Previous Board Exam Questions PDF

PREVIOUS BOARD EXAm QUESTIONS 350 QUESTIONS 1. What is now an emerging place of care for terminally Ill patients and people needing palliative care measures? A. Hospital Based Rehabilitation System B. Hospice Care C. Wellness Clinic D. Community Based Rehabilitation System 2. This form of Health Insurance provides comprehensive prepaid health services to enrollees for a fixed periodic payment. A. Health Maintenance Organization B. Medicare C. Philippine Health Insurance Act D. Hospital Maintenance Organization 3. It covers all citizen of the Republic of the Philippines In a Compulsory program to adopt an integrated and comprehensive approach to health development which shall endeavor to make essential goods, health and other social services available to all the people at affordable cost. A. Medicare B. National health insurance Act of 1995 C. Philippine Medicare Act D. Health Care Delivery System 4. Which of the following is frequently overlooked by Nurses in caring for the patients in the hospital? A. Treatment B. Rehabilitation C. Health Protection D. Health Promotion 5. A form of primary prevention established in the hospital to render high quality health promotion and increase the level of health in the community by promoting health and preventing illnesses. A. Hospital Based Rehabilitation System B. Hospice Care C. Out Patient Department D. Wellness Centers 6. Which form of Social relationship will least likely create a feeling of apprehension and anxiety when talking about interpersonal subjects and topics? A. Intimate B. Social C. Professional D. Personal 7. It is not a legally binding document but nevertheless, Very important in caring for the patients. A. BON Resolution No. 220 Series of 2002 B. Patient’s Bill of Rights C. Nurse’s Code of Ethics D. Philippine Nursing Act of 2002 8. Edna, 46 years old female is seen at the OPD for chromosomal and genetic analysis. The nurse knows that Phenotype is: A. The number of chromosomes of Edna which is 46 XX B. The Totality of the Appearance and Behavior influenced by her Genetic constitution C. The Behavior and Attitude of Edna as influence by the environment D. The Behavior and Attitude of Edna as influence by her genes 9. Aling Edna wants to know and trace her genetic predecessors, To help Aling Edna trace her forefathers, their sex and genetic influences as well as medical histories, You will provide her with : A. Pedigree B. Pentagram C. Genogram D. Family Tree 10. Mang Carlos has been terminally ill for 5 years. He asked his wife to decide for him when he is no longer capable to do so. As a Nurse, You know that this is called: A. Last will and testament B. DNR C. Living will D. Durable Power of Attorney 11. Mang Carlos has a standing DNR order. He then suddenly stopped breathing and you are at his bedside. You would: A. Give extraordinary measures to save Mang Carlos B. Stay with Mang Carlos and Do nothing C. Call the physician D. Activate Code Blue 12. In the Medical and Nursing parlance. A Code means: A. A secret language B. A need for CPR C. Admission of a toxic patient D. A need for post mortem care 13. All other things that influences communication aside from the Setting, sender, the channel and the receiver is called A. Ambiance B. Feedback C. Context D. Meta Communication 14. To know that the communication has been effective, The sender should receive a/an: A. Message B. Feedback C. Summary D. Evaluation 15. DSJ R.N is talking with the patient. He then holds the patient’s hand and lays his other hand on the patient’s shoulder. Which element of communication did he use? A. Message B. Channel C. Sender D. Feedback 16. As a Nurse Manager, DSJ enjoys his staff of talented and self motivated individuals. He knew that the leadership style to suit the needs of this kind of people is called: A. Autocratic B. Participative C. Democratic D. Laissez Faire 17. A fire has broken in the unit of DSJ R.N. The best leadership style suited in cases of emergencies like this is: A. Autocratic B. Participative C. Democratic D. Laissez Faire 18. An argument has broken in your ward. As a nurse manager in that ward, how would you best approach this kind of occurrence? A. Talk to one of the party and then the other to listen to their concerns B. Call a staff meeting C. Tell both party to work ways together in solving their problems D. Report this incident to the Nurse supervisor in charged of the unit 19. Who among these hospital personnel is responsible for managing and supervising the OR Unit? A. Surgeon B. Assistant surgeon C. OR Nurse supervisor D. Circulating nurse 20. You are a staff nurse in a private hospital and waiting for the report to be faxed by the Laboratory department. The Fax machine starts to print a message and you are surprised because you saw a pornographic material instead of the laboratory report. The best way to deal with this situation is to: A. Cut the picture and throw it on the garbage, Make no issue about it B. Notify the nurse supervisor of the occurrence C. Arrange a staff meeting to talk about the misbehavior of the Laboratory Department D. Find out who faxed this to you and reprimand him 21. Which step of the management process is concerned with Policy making and Stating the goals and objective of the institution? A. Planning B. Organizing C. Directing D. Controlling 22. In the management process, the periodic checking of the results of action to make sure that it coincides with the goal of the institution is termed as: A. Planning B. Evaluating C. Directing D. Organizing 23. The Vision of a certain agency is usually based on their beliefs, Ideals and Values that directs the organization. It gives the organization a sense of purpose. The belief, Ideals and Values of this Agency is called: A. Philosophy B. Mission C. Vision D. Goals and Objectives 24. Mr. CKK is unconscious and was brought to the E.R. Who among the following can give consent for CKK’s Operation? A. Doctor B. Nurse C. Next of Kin D. The Patient 25. Mr. CKK is now comatose after 5 days of hospital stay. If Mr. CKK’s Thumb mark was obtained as his signature, how should you consider this signature? A. It has no meaning B. It is a valid signature C. It is not a valid signature D. Verification is needed 26. Mr. BBB was diagnosed with Alzheimer ’s disease. He specified his wishes regarding health care decision because he fears that he will unable to make a decision due to the terminal state of his Disease. The nurse knows that this kind of advance directive is called: A. Durable Power Of Attorney B. A Will C. Last Will and Testament D. Living Will 27. JSJ, R.N Observed that her patient Linda is uncooperative. She is shouting and spitted her medication just after JSJ Administer it to her. She correctly Documents the following in the chart: A. Patient is Uncooperative when taking the medication B. Patient is Shouting and Spitted the Oral Medication C. Patient Do not like taking her medication D. Patient seems to be uncooperative, shouting and spitting the medications 28. Which of the following is a correctly stated nursing goal in a Nursing diagnosis of ALTERED NUTRITION: Less than Body requirements R/T Inadequate intake of potassium rich foods? A. After 30 minutes of health teaching, The client will name 3 Potassium rich foods B. After a day of health teaching, The client will be able to know all foods rich in potassium C. After an hour of nursing intervention, The Nurse will be able to educate the client about the need to eat potassium rich foods D. After a day of nursing intervention, The client will know why she needs to take potassium rich foods 29. A Patient was scheduled for radical mastectomy. The Nurse would be correct in identifying all the following members of the health team responsible for the post operative care of this patient except: A. Surgeon B. Dietician C. Nurse D. Pathologist 30. In any events of accidental removal of the tube in a 3 way bottle system, the best Nursing intervention is to: A. Reinsert the tube B. Clamp the tube C. Notify the physician D. Stay with the patient 31. In monitoring the patient in PACU, the nurse correctly identify that checking the patient’s vital signs is done every: A. 1 hour B. 5 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 30 minutes 32. BDK R.N is conducting a research on his unit about the effects of effective nurse- patient communication in decreasing anxiety of post operative patients. Which of the following step in nursing research should he do next? A. Review of related literature B. Ask permission from the hospital administrator C. Determine the research problem D. Formulate ways on collecting the data 33. Before BDK perform the formal research study, what do you call the pre testing, small scale trial run to determine the effectiveness of data collection and methodological problem that might be encountered? A. Sampling B. Pre testing C. Pre Study D. Pilot Study 34. On the study “effects of effective nurse-patient communication in decreasing anxiety of post operative patients” What is the Independent variable? A. Effective Nurse-patient communication B. Communication C. Decreasing Anxiety D. Post operative patient 35. On the study “effects of effective nurse-patient communication in decreasing anxiety of post operative patients” What is the Dependent variable? A. Effective Nurse-patient communication B. Communication C. Anxiety level D. Post operative patient 36. In the recent technological innovations, which of the following describe researches that are made to improve and make human life easier? A. Pure research B. Basic research C. Applied research D. Experimental research 37. Which of the following is not true about a Pure Experimental research? A. There is a control group B. There is an experimental group C. Selection of subjects in the control group is randomized D. There is a careful selection of subjects in the experimental group 38. On the study “effects of effective nurse-patient communication in decreasing anxiety of post operative patients”, which research design is best suited for this problem? A. Quasi Experimental B. Historical C. Descriptive D. Experimental 39. The first organ donation was performed by: A. Dr. Christiaan Barnard, South Africa B. Dr. Christiaan Barnard, U.S.A C. Dr. Christiaan Barnard, U.S.S.R D. Dr. Christiaan Barnard, England 40. Which of the following is a normal finding during assessment of a Chest tube in a 3 way bottle system? A. There is a continuous bubbling in the drainage bottle B. There is an intermittent bubbling in the suction control bottle C. The water fluctuates during inhalation of the patient D. There is 3 cm of water left in the water seal bottle 41. In obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity on a catheterized patient, the nurse is correct if: A. Clamp the catheter for 30 minutes, Alcoholize the tube above the clamp site, Obtain a sterile syringe and draw the specimen on the tube above the clamp B. Alcoholize the self sealing port, obtain a sterile syringe and draw the specimen on the self sealing port C. Disconnect the drainage bag, obtain a sterile syringe and draw the specimen from the drainage bag D. Disconnect the tube, obtain a sterile syringe and draw the specimen from the tube 42. Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention? A. Teaching the diabetic client on obtaining his blood sugar level using a glucometer B. Screening patients for hypertension C. Immunizing infants with BCG D. Providing PPD on a construction site 43. In teaching the sister of a diabetic client about the proper use of a glucometer in determining the blood sugar level of the client, The nurse is focusing in which domain of learning according to bloom? A. Cognitive B. Affective C. Psychomotor D. Affiliative 44. In an attempt to be a change agent of an Alcoholic client, Which of the following is the most important? A. Acknowledgement of the problem and how it negatively affects his life B. The ability to change his lifestyle and increase his level of wellness C. The client stated “I will stop drinking alcohol from now on” D. Financial capability and Support system 45. AIDS is a misunderstood disease that affects the life of some Filipinos. As a nurse, you recognize that the most common and painful problem experienced by people afflicted with this condition is related to the: A. Pain associated with this disease B. Financial concerns and Hospitalization needs C. Social Acceptance and Support from the family D. Impending death from opportunistic infection 46. The law which regulated the practice of nursing profession in the Philippines is: A. R.A 9173 B. LOI 949 C. Patient’s Bill of Rights D. Code of Ethics for Nurses 47. Which of the following best describes Primary Nursing? A. Is a form of assigning a nurse to lead a team of registered nurses in care of patient from admission to discharge B. A nurse is responsible in doing certain tasks for the patient C. A registered nurse is responsible for a group of patients from admission to discharge D. A registered nurse provides care for the patient with the assistant of nursing aides 48. The best and most effective method in times of staff and financial shortage is: A. Functional Method B. Primary Nursing C. Team Nursing D. Modular Method 49. The ideal number of patients suitable for Primary Nursing is: A. 1 patient B. 3 to 4 C. 10 to 12 D. 15 to 20 50. Which of the following describes an advantage of Primary Nursing? A. Provides continuity of care and Increase rapport and trust between the patient and the nurse B. The care given is fragmented, making the nursing interventions faster and easier C. The team leader develops accountability, increased autonomy and expertise in caring for clients with similar condition D. Primary Nursing provides an excellent way of increasing staffing cost 51. Why is there a need for secondary nurses in Primary nursing? A. They are responsible for the care of the patient when the primary nurse if off duty B. They report the progress of the client to the primary nurse C. They assist the primary nurse in doing nursing care and procedures D. They provide secondary level of prevention when primary level of prevention fails 52. This quality is being demonstrated by a Nurse who raise the side rails of a confuse and disoriented patient? A. Autonomy B. Responsibility C. Prudence D. Resourcefulness 53. Nurse Joel and Ana is helping a 16 year old Nursing Student in a case filed against the student. The case was frustrated homicide. Nurse Joel and Ana are aware of the different circumstances of crimes. They are correct in identifying which of the following Circumstances that will be best applied in this case? A. Justifying B. Aggravating C. Mitigating D. Exempting 54. In signing the consent form, the nurse is aware that what is being observed as an ethical consideration is the patient’s A. Autonomy B. Justice C. Accountability D. Beneficence 55. Why is there an ethical dilemma? A. Because the law do not clearly state what is right from what is wrong B. Because morality is subjective and it differs from each individual C. Because the patient’s right coincide with the nurse’s responsibility D. Because the nurse lacks ethical knowledge to determine what action is correct and what action is unethical 56. Who among the following can work as a practicing nurse in the Philippines without taking the Licensure examination? A. Internationally well known experts which services are for a fee B. Those that are hired by local hospitals in the country C. Expert nurse clinicians hired by prestigious hospitals D. Those involved in medical mission who’s services are for free 57. The nurse is correct in determining that a License is: A. A personal property B. Can be revoked by the Board of Nursing C. A Right D. Can be revoked by the PNA 58. In assessing the vital signs of the patient, What methods of physical assessment is being used? 1. Palpation 2. Auscultation 3. Percussion 4. Inspection A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,3,4 C. 1,2 D. 1,2,4 59. When raising the side rails of the bed of a client, all of the following are the purpose of that action except: A. To encourage client roll from side to side B. To prevent filling an incidence report C. To protect the patient from falls D. To immobilize the client 60. You are doing bed bath to the client when suddenly, The nursing assistant rushed to the room and tell you that the client from the other room was in Pain. The best intervention in such case is: A. Raise the side rails, cover the client and put the call bell within reach and then attend to the client in pain to give the PRN medication B. Tell the nursing assistant to give the pain medication to the client complaining of pain C. Tell the nursing assistant to go the client’s room and tell the client to wait D. Finish the bed bath quickly then rush to the client in Pain 61. Angie is a disoriented client who frequently falls from the bed. As her nurse, which of the following is the best nursing intervention to prevent future falls? A. Tell Angie not to get up from bed unassisted B. Put the call bell within her reach C. Put bedside commode at the bedside to prevent Angie from getting up D. Put the bed in the lowest position ever 62. When injecting subcutaneous injection in an obese patient, It should be angled at around: A. 45 ° B. 90 ° C. 180 ° D. Parallel to the skin 63. The following statements are all true about Z-Track technique except: A. Z track injection prevent irritation of the subcutaneous tissues B. The technique involve creating a Zig Zag like pattern of medication C. It forces the medication to be contained at the subcutaneous tissues D. It is used when administering Parenteral Iron 64. Endoscopic surgery is now gaining popularity not only as a diagnostic procedure but also, as a surgical procedure. There is now an increase need for collaboration in which of the following departments? A. Radiology Department B. Linen Department C. Surgical Department D. Dietary Department 65. Which of the following is not an accepted medical abbreviation? A. NPO B. PRN C. OD D. NON 66. Communication is best undertaken if barriers are first removed. Considering this statement, which of the following is considered as deterrent factor in communication? A. Not universally accepted abbreviations B. Wrong Grammar C. Poor Penmanship D. Old age of the client 67. Nurse JJ is correct in identifying the correct sequence of events during abdominal assessment if he identifies which of the following? A. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation B. Inspection, Percussion, Palpation, Auscultation C. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation D. Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation, Percussion 68. All of the following are instruction for proper foot care to be given to a client with peripheral vascular disease caused by Diabetes. Which is not? A. Trim nail using nail clipper B. Apply cornstarch to the foot C. Always check for the temperature of the water before bathing D. Use Canvas shoes 69. Richard is a subject of a research lead by his doctor. The nurse knows that all of the following is a correct understanding as his right as a research subject except: A. I can withdraw with this research even after the research has been started B. My confidentiality will not be compromised in this research C. I must choose another doctor if I withdrew from this research D. I can withdraw with this research before the research has been started 70. After the research study, it is best for the nurse to protect the subject’s anonymity by doing which of the following with regards to the personal data of the patient? A. Destroy data by burning it or using a shredder B. Keep the data in a secured place for 5 years C. Throw the data on the garbage D. Keep the data until the client’s death 71. A client was scheduled to have a surgically implanted external cardioverter device. The consent form was signed. Which of the following statement by the client warrants further intervention by the nurse? A. This device will stop all those bad arrhythmias from coming! B. This is connected to my heart by thin electrodes that travel through the veins C. I wonder if there is any good alternative than this D. This device is implanted under the skin, in my upper chest 72. Hospitals are nowadays encouraged, if not required to offer comprehensive health services to include illness prevention and health promotion. To implement this program, hospitals especially, government hospitals have already added in their services the following: A. Rehabilitation Centers B. Newborn Screening C. Wellness Centers D. Intensive Care Unit 73. Which of the following is a form of primary prevention? A. Regular Check ups B. Regular Screening C. Self Medication D. Immunization 74. An abnormal condition in which a person must sit, stand or use multiple pillows when lying down is: A. Orthopnea B. Dyspnea C. Eupnea D. Apnea 75. The component that should receive the highest priority before physical examination is the: A. Psychological preparation of the client B. Physical Preparation of the client C. Preparation of the Environment D. Preparation of the Equipments 76. Legally, Patients chart are: A. Owned by the government since it is a legal document B. Owned by the doctor in charge and should be kept from the administrator for whatever reason C. Owned by the hospital and should not be given to anyone who request it other than the doctor in charge D. Owned by the patient and should be given by the nurse to the client as requested 77. A written nursing care plan is a tool that: A. Check whether nursing care goals were achieved B. Gives quality nursing care C. Select the appropriate nursing intervention D. Make a nursing diagnosis 78. Gina, A client in prolong labor said she cannot go on anymore. The health care team decided that both the child and the mother cannot anymore endure the process. The baby is premature and has a little chance of surviving. Caesarian section is not possible because Gina already lost enough blood during labor and additional losses would tend to be fatal. The husband decided that Gina should survive and gave his consent to terminate the fetus. The principle that will be used by the health care team is: A. Beneficence B. Non malfeasance C. Justice D. Double effect 79. The nurse should be aware of the different crimes that are common in the nursing practice. Submitting fake RLE and school documents in order to take the nursing board examination is considered as: A. Perjury B. Falsification C. Misinterpretation D. Negligence 80. The best and simplest evidence that the hospital is giving high quality care to its patient is when: A. There are many patients in the hospital B. Patient goes to the hospital because of doctor’s recommendations C. Patient goes to the hospital out of referral from other patients D. Patient goes to the hospital because of referral from other doctors 81. In managing simple illnesses, Which among the following is being used by Nurses to come out with the optimal management and deciding whether or not the child needs urgent referral or home treatment? A. Tables and Bar graphs B. Gant Chart C. Flow sheet and Flow charts D. Integrated case management process 82. Breast self examination is an important tool in detecting early stages of Breast Cancer. What is being checked when doing BSE? A. Thickness and Lumps B. Malignant