Powerplant .pdf

POWERPLANT REVIEWER SHEET b. Three c. Four ENGINE INSTRUMENT SYSTEM 8. On a twin engine aircraft with fuel-injected...

POWERPLANT REVIEWER SHEET b. Three c. Four ENGINE INSTRUMENT SYSTEM 8. On a twin engine aircraft with fuel-injected reciprocating engines, one fuel-flow indicator reads 1. Engine pressure ratio is the total pressure ratio considerably higher than the other in all engine between the operating configurations. What is the probable cause a. Aft end of the compressor and the aft end of the of this indication? turbine a. Carburetor icing b. Front of the compressor and the rear of the b. One more fuel nozzles are clogged turbine c. Alternate air door stuck open c. Front of the engine inlet and the aft end of the 9. The principal fault in the pressure type fuel flow compressor meter indicating system, installed on a horizontally 2. Which of the following instrument conditions is opposed continuous-flow fuel injected aircraft acceptable and does not require immediate reciprocating engine, is that a plugged fuel injection correction? nozzle will cause a 1. Red line missing a. Normal operation indication 2. Pointer loose on shaft b. Lower than normal fuel flow indication 3. Glass cracked c. Higher than normal fuel flow indication 4. Mounting screws loose 10. A manifold pressure gauge is designed to 5. Case paint chipped a. Maintain constant pressure in the intake 6. Leaking at line B nut manifold 7. Will not zero out b. Indicate differential pressure between the intake 8. Fogged manifold and atmospheric pressure a. 1 c. Indicate absolute pressure in the intake b. 4 manifold c. 5 11. In a turbine engine, where is the turbine discharge 3. Which statement is correct concerning a pressure indicator sensor located? thermocouple-type temperature indicating instrument a. At the aft end of the compressor section system? b. At a location in the exhaust cone that is a. It is a balanced-type, variable resistor circuit determined to be subjected to the highest b. It requires no external power source pressures c. It usually contains a balancing circuit in the c. Immediately aft of the last turbine stage instrument case to prevent fluctuations of the 12. An indication of unregulated power changes that system voltage from affecting the temperature result in continual drift of manifold pressure reading indication on a turbo supercharged aircraft engine is 4. The indication on a thermocouple-type cylinder head known as temperature indicator is produced by a. Overshoot a. Resistance changes in two dissimilar metals b. Waste gate fluctuation b. A difference in the voltage between two c. Bootstrapping dissimilar metals 13. (1) Engine pressure ratio (EPR) is a ratio of the c. A current generated by the temperature exhaust gas pressure to the engine inlet air pressure, difference between dissimilar metal hot and and indicates the thrust produced. cold junctions (2) Engine pressure ratio (EPR) is a ratio of the 5. Which statement is true regarding a thermocouple- exhaust gas pressure in the engine inlet air pressure, type cylinder head temperature measuring system? and indicates volumetric efficiency. a. The resistance required for cylinder head Regarding the above statements, temperature indicators is measured in farads a. Only No. 1 is true b. The voltage output of a thermocouple system b. Only No. 2 is true is determined by the temperature difference c. Bothe No. 1 & No. 2 are true between the two ends of the thermocouple 14. A complete break in the line between the manifold c. When the master switch is turned on, a pressure gauge and the induction system will be thermocouple indicator will move off-scale to indicated by the gauge registering the low side a. Prevailing atmospheric pressure 6. Which of the following types of electric motors are b. Zero commonly used in electric tachometers? c. Lower than normal for conditions prevailing a. Direct current, series-wound motors 15. Thermocouple leads b. Synchronous motors a. May be installed with either lead to either post of c. Direct current, shunt-wound motors the indicator 7. In addition to fuel quantity, a computerized fuel b. Are designed for a specific installation and system (CFS) with a totalizer-indicator provides may not be altered indication of how many of the following? c. May be repaired using solder less connectors 1. Fuel flow rate 16. The EGT gauge used with reciprocating engines is 2. Fuel used since reset or initial start-up primarily used to furnish temperature readings in 3. Fuel time remaining at current power setting order to 4. Fuel temperature a. Obtain the best mixture setting for fuel a. Two efficiency  b. Obtain the best mixture setting for engine 26. The fuel-flow indication data sent from motor driven cooling impeller and turbine, and motor less type fuel flow c. Prevent engine over temperature transmitters is a measure of 17. Engine oil temperature gauges indicate the a. Fuel mass-flow temperature of the oil b. Fuel volume-flow a. Entering the oil cooler c. Engine burner pressure drop b. Entering the engine 27. What would be the possible cause if a gas turbine c. In the oil storage tank engine has high exhaust gas temperature, high fuel 18. Basically, the indicator of a tachometer system is flow, and low RPM at all engine power settings? responsive to change in a. Fuel control out of adjustment a. Current flow b. Loose or corroded thermocouple b. Frequency c. Turbine damage or loss of turbine efficiency c. voltage 28. Why do helicopters require a minimum of two 19. The purpose of an exhaust gas analyzer is to indicate synchronous tachometer systems? the a. One indicates engine RPM and the other tail a. Brake specific fuel consumption rotor RPM b. Fuel/air ratio being burned in the cylinders b. One indicates main rotor RPM and the other tail c. Temperature of the exhaust gases in the exhaust rotor RPM manifold c. One indicates engine RPM and the other main 20. Instruments that provide readings of low or negative rotor RPM pressure, such as manifold pressure gauges, are 29. (1) Generally, when a turbine engine indicates high usually what type? EGT for a particular EPR (when there is no a. Vane with calibrated spring significant damage), it means that the engine is out of b. Bourdon tube trim c. Diaphragm or bellows (2) Some turbine-powered aircraft use RPM as the 21. Engine pressure ratio is determined by primary indicator of thrust produced, others use EPR a. Multiplying engine inlet total pressure by turbine as the primary indicator outlet total pressure Regarding