ITIL 4 Fundam-Segunda parte - 43 ISA PDF

# ITIL 4 Fundam-Segunda parte - 43 ISA ## Questions 1. What practice would help a user access an application they need to use? - A) Service configuration management - B) Change enablement - C) Service request management - D) Service level management 2. What ITIL practice aims to estab...

# ITIL 4 Fundam-Segunda parte - 43 ISA ## Questions 1. What practice would help a user access an application they need to use? - A) Service configuration management - B) Change enablement - C) Service request management - D) Service level management 2. What ITIL practice aims to establish and promote links between organizations and their stakeholders at tactical and strategic levels? - A) Supplier management - B) Engage - C) Relationship management - D) Service desk 3. Which practice makes new services or changes available for use? - A) Change enablement - B) Release management - C) Deployment management - D) IT asset management 4. Which practice improves customer and user satisfaction by reducing the negative impact of service disruptions? - A) Service request management - B) Service level management - C) Incident management - D) Change enablement 5. What practice ensures that the addition, modification, or removal of any element that may impact services is evaluated and authorized? - A) Deployment management - B) Release management - C) Change enablement - D) Service configuration management 6. Which practice establishes a link between the service provider and service users? - A) Change enablement - B) Service level management - C) Problem management - D) Service desk 7. Which of the following activities is part of the "continuous improvement" practice? - A) Identifying root causes of incidents and recommending related improvements. - B) Authorizing changes to implement improvements. - C) Recording and managing incidents leading to improvement opportunities. - D) Developing business cases to justify improvement actions. 8. Which statement about the "change enablement" practice is CORRECT? - A) Standard changes are those that should be applied, evaluated, and authorized using a standard procedure. - B) Normal changes are initiated through the creation of a change request that can be created manually or automatically. - C) The evaluation and authorization of normal changes should be agile so that they can be implemented quickly. - D) There should be an independent change authority for standard changes, often including high-level managers who understand the risks involved. 9. What is defined as "any state change that is significant for managing an IT service"? - A) Event - B) Incident - C) Problem - D) Known error 10. What is managed within the service request practice? - A) An investigation to identify the root cause of an incident. - B) A congratulation on an IT support team - C) Failure of an IT service - D) An emergency change to implement a security patch. 11. What is an activity of the "incident management" practice? - A) Evaluate and prioritize improvement opportunities. - B) Review services with customers. - C) Provide up-to-date, high-quality information about the incident. - D) Automate service requests as much as possible. 12. Which of the following is the BEST example of a standard change? - A) Review and authorization of a change requested by the customer. - B) Implementing a critical software patch as a response to a supplier security issue. - C) Installing a software application as requested by a service request. - D) Replacing a component in response to a major incident. 13. What will NOT be managed as a service request? - A) Service degradation - B) Replacing an ink cartridge. - C) Providing a laptop. - D) A complaint about support. 14. What is the definition of a problem? - A) Unplanned service disruption or service quality reduction. - B) Root cause or potential root cause of one or more incidents. - C) Incident for which a resolution is not yet available. - D) Any configuration item (CI) state change that is significant for managing the CI. 15. What is included in the purpose of the "service level management" practice? - A) Maximize the number of successful product and service changes. - B) Ensure availability of accurate information about service configuration. - C) Clearly define business requirements related to service levels. - D) Ensure providers and performance are managed effectively. 16. What is the purpose of the "problem management" practice? - A) Protect the information that the organization needs to carry out its business activities. - B) Reduce the probability and impact of incidents by identifying root causes, addressing potential problems, and managing temporary solutions and known errors. - C) Align organizational practices and services with changing business needs through continuous improvement and identification. - D) Minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible. 17. Fill in the blanks: The service desk should be the single point of contact for the [blank] and all its users. - A) Service consumer - B) Service provider - C) Customer - D) Provider 18. What is an activity of the "problem management" practice? - A) Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible. - B) Prioritizing problems based on the risk they represent. - C) Authorizing changes to resolve the problem's root cause. - D) Resolving incidents within a timeframe that meets customer expectations. 