Post Entry-Level Law Enforcement Test Battery (PELLETB) Practice Test PDF

APPLICANT PREPARATION GUIDE FOR THE POST ENTRY-LEVEL LAW ENFORCEMENT TEST BATTERY PREPARING FOR THE EXAM The POST Entry-Level Law Enforcement Test Battery (PELLETB) measures skills that are associated with successful performance as a California peace o...

APPLICANT PREPARATION GUIDE FOR THE POST ENTRY-LEVEL LAW ENFORCEMENT TEST BATTERY PREPARING FOR THE EXAM The POST Entry-Level Law Enforcement Test Battery (PELLETB) measures skills that are associated with successful performance as a California peace officer. Because the PELLETB is an aptitude test, the skills measured are acquired gradually over a long period of time (usually years). There is no quick or easy way to improve these skills in preparation for the exam. The only way to predictably improve scores on an aptitude test is through extensive learning and practice (e.g., coursework, training). Because the PELLETB is primarily a language aptitude test, one must already possess solid language skills to perform well on the test. There are a few exercises that can be helpful in maximizing performance if solid language skills are already in place. This test preparation guide has been developed to provide helpful information about test format and content. This guide explains exactly what is tested in the exam and provides sample questions that can be used for practice. This guide also provides research-based information on the best strategies for answering test questions. WHAT THE EXAM MEASURES The first two components of the PELLETB focus on language ability: one evaluates writing ability and the other tests reading ability. The writing component of the test measures clarity, vocabulary, and spelling. The reading component measures reading comprehension. Writing Ability Each of the three writing sub-tests contains 21 items. In the clarity sub-test, sentences are presented and the test-taker is asked to identify which sentence is most clearly and correctly written. Only common writing errors (e.g., unclear references, misplaced modifiers, sentence fragments, and run-on sentences) are included in the clarity portion of the exam. The spelling sub-test uses a standard multiple-choice format. A sentence is given with one word omitted. A blank indicates the location of the omitted word. Four alternative spellings of the same word are given. The test-taker is asked to identify the word that is correctly spelled for the given context. The vocabulary sub-test also uses a standard multiple-choice format. One word in a sentence is underlined and the test-taker is instructed to select the alternative that is the most accurate synonym or definition. The words included in the spelling and vocabulary tests are common words that may be encountered in law enforcement work. 1 Reading Ability Reading ability is measured through the use of two sub-tests. The first is a 28-item reading comprehension sub-test. This sub-test presents passages which vary in length from a single paragraph to one page. After reading the passage, test-takers answer multiple-choice questions about the information contained in the passage. All passages cover common concepts and contain the information necessary to answer the questions. The second measure of reading ability is the 40-item CLOZE sub-test. Test-takers are presented with a passage of text. In each passage, the first and last sentences of the passage are complete. Between the first and last sentences, every seventh word is systematically deleted from the text. No word is deleted that cannot be deduced from context. In place of each deleted word is a dashed line. Each dash represents one letter in the deleted word. The test- taker must use contextual clues to determine what words would logically complete the passage. The word must come from the test-taker's vocabulary as no alternative words or lists of words are presented in the test. A word is considered correct if it is syntactically correct and semantically appropriate (i.e., words selected by the test-taker must be the right part of speech and must make sense in the passage). In some instances, there is more than one correct response; in others, only one word can correctly fill the blank. In instances where more than one word is correct, the test-taker receives credit if the chosen word fits within the context. 