or Benign Tumors C. Calcification of Breast D. Cancerous Lesions 83. The nurse puts a folded towel under the Left shoulder of the Client to be examined for clinical BSE. Why is this so? A. To make the left shoulder nearer to the hands of the clinician for palpation B. To make the pectoralis muscle prominent, toning the breast tissue for better palpation C. To put the breast in a more lateral position to better ease the palpation D. To balance the breast in the client’s chest to better eases the palpation 84. Anita is performing BSE and she stands in front of the Mirror. The rationale for standing in front of the mirror is to check for: A. Unusual discharges coming out from the breast B. Any obvious malignancy C. The Size and Contour of the breast D. Thickness and lumps in the breast 85. An emerging technique in screening for Breast Cancer in developing countries like the Philippines is: A. Mammography once a year starting at the age of 50 B. Clinical BSE Once a year C. BSE Once a month D. Pap smear starting at the age of 18 or earlier if sexually active 86. The most common complication associated post op mastectomy is: A. Hemorrhage B. Lymphedema C. Self esteem disturbance D. Pain 87. Post op mastectomy, The nurse would do the following to prevent unnecessary injury to the Arm of the client except: A. BP taking from the affected arm B. No IM Injection to the affected arm C. Elevating the affected arm D. Preventing trauma and injury to the affected arm 88. Prior to ultrasonography, which of the following is a correct instruction to your patient? A. Ask the patient to void prior to the procedure B. Ask the client to drink a full glass of water every 15 minutes for an hour and a half C. Tell the client the a towel will be placed at her left buttock D. A slight discomfort might be felt as the transducer is placed on her abdomen 89. Integrated management for childhood illness is the universal protocol of care endorsed by WHO and is use by different countries of the world including the Philippines. In any case that the nurse classifies the child and categorized the signs and symptoms in PINK category, You know that this means: A. Urgent referral B. Antibiotic Management C. Home treatment D. Out patient treatment facility is needed 90. You know that fast breathing of a child age 13 months is observed if the RR is more than: A. 40 B. 50 C. 60 D. 30 91. Angelo, An 8 month old child is brought to the health care facility with sunken eyes. You pinch his skin and it goes back very slowly. In what classification of dehydration will you categorize Angelo? A. No Dehydration B. Some Dehydration C. Severe Dehydration D. Diarrhea 92. All of the following are treatment for a child classified with no dehydration except: A. 1,000 ml to 1,400 ml be given within 4 hours B. Continue feeding C. Have the child takes as much fluid as he wants D. Return the child to the doctor if condition worsens 93. An ear infection that persists but still less than 14 days is classified as: A. Mastoiditis B. Chronic Ear Infection C. Acute Ear Infection D. Otitis Media 94. Which Among the following is an immunization given to a 6 week old child? A. Tetanus toxoid B. OPV C. BCG D. MMR 95. In a child classified as having NO DEHYDRATION, which among the following should not be given as a fluid for the child? A. Tea that the child usually drinks B. Plain water C. “AM” D. Coconut Juice and Fruit Juices 96. Why is bleeding in the leg of a pregnant woman considered as an emergency? A. Blood volume is greater in pregnant woman; therefore, blood loss is increased B. There is an increase blood pressure during pregnancy increasing the likelihood of hemorrhage C. Pregnant woman are anemic, all forms of blood loss should be considered as an emergency especially if it is in the lower extremity D. The pressure of the gravid uterus will exert additional force thus, increasing the blood loss in the lower extremities 97. Aling Maria, age 35 is a premenopausal woman. In teaching premenopausal woman about breast self examination, you will instruct her to perform monthly BSE: A. After Menstruation B. First day of menstruation C. Last day of menstruation D. During Menstruation 98. Aling Maria is nearing menopause. She is habitually taking cola and coffee for the past 20 years. You should tell Aling Maria to avoid taking caffeinated beverages because: A. It is stimulating B. It will cause nervousness and insomnia C. It will contribute to additional bone demineralization D. It will cause tachycardia and arrhythmias 99. All of the following are contraindication when giving Immunization except: A. BCG Vaccines can be given to a child with AIDS B. BCG Vaccine can be given to a child with Hepatitis B C. DPT Can be given to a child that had convulsion 3 days after being given the first DPT Dose D. DPT Can be given to a child with active convulsion or other neurological disease 100. A child has a temperature of 38.5 °C, Has fast breathing, Not feeding well and his neck is stiff. How would you categorize this child using IMCI? A. Very Severe Febrile Disease B. Severe Pneumonia C. Very Severe Disease D. Malaria 101. If a child has two or more pink signs, you would classify the child as having: A. No disease B. Mild form of disease C. Urgent Referral D. Very severe disease 102. The nurse knows that the most common complication of Measles is: A Pneumonia and larynigotracheitis B. Encephalitis C. Otitis Media D. Bronchiectasis 103. Measles vaccine is given at how many months? A. At birth B. 1 ½ months C. 6 months D. 9 months 104. All of the following are necessary household management in preventing the spread of Measles at home except: A. Boil foods that are not eaten by the patient B. Separate eating utensils of the patient from that of other members of the family C. Isolate the patient when symptoms start to appear D. Children should be watch out for complications of the disease 105. The nurse should have a basic background of clinical pelvimetry. Which among the following is considered as an adequate pelvis? A. Ischial tuberosity is equal to 11 cm B. The true conjugate is twice that size of the diagonal conjugate C. Ischial tuberosity is equal to 3 cm D. Diagonal conjugate is twice the size of the true conjugate 106. Mrs. CBL Is at 13th week gestation and was scheduled for Amniocentesis. The nurse is correct when she tells Mrs. CBL to do what before the procedure? A. Ask Mrs. CBL to position on her Left side B. Tell Mrs. CBL that she will feel a sensation of pain as the needle is inserted C. Ask Mrs. CBL to breath deeply during needle insertion D. Tell Mrs. CBL that she should void prior to the procedure 107. Correct and early discipline is necessary for every child. You would recognize the early discipline is best started at what age of development? A. Infancy B. Toddler C. School D. Adolescence 108. A client scheduled for hysterosalpingography needs health teaching before the procedure. The nurse is correct in telling the patient that: A. She needs to void prior to the procedure B. A full bladder is needed prior to the procedure C. Painful sensation is felt as the needle is inserted D. Flushing sensation is felt as the dye in injected 109. In a population of 9,500. What is your estimate of the population of pregnant woman needing tetanus toxoid vaccination? A. 632.5 B. 512.5 C. 450.5 D. 332.5 110. All of the following are seen in a child with measles. Which one is not? A. Reddened eyes B. Coryza C. Pustule D. Cough 111. Mobilizing the people to become aware of their own problem and to do actions to solve it is called: A. Community Organizing B. Family Nursing Care Plan C. Nursing Intervention D. Nursing Process 112. Prevention of work related accidents in factories and industries are responsibilities of which field of nursing? A. School health nursing B. Private duty nursing C. Occupational health nursing D. Institutional nursing 113. Karen has come to the health center. She inquired about BSE and asked you when BSE should be performed. You answered her that BSE Is best performed: A. 7 days after menstruation B. At the same day each month C. During menstruation D. Before menstruation 114. The normal amount of blood loss after a caesarian section is estimated to be: A. 300-500 cc B. 700-1000 cc C. 100-200 cc D. 1500-2000 cc 115. The WHO stated the breastfeeding should be started within 30 minutes after normal birth. The nurse is observing the mother during breastfeeding. Which of the following observation shows that the baby latched optimally? A. The baby’s lower lip is turned inward and the lower portion of the areola is more covered than the upper portion B. The baby’s lower lip is turned outward and portion of the lower areola is more covered than the upper portion C. The baby’s lower lip is turned outward and portion of the upper areola is more covered than the lower portion D. The baby’s lower lip is turned inward and the upper portion of the areola is more covered than the lower portion 116. The child with pneumonia is scheduled for measles vaccine but his mother refuses additional vaccination. The mother said that her child is sick and might not tolerate any additional vaccines that the nurse will give. Which of the following statement is correct for the nurse to advice the mother? A. Illness such as this is not contraindicated in getting the vaccine B. The child will recover faster if he will be given the vaccine C. The child will be more prone to illness if vaccines will not be given as scheduled D. It is best if the child will come back after the illness subsides 117. Breast milk, unlike ordinary milk contains which of the following? A. It contains more nutrients than ordinary milk B. It has a higher protein, fat and carbohydrate content than ordinary milk C. It contains antigens that boost the child’s immune system D. It has maternal antibodies that protects the child from illnesses for a period of time 118. In a client with pre eclampsia, what medication will you expect to be given to depress the CNS and avoid convulsions? A. Dilantin B. Tegretol C. Magnesium Sulfate D. Oxytocin 119. Water intoxication associated with Oxytocin over administration and is exhibited by which of the following as its early signs and symptoms? A. Confusion, Disorientation, Memory loss B. Edema, Crackles, Dyspnea C. Chills, Fever, Sweating D. Headache, Dizziness, Nausea 120. Bleeding is the most common complication after delivery and is the third most common cause of maternal death in the Philippines. Which of the following is inserted in the patient’s vagina to provide hemostasis? A. Tampon B. Vaginal Packing C. Sanitary Napkin D. Vaginal Lining 121. According to Erikson, The psychosocial task of a toddler is: A. Industry VS Inferiority B. Autonomy VS Shame and Doubt C. Initiative VS Guild D. Trust VS Mistrust 122. The school age child is at the correct psychosocial task as he learns to develop which of the following? A. Try new things B. Create things C. Develop Independence D. Start new things 123. The parent of a child can best teach the child proper manners and conduct by: A. Modeling B. Schooling C. Religious teaching D. Positive reinforcement 124. Nursing care during pregnancy focuses on the: A. Good outlook of puerperium care B. Healthy adaptation to pregnancy C. Diet to avoid excessive weight gain D. Safe delivery of the baby 125. If the mother complains of not having enough milk for the baby, the best nursing intervention is to: A. Tell the mother to use breast pump B. Have the baby suck more often C. Switch to formula feeding D. Tell the mother to drink plenty of fluids and eat green leafy vegetables 126. In your home visit, you saw Joel, a 5 year old child having diarrhea with fever. Has sunken eyes and is very