the above statements, b. Dividing turbine outlet total pressure by a. Only No. 1 is true engine inlet total pressure b. Only No. 2 is true c. Dividing engine inlet total pressure by turbine c. Both No. 1 and No.2 is true outlet total pressure 30. On an aircraft turbine engine, operating at a constant 22. Which of the following instrument discrepancies power, the application of engine anti-icing will result require replacement of the instrument? in 1. Red line missing from glass a. Noticeable shift in EPR 2. Glass cracked b. A false EPR reading 3. Case paint chipped c. An increase in EPR 4. Will not zero out 31. The fuel-flow indicator rotor and needle for a motor- 5. Pointer loose on shaft impeller and turbine indicating system is driven by 6. Mounting screw loose a. An electrical signal 7. Leaking at line B nut b. Direct coupling to the motor shaft 8. Fogged c. A mechanical gear train a. 2,3,7,8 32. (1) Powerplant instrument range markings show b. 2,4,5,8 whether the current state of powerplant operation is c. 1,2,4,7 normal, acceptable for a limited time, or 23. The engine pressure ratio (ERP) indicator is a direct unauthorized. indication of (2) Powerplant instrument range makings are based a. Engine thrust being produced are based on installed engine operating limits which b. Pressure ratio between the font and aft end of the may not exceed (but necessarily equal to) those limits compressor shown on the engine Type Certificate Data Sheet. c. Ratio of engine RPM to compressor pressure Regarding the above statements, 24. What unit in a tachometer system sends information a. Both No. 1 & No. 2 are true to the indicator? b. Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 Is true a. The three-phase ac generator c. Only No. 1 is true b. The two-phase ac generator 33. A red triangle, dot, or diamond mark on an engine c. The synchronous motor instrument face or glass indicates 25. In regard to using a turbine engine oil analysis a. The maximum operating limit of all normal program, which of the following is NOT true? operations a. Generally, an accurate trend forecast may be b. The maximum limit for high transients such made after an engine’s first oil sample as starting analysis c. A restricted operating range b. It is best to start an oil analysis program on an 34. The exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicator on a engine when it is new gas turbine engine provides a relative indication of c. A successful oil analysis program should be run the over an engine’s total operating life so that a. Exhaust temperature normal trends can be established  b. Temperature of the exhaust gases as they pass 46. A complete break in the line between the manifold the exhaust con pressure gauge and the induction system will be c. Turbine inlet temperature indicated by the gauge registering 35. Which unit most accurately indicates fuel a. Prevailing atmospheric pressure consumption of reciprocating engine? b. Zero a. Fuel flow meter c. Lower than normal for conditions prevailing b. Fuel pressure gauge 47. Instruments that measure relatively high fluid c. Electronic fuel quantity indicator pressures, such as oil pressure gauges, are usually 36. What basic meter is used to indicate cylinder head what type? temperature in most aircraft? a. Vane with calibrated spring a. Electrodynamometer b. Bourdon tube b. Galvanometer c. Diaphragm or bellows c. Thermocouple-type meter 48. The fuel-flow indication system used with many fuel- 37. What instrument indicates the thrust of a gas turbine injected opposed engine airplanes utilizes a measure engine? of a. Exhaust gas temperature indicator a. Fuel flow volume b. Turbine inlet temperature indicator b. Fuel pressure c. Engine pressure ratio indicator c. Fuel flow mass 38. What is the primary purpose of the tachometer on an 49. The fuel flowmeter used with a continuous-fuel axial-compressor turbine engine? injection system installed on an aircraft horizontally a. Monitor engine RPM during cruise conditions opposed reciprocating engines measures the fuel b. It is the most accurate instrument for establishing pressure drop across the thrust settings under all conditions a. manifold valve c. Monitor engine RPM during starting and to b. fuel nozzles indicate overspeed conditions c. metering valve 39. In an aircraft equipped with a pressure-drop type 50. What instrument on a gas turbine engine should be fuel-flow indicating system, if one of the injector monitored to minimize the possibility of a “hot” nozzles becomes restricted, this would cause a start? decrease in fuel flow with a. RPM indicator a. A decreased fuel flow indication on the gauge b. Turbine inlet temperature b. An increased fuel flow indication on the gauge c. Torque meter c. No change in fuel flow indication on the gauge 51. Where are the hot and cold junctions located in an 40. If the thermocouple leads were inadvertently crossed engine cylinder cylinder temperature indicating at installation, what would the cylinder temperature system? gauge pointer indicate? a. Both junctions are located at the instrument a. Normal temperature for prevailing condition b. Both junctions are located at the cylinder b. Moves off-scale on the zero side of the meter c. The hot junction is located at the cylinder and c. Moves off-scale on the high side of the meter the cold junction is located at the instrument 41. A common type of electrically operated oil 52. Motor driven impeller and turbine fuel flow temperature gauge utilizes transmitters are designed to transmit data a. Either wheatstone bridge or ratio meter a. Using aircraft electrical system power circuit b. Mechanically b. A thermocouple type circuit c. By fuel pressure c. Vapor pressure and pressure switches 53. In what units are turbine engine tachometers 42. Jet engine thermocouples are usually constructed of calibrated? a. Chromel-alumel a. Percent of engine RPM b. Iron-constantan b. Actual engine RPM c. Alumel-constantan c. Percent of engine pressure ratio 43. Which of the following is a primary engine 54. A change in engine manifold pressure has a direct instrument? effect on the a. Tachometer a. Piston displacement b. Fuel flow meter b. Compression ratio c. Airspeed indicator c. Mean effective cylinder pressure 44. The RPM indication of a synchronous ac motor- tachometer is governed by the generator RECIPROCATING ENGINES a. Voltage b. Current 1. When is the fuel/air mixture ignited in a conventional reciprocating engine? c. Frequency a. When the piston has reached top dead 45. A bourdon-tube instrument may be used to indicate center of the intake stroke. 