2 HOW THE EXAM IS SCORED AND INTERPRETED When POST electronically scans test answers, statistical calculations are performed to convert raw scores (the number of items answered correctly) into a “T-score.” A T-score is a standardized score that places an individual’s performance on the test into a distribution (bell- shaped curve) with a midpoint (average) of 50 and a standard deviation of 10. If the individual’s score falls around 50, his/her performance is considered “average” when compared to other applicants who have taken the test. Scores of 40 or below are considered “below average.” Scores of 60 or above are considered “above average.” Research shows that the likelihood of successful academy completion increases for every point scored above 42. All responses provided by the test taker are a part of the ongoing analyses of the test battery. The graph above provides a visual representation of T scores. The bell is comprised of many individual test scores. The bell is widest in the middle because most scores fall in and around the middle. This is why scores near the mid point of 50 are considered “average.” 3 PRACTICE TEST The following shortened version of the test is provided to prepare potential test-takers for the types of items they will encounter on the actual test. Familiarity with the structure and content of the test should reduce anxiety associated with taking the exam. The covers of the test, as well as all instructions and directions, have been presented exactly as they appear on actual tests. Following each practice sub-test, the correct responses are provided along with an explanation of why the other choices are incorrect. For item formats where test-taking strategies can improve one’s final score, the strategies are presented. It should be noted that some versions of the PELLETB may contain research items that are not scored. Since it is not possible to determine which items are research items, it is important to complete all items as if they will contribute toward one’s final score. 4 NAME: ___________________________________________________________________ (Last) (First) (MI) SOCIAL SECURITY NUMBER ____ ____ ____ -- ____ ____ -- ____ ____ ____ ____ TEST LOCATION: ___________________________________________________________ DATE: _____________________________________________________________________ (Month) (Day) (Year) ENTRY-LEVEL LAW ENFORCEMENT TEST BATTERY TEST BOOK B Form Version: 2024 CALIFORNIA COMMISSION ON PEACE OFFICER STANDARDS AND TRAINING 860 STILLWATER ROAD, SUITE 100 WEST SACRAMENTO, CALIFORNIA 95605 ALL RIGHTS RESERVED DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO CONTROL NUMBER ______________________ 5  WRITING ABILITY TEST The Writing Test is comprised of a 45-item multiple-choice examination. This test measures three aspects of good writing: clarity, vocabulary, and spelling. Remember to mark all responses to test questions on the answer sheet. Make no marks in the test booklet. Suggestions for Taking the Test Be sure you mark the space on your answer sheet that has the same number as the question in the test booklet. Keep your answer sheet on a hard surface while you are marking an answer. Firmly press down the pencil point until you completely darken the circle on the answer sheet. Do not use any other means of marking your answer sheet. If you wish to change your answer, be sure to erase your first answer completely to ensure proper scoring. It is to your advantage to answer all questions. If it takes an unreasonable amount of time to answer a question, it is better to skip it and go back to it after the other questions have been answered. Read and consider all choices to each question before deciding which one is correct. 6  CLARITY Instructions: In the following pairs of sentences, identify the sentence which is most clearly written. If sentence "a" is more clear than sentence "b," mark "a" on your answer sheet. If sentence "b" is more clear than sentence "a," mark "b" on your answer sheet. 1. a. The officer was hoping to get a new partner, one that had a great deal of experience. b. The officer was hoping to get a new partner. One that had a great deal of experience. 2. a. Bullet fragments were gathered by officers in envelopes. b. Bullet fragments were gathered in envelopes by officers. 3. a. The suspect disliked the officer as did the judge. b. The suspect disliked the officer as much as the judge. 4. a. The officer had probable cause to arrest the suspect when he arrived at the scene. b. When the officer arrived at the scene, he had probable cause to arrest the suspect. 5. a. Jail is not a pleasant place to be, but they do get their basic necessities met. b. Jail is not a pleasant place to be, but prisoners do get their basic necessities met. Correct Answers: 1, a; 2, b; 3, a; 4, b; 5, b Explanation of Incorrect Alternatives: In item #1, alternative "b" is incorrect because "One that had a great deal of experience" is a sentence fragment. In item #2, alternative "a" is incorrect because it contains a misplaced modifier. The way this sentence is written, it sounds like the officers collecting the bullet fragments were themselves in the envelope. In item #3, alternative "b" is incorrect because it is confusing and ambiguous. Does the suspect dislike both the officer and the judge, or does the judge dislike the officer as much as does the suspect? One can't tell the way the sentence is written. In item #4, alternative "a" is incorrect because it has an unreferenced pronoun. The way the pronoun "he" is used in this sentence makes it unclear if "he" is referring to the officer or the suspect. 