thirsty. Your best advice to Joel’s mother is: A. Take the child to the health center B. Give child fluids to prevent further dehydration C. Activate PLAN B of IMCI D. Let the child continue drinking and eating 127. You will classify Joel as child letter: A. A : No dehydration B. B : Some dehydration C. C : Severe dehydration D. D : Urgent referral 128. In one of your home visit to Mr. JUN, you found out that his son is sick with cholera. There is a great possibility that other member of the family will also get cholera. This possibility is a/an: A. Foreseeable crisis B. Health threat C. Health deficit D. Crisis 129. Pain in HIV patients is not brought about by the disease itself but rather: A. The apathetic view of the society towards HIV patients B. The hatred and ridicule of the society towards HIV patients C. The feeling of being rejected by the society D. The feeling of being withdrawn from the society 130. When the husband touches the wife during labor and rubs the painful area, it promotes comfort to a laboring client. How does touch and rubbing promote comfort in a laboring client? A. It Distracts the wife from painful stimuli B. Pain perception is interrupted C. Pain is redirected D. Large fibers are open 131. A pregnant client on her 1st month of pregnancy calls the hospital complaining painless vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the best intervention to tell the client? A. Tell her to go the to nearest hospital B. Calm her down and tell her to lie down C. Ask her to save the sanitary napkins soiled with blood for examination D. Ask if there is somebody else in the house 132. After pelvic surgery, the sign what would be indicative of a developing Thrombophlebitis would be: A. Pitting edema on the ankle B. Pruritus on the calf and thigh C. A reddened area in the ankle D. A tender, painful area on the leg 133. Mr. DDK was diagnosed with Bell’s palsy. As his nurse, you are about to give Mr. DDK the correct health teaching. Which among the following should you include? A. The eye is at greater risk for injury because the lower eyelid fails to close B. There will be drooling associated with increase salivation C. You should avoid drafts that will precipitate painful attacks D. There will be increase taste sensation that is why spicy and salty foods are not allowed 134. In addition to an individual who has type I diabetes, the nurse is aware that acute hypoglycemia can also develop in the client who is diagnosed with: A. Liver disease B. Hypertension C. Type 2 Diabetes D. Hyperthyroidism 135. A difficult problem for the nurse to deal with when caring for a client with deep partial thickness burn sustained 3 days ago is: A. Severe pain B. Maintenance of sterility C. Alteration in body image D. Frequent dressing change 136. In a client diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism, what instruction should you give the client? A. Go out and absorb the Vitamin D in the sun B. Eat foods rich in Vitamin D C. Supplement your diet with foods high in calcium D. Limit yogurt, sardines and taho from your diet 137. In performing a cleansing enema, the nurse performs the procedure by positioning the client in: A. Right lateral position B. Left lateral position C. Right sim’s position D. Left sim’s position 138. Mang Caloy is scheduled to have a hemorrhoidectomy, after the operation, you would expect that the client’s position post operatively will be: A. Knee chest position B. Side lying position C. Sims position D. Genopectoral position 139. You would expect that after an abdominal perineal resection, the type of colostomy that will be use is? A. Double barrel colostomy B. Temporary colostomy C. Permanent colostomy D. An Ileostomy 140. You are an ostomy nurse and you know that colostomy is defined as: A. It is an incision into the colon to create an artificial opening to the exterior of the abdomen B. It is end to end anastomosis of the gastric stump to the duodenum C. It is end to end anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum D. It is an incision into the ileum to create an artificial opening to the exterior of the abdomen 141. Mrs. VSJ, Was rushed to the E.R due to severe flank pain. Her urine output was collected and is only 180 cc in 6 hours. The doctor suspects renal colic. Your priority nursing diagnosis for Mrs. VSJ is: A. Impaired urinary elimination B. Altered nutrition less than body requirements C. Fluid volume deficit D. Pain 142. Which of the following characteristic of urine is not normal? A. RBC 10-15 / hpf B. Turbid C. Amber D. PH 6.0 143. Mr. DIN was diagnosed with Pyelonephritis. Which assessment question will you asked Mr. DIN to further confirm the diagnosis? A. Do you have a frequent sore throat infection? B. Do you usually delay your voiding? C. Are you eating too much sodium in your diet? D. Did recently had a skin infection? 144. A client with chronic renal failure is undergoing dialysis. You taught him to limit his sodium intake and you told him about the use of Salt substitute. You correctly explained to him that: A. Never use salt substitutes because some of them contain potassium and it could cause fatal arrhythmias and asystole B. Never use salt substitutes because it contains higher amount of sodium and might contribute to your edema C. Salt substitute is only taken if the Sodium intake exceeded the limit D. Salt substitutes is recommended than the usual table salt because it contains less sodium that might contribute to hypertension and water retention to the patient with chronic renal failure 145. The nurse knew that Phenylephrine used as an eye drop will cause what effect on the Client’s eye? A. Miosis B. Decongestion C. Mydriasis D. Vasodilation 146. Among the following, Which is a symptom of Glaucoma? A. Blurring of vision B. Curtains in the field of vision C. Halo around lights D. Floating spots 147. An external insulin pump was prescribed for a client with Diabetes Milletus. The client asked the nurse about the functioning of the pump. The nurse based the response that the pump: A. Continuously infuses small amount of NPH Insulin into the bloodstream while regularly monitoring blood glucose level B. Is surgically attached to the pancreas and infuses regular insulin into the pancreas which in turn releases the insulin into the blood stream C. Is timed to release programmed doses of Regular or NPH Insulin into the blood stream at specific intervals D. Gives a small continuous dose of regular insulin subcutaneously and the client can self bolus with an additional dosage from the pump prior to each meal 148. Among the following, what is the most important nursing consideration prior to Physical Assessment? A. Physical preparation of the client B. Psychological preparation of the client C. The preparation of the room D. Preparation of equipments that will be use 149. The doctor ordered bed rest on a client with edema of the leg and ankle. Which of the following accessory device should the nurse integrate planning care for this patient? A. Footboard B. Rolled pillows C. Sand Bag D. Cradle Bed 150. Fires are approached using the mnemonic RACE, in which, R stands for: A. Run B. Race C. Rescue D. Remove 151. Mang Edgardo has a chest tube inserted in place after a Lobectomy. The nurse knows that that Chest tube after this procedure will: A. Prevents mediastinal shift B. Promote chest expansion of the remaining lung C. Drain fluids and blood accumulated post operatively D. Remove the air in the lungs to promote lung expansion 152. After Lobectomy, Mang Edgardo is placed at: A. Affected Side B. Unaffected Side C. Left lateral position D. Right lateral position 153. Extra care should be given when suctioning a patient after Pneumonectomy. The rationale behind this is that: A. Suctioning could place undue strain on the bronchial stump suture B. The patient will no longer have the ability to cough out the secretions C. The remaining lung will not be able to compensate for the oxygen being drawn by the suction D. Suctioning could cause perforation on the remaining functioning lung 154. A client was rushed in the E.R showing a whitish, leathery and painless burned area on his skin. The nurse is correct in classifying this burn as: A. First degree burn B. Second degree burn C. Third degree burn D. Partial thickness burn 155. During the Acute phase of burn, the priority nursing intervention in caring for this client is: A. Prevention of infection B. Pain management C. Prevention of Bleeding D. Fluid Resuscitation 156. The nurse knows that the most fatal electrolyte imbalance in burned client during the Emergent phase of burn is: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypernatremia D. Hyponatremia 157. Hypokalemia is reflected in the ECG by which of the following? A. Tall T waves B. Widening QRS Complex C. Pathologic Q wave D. U wave 158. Pain medications given to the burn clients are best given via what route? A. IV B. IM C. Oral D. SQ 159. Knowledge of the pathophysiology of burn is essential in caring for a burned client. The nurse knows the during the Emergent phase of burn, The movement of fluids is: A. From the Intracellular space going to the extracellular space B. From the Interstitial space going to the intravascular space C. From the Extracellular space going to the intracellular space D. From the Intravascular space going to the interstitial space 160. The nurse is aware that in Emergent phase of burn, The most common cause of death is usually due to: A. Bleeding B. Burn Shock C. Infection D. Myocardial Infarction 161. Mrs. Reyes was admitted in the OPD. In assessing Mrs. Reyes, You noticed that she has dark colored urine. She was admitted and reportedly taken 900 cc and the output was 700 cc. The nurse is correct in identifying what Nursing diagnosis for Mrs. Reyes? A. Fluid volume deficit B. Impaired urinary elimination C. Fluid and electrolyte disturbance D. Fluid volume excess 162. The WHO Pain ladder provides effective management for cancer pains. The approach in this management generally considers: A. Appropriate medication depending on the severity of pain B. Appropriate medication depending on the level of pain C. On demand schedule of pain relief D. A 4 Step procedure to administer drug at the right dose and at the right time 163. Which of the following is a not a non pharmacological nursing intervention in relieving the pain of a client? A. Distraction B. Guided Imagery C. Biofeedback D. Herbal Plants 164. Adjuvant therapy is given together with the mainstream pain management therapy for cancer pains. The nurse is correct in stating that Adjuvant therapies: A. Work with the mainstay pain management treatment to enhance its effects B. Decrease the necessary dose of the opioids given to prevent addiction C. Are weaker, non opioid drugs that work together with the opioids drug to enhance its effects D. Are non pharmacological intervention used together with pharmacologic interventions 165. What is the most essential factor to consider in choosing a non pharmacologic method of pain relief? A. Cost of the therapy and the Client’s financial capabilities B. Skills of the Nurse C. Effectiveness of the therapy to the individual patient D. Patient’s preference 166. Morphine is not given in pancreatitis as this drug has been proven to: A. Increase release of pancreatic enzymes leading to increase auto digestion B. Cause spasms of the sphincter of Oddi causing more pain C. Be not as effective as Meperidine in alleviating pain in pancreatitis D. Exert no effects because the enzymes necessary to metabolize Morphine is solely produce by the pancreas 167. A female client was diagnosed to have renal stone and the doctor ordered catheterization via an indwelling urinary catheter. To prevent urethral irritation, It is best to tape the catheter at which of the following site? A. Upper thigh B. Lower thigh C. Inner thigh D. Abdomen 168. The doctor orders a drug to decrease the gastric acid secretion in patients with Peptic ulcer diseases. Which drugs will the nurse expect? A. Zantac and Tagamet B. Magnesium and Aluminum hydroxide C. Sucralfate and Ranitidine D. Calcium and Lithium carbonate 169. 