1. Pressure b. Shortly before the piston reaches the 2. Temperature top of the compression stroke. 3. Position c. When the piston reaches top dead center 4. Quantity on the compression stroke. a. 1 and 2 2. Direct mechanical push-pull carburetor heat control linkages should normally be adjusted so that the stop b. 1 and 3 located on the diverter valve will be contacted c. 2 and 4  a. before the stop at the control lever is 12. During ground check an engine is found to be rough- reached in both HOT and COLD running, the magneto drop is normal, and the positions. manifold pressure is higher than normal for any b. before the stop at the control lever ¡s given RPM. The trouble may be caused by reached in the HOT position and after the a. Several spark plugs fouled on different stop at the control lever is reached in the cylinders. COLD position. b. a leak in the intake manifold. c. after the stoD at the control lever is c. a dead cylinder. reached in both HOT and COLD 13. During routine inspection of a reciprocating engine , positions. a deposit of small , bright , metallic particles which 3. At what speed must a crankshaft turn if each cylinder do not cling to the magnetic drain plug is discovered of a four-stroke cycle engine is to be fired 200 times in the oil sump and on the surface of the oil filter. a minute? This condition a. 800 RPM. a. may be a result of abnormal plain type b. 1,600 RPM. bearing wear and is cause for further c. 400 RPM. investigation. 4. Excessive valve clearance in a piston engine b. is probably a result of ring and cylinder a. increases valve overlap. wall wear and is cause for engine removal b. increases valve opening time. and/ or overhaul. c. decreases valve overlap. c. is normal in engines utilizing plain type 5. On which part of the cylinder walls of a normally bearings and aluminum pistons and is not operating engine will the greatest amount of wear cause for alarm. occur? 14. Master rod bearings are generally what type? a. Near the center of the cylinder where piston a. Plain velocity is greatest. b. Roller b. Near the top of the cylinder. c. Ball c. Wear is normally evenly distributed. 15. A hissing sound from the exhaust stacks when the 6. During the inspection of an engine control system in propeller is being pulled through manually indicates which push-pull control rods are used, the threaded a. a cracked exhaust stack rod ends should b. exhaust valve blow-by a. insure that the safety wire passes thru the hole c. worn piston rings in shank of the rod-end. 16. If the exhaust valve of a four – stroke cycle engine b. Be checked for the thread engagement of at is closed and the intake valve is just closed , the least two threads but more than four threads. piston is on the c. Be checked for the amount of thread a. intake stroke engagement by means of the inspection holes. b. power stroke 7. Some aircraft engine manufactures equip their c. compression stroke product with choked or taper-ground cylinders in 17. When will small induction system air leaks have the order to most noticeable effect on engine operation? a. Provide a straight cylinder bore at operating temperatures. a. At high RPM. b. Flex the rings slightly during operation and b. At maximum continuous and takeoff power reduce the possibility of the rings sticking in the settings. grooves. c. At low RPM. c. Increase the compression pressure for starting 18. What special procedure must be followed when purposes. adjusting the values of an engine equipped with a 8. An unsupercharged aircraft reciprocating engine, floating cam ring? operated at full throttle from sea level, to 10,000 feet, a. Adjust valves when the engine is hot. provided the RPM is unchanged, will b. Adjust all exhaust valves before intake a. Lose power due to the reduced volume of air valves. drawn into the cylinders. c. Eliminate cam bearing clearance when b. Produce constant power due to the same volume making valve adjustment. of air drawn into the cylinders. 19. Valve overlap is defined as the number of degrees of c. Lose power due to the reduce density of the crankshaft travel air drawn into the cylinders. a. during which both valves are off their 9. As the pressure is applied during a reciprocating seats. engine compression check using a differential b. between the closing of the intake valve and pressure tester, what would a movement of the the opening of the exhaust valve. propeller in the direction of engine rotation indicate? c. during which both valves ate on their seats. a. The piston was on compression stroke. 20. Which of the following engine servicing operations b. The piston was on exhaust stroke. generally requires engine pre-oiling prior to starting c. The piston was positioned past top dead the engine? center. a. Engine oil and filter change. 10. The valve clearance of an engine using hydraulic b. Engine installation. lifters, when the lifters are completely flatl, or empty, c. Replacement of oil lines. should not exceed 21. What is the best indication of worn valve guides? a. 0.00 inch a. High oil consumption. b. a specified amount above zero. b. Low compression c. a specified amount below zero. c. Low oil pressure. 11. What does valve overlap promote? 22. How may it be determined that a reciprocating engine a. Lower intake manifold pressure and with a dry sump is pre-oiled sufficiently? temperatures. a. The engine oil pressure gauge will indicate b. A backflow of gases across the cylinder. normal oil pressure. c. Better scavenging and cooling b. Oil will flow from engine return line or characteristics. indicator port.  c. When the quantity of oil specified by the c. obtain the best volumetric efficiency and manufacturer has been pumped into the lower cylinder operating temperatures. engine. 34. Engine crankshaft run out is usually checked 23. If air is heard coming from the crankcase breather or 1. during engine overhaul. oil filler during a differential compression check, 2. during annual inspection. What is this an indication of? 3. after a “prop strike” or sudden engine stoppage. a. Exhaust valve leakage 4. during 100 – hour inspection. b. Intake valve leakage a. 1,3 and 4 c. Piston ring leakage. b. 1 and 3 24. Excessive valve clearances will cause the duration of c. 1,2 and 3. valve opening to 35. A condition that can occur in radial engines but is a. increase for both intake and exhaust valves. unlikely to occur in horizontally opposed engines is b. decrease for both intake and exhaust a. oil- fouled spark plug valves. b. valve overlap. c. decrease for intake valves and decrease for c. hydraulic lock. exhaust valves. 