Salivation is a _________________________ response. a. Parasympathetic b. Sympathetic 67. Dilation of the pupils is a _________________________ response. a. Parasympathetic b. Sympathetic 68. Bronchodilation is a _________________________ response. a. Parasympathetic b. Sympathetic 69. Digestion is a _________________________ response. a. Parasympathetic b. Sympathetic 70. Lacrimation is a _________________________ response. a. Parasympathetic b. Sympathetic 71. Contraction of the arrector pilli muscles is a _________________________ response. a. Parasympathetic b. Sympathetic 72. Dilation of blood vessels to the liver is a _________________________ response. a. Parasympathetic b. Sympathetic 73. True or False: Charcot-Marie Tooth disease involves motor and sensory changes, usually initially affecting the femoral nerve 74. True or False: Guillain-Barre Syndrome is a slowly-progressing disorder that affects motor and sensory nerves as a result of antibody-mediated demylenation. 75. True or False: Post-polio affects motor nerves and can develop in sites that were not originally affected by the polio virus. 76. True or False: The onset of symptoms for Myasthenia Gravis usually start in the ocular muscles (muscles of the eye).