7 In item #5, alternative "a" is incorrect because it is unclear who is referred to by the pronoun "they." In sentence "b", the noun "prisoners" makes the sentence clear. Things to study: This is the only sub-test where studying can markedly improve your test score. The clarity test measures your ability to identify clear, as opposed to unclear, writing. The writing faults that are included in this test relate to modification, reference and sentence boundaries. No obscure writing faults are included. To maximize your test score, you should review the rules regarding: 1. Modification Example 1: a. "In rural areas, more deer are killed by automobiles than by hunters." b. "In rural areas, automobiles kill more deer than hunters." Explanation: Choice "a" is clearly written. The reader knows that more deer are killed by automobiles than are killed by hunters. Choice "b" is an example of improper modification. The way the sentence is written automobiles are killing both deer and hunters. Example 2: a. Beginning to run before stretching is frequently the cause of shin splints. b. Beginning to run before stretching frequently is the cause of shin splints. Explanation: Choice "a" is correctly written. The reader knows that beginning to run before stretching can frequently cause shin splints. Choice "b" is written incorrectly. The way this sentence is worded, "frequently" incorrectly modifies stretching thus causing confusion or error. 2. Vague or Indefinite Reference Example 1: a. The next time Mary was in town, she agreed to have lunch with Sue. b. Mary agreed to have lunch with Sue the next time she was in town. 8  Explanation: Choice "a" is clearly written. The reader knows who is having lunch, with whom, and when. Choice "b" suffers from an ambiguous reference. The sentence is ambiguous because the way it is worded does not make clear whether Mary will have lunch with Sue the next time Mary is in town or the next time Sue is in town. Example 2: a. The child wanted everything he saw advertised in commercials, even though he didn't know exactly what the toys were. b. The child wanted everything he saw advertised in the commercials, even though he didn't know exactly what they were. Explanation: Choice "a" is clearly written. The reader knows that the items advertised in the commercials were toys. Choice "b" is incorrect because the "they" at the end of the sentence is unreferenced. The reader does not know what items were in the commercials. 3. Run-on Sentences Example: a. The necessary revisions have been made by the author and the manuscript is now ready to be printed. The publicist can begin developing the advertising campaign. b. The necessary revisions have been made by the author and the manuscript is now ready to be printed the publicist can begin developing the advertising campaign. Explanation: Choice "a" is correctly written. Choice "b" is a run-on because it consists of two complete sentences that are not separated by a semi-colon, a period, or a comma and a coordinating conjunction. 4. Sentence Fragments Example: a. The position requires that the incumbent type, file and prepare travel expense claims in addition to acting as the receptionist for the organization. b. The position requires that the incumbent type, file and prepare travel expense claims. In addition to acting as the receptionist for the organization. 9 Explanation: Choice "a" is correctly written. Sentence "b" is incorrect because the phrase "in addition to acting as the receptionist for the organization" is not a complete sentence. 10  VOCABULARY Instructions In each of the following sentences, choose the word or phrase that most nearly has the same meaning as the underlined word. Mark on your answer sheet the letter that identifies the correct choice. 1. The witness corroborated the suspect's story. a. verified b. contradicted c. added to d. questioned 2. It was not a very pragmatic plan. a. plausible b. serious c. practical d. sensible 3. The police sequestered the suspect. a. caught b. isolated c. arrested d. released 4. In order to conceal her guilt, Linda told a blatant lie. a. harmless b. subtle c. careless d. obvious 5. He was ignorant of the proper procedures. a. unaware b. conscious c. uncertain d. cognizant Correct Answers: 1, a; 2, c; 3, b; 4, d; 5, a 11 Explanation of Incorrect Alternatives: In item #1: verify means to corroborate, confirm, or attest to contradict means to express the opposite added to means augmented question means to cast doubt on In item #2 plausible means apparently valid or likely serious