36. Which statement is true regarding bearings used in 25. Which statement is correct regarding a four- stroke high powered reciprocating aircraft engines? cycle aircraft engine? a. The outer race of a single-row, self –aligning ball a. The intake valve closes on the compassion bearing will always have a radius equal to the stroke. radius of the balls. b. The exhaust valve opens on the exhaust b. There is less rolling friction when ball bearings stroke. are used than when roller bearings are employed. c. The intake valve closes on the intake stroke. c. Crankshaft bearings are generally of the ball-type 26. A characteristic of dyna- focal engine mounts as due to their ability to withstand extreme loads applied to aircraft reciprocating engines is that the without overheating. a. shock mounts eliminate the torsional flexing 37. Excessive valve clearance results in the valves of the powerplant. opening b. engine attaches to the shock mount at the a. late and closing early. engine’s center of gravity. b. early and closing late. c. shock mount point toward the engine’s c. late and closing late. center of gravity. 38. What will be the likely result if the piston ring gaps 27. Which statement pertaining to fuel/air ratios is true? happen to be aligned when performing a differential- a. The mixture ratio which gives the best pressure compression check on a cylinder? power is richer than the mixture ratio a. Little or no effect. which gives maximum economy. b. The rings will not be seated. b. A rich mixture is faster burning than a c. A worn or defective ring(s) indication. normal mixture. 39. Engine operating flexibility is the ability of the c. The mixture ratio which gives maximum engine to economy may also be designated as best a. deliver maximum horsepower at a specific power mixture. altitude. 28. One cause of after firing in an aircraft engine is b. meet exacting requirements of efficiency and a. sticking intake valves. low weight per horsepower ratio. b. an excessively lean mixture. c. run smoothly and give the desired c. an excessively rich mixture. performance at all speeds 29. The horsepower developed in the cylinders of a 40. An engine misses in both the right and left positions reciprocating engine is known as the of the magneto switch. The quickest method for a. shaft horsepower locating the trouble is to b. indicated horsepower a. check for one or more cold cylinders. c. brake horsepower b. perform a compression check. 30. An increase in manifold pressure with a constant c. check each spark plug. RPM will cause the bearing load in an engine to 41. After spark plugs from an opposed engine have been a. decrease serviced, in what position should they be b. remain relatively constant reinstalled? c. increase a. Next in firing order to the one from 31. Which of the following will decrease volumetric which they were removed. efficiency in a reciprocating engine? b. Swapped bottom to top. 1. Full throttle operation. c. Next in firing order to the one from 2. Low cylinder head temperatures. which they were removed and 3. Improper valve timing. swapped bottom to top. 4. Sharp bends in the induction system. 42. Grinding the valves of a reciprocating engine to a 5. High carburetor air temperatures. feather edge is likely to result in a. 2,4, and 5 a. Normal operation and long life. b. 1,2,3, and 4 b. Excessive valve clearance. c. 3,4, and 5 c. Pre-ignition and burned valves. 32. A nine –cylinder engine with a bore of 5.5 inches 43. Which of these conditions will cause an engine to have an and a stroke of 6 inches will have a total piston increased tendency to detonate? displacement of 1. High manifold pressure. a. 740 cubic inches 2. High intake air temperature. b. 1,425 cubic inches 3. Engine overheated. c. 1,283 cubic inches 4. Late ignition timing. 33. The primary purpose in setting proper valve timing a. 1,2,3. and overlap is to b. 1,2,3,4. a. permit the best possible charge of fuel / air c. 1,4 mixture into the cylinders. 44. Standard aircraft cylinder oversizes usually range from b. gain more thorough exhaust gas scavenging. 0.010 inch to 0.030 inch. Oversize on automobile engine cylinders may range up to 0.100 inch. This is because aircraft propeller to remain at a lower, more efficient engine cylinders RPM. a. have more limited cooling capacity. c. To enable the engine RPM to be increased with an b. have relatively thin walls and may be nitrided. accompanying increase in propeller RPM. c. operate at high temperatures. 55. Which bearing is least likely to be a roller or ball bearing? 45. The purpose of two or more valve springs in aircraft a. Rocker arm bearing (overhead valve engine). engines is to b. Master rod bearing (radial engine). a. equalize side pressure on the valve stems. c. Crankshaft main bearing (radial engine). b. eliminate valve spring surge. 56. On which strokes are both valves on a four-stroke cycle c. equalize valve face loading. reciprocating 46. What could cause excessive pressure buildup in the aircraft engine open? crankcase of a reciprocating engine? a. Power and exhaust. a. Plugged crankcase breather. b. Intake and compression. b. Improper warm-up operation. c. Exhaust and intake. c. An excessive quantity of oil. 57. To reduce the power output of an engine equipped with a 47. By use of a differential pressure compression tester, it is constant-speed propeller and operating near maximum BMEP, determined that the the No. 3 cylinder of a nine-cylinder radial engine will not hold a. manifold pressure is reduced with the throttle pressure after the crankshaft has been rotated 2600 from top control before the RPM is reduced with the dead center compression stroke propeller control. No. 1 cylinder. How can this indication usually be interpreted? b. manifold pressure is reduced with the propeller a. A normal indication. control before the RPM is reduced with the throttle b. Exhaust valve blow-by. control. c. A damaged exhaust valve or insufficient exhaust c. RPM is reduced with the propeller control before the valve clearance. manifold pressure is reduced with the throttle control. 48. One of the best indicators of reciprocating engine 58. Which of the following would indicate a general weak- combustion chamber problems is engine condition when operated with a fixed-pitch propeller or a. excessive engine vibration. test club? b. starting difficulties. a. Lower than normal static RPM, full throttle c. spark plug condition. operation. 