19. Which ITIL practice recommends reviewing services to ensure that services continue to meet the organization's needs? - A) Service desk - B) Service request management - C) Service level management - D) Service configuration management 20. An external provider informs an organization about a defect in its software product. Which practice represents the activities required for reporting and managing this? - A) Incident management - B )Problem management - C) Change enablement - D) Service desk 21. Which practice has a purpose that includes managing components with financial value that contribute to IT service delivery? - A) Deployment management - B) Continuous improvement - C) Event management - D) IT asset management 22. What practice ensures that service actions, which are a normal part of service delivery, are managed effectively? - A) Incident management - B) Service level management - C) Problem management - D) Service request management 23. A service will be unavailable for the next two hours due to unplanned maintenance. Which practice is MOST LIKELY involved in managing this? - A) Incident Management ` - B) Problem management - c) Change enablement - D) Service request management 24. Which practice is MOST closely associated with using empathy to understand users? - A) Service desk - B) Service level management - C) Continuous improvement - D) Change enablement 25. What type of change is typically used to resolve critical incidents or implement security patches? - A) Standard change - B) Normal change - C) Emergency change - D) Change model 26. Which phase of problem management involves periodically evaluating the effectiveness of temporary solutions? - A) Problem identification - B) Problem control - C) Error control - D) Problem analysis 27. Which of the following options is included in the purpose of the "continuous improvement" practice? - A) Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible. - B) Establishing links between the organization and its stakeholders at a strategic and tactical level. - C) Aligning organizational practices and services with the changing needs of the business. - D) Reducing the likelihood and impact of incidents. 28. What is the BEST type of resource for investigating complex incidents? - A) Self-service systems - B) Support staff with experience and knowledge - C) Detailed work instructions. - D) Disaster recovery plans 29. What is defined as "any component that needs be managed to deliver an IT service"? - A) Event - B) IT asset - C) Configuration Item (CI) - D) Change 30. Which statement about emergency changes is CORRECT? - A) Emergency changes are low-risk and are well-understood. - B) All documentation must be completed before implementing an emergency change. - C) Emergency changes are typically not recorded on the change calendar. - D) Authorizing emergency changes may be delayed until after implementation. 31. What is the definition of an IT asset? - A) Any financially valuable component that contributes to a service. - B) Any user request that is considered ordinary for service delivery. - C) Any component that needs to be managed for service delivery. - D) Any state change that is significant for managing a service. 32. What is an example of a problem management activity? - A) Reviewing incident records to identify trends. - B) Implementing a technical solution to resolve a problem. - C) Re-evaluating a known error to understand the ongoing impact. - D) Documenting the steps for a workaround solution. 33. Which of the following is MOST important for incident management effectiveness? - A) Collaborative tools and techniques. - B) Reviewing the dashboard. - C) Automated processes - D) Various access channels 34. What practice manages predefined service actions initiated by the user? - A) Deployment management. - B) Incident management - C) Service level management - D) Service request management. 35. For what purpose would a SWOT analysis be used in the continuous improvement practice? - A) Understanding the current state - B) Defining the desired future state - C) Tracking and managing ideas. - D) Ensuring active participation from everyone. 36. Which TWO are the MOST important competencies for service desk personnel? - 1) Business process knowledge - 2) Collaboration skills - 3) Advanced technical knowledge - 4) Workflow design skills - A) 1 and 2 - B) 2 and 3 - C) 3 and 4 - D) 1 and 4 37. What is CORRECT regarding change authorization? - A) A change authority is assigned each time a standard change is requested. - B) Emergency changes are authorized by the technician performing the change. - C) Change authority assignment depends on the change type and model. - D) The change authority will ensure changes are authorized after deployment. 38. Which practice ensures that users have various access channels for making inquiries and reporting problems? - A) Service Desk - B) Service level management - C) Incident management. - D) Change enablement. 39. Fill in the blanks: The purpose of problem management is to reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents through the identification of root causes and potential problems, as well as managing temporary solutions and [blank] - A) Events - B) Changes - C) IT assets - D) Known errors 40. What is a key requirement for successful service level agreements (SLAs)? - A) They should be written in clear language and terms that everyone understands. - B) They should be based on system metrics that are useful for the service provider. - C) They should remain unchanged year-over-year to ensure consistent service. - D) They should avoid ambiguous objectives, such as those related to user experience. 41. What is an example of a service request? - A) A request to restore normal operation. - B) A request to implement a security patch. - C) A request to access a file. - D) A request to an incident investigation. 42. Why are service reviews conducted? - A) To make sure the customer is satisfied with the service. - B) To explain the new services available to the customer. - C) To collect data and compile reports on service issues, including performance versus service level targets. - D) To gather information about customer goals. 43. When is a problem recorded? - A) When a user reports a service outage. - B) When a provider reports a service error. - C) When a temporary solution is identified. - D) When the root cause is identified.