means earnest or sincere practical means pragmatic sensible means reasonable or wise In item #3 caught means to seize or trap isolate means to sequester arrest means to seize or bring into custody release means to let go In item #4 harmless means not harmful, inoffensive subtle means not obvious careless means done without care or concern obvious means blatant In item #5 unaware means ignorant conscious means aware uncertain means having questions regarding cognizant means aware Things to study: Vocabulary is not a skill that can be improved quickly. The best way to improve vocabulary is to immerse oneself in language for prolonged periods of time through activities such as reading and writing. Using and interacting with language is the only real way to achieve mastery. Learning words in isolation is very difficult. Those with strong vocabulary skills may benefit from understanding the Latin and Greek roots, prefixes, and suffixes on which many English words are based. Below are some examples of words that derive their meaning from their roots, prefixes, and suffixes. 12 Roots Meaning Example bas = low (basement, debase) bio = life (biology, biopsy) cent = hundred (century, centipede) dec = ten (decade, decimal) ego = self (egotistical, egomaniac) equ = equal (equity, equality) fort = strong (fortitude, fortify) graph = write (autograph, graphic) loc = place (location, dislocate) mort = death (mortal, mortician) ped = child (pediatrician, pedagogy) phob = fear (claustrophobia, homophobia) poten = powerful (impotent, potentate) soph = wisdom (philosophy, sophisticated) term = end (terminate, terminal) urb = city (suburban, urban) Prefixes Meaning Example anti = against (antidote, antislavery) in, il, im, ir = not (indiscrete, illegal, impossible, irresponsible) inter = among, between (intercede, interject) non = not (nonconformist, nonentity) re = back (recur, rebound) pre = before (precede, preempt) sub = under (subvert, submarine) trans = across (transmit, transcend) un = not (un-American, unaware) Suffixes Meaning Example ance, ence = state of (indulgence, abundance) ate = one who (candidate, advocate) il, ile = capable of being (evil, servile) ness = quality of (willingness, shrewdness) ory = a place for (factory, depository) some = characteristic of (loathsome, fearsome) 13 Test strategies: 1. Put the word in context. If you do not know the word itself, attempt to figure out the meaning based on the meaning of the sentence in which it is used. 2. Be aware of subtle differences in meaning. There may be occasions when two words seem to be correct. Before making a choice, try to identify the differences between the words. This will help in selecting the word that is most correct for the context. 14  SPELLING Instructions In the following sentences, choose the correct spelling of the missing word. Mark on your answer sheet the letter that identifies the correct choice. 1. His ______________ of the situation was incorrect. a. analisys b. annalysis c. analysis d. anallysys 2. It was not _____________ who committed the crime. a. apparent b. apperant c. aparent d. aperant 3. She was a ____________ worker. a. conscienteous b. consceintious c. consceinteous d. conscientious 4. She did not actually _____________ the stolen goods. a. receive b. recieve c. receve d. recive 5. There was only one witness to the boy's ______________. a. abducton b. abducsion c. abduction d. abduckion Correct Answers: 1, c; 2, a; 3, d; 4, a; 5, c 15 Things to study: It is difficult to prepare for the spelling portion of the test. No specific word list was used to identify the words that comprise the spelling test and, therefore, no specific words to study. The words that comprise the test are words that could likely find themselves in police reports or in the other writing done by officers. There are rules that govern spelling, but they are many and complex. The complete set of rules that govern spelling is quite extensive, and there are numerous exceptions to the rules. The following includes just a few of the more important rules that govern spelling. 1. Prefixes A prefix is a syllable or syllables added to the beginning of a word to change its meaning. A prefix does not change the spelling of the original word—it is simply added to the beginning of that word. Examples: dis approve, dis continue, mis understand, over extend, un happy. 