49. If the ignition switch is moved from BOTH to either LEFT b. Manifold pressure lower at idle RPM than at static or RIGHT during a magneto check, a normal operation is RPM. usually indicated by c. Lower than normal manifold pressure for any given a. no change in RPM. RPM. b. momentary interruption of both ignition systems. 59. Some cylinder barrels are hardened by c. slight drop in RPM. a. nitriding. b. shot peening. 50. The primary concern in establishing the firing order for an c. tempering. opposed engine is to 60. Why does the smoothness of operation of an engine a. provide for balance and eliminate vibration to the increase with a greater number of cylinders? greatest extent possible. a. The power impulses are spaced closer together. b. keep power impulses on adjacent cylinders as far b. The power impulses are spaced farther apart. apart as possible in order to obtain the greatest c. The engine has larger counterbalance weights. mechanical efficiency. 61. Which of the following is a characteristic of a thrust c. keep the power impulses on adjacent cylinders as bearing used in most radial engines? close as possible in order to obtain the greatest a. Tapered roller. mechanical efficiency. b. Double-row ball. 51. Increased water vapor (higher relative humidity) in the c. Deep-groove ball. incoming air to a reciprocating engine will normally result in 62. Which condition would be the least likely to be caused by which of the following? failed or failing engine bearings? a. Decreased engine power at a constant RPM and a. Excessive oil consumption. manifold pressure. b. High oil temperatures. b. Increased power output due to increased volumetric c. Low oil temperatures. efficiency. 63. Valve clearance changes on opposed-type engines using c. A leaning effect on engines which use non-automatic hydraulic lifters are accomplished by carburetors. a. rocker arm adjustment. 52. If the hot clearance is used to set the valves when the b. rocker arm replacement. engine is cold, what will occur during operation of the engine? c. push rod replacement. a. The valves will open early and close early. 64. The floating control thermostat, used on some b. The valves will open late and close early. reciprocating engine c. The valves will open early and close late. installations, helps regulate oil temperature by 53. Which fuel/air mixture will result in the highest engine a. controlling oil flow through the oil cooler. temperature (all other factors remaining constant)? b. recirculating hot oil back through the sump. a. A mixture leaner than a rich best-power mixture of c. controlling air flow through the oil cooler..085. 65. Which of the following would most likely cause a b. A mixture richer than a full-rich mixture of.087. reciprocating engine to backfire through the induction system c. A mixture leaner than a manual lean mixture of at low RPM operation?.060. a. Idle mixture too rich. 54. What is the principal advantage of using propeller b. Clogged derichment valve. reduction gears? c. Lean mixture. a. To enable the propeller RPM to be increased without 66. What is the purpose of a power check on a reciprocating an accompanying increase in engine RPM. engine? b. To enable the engine RPM to be increased with an a. To check magneto drop. accompanying increase in power and allow the b. To determine satisfactory performance. c. To determine if the fuel/air mixture is adequate. 67. To what altitude will a turbo charged engine maintain sea c. it is an indication of normal engine wear unless the level pressure? deposit exceeds a specified amount. a. Critical altitude. 77. The five events of a four-stroke cycle engine in the order b. Service ceiling. of their occurrence are c. Pressure altitude. a. intake, ignition, compression, power, exhaust. 68. Before attempting to start a radial engine that has been b. intake, power, compression, ignition, exhaust. shut down for more than 30 minutes, c. intake, compression, ignition, power, exhaust. a. turn the propeller by hand three or four revolutions in 78. Ignition occurs at 28° BTDC on a certain four-stroke cycle the opposite direction of normal rotation to check for engine, and theintake valve opens at 15° BTDC. How many liquid lock. degrees of crankshaft travel after ignition does the intake valve b. turn the ignition switch on before energizing the open? (Consider one cylinder only.) starter. a. 707°. c. turn the propeller by hand three to four b. 373°. revolutions in the normal direction of rotation to c. 347°. check for liquid lock. 79. What is required by 14 CFR Part 43 Appendix D when 69. If the crankshaft run out readings on the dial indicator are performing an annual/100-hour inspection on a reciprocating plus.002 inch and minus.003 inch, the run out is engine aircraft? a..005 inch. a. Magneto timing check. b. plus.001 inch. b. Cylinder compression check. c. minus.001 inch. c. Valve clearance check. 70. Full-floating piston pins are those which allow motion 80. Backfiring through the carburetor generally results from between the pin and the use of a. the piston. a. an excessively lean mixture. b. both the piston and the large end of the connecting b. excessively atomized fuel. rod. c. an excessively rich mixture. c. both the piston and the small end of the 81. Reduced air density at high altitude has a decided effect on connecting rod. carburetion, resulting in a reduction of engine power by 71. During overhaul, the disassembled parts of an engine are a. excessively enriching the fuel/air mixture. usually degreased with some form of mineral spirits solvent b. excessively leaning the fuel/air mixture. rather than water-mixed degreasers primarily because c. reducing fuel vaporization. a. solvent degreasers are much more effective. 82. Which of the following conditions would most likely lead b. water-mixed degreaser residues may cause engine to detonation? oil contamination in the overhauled engine. a. Late ignition timing. c. water-mixed degreasers cause corrosion. b. Use of fuel with too high an octane rating. 72. When does valve overlap occur in the operation of an c. Use of fuel with too low an octane rating. aircraft reciprocating engine? 83. How many of the following are factors in establishing the a. At the end of the exhaust stroke and the beginning maximum compression ratio limitations of an aircraft engine? of the intake stroke. 1. Detonation characteristics of the fuel used. b. At the end of the power stroke and the beginning of 2. Design limitations of the engine. the exhaust stroke. 