24 Hours after creation of colostomy, Nurse Violy is correct if she identify that the normal appearance of the stoma is : A. Pink, moist and slightly protruding from the abdomen B. Gray, moist and slightly protruding from the the abdomen C. Pink, dry and slightly protruding from the abdomen D. Red, moist and slightly protruding from the abdomen 170. In cleaning the stoma, the nurse would use which of the following cleaning mediums? A. Hydrogen Peroxide, water and mild soap B. Providone Iodine, water and mild soap C. Alcohol, water and mild soap D. Mild soap and water 171. Which of the following is a sign that the nurse could observe in acute transplant rejection in patient after kidney transplant? A. Polyuria B. Fever and chills C. Weight loss D. Rising BUN and Creatinine more than 20% 172. Which among the following drugs decreases the secretion of HCl in patients with peptic ulcer disease? A. Sucralfate and Ranitidine B. Aluminum Hydroxide and Magnesium Hydroxide C. Zantac and Tagamet D. Zofran and Reglan 173. Among the following, the patient with glaucoma would most likely manifest: A. Halos around light B. Blurring of vision C. Curtains in the visual field D. Floaters 174. Mr. CPL, A stroke survivor asked Nurse Ella about the pathophysiology of CVA. The nurse knows that Cerebrovascular Accident occurs as a result of: A. An infarct that causes cessation of blood supply to a portion of the brain B. A rupture of a dilated portion of the cerebral vessel causing an acute hemorrhage C. Sudden and temporary ischemia that leaves no neurologic deficit D. Bleeding in the brain related to accidents that leaves neurologic deficit such as aphasia 175. Nurse Ella also knows that the most common type of Ischemic stroke is related to: A. Thrombus B. Embolus C. Hemorrhage D. Fat 176. The degree of affectation in patients post CVA varies depending on many factors. All but one of the following determines the residual neurologic deficit after CVA which is: A. Age of the patient B. Sex of the patient C. Degree of collateral circulation D. The portion of the brain that is affected 177. The nurse is aware that CVA attacks are all considered as emergency. Vital measures are implemented as soon as possible. Time is of the essence because: A. Damage due to Cerebrovascular accidents causes permanent neurologic deficit B. Sign and symptoms are vague and might delay the necessary treatment C. Death is imminent if Cerebrovascular accident is not treated within 24 hours D. Absence of oxygen in the brain for 3 minutes or more causes irreversible brain damage 178. All of the following are Non communicable diseases influenced by lifestyle except: A. Hypertension B. Diabetes C. Osteoporosis D. Cancer 179. Your are making rounds in the hospital when suddenly you found Aling Karla on the floor. She is bleeding from an injury sustained from the fall. Your priority assessment for Aling Karla would be: A. Airway B. Breathing C. Circulation D. Location of bleeding 180. Miss Kate is a bread vendor and you are buying a bread from her. You noticed that she receives and changes money and then hold the bread without washing her hand. As a nurse, What will you say to Miss Kate? A. Miss, Don’t touch the bread I’ll be the one to pick it up B. Miss, Please wash your hands before you pick up those breads C. Miss, Use a pick up forceps when picking up those breads D. Miss, Your hands are dirty I guess I’ll try another bread shop 181. The Causative agent of Tuberculosis is said to be: A. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis B. Hansen’s Bacilli C. Bacillus Anthraces D. Group A Beta Hemolytic Streptococcus 182. A male client who is to have a kidney transplant asks the nurse how long will he be taking azathioprine [ IMURAN ], cyclosporine and prednisone. The nurse recognizes that the client understood the teaching when he states “I must take these medications: A. For the rest of my life.” B. Until the surgery is over.” C. Until the anastomosis heals.” D. During the post operative period.” 183. After kidney transplant, the nurse should observe the client for symptoms of rejection which includes: A. Polyuria and jaundice B. Fever and weight gain C. Hematuria and seizures D. Moonface and muscle atrophy 184. In assessing the patient with acute glomerulonephritis, which of the following is an expected finding? A. A history of untreated viral infection B. Patient is on steroid therapy C. Sore throat 2 weeks ago D. The patient loves salty foods 185. The most common causative agent of Pyelonephritis in hospitalized patient attributed to prolonged catheterization is said to be: A. E. Coli B. Klebsiella C. Pseudomonas D. Staphylococcus 186. A Blind client was hospitalized. The nursing priority diagnosis for this client would be: A. Altered thought process B. Sensory perceptual alteration C. Risk for injury D. Sensory deprivation 187. Aling Rosing, age 79 was brought to the hospital by her son. She has bruises and wounds in various stage of healing. She appears disheveled, unkempt and dehydrated. Skin turgor was poor and she appears confuse and disoriented. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action for this situation? A. Call the state police and report suspected elderly abuse B. Meet with the patient’s Son to ask him personally if he is responsible for the suspected abuse C. Confer with the nursing supervisor about what to do D. Protect Aling Rosing by not letting the family members visit her 188. The priority assessment for elderly clients is: A. Self esteem B. Safety C. Love and belongingness D. Air, breathing and circulation 189. As a person age, Urinary frequency occurs. Most of our elderly clients exhibit urinary frequency. The rationale why this occurs is mainly due to: A. Loss of neuromuscular control of the bladder B. Decrease capacity of the bladder C. Detrusor muscle atrophies D. Involuntary emptying of the bladder 190. The single and most effective way of preventing transfer of microorganism in any health care setting is: A. Sterilization B. Auto Claving C. Disinfection D. Handwashing 191. The pain in renal colic is said to be overwhelming and excruciating. It is said to be the strongest pain sensation that can ever be felt by a patient. Mrs. Lilia arrived in the E.R with severe flank pain that occurs with duration and frequency and radiates from the flank to the umbilicus. Diagnosis of Renal Colic was made. The priority nursing diagnosis for Mrs. Lilia is: A. Ineffective breathing pattern B. Impaired gas exchanged C. Pain D. Impaired urinary elimination 192. The priority nursing intervention in patients with renal colic is: A. Administration of oral NSAID B. Administration of parenteral narcotic analgesic C. Measuring I/O D. Providing non pharmacologic pain relief like Distraction and Guided Imagery 193. Pain relief is achieved in Burn patients by administration of pain medications. The nurse knows that the only acceptable route in giving medication in these clients is: A. Subcutaneous B. Parenteral C. Oral D. Intravenous 194. In the oliguric phase of acute renal failure, the nurse would expect which of the following? A. No urinary output B. Output of less than 400cc per day C. Diuresis D. Decrease in serum potassium 195. A client is about to undergo an Abdominal Perineal resection. An appropriate health teaching for these clients is: A. Changing sterile dressing B. Wound care C. Passive ROM exercises D. Colostomy care 196. Mrs. LEE Arrived at the E.R presenting sign and symptoms compatible with M.I. Diagnosis of Myocardial Infarction was made. Your priority nursing diagnosis for Mrs. LEE is: A. Acute Pain B. Ineffective tissue perfusion C. Impaired gas exchange D. Decreased cardiac output 197. In assessing a client with Pyelonephritis, Which of the following is an important question to ask in order to illicit vital information from the client on how he got the infection? A. Do you hold your urine for long periods? B. Have you had a sore throat recently? C. Have you had a skin infection recently? D. Is your job stressful? 198. The GAUGE size in ET tubes determines: A. The external circumference of the tube B. The internal diameter of the tube C. The length of the tube D. The tube’s volumetric capacity 199. The nurse is correct in performing suctioning when she applies the suction intermittently during: A. Insertion of the suction catheter B. Withdrawing of the suction catheter C. both insertion and withdrawing of the suction catheter D. When the suction catheter tip reaches the bifurcation of the trachea 200. The purpose of the cuff in Tracheostomy tube is to: A. Separate the upper and lower airway B. Separate trachea from the esophagus C. Separate the larynx from the nasopharynx D. Secure the placement of the tube 201. The GAUGE size in ET tubes determines: A. The circumference of the tube B. The diameter of the tube C. The length of the tube D. The tube’s volumetric capacity 202. The purpose of the cuff in Tracheostomy tube is to: A. Separate the upper and lower airway B. Separate trachea from the esophagus C. Separate the larynx from the nasopharynx D. Secure the placement of the tube 203. After a laryngectomy, a client, who is being discharged exhibits concern that the laryngectomy tube may become dislodged. The nurse should teach the client to first: A. Notify the physician at once B. Reinsert another tube immediately C. Keep calm because there is no immediate emergency D. Recognize that prompt closure of the tracheal opening may occur 204. Which of the following is classified as a primary prevention in CVA? A. Screening for hypertension B. Streptokinase administration C. Healthy lifestyle and balanced diet post stroke D. Use of appropriate devices to return to optimum level of functioning 205. The tracheostomy is attached and secured by: A. Suturing it in place B. Tying it in place C. Taping it in place D. Inflating the cuff 206. As a school health nurse, Vee frequently encounters adolescents affected with Acne. Among the following, what will be his common finding? A. Self esteem disturbance B. Eating high fat foods C. Loves sweets and chocolates D. Not washing the face 3 times a day 207. Which priority nursing diagnosis is applicable for a patient with indwelling urinary catheter? A. Self esteem disturbance B. Impaired urinary elimination C. Impaired skin integrity D. Risk for infection 208. An incontinent elderly client frequently wets his bed and eventually develop redness and skin excoriation at the perianal area. The best nursing goal for this client is to: A. Make sure that the bed linen is always dry B. Frequently check the bed for wetness and always keep it dry C. Place a rubber sheet under the client’s buttocks D. Keep the patient clean and dry 209. An early sign associated with Hansen’s disease is: A. Loss of eyebrows B. thickening and painful nerves C. Contractures D. Clawing of fingers and toes 210. During operation, The OR suite’s lighting, noise, temperature and other factors that affects the operation are managed by whom? A. Nurse Supervisor B. Surgeon C. Circulating nurse D. Scrub nurse 211. Before and after the operation, the operating suite is managed by the: A. Surgeon B. Nurse Supervisor C. Nurse Manager D. Chief Nurse 212. The counting of sponges is done by the Surgeon together with the: A. Circulating nurse B. Scrub