2. Suffixes A suffix is a syllable or syllables added to the end of a word to change its meaning. A suffix can be a letter, a syllable, or a group of syllables added at the end of a word or word base to change meaning." There are a number of rules that govern spelling when adding a suffix. A. When adding the suffix ness or ly, don't change the spelling of the base word. However, when the root word ends in y, the y is usually changed to i before the ly or ness. Examples: sure, surely; cool, coolness; happy, happily; friendly, friendliness. B. When a one syllable word ends in a single consonant preceded by a single vowel, double the consonant before adding ing, ed, er, est. Examples: wrap, wrapping; tap, tapped; big, biggest. C. When a word with more than one syllable ends in a single consonant proceeded by a single vowel, and when the accent is on the last syllable, double the consonant before adding ing, ed. Examples: occur, occurring; submit, submitted. D. When a word ends in a consonant followed by a silent e, drop the e before adding ing. Examples: hide, hiding; save, saving. 16  E. When a word ends in y preceded by a consonant, keep the y before adding ing. When adding either es or ed, change the y to i. Examples: cry, crying; cry cries; cry, cried. 3. Plural forms of nouns A. To form the plural form of most nouns, add s. Examples: truck, trucks; cat, cats. B. To form the plural form of nouns ending in s, x, z, ch, or sh, add es Examples: box, boxes; patch, patches; fox, foxes. C. To form the plural form of nouns ending in a consonant plus y, change the y to i and add es. Examples: county, counties; cherry, cherries. D. To form the plural form of nouns ending in a vowel plus y, add s. Examples: turkey, turkeys; boy, boys. E. To form the plural form of nouns ending in a consonant plus o, add es. Examples: tomato, tomatoes; veto, vetoes. F. To form the plural form of nouns ending in a vowel plus o, add s. Examples: rodeo, rodeos; stereo, stereos. 4. "I" and "E" Rule The general rule is that i precede e (e.g., believe etc.) except after c when e precedes i (e.g., receive). 17  THE MULTIPLE-CHOICE READING COMPREHENSION TEST Instructions Officers must read and understand a wide range of materials. This test is designed to measure your ability to read and understand various types of written material. Read each paragraph or passage and choose the statement which best answers the question. All questions pertain only to the material in the passage which precedes them. Choose your answer solely on the basis of the material contained in the passage. Mark the letter which identifies your choice in the space on your answer sheet. Do not spend too much time on any one item. 1. The case of Gideon v. Wainwright, decided by the Supreme Court in 1962, granted court- appointed counsel to people charged with felonies who could not afford to pay for their own attorneys. In a more recent case, the Supreme Court declared that the right extends to persons who are charged with any crime for which prison is a potential penalty. According to these court decisions, a defendant may waive his or her right to be represented by counsel at trial, but the state must at least provide the defendant with the opportunity to have free counsel. Based on the above passage, which of the following statements is most correct regarding defendants who cannot afford an attorney? a. Anyone who must appear in court has the right to a free attorney. b. Anyone whose charges may result in prison must have an attorney representing him or her at trial. c. Anyone charged with a felony must have an attorney present for his or her trial. d. Anyone charged with an offense that could lead to prison must have the option of a free attorney. 2. During the 1970s rural America registered a population gain of almost 14 percent, while metropolitan growth was just under 10 percent. The surprising spurt in rural growth had nothing to do, however, with prolific reproduction. On the contrary, rural areas were mired in aging townsfolk. This fact, combined with the trend toward smaller families, actually resulted in a 10 percent decline in the existing rural population between 1965 and 1970. Newcomers more than made up for that loss. The latest census tells us that one sixth of the U.S. population now lives in rural areas and 40 percent of all new housing in the 1970s was built on rural land. The rural areas are now growing faster than the metropolitan areas for the first time since the early 1800s. 18  Based on the preceding passage, which of the following statements is most accurate? a. Rural areas were mired in aging townsfolk because the young and farmers were immigrating to the cities. b. There has been more than a 10 percent increase of newcomers to rural areas. c. The overall gain in the American population was almost 14 percent. d. The trend toward small families contributed to the decrease in the urban population growth rate. 3. Entrapment is defined as officers or agents of the government provoking a person to commit a crime that he did not originally contemplate in order to prosecute him. The goal of law enforcement is not to encourage nor to create an offense, but to prevent people from committing crimes and/or arrest people when they do commit offenses. Based on the preceding passage, which of the following statements describes an instance of entrapment? a. Property that has been marked by police so that they can trace it at a later time. b. A victim, learning that a person intends to rob him, does nothing to stop the crime, but instead allows the robber to carry through with the crime so that police will catch him in the act. c. A door to a warehouse containing valuable merchandise is purposely left open by police. d. An undercover officer approaches a known drug dealer and tries, unsuccessfully, to purchase drugs. 