3. Degree of supercharging. c. At the end of the compression stroke and the 4. Spark plug reach. beginning of the power stroke. a. Four. 73. Which statement is correct regarding engine crankshafts? b. Two. a. Moveable counterweights serve to reduce the c. THREE dynamic vibrations in an aircraft reciprocating 84. Cam-ground pistons are installed in some aircraft engines engine. to b. Moveable counterweights serve to reduce the a. provide a better fit at operating temperatures. torsional vibrations in an aircraft reciprocating b. act as a compensating feature so that a compensated engine. magneto is not required. c. Moveable counterweights are designed to resonate at c. equalize the wear on all pistons the natural frequency of the crankshaft. 85. What is an advantage of using metallic-sodium filled 74. The volume of a cylinder equals 70 cubic inches when the exhaust valves in piston is at bottom aircraft reciprocating engines? center. When the piston is at the top of the cylinder, the a. Increased strength and resistance to cracking. volume equals 10 cubic inches. What is the compression ratio? b. Reduced valve operating temperatures. a. 1 : 7 c. Greater resistance to deterioration at high valve b. 7 : 10 temperatures. c. 7 : 1 86. The operating temperature valve clearance of a radial 75. Which of the following is most likely to occur if an engine as compared to cold valve clearance is overhead valve engine is operated with inadequate valve a. greater. clearances? b. less. a. The valves will not seat positively during start and c. the same. engine warm up. 87. When cleaning aluminum and magnesium engine parts, it b. The further decrease in valve clearance that occurs as is inadvisable to soak them in solutions containing soap engine temperatures increase will cause damage to because the valve-operating mechanism. a. some of the soap will become impregnated in the c. The valves will remain closed for longer periods than surface of the material and subsequently cause specified by the engine manufacturer. engine oil contamination and foaming. 76. If metallic particles are found in the oil filter during an b. the soap can chemically alter the metals causing them inspection, to become more susceptible to corrosion. a. It is an indication of normal engine wear unless the c. the parts can be destroyed by dissimilar metal particles are nonferrous. electrolytic action if they are placed together in the b. the cause should be identified and corrected solution for more than a few minutes. before the aircraft is released for flight. 89. Using the following information, determine how many c. backfiring into the induction system. degrees the crankshaft will rotate with both the intake and 100. (1) Pre-ignition is caused by improper ignition timing. exhaust valves seated. (2) Detonation occurs when an area of the combustion Intake opens 15°: BTDC. chamber becomes incandescent and ignites the fuel/air mixture Exhaust opens 700: BBDC. in advance of normal timed ignition. Intake closes 45°: ABDC. Regarding the above statements, Exhaust closes 10°: ATDC. a. only No. 1 is true. a. 290°. b. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. b. 245°. c. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. c. 25°. 101. If an engine cylinder is to be removed, at what position in 90. What tool is generally used to measure the crankshaft the cylinder should the piston be? rotation in degrees? a. Bottom dead center. a. Dial indicator. b. Top dead center. b. Timing disk. c. Halfway between top and bottom dead center. c. Prop Protractor. 102. During overhaul, reciprocating engine exhaust valves are 91. How is proper end-gap clearance on new piston rings checked for stretch assured during the overhaul of an engine? a. with a suitable inside spring caliper. a. By accurately measuring and matching the outside b. with a contour or radius gauge. diameter of the rings with the inside diameter of the c. by placing the valve on a surface plate and measuring cylinders. its length with a vernier height gauge. b. By using rings specified by the engine manufacturer. 103. The actual power delivered to the propeller of an aircraft c. By placing the rings in the cylinder and measuring engine is called the end-gap with a feeler gauge. a. friction horsepower. 92. An aircraft reciprocating engine using hydraulic valve b. brake horsepower. lifters is observed to have no clearance in its valve-operating c. indicated horsepower mechanism after the minimum inlet oil and cylinder head 104. If an engine with a stroke of 6 inches is operated at 2,000 temperatures for takeoff have been reached. When can this RPM, the piston movement within the cylinder will be condition be expected? a. at maximum velocity around TDC. a. During normal operation. b. constant during the entire 360° of crankshaft travel. b. When the lifters become deflated. c. at maximum velocity 90° after TDC. c. As a result of carbon and sludge becoming trapped in 105. If the oil pressure gauge fluctuates over a wide range the lifter and restricting its option. from zero to normal operating pressure, the most likely cause 93. Compression ratio is the ratio between the is a. piston travel on the compression stroke and on the a. low oil supply. intake stroke. b. broken or weak pressure relief valve spring. b. combustion chamber pressure on the combustion c. air lock in the scavenge pump intake. stroke and on the exhaust stroke. 106. What is the purpose of the safety circlet installed on some c. cylinder volume with piston at bottom dead center valve stems? and at top dead center. a. To hold the valve guide in position. 94. If fuel/air ratio is proper and ignition timing is correct, the b. To hold the valve spring retaining washer in combustion process should be completed position. a. 20 to 300 before top center at the end of the c. To prevent valves from falling into the compression stroke. combustion chamber. b. when the exhaust valve opens at the end of the power 107. If the oil pressure of a cold engine is higher than at stroke. normal operating c. just after top center at the beginning of the power temperatures, the stroke. a. oil system relief valve should be readjusted. 95. If an engine operates with a low oil pressure and a high oil b. engines lubrication system is probably operating temperature, the problem may be caused by a normally. a. leaking oil dilution valve. c. oil dilution system should be turned on immediately. b. sheared oil pump shaft. 108. (1) Cast iron piston rings may be used in chrome-plated c. clogged oil cooler annular jacket. cylinders. 