nurse C. Assistant surgeon D. Nurse supervisor 213. Maintaining strict sterile technique is necessary to prevent post operative complication. A nurse knows that wearing of the scrub suit is done in which of the following OR areas? A. Outside the OR suite B. Inside the restricted area C. Inside the semi restricted area D. Can be worn either in the semi restricted or restricted area 214. In describing the movement of the OR personnel during operation, which of the following best describes their movements? A. Restricted B. Free C. Minimal D. Suppressed 215. Whom among the following is not considered as a member of the OR sterile team? A. Scrub nurse B. Surgeon C. Circulating nurse D. Assistant surgeon 216. Management of patient’s record is essential towards the delivery of quality care. The nurse should protect the client’s right of privacy. To whom will the nurse not allow the chart to be given? A. The patient’s lawyer B. The doctor C. The patient D. Members of the health team 217. Problem oriented medical records are now an emerging method of charting. Versus the traditional method, which among the following is associated with POMR? 1. SOAPIE 2. Graphic Flow Sheet 3. Narrative Charting 4. Chronological Charting A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 3 and 4 D. 1 and 4 218. Danika, A child diagnosed with Leukemia has her laboratory results available. For it to coincide with the medical diagnosis, the nurse should not expect which of the following systemic changes in Danika’s hematologic system? A. Thrombocytopenia B. Anemia C. Petechiae D. Leukocytosis due to decreased WBC 219. The Nurse knows that among the following patients, The one that cannot be treated for TB is: A. The patient with cavitations seen on CXR B. The patient with MDR-TB C. The patient that did not gave his consent D. The patient who is sputum positive and in active stage of the disease 220. TB screening is started as early as possible. When could the Nurse start to screen patients for Tuberculosis? A. At birth B. 1 year old if the child has signs and symptoms C. 10 years old if the child has signs and symptoms D. School entrants, or about 6 years old if the child has signs and symptoms 221. Health promotion is the major function of a nurse. If the nurse wants to improve the lifestyle of a smoker and tell him to quit this habit that could lead to illness and diseases later on, what role does this nurse implement? A. Facilitator B. Change agent C. Teacher D. Counselor 222. For the nurse to improve the health habits of a smoker, His initial action is to: A. Ask the client to change his lifestyle by adapting the best possible way to limit his smoking habits B. Provide firm and consistent environment C. Provide information D. Make a concrete and viable plan for the patient to follow that will cut his smoking habits gradually but surely 223. For a smoker to stop smoking, the nurse should ensure that the patient has the most powerful vehicle to attain this planned positive change. The nurse knows that he should provide: A. Motivation B. Education C. Information D. Family support 224. To prevent recurrent attacks on client with glomerulonephritis, the nurse instructs the client to: A. Take a shower instead of tub baths B. Avoid situations that involve physical activity C. Continue the same restriction on fluid intake D. Seek early treatment for respiratory infection 225. When administering Tapazole, The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effect? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Drowsiness D. Seizure 226. Post bronchoscopy, the nurse priority is to check which of the following before feeding? A. Gag reflex B. Wearing off of anesthesia C. Swallowing reflex D. Peristalsis 227. Changes normally occur in the elderly. Among the following, which is a normal change in an elderly client? A. Increased sense of taste B. Increased appetite C. Urinary frequency D. Thinning of the lens 228. When administering an ear drops to an adult client, the nurse pulls the ear: A. Down and back B. Up and back C. Forward and back D. Back and down 229. In assessing the effectiveness of phenylephrine eye drops, The nurse should expect her patient to have which of the following physiologic response? A. Her eyes will be numb B. Her blood vessels in the eyes will vasodilate C. Her pupil will react to light rapidly D. Her pupil will be dilated 230. Pain unrelieved by analgesic in patients with casted leg is a sign of: A. Infection B. Hemorrhage C. Skin irritation D. Compartment syndrome 231. You are to give 500 cc of IV fluids at a rate of 15 gtts per minute. The doctor ordered that this solution should be given within 6 hours. What is your calculation to show the drops per minute to deliver this solution correctly? A. 20 B. 21 C. 22 D. 13 232. Mrs. KBI was confined at the Quezon institute with active P.T.B. The nurse can best control spread of infection by: A. Initiating stool and blood precaution B. Wearing gown and mask when caring for Mrs. KBI C. Telling patient to wear a mask when dealing with others D. Teaching patient to cover her nose and mouth when coughing and sneezing 233. To prevent injury and strain on the muscles, the nurse should observe proper body mechanics. Among the following, which is a principle of proper body mechanics? A. Broaden the space between the feet B. Push instead of pull C. Move the object away from the body when lifting D. Bend at the waist, not on the knees 234. In taking the client’s blood pressure, the nurse should position the client’s arm: A. At the level of the heart B. Slightly above the level of the heart C. At the 5th intercostals space midclavicular line D. Below the level of the heart 235. A client arrived in the emergency room with cyanotic toes and pain in the legs. The doctor suspects arterial occlusion. The nurse would position the client’s leg before examination: A. Elevated B. Abducted C. Dependent D. Perpendicular with legs on top of a chair 236. What principle is used when the client with fever loses heat through giving cooling bed bath to lower body temperature? A. Radiation B. Convection C. Evaporation D. Conduction 237. The most effective way in limiting the number of microorganism in the hospital is: A. Using strict aseptic technique in all procedures B. Wearing mask and gown in care of all patients with communicable diseases C. Sterilization of all instruments D. Handwashing 238. Mr. XCB has undergone thyroidectomy. In the immediate post operative period, on what position will you place Mr. XCB? A. Supine B. Semi fowlers C. Flat D. Prone 239. The nurse knows that transmission of Hepatitis B occurs in all of the following except: A. From mother to child B. Oral fecal C. Sexual intercourse D. Blood transfusion 240. The immunoglobulin of the mother that crosses the placenta to protect the child is an example of: A. Natural active immunity B. Natural passive immunity C. Artificial active immunity D. Artificial passive immunity 241. Kussmaul’s respiration can be seen in all of the following conditions except: A. Hyperglycemia B. Diabetes Milletus C. Diabetes Insipidus D. DKA 242. An adolescent patient diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease refuses to take her medications. She said she is taking lots of medicines already. What nursing approach is best for this patient? A. Friendly approach B. Non authoritative approach C. Sympathetic approach D. Firmness approach 243. Nurse Buddy gave Inapsine instead of Insulin to a patient in severe hyperglycemia. He reported the incident as soon as he knew there was an error. A nurse that is always ready to answer for all his actions and decision is said to be: A. Accountable B. Responsible C. Critical thinker D. Assertive 244. Patients with hypoparathyroidism will exhibit all but one of the following: A. Tremors B. Polyuria C. Chvostek’s sign D. Limb muscle spasm 245, As a nurse assigned for care for geriatric patients, you need to frequently assess your patient using the nursing process. Which of the following needs be considered with the highest priority? A. Patients own feeling about his illness B. Safety of the client especially those elderly clients who frequently falls C. Nutritional status of the elderly client D. Physiologic needs that are life threatening 246. Pain reaction is influenced by which of the following? 1. Gender of the client 2. Past experiences of the client 3. Political affiliation 4. Cultural values A. 1 and 2 B. 1,2 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. All of the above 247. NGT in a client that will undergo an operation is performed to: A. Provide nutritional nourishment B. Promote gastric compression C. For gastric decompression D. Provide route for drug administration 248. Fractured limb must be observed at frequent intervals for local changes in color, sensation or temperature. Which of these signs and symptoms indicate nerve injury? A. Coldness, cyanosis or blanching B. Increased warmth and swelling C. Tingling and burning pain and numbness D. Small hemorrhages around the skin 249. During the first 24 hours of burn, nursing measures should focus on which of the following? A. I and O hourly B. Strict aseptic technique C. Forced oral fluids D. Isolate the patient 250. Which of the following technique will allow detection of sugar in the urine? A. Litmus paper test B. Benedicts test C. Nitrazine paper test D. All of the above 251. They are the proteins in the body that are produced in response to the invasion to pathogens and microorganisms. A. Antigen B. Amino Acids C. Agglutinogen D. Antibody 252. In administering blood transfusion, what needle gauge is used? A. 18 B. 22 C. 23 D. 24 253. Before administration of blood and blood products, the nurse should first: A. Check with another R.N the client’s name, Identification number, ABO and RH type. B. Explain the procedure to the client C. Assess baseline vital signs of the client D. Check for the BT order 254. The only IV fluid compatible with blood products is: A. D5LR B. D5NSS C. NSS D. Plain LR 255. Solutions that are said to be compatible with the osmolarity of the body are called: A. Isotonic B. Hypotonic C. Normosol D. Hypertonic 256. Which of the following are signs of hemolytic reaction during blood transfusion? A. Itching, urticaria and wheezing B. Cough, dyspnea, pulmonary congestion C. High fever and chills D. Fever and backache 257. In any event of an adverse hemolytic reaction during blood transfusion, Nursing intervention should focus on: A. Slow the infusion, Call the physician and assess the patient B. Stop the infusion, Assess the client, Send the remaining blood to the laboratory and call the physician C. Stop the infusion, Call the physician and assess the client D. Slow the confusion and keep a patent IV line open for administration of medication 258. The nurse knows that after receiving the blood from the blood bank, it should be administered within: A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 4 hours D. 6 hours 259. During blood administration, the nurse should carefully monitor adverse reaction. To monitor this, it is essential for the nurse to: A. Stay with the client for the first 15 minutes of blood administration B. Stay with the client for the entire period of blood administration C. Run the infusion at a faster rate during the first 15 minutes D. Tell the client to notify the staff immediately for any adverse reaction 260. After cataract operation, an important health teaching for the client as not to increase the intraocular pressure in the affected eye is to: A. Instruct the client to bend at the waist and maintain head in a flexed position B. Instruct the client to bend at the waist and maintain head in a neutral position