4. Community policing has gained increased acceptance during the past 10 years. The community policing model places service to the public and prevention of crime as the primary role of police in society and emphasize problem solving, with active citizen involvement in defining those matters that are important to the community, rather than crime fighting and arrest statistics. Officers at the patrol level are required to spend less time in their cars communicating with other officers and more time on the street communicating with citizens. Proponents of this style of policing insist that addressing the causes of crime makes police officers more effective and at the same time enhances the quality of life in the neighborhood. Community policing concepts, if successfully implemented, offer the prospect of effective crime prevention and substantially improved community relations. Although community-based policing is not a panacea for the problems of crime in society, it does offer valuable opportunity to both reduce crime and enhance the police image. 19  According to the preceding passage, which of the following statements is most accurate? a. Community policing is expected to increase the number of arrests made by patrol officers. b. Implementing community policing is expected to decrease the amount of crime. c. Community policing is not designed to lessen crime. d. The community policing model defers decision-making to citizens and community members. 5. GENERAL ORDER 62 (Radio Codes) The purpose of this general order is to describe the coding system that identifies the various departmental and non-departmental units. Below you will find three components of police radio codes (A, B, and C). When a dispatcher sends officers out on a call, these 3 code components are used. Each call number shall be comprised of three components: 1. the first digit identifies shift 2. the alpha digit describes the operational assignment 3. the last two digits identifies unit or area Call numbers shall be assigned as follows: A. Shift designation 1 – Day 2 – Swing 3 – Graveyard B. Operational assignments A – Patrol Division, Platoon 1 B – Patrol Division, Platoon 2 C – Patrol Division, Special Activities D – Patrol Division, Gang Unit E – Traffic Division, Motorcycle Unit 1 F – Traffic Division, Motorcycle Unit 2 G – Traffic Division, Administration H – Investigation Division, Fraud I – Investigation Division, Drugs J – Administration Division 20  C. Unit or Area 1-12 – Metropolitan area 13-20 – Airport 21-40 – Industrial parks 41-45 – Residential areas Using the above coding system, the call number 2-B-12 would identify a. swing shift, platoon 2, metropolitan area b. graveyard, platoon 1, airport c. swing shift, administration, residential d. day, traffic unit 1, airport Correct Answers: 1, d; 2, b; 3, c; 4, b; 5, a Explanation of Incorrect Alternatives: Item #1: Alternative "a" is incorrect because it states that "anyone who must appear in court has the right to a free attorney" while the text states that "persons who are charged with any crime for which prison is a potential penalty" have a right to a free attorney. Alternative "b" is incorrect because it states that "anyone…must have an attorney representing him or her at trial." The passage, however, states that "a defendant may waive his or her right to be represented." Alternative "c" is incorrect because it states that "anyone charged with a felony must be represented for his or her trial" while the passage only addresses individuals charged with a crime "for which prison is a potential penalty." Item #2: Alternative "a" is incorrect because the passage says nothing about "the young and farmers….immigrating to the cities." Alternative "c" is incorrect because it states that an "overall gain in the American population" but the passage speaks about rural and metropolitan growth, not overall growth. 