96. What is likely to occur if a reciprocating engine is (2) Chrome-plated rings may be used in plain steel cylinders. operated at high power settings before it is properly warmed Regarding the above statements, up? a. only No. 1 is true. a. Oil starvation of bearings and other parts. b. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. b. Excessive thinning of the engine oil. c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. c. Accelerated oil breakdown and oxidation. 97. What is the basic operational sequence for reducing the PROPELLERS power output of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller? 1. What actuates the pilot valve in the governor of a constant- a. Reduce the RPM, then the manifold pressure. speed propeller? b. Reduce the manifold pressure, then retard the throttle a. Engine oil pressure. to obtain the correct RPM. b. Governor flyweights. c. Reduce the manifold pressure, then the RPM. c. Governor pump oil pressure. 98. Which of the following will be caused by excessive valve 2. The purpose of permanently sealing and partially filling clearance of a cylinder on a reciprocating aircraft engine? some models of McCauley propeller hubs with dyed oil is to a. Reduced valve overlap period. a. provide an always clean separate lubrication of the b. Intake and exhaust valves will open early and close internal parts. late. b. dampen pressure surges and prevent too rapid c. A power increase by shortening the exhaust event. changes in propeller blade angle. 99. If the intake valve is opened too early in the cycle of c. make the location of cracks readily apparent. operation of a four stroke cycle engine, it may result in 3. During engine operation at speeds lower than those for a. improper scavenging of exhaust gases. which the constant-speed propeller control can govern in the b. engine kickback. INCREASE RPM position, the propeller will  a. remain in the full HIGH PITCH position, c. Propeller balancing. b. maintain engine RPM in the normal manner until the 15. Which of the following forces or combination of forces HIGH PITCH stop is reached. operates to move the blades of a constant-speed c. remain in the full LOW PITCH position. counterweight-type propeller to the HIGH PITCH position? 4. The primary purpose of the front and rear cones for a. Engine oil pressure acting on the propeller piston- propellers that are cylinder arrangement and centrifugal force acting on installed on splined shafts is to the counterweights. a. position the propeller hub on the splined shaft. b. Centrifugal force acting on the counterweights. b. prevent metal-to-metal contact between the propeller c. Prop governor oil pressure acting on the propeller and the splined shaft. piston-cylinder arrangement. c. reduce stresses between the splines of the propeller 16. The blade angle of a fixed-pitch propeller and the splines of the shaft. a. is greatest at the tip. 5. What operational force tends to increase propeller blade b. is smallest at the tip. angle? c. increases in proportion to the distance each section is a. Centrifugal twisting force. from the hub. b. Aerodynamic twisting force. 17. After proper removal of aluminum blade damage, the c. Thrust bending force. affected surface should be polished with 6. Minor surface damage located in a repairable area, but not a. fine steel wool. on the leading or trailing edges of aluminum blades, may be b. very fine sandpaper. repaired by first c. powdered soapstone. a. filing with a riffle file. 18. What operational force causes the greatest stress on a b. filing with a half round or flat file. propeller? c. rough sanding and applying a proper filler. a. Aerodynamic twisting force. 7. When engine power is increased, the constant-speed b. Centrifugal force. propeller tries to c. Thrust bending force. function so that it will 19. The propeller blade angle is defined as the acute angle a. maintain the RPM, decrease the blade angle, and between the airfoil section chord line (at the blade reference maintain a low angle of attack. station) and which of the b. increase the RPM, decrease the blade angle, and following? maintain a low angle of attack. a. The plane of rotation. c. maintain the RPM, increase the blade angle, and b. The relative wind. maintain a low angle of attack. c. The axis of blade rotation during pitch change. 8. Which of the following statements concerning the 20. Longitudinal (fore and aft) clearance of constant-speed installation of a new fixed-pitch wood propeller is true? propeller blades or cuffs must be at least 1/2 inch (12.7 mm) a. If a separate metal hub is used, final track should be between propeller parts and stationary parts of the aircraft. accomplished prior to installing the hub in the This clearance is with the propeller blades propeller. a. at takeoff pitch (maximum thrust) angle. b. NAS close-tolerance bolts should be used to install b. feathered or in the most critical pitch the propeller. configuration. c. Inspect the bolts for tightness after the first flight c. at the lowest pitch angle. and again after the first 25 hours of flying. 21. What is a function of the automatic propeller 9. Which of the following best describes the blade movement synchronizing system on multiengine aircraft? of a full a. To control the tip speed of all propellers. feathering, constant-speed propeller that is in the LOW RPM b. To control engine RPM and reduce vibration. position when the feathering action is begun? c. To control the power output of all engines. a. High pitch through low pitch to feather position. 22. What operational force tends to bend the propeller blades b. High pitch directly to feather position. forward at the tip? c. Low pitch through high pitch to feather position. a. Torque-bending force. 10. Which of the following is used to correct horizontal b. Centrifugal-twisting force. unbalance of a wood propeller? c. Thrust-bending force. a. Brass screws. 23.What type of imbalance will cause a two-blade propeller to b. Shellac. have a persistent tendency to come to rest in a horizontal c. Solder. position (with the blades parallel to the ground) while being 11. The primary purpose of a propeller is to checked on a propeller balancing beam? a. create lift on the fixed airfoils of an aircraft a. Vertical. b. change engine horsepower to thrust. b. Horizontal. c. provide static and dynamic stability of an aircraft in c. Harmonic. flight. 