C. Instruct the client to bend at the knees and maintain head in an extended position D. Instruct the client to bend at the knees and maintain head in a neutral position 261. Giving diuretics is best done when? A. Early morning B. Mid A.M C. Afternoon D. At bedtime 262. The immediate objective of nursing care for an overweight mildly hypertensive client with ureteral colic and hematuria is to decrease: A. Pain B. Weight C. Hematuria D. Hypertension 263. Involving the X-ray technician, the dietician and other members of the Mental health team to provide a well planned interdisciplinary approach in patient care is a part of: A. Planning B. Coordinating C. Evaluating D. Organizing 264. Mr. RMG has been brought to the psychiatric hospital because of frequent fights in school and recently, has assaulted a police officer. The doctor tentatively diagnosed Mr. RMG with antisocial personality disorder. The nurse knows that the structure of personality that is malfunctioning in persons with personality disorders is the: A. ID B. Ego C. Super Ego D. Conscious 265. A form of therapy wherein in the group members have similar problems and talk their ways on how to resolve the current situation is seen in: A. Psychotherapy B. Behavioral therapy C. AA D. Psychotherapy 266. the most significant factor that might affect the nurse’s care for the psychiatric patient is: A. Nurse’s own beliefs and attitude about the mentally ill B. Amount of experience he has with psychiatric clients C. Her abilities and skill to care for the psychiatric clients D. Her knowledge in dealing with the psychiatric clients 267. In order to establish a therapeutic relationship with the client, the nurse must first have: A. Self awareness B. Self understanding C. Self acceptance D. Self motivation 268. Nurse Edna thinks that the patient is somewhat like his father. She then identifies positive feeling for the patient that affects the objectivity of her nursing care. This emotional reaction is called: A. Transference B. Counter Transference C. Reaction formation D. Sympathy 269. In preparing the plan of care to patients in manic phase of bipolar disorder, it is essential for the nurse to first provide: A. Counseling B. Acceptance C. High caloric diet D. Safe and quiet environment 270. In manic client, the disturbance is frequently seen in their: A. Central nervous system B. Cognitive C. Thought D. Affect 271. The defense mechanism seen with manic clients is called: A. Reaction formation B. Supression C. Repression D. Denial 272. Which among the following is the best activity for client in manic phase of bipolar disorder? A. Play basketball with the client B. Play chess with the client C. Tell the client to lead a group activity D. Ask the client bring the linens to the linen department 273. Which of the following is an anxiolytic? A. Haldol B. Inapsine C. Valium D. Thorazine 274. Marino has been diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder. He frequently washes his hand and the nurse observes that his hands are already reddened. In dealing with this type of patient it is best for the nurse to first: A. Tell Marino that his hands are already red and should stop hand washing B. Not limit the hand washing but instead, provide materials that would encourage the rituals like soap, water and scrubbing pads C. Not limit the hand washing but instead, do the rituals earlier as not to affect the client’s activities in the morning D. Recognize that rituals are needed to relieve the anxiety and therefore, not to be limited 275. In clients with obsessive compulsive disorder like marino, the anxiety is said to be at what level? A. Mild B. Moderate C. Severe D. Panic 276. Selective inattention is seen in what level of anxiety? A. Mild B. Moderate C. Severe D. Panic 277. Obsessive compulsive disorder is characterized by: A. Uncontrollable impulse to perform an act or ritual repeatedly B. Persistent thoughts and behavior C. Recurring unwanted and disturbing thoughts D. Pathological persistence of unwilled thoughts 278. Ms. Maria Salvacion says that she is the incarnation of the holy Virgin Mary. She said that she is the child of the covenant that would save this world from the evil forces of Satan. One morning, while caring for her, she stood in front of you and said “Bow down before me! I am the holy mother of Christ! I am the blessed Virgin Mary!” The best response by the Nurse is: A. Tell me more about being the Virgin Mary B. So, You are the Virgin Mary? C. Excuse me but, you are not anymore a Virgin so you cannot be the Blessed Virgin Mary. D. You are Maria Salvacion 279. Maria’s statement “Bow down before me! I am the holy mother of Christ! I am the blessed Virgin Mary!” is an example of: A. Delusion of grandeur B. Visual Hallucination C. Religious delusion D. Auditory Hallcucination 280. The nurse interprets the statement “Bow down before me! I am the holy mother of Christ! I am the blessed Virgin Mary!” as important in documenting in which of the following areas of mental status examination? A. Thought content B. Mood C. Affect D. Attitude 281. The appropriate nursing diagnosis for Maria, claiming that she is the Virgin Mary is: A. Impaired adjustment B. Ineffective individual coping C. Sensory perceptual alteration D. Altered thought process 282. The nurse knows that Maria is improving when: A. Maria carries a book entitled “Self empowerment towards success” B. When Maria does not talk about the “Virgin Mary” topics anymore C. All interventions and treatment modality has been performed D. She is to be discharged 283. Nurse DSJ knows that the client achieved self awareness when he stated that: A. “Whenever my boss shouts at me, I really feel bad” B. “I am really aware that my Boss is mad at me” C. “I do not like my boss” D. “I always bring something for my boss so that he will never get mad at me” 284. The patient states “My boss does not like me, He always shouts at me” Nurse DSJ replies “Your boss does not like you?” This is an example of: A. Validating B. Reflecting C. Probing D. Clarifying 285. In preparation for ECT, the nurse knows that it is almost similar to that of: A. ECG B. General Anesthesia C. EEG D. MRI 286. The expected side effect after ECT is commonly associated with: A. Transient loss of memory, confusion and disorientation B. Nausea and vomiting C. Fractures D. Hypertension and increased in cardiac rate 287. The purpose of ECT in clients with depression is to: A. Stimulation in the brain to increase brain conduction and counteract depression B. Mainly Biologic, increasing the norepinephrine and serotonin level C. Creates a temporary brain damage that will increase blood flow to the brain D. Involves the conduction of electrical current to the brain to charge the neurons and combat depression 288. Mang Edgardo, A client with chronic depression is undergoing therapy in the Mental Institution. The psychiatric nurse is aware that the patient is doing horticulture as one of the treatment modalities with his depression. The nurse would expect that Mang Edgardo is engaged in: A. The client is listening to classical music, writing down his experiences on a note about what he currently feels, his emotions and thoughts. B. Client is exposed to other clients from different culture to share differences and similarities with beliefs, tradition and ways of life C. Client is exposed to painful and aversive experience if an inappropriate behavior is performed D. The client is in the garden, taking care of multitude of orchids trying to make them grow and multiply 289. When the nurse establishes a therapeutic relationship, he should be aware of the different factors that might affect it. When she cries because she feels the way the patient feels, she is showing: A. Sympathy B. Empathy C. Transference D. Counter Transference 290. the most important quality of a nurse during a Nurse-Patient interaction is: A. Understanding B. Acceptance C. Listening D. Teaching 291. Preparing the client for termination occurs in which phase of Nurse Patient relationship? A. Pre orientation B. Orientation C. Working D. Termination 292. An alcoholic client frequently hurts his wife. When asked why he is doing it, he just says “When I am in alcohol, I cannot control myself that’s why!” The nurse knows that the statement of the client is a form of: A. Denial B. Confabulation C. Excuses D. Justification 293. Putting yourself in the client’s shoes best describes that characteristic of: A. Sympathy B. Empathy C. Transference D. Counter Transference 294. Mang David, A 27 year old psychiatric client was admitted with a diagnosis of schizophrenia. During the morning assessment, Mang David shouted “Did you know that I am the top salesman in the world? Different companies want me!” As a nurse, you know that this is an example of: A. Hallucination B. Delusion C. Confabulation D. Flight of Ideas 295. In treating a patient diagnosed with severe level of anxiety disorder, you would expect that the drug that would tend to decrease the client’s level of anxiety is: A. Elavil B. Anafranil C. Clorazil D. Valium 296. Gina is 5’2 and weighs 82 lbs. She was diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which among the following is most likely seen in Gina? A. She does not like to eat B. She is thinks that being thin is beautiful C. She is on a strict diet D. She thinks she is fat 297. Which is a priority diagnosis in clients with eating disorders? A. Imbalanced nutrition more than the body requirements B. Activity intolerance C. Self esteem disturbance D. Imbalance nutrition less than body requirements 298. One morning, Gina told the nurse that she is the best nurse that ever cared for her. Gina also told the nurse how pretty she is with her white dress. The best approach by the nurse with this kind of behavior is: A. Acceptance B. Cognitive therapy C. Behavior therapy D. Set limits 299. Increasing Gina’s phone use for every 1 lb of weight gain is an example of: A. Group therapy B. Behavior therapy C. Cognitive therapy D. Systematic desensitization 300. Transference usually occurs during the: A. Pre orientation phase B. Orientation phase C. Working phase D. Termination phase 301. Building of a therapeutic community inside the psychiatric health facility is an example of a therapeutic milieu. One advantage of a therapeutic community is that: A. Patients increases dependence with members of the therapeutic community B. Provide an environment wherein the patients learn patterns of behavior that he can use in the actual community setting C. Provides a setting wherein the patient can role play different types of behavior that occurs in the actual community setting D. Increases the patient’s mobility by having a bigger ward 302. In a therapeutic community A. Patients are involved with the decision making B. Wards are bigger C. Limit setting are imposed by the patient’s themselves D. Group effort is important 303. Hand washing Rituals in obsessive compulsive client is performed because of: A. Fear B. High regard to cleanliness C. Habits that cannot be remove D. Upbringing 304. The hand washing behavior is described as: A. Stereotypic B. Repetitive C. Obsession D. Compulsion 305. The appropriate therapeutic program to help clients with obsessive compulsive personality disorder is geared towards: A. Gaining insight that the behavior is due to unconscious and uncontrollable impulses B. Participate in activities that will require her to deal with the conflicts C. Encourage the use of rituals to relieve the anxiety D. Accept her rituals as much as possible 306. The recommended treatment modality in clients with obsessive compulsive disorder is: A. Psychotherapy B. Behavior therapy C. Aversion therapy D. Psychoanalysis 307. A state of disequilibrium wherein a person cannot readily solve a problem or situation even by using his usual coping mechanisms is called: A. Mental illness B. Mental health C. Crisis D. Stress 308. Obsessive compulsive disorder is classified under: A. Psychotic disorders B. Neurotic disorders C. Major depressive disorder D. Bipolar disorder 309. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority for clients with Borderline personality disorder? A. Risk for injury B. Ineffective individual coping C. Altered thought process D. Sensory perceptual alteration 310. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for clients in the acute manic phase of bipolar disorder is: A. Risk for injury directed to self B. Risk for injury directed to others C. Impaired nutrition less than body requirements D. Ineffective individual coping 311. A paranoid client refuses to eat telling you that you poisoned his food. The best intervention to this client is: A. Taste the food in front of him and tell him that the food is not poisoned B. Offer other types of food until the client eats C. Simply state that the food is not poisoned D. Offer sealed foods 312. Toilet training occurs in the anal stage of Freud’s psychosexual task. This is equivalent to Erikson’s: A. Trust vs. Mistrust B. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt C. Initiative vs. Guilt D. Industry vs. Inferiority 313. During the phallic stage, the child must identify with the parent of: A. The same sex B. The opposite sex C. The mother or the primary caregiver D. Both sexes 314. Ms. ANA had a car accident where he lost her boyfriend. As a result, she became passive and submissive. The nurse knows that the type of crisis Ms. ANA is experiencing is: A. Developmental crisis B. Maturational crisis C. Situational crisis D. Social Crisis 315. Persons experiencing crisis becomes passive and submissive. As a nurse, you know that the best approach in crisis intervention is to be: A. Active and Directive B. Passive friendliness C. Active friendliness D. Firm kindness 316. Crisis typically lasts for about: A. 4 to 6 months B. 3 to 4 weeks C. 4 to 6 weeks D. 3 to 4 months 317. A person is said to have a mature personality if his: A. Id and Ego are equally satisfied B. Ego satisfies the superego C. superego is above the ego and Id D. Ego can balance the demand of both Id and Superego 318. Mr. LEE has been voluntarily admitted to the psychiatric institution because he thinks he is “Not OK”. After a week, he then decided to terminate all therapy because he thinks he is already “OK.” As his nurse, you will tell Mr. LEE that: A. Being voluntarily admitted means that he cannot leave the hospital until his condition improves B. Allow him to leave C. Contact the doctor with regards to the client’s wishes and wait for the doctor’s approval D. Have the client sign a waiver freeing the hospital of responsibility that will accompany his decision 319. The psychosocial task of a 55 year old adult client is: A. Industry vs. Inferiority B. Intimacy vs. Isolation C. Integrity vs. Despair D. Generativity vs. Stagnation 320. The stages of grieving identified by Elizabeth Kubler-Ross are: A. Numbness, anger, resolution and reorganization B. Denial, anger, identification, depression and acceptance C. Anger, loneliness, depression and resolution D. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance 321. Which priority nursing diagnosis is appropriate for an elderly client with dementia? A. Risk for injury B. Imbalance nutrition less than body requirements C. Fluid volume deficit D. Altered thought process 322. Milieu therapy for clients with Dementia should focus on an environment that is: A. Dynamic, always changing B. Encouraging, stimulating C. Safe, restricting D. Consistent, do not change 323. A patient’s mother visits and they furiously argue about the amount of make-up the patient is wearing. After the visit, the patient tells the nurse that she has the best mother in the world. This is an example of: A. Reaction formation B. Displacement C. Compensation D. Dissociation 324. A patient is very upset after a phone call. The most therapeutic response by the nurse is to say “You sound angry” and: A. “I’ll come back later and leave” B. Remain with the client C. Offer her medicine D. Go stand to her and put your hand on her shoulder 325. Which physiologic effect should the nurse expect in a client addicted to hallucinogens? A. Dilated pupils B. Constricted pupils C. Bradycardia D. Bradypnea 326. Miss CEE is admitted for treatment of major depression. She is withdrawn, disheveled and states “Nobody wants me” The nurse most likely expects that Miss CEE is to be placed on: A. Neuroleptics medication B. Special diet C. Suicide precaution D. Anxiolytics medication 327. In alcoholic patient, the nurse knows that the vitamin deficient to these types of clients that leads to psychoses is: A. Thiamine B. Vitamin C C. Niacin D. Vitamin A 328. A client was admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of major depression, severe, single episode. The nurse assesses the client and identifies the client’s altered nutritional intake as a major concern. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention related to this diagnosis? A. Explaining to the client the importance of a good nutritional intake B. Weighing the client three times per week before breakfast C. Reporting the nutritional concern to the psychiatrist and obtaining a nutritional consultation as soon as possible D. Consulting with the nutritionist, offering the client several small frequent feedings and scheduling brief periods of nursing interaction with the client 329. When planning activities for the depressed client especially during the early stages of hospitalization, which of the following plan is best? A. Providing an activity that is quiet and solitary in nature to avoid increased fatigue such as working on a puzzle or reading a book B. Planning nothing until the client asks to participate in the milieu C. Offering a client a menu of daily program of activities and insisting that the client participate in all of them D. Providing structured daily program of activities and encouraging the patient to participate 330. The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with major depression is: A. Altered nutrition B. Altered thought process C. Self care deficit D. Risk for injury 331. A patient tells the nurse “I am depressed to talk to you, leave me alone” Which of the following response by the nurse is most therapeutic? A. I’ll be back in an hour B. Why are you so depressed? C. I’ll seat with you for a moment D. Call me when you feel like talking to me 332. One of the following statements is true with regards to the care of clients with depression: A. Only mentally ill persons commit suicide B. All depressed clients are considered potentially suicidal C. Most suicidal person gives no warning D. The chance of suicide lessens as depression lessens 333. An adolescent client has bloodshot eyes, a voracious appetite and dry mouth. Which drug abuse would the nurse most likely suspect? A. Marijuana B. Amphetamines C. Barbiturates D. Anxiolytics 334. During physical assessment, Miss PIA’s arm remained outstretched after her puls and blood pressure are taken and the nurse has to reposition it for her. PIA is showing: A. Distractibility B. Waxy flexibility C. Muscle rigidity D. Echopraxia 335. When the patient is going around the bush, he is said to be manifesting A. Perseveration B. Circumstantiality C. Verbigeration D. Confabulation 336. Which of the following statement concerning the concepts of anxiety is not true? A. Anxiety is a multidimensional concept and is manifested as a somatic and interpersonal in nature B. Anxiety is an energy and as such cannot be observed directly C. Anxiety occurs as a result of a thread to a person’s selfhood, self esteem and identify D. Anxiety on any level is a destructive force and thus moves the organism to change 337. After a fight with his girlfriend, Dan brought her a large box of chocolate and a dozen of white roses. The gift represents the act which is intended to negate the previous argument. The mechanism involve is: A. Projection B. Compensation C. Undoing D. Over compensation 338. An individual’s superego begins to develop: A. Infancy B. School age C. Toddler D. Pre school 339. A client with expressive aphasia becomes frustrated and upset when attempting to communicate with the nurse. To help alleviate his frustration the nurse should: A. Limit the client’s contact with others to limit the frustration B. Anticipate the needs so that the client does not have to ask for help C. Face the client and speak loudly so that the client can see and hear better D. Allow adequate time so that the client does not have to respond under pressure 340. One development task of the young adult is: A. Clarifying values B. Achieving stable economic status C. Establishing an intimate relationship D. Adjusting to a decreased health 341. A helping relationship is a process characterized by which of the following? A. Recovery promoting B. Mutual interaction C. Growth facilitating D. Health enhancing 342. During which phase of therapeutic relationship should the nurse inform the patient for termination of therapy? A. Pre orientation B. Orientation C. Working D. Termination 343. A client says to the nurse “I am worthless person, I should be dead” The nurse best replies: A. “Don’t say you are worthless, you are not a worthless person” B. “We are going to help you with your feelings” C. “What makes you feel you’re worthless?” D. “What you say is not true” 344. Which of the following is the overall purpose of therapeutic communication? A. To analyze the client’s problem B. To elicit client’s cooperation C. To facilitate helping relationship D. To provide emotional support 345. The child has overcome the phallic stage when the child: A. Rejects the parent of the same sex B. Introjects behaviors of the parents C. Identifies with the parent of the same sex D. Develop ego boundaries 346. A male client with a history of short temper and physical abuse becomes extremely violent and is admitted to the psychiatric service. At the time of admission, the client is extremely anxious. The nurse should: A. Seclude him in his assigned room B. Encourage him to play videogames C. Introduce him to the group of other clients D. Take him to his room and sit quietly with him 347. If it is established that the child is physically abused by a parent, the most important goal the nurse could formulate with the family is that: A. Child and any siblings will live in a safe environment B. Family will feel comfortable in their relationship with the counselor C. Family will gain understanding of their abusive behavior patterns D. Mother will be able to use verbal discipline with her children 348. Cocaine is derived from the leaves of coca plant; the nurse knows that cocaine is classified as: A. Narcotic B. Stimulant C. Barbiturate D. Hallucinogen 349. To successfully complete the tasks of older adulthood, an 85 year old who has been a widow for 25 years should be encouraged to: A. Invest her creative energies in promoting social welfare B. Redefine her role in the society and offer something and offer something of value C. Feel a sense of satisfaction in reflecting on her productive life D. Look to recapture the opportunities that were never started or completed 350. In a therapeutic relationship, the nurse must understand own values, beliefs, feelings, prejudices & how these affect others. This is called: A. Therapeutic use of self B. Psychotherapy C. Therapeutic communication D. Self awareness

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