21 Alternative "d" is incorrect because the passage states that the trend toward smaller families resulted in a "decline in the existing rural population" not a trend toward smaller families affecting urban growth. Item #3: Alternative "a" does not constitute entrapment because there is no government provocation to steal the marked items. Alternative "b" is not entrapment because the activity described is undertaken by a "victim" not by the government. Alternative "d" is not entrapment because the officer is not provoking an individual to commit a crime that they were not already contemplating committing. Item #4: Alternative "a" is incorrect because community policing is not focused primarily on enhancing arrest statistics but rather "places service to the public and prevention of crime as the primary role of police in society." Alternative "c" is incorrect because community policing is intended to lessen crime. Unlike traditional policing, however, this goal is to be achieved through crime prevention, not crime fighting. Alternative "d" is incorrect because decision-making is not deferred to the citizens and the community. Community policing does, however, stress "active citizen involvement in defining those matters that are important to the community." Item #5: Alternatives "b", "c", and "d" are immediately recognized as incorrect because the last element of the code (12) refers to the metropolitan area, and only one of the choices, "a," meets this condition. 22 Test strategies: Strategy 1: Read the question and the alternative responses before reading the passage. When reading the passage, focus attention on information indicated in the question and alternatives. Strategy 2: Avoid using opinions or personal knowledge to answer the question. Remember that responses are scored based solely on information that is in the passage. Strategy 3: Read the question very carefully. Correct responses are difficult for those who misread the question. 23 NAME: ___________________________________________________________________ (Last) (First) (MI) SOCIAL SECURITY NUMBER ____ ____ ____ -- ____ ____ -- ____ ____ ____ ____ TEST LOCATION: ___________________________________________________________ DATE: _____________________________________________________________________ (Month) (Day) (Year) ENTRY-LEVEL LAW ENFORCEMENT TEST BATTERY TEST BOOK B Form Version: 2024 CALIFORNIA COMMISSION ON PEACE OFFICER STANDARDS AND TRAINING 860 STILLWATER ROAD, SUITE 100 WEST SACRAMENTO, CALIFORNIA 95605 ALL RIGHTS RESERVED CONTROL NUMBER ______________________ 24  CLOZE READING TEST This is a test of how well you can read. The test is completed by supplying missing words in sentences and then coding those words on your answer sheet. Every place you see a dashed blank line, you have to supply the correct word. Notice that there are different numbers of dashes in each blank space. The dashes tell you how many letters make up the word that has been deleted. For a word to be scored as being correct it must make sense in the passage and it must have the same number of letters as there are dashes. All words that meet these two conditions will be scored as being correct. For example, a sentence in the test might read… "The driver was injured when his 1) _ _ _ crashed into the tree." You would complete the sentence by printing "CAR" in the blank space provided: "The driver was injured when his 1) C A R crashed into the tree." The word B U S could have been used, as it both makes sense in the blank space, and has the proper number of letters. The words truck, auto and vehicle are incorrect, because, even though they make sense in the blank, they have the wrong number of letters. There were three dashes in the blank space. Therefore, only words with three letters can be used. Also, only one word has been deleted in each blank space, so make sure that you put only one word in each blank space with a dashed line. Once you have completed the passage, you then code your answers onto Page 2, side 2 of the answer sheet. On Page 2, you will find the alphabet printed many times. Each numbered column represents one item. To code a word on the answer sheet, write the FIRST LETTER of the word that you wrote in the blank, in the box directly under the appropriate item number. Then, blacken the circle in the column of letters that is the same as the letter you wrote in the box. ONLY THE RESPONSES CODED ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET WILL BE SCORED, SO MAKE SURE YOU CODE YOUR ANSWERS CORRECTLY. As you are coding your answer sheet, check to ensure that: the item number on the answer sheet, where you are coding your responses, corresponds with the item number in the passage. you have written the correct letter in the box. you have blackened the correct circle below the box. The following paragraph is an example of a CLOZE test. The juvenile justice system encounters many types of people. Here is one example. Mary was 15 when 1) _ _ _ was first arrested. Mary was a popular girl. 2) _ _ the time of her first arrest, 3) _ _ _ was doing well in school. According to 4) _ _ _ teacher, she was a hard working 5) _ _ _ _ _ _ _ and made excellent grades. Mary also had 6) _ good attitude toward school. Mary lived with her parents 7) _ _ a middle class neighborhood. 25