24. Propellers exposed to salt spray should be flushed with 12. What unit in the propeller anti-icing system controls the a. stoddard solvent. output of the pump? b. fresh water. a. Pressure relief valve. c. soapy water. b. Rheostat. 25. Which of the following methods is used to straighten a c. Cycling timer. bent aluminum propeller blade that is within repairable limits? 13. Propeller aerodynamic (thrust) imbalance can be largely a. Careful heating to accomplish straightening, followed eliminated by by heat treatment to restore original strength. a. correct blade contouring and angle setting. b. Either hot or cold straightening, depending on the b. static balancing. location and severity of damage. c. keeping the propeller blades within the same plane c. Cold straightening only. of rotation. 26. The centrifugal twisting moment of an operating propeller 14. Which of the following functions requires the use of a tends to propeller blade a. increase the pitch angle. station? b. reduce the pitch angle. a. Measuring blade angle. c. bend the blades in the direction of rotation. b. Indexing blades. 27. The angle-of-attack of a rotating propeller blade is c. rinse the blade in a Iodine solution. measured between the blade chord or face and which of the 38.Grease used in aircraft propellers reduces the frictional following? resistance of a. Plane of blade rotation. moving parts and is easily molded into any form under b. Full low-pitch blade angle. pressure. This c. Relative airstream. statement defines 28. A powerplant using a hydraulically controlled constant- a. antifriction and plasticity characteristics of speed propeller is operating within the propeller’s constant- grease. speed range at a fixed throttle setting. If the tension of the b. antifriction and chemical stability of grease. propeller governor control spring (speeder spring) is reduced c. viscosity and melting point of grease. by movement of the cockpit propeller control, the propeller 39.An aircraft’s propeller system beta range blade angle will a. is used to produce zero or negative thrust. a. increase, engine manifold pressure will increase, b. is used to achieve maximum thrust during takeoff. and engine RPM will decrease. c. refers to the most fuel efficient pitch range to use at b. decrease, engine manifold pressure will increase, a given engine RPM. and engine RPM will decrease. 40.What operational force causes propeller blade tips to lag in c. decrease, engine manifold pressure will decrease, the opposite direction of rotation? and engine RPM will increase. a. Thrust-bending force. 29.Removal of propeller blade tips within Type Certificate b. Aerodynamic-twisting force. Data Sheet limits when correcting a defect is c. Torque-bending force. a. a major alteration. 41.On most reciprocating multiengine aircraft, automatic b. a major repair. propeller c. permitted under the privileges and limitations of a synchronization is accomplished through the actuation of the powerplant rating. a. throttle levers. 30.Propeller blade tracking is the process of determining b. propeller governors. a. the plane of rotation of the propeller with respect to c. propeller control levers. the aircraft longitudinal axis. 42.Which of the following generally renders an aluminum b. that the blade angles are within the specified alloy propeller unrepairable? tolerance of each other. a. Any repairs that would require shortening and re- contouring of blades. c. the positions of the tips of the propeller blades b. Any slag inclusions or cold shuts. relative to each other. c. Transverse cracks of any size. 31.If a flanged propeller shaft has dowel pins 43.What action takes place when the cockpit control lever for a. install the propeller so that the blades are positioned a hydroniatic constant-speed propeller is actuated? for hand propping. a. Compression of the speeder spring is changed. b. the propeller can be installed in only one b. The governor booster pump pressure is varied. position. c. The governor bypass valve is positioned to direct oil c. check carefully for front cone bottoming against the pressure to the propeller dome. pins. 44.It is important that nicks in aluminum alloy propeller 32.The primary purpose of a feathering propeller is to blades be repaired as soon as possible in order to a. prevent further engine damage when an engine fails a. maintain equal aerodynamic characteristics between in flight. the blades. b. prevent propeller damage when an engine fails in b. eliminate stress concentration points. flight. c. equalize the centrifugal loads between the blades. c. eliminate the drag created by a wind milling 45.The pitch-changing mechanism of the hydroniatic propeller propeller when an engine fails in flight. is lubricated by 33.Why is the pulley stop screw on a propeller governor a. the pitch-changing oil. adjustable? b. using an approved-type grease in a grease gun at a. To limit the maximum engine speed during intervals prescribed by the propeller manufacturer. takeoff. c. thoroughly greasing, necessary only during propeller b. To maintain the proper blade angle for cruising. overhaul. c. To limit the maximum propeller pitch for takeoff. 46.Where are the high and low pitch stops of a Hamilton 34.Propeller blade stations are measured from the Standard constant-speed or two-position counterweight a. index mark on the blade shank. propeller located? b. hub centerline. a. In the hub and blade assembly. c. blade base. b. In the counterweight assembly. 35.How is the speed of a constant-speed propeller changed in c. In the dome assembly. flight? 47.If a blade of a particular metal propeller is shortened a. By varying the output of the governor booster pump. because of damage to the tip, the remaining blade(s) must be b. By advancing or retarding the throttle. a. reset (blade angle) to compensate for the shortened c. By changing the load tension against the blade. flyweights ¡n the governor. b. returned to the manufacturer for alteration. 36.Cold straightening a bent aluminum propeller blade may be c. reduced to conform with the shortened blade. accomplished by 48.The primary reason for careful inspection and prompt a. the holder of a mechanic certificate with a repairing of minor surface defects such as scratches, nicks, powerplant rating. gouges, etc. on aluminum alloy propellers is to prevent b. an appropriately rated repair station or the a. corrosion. manufacturer. b. unbalanced aerodynamics. c. a person working under the supervision of the holder c. fatigue failure. of a mechanic certificate with both airframe and 49.How can a steel propeller hub be tested for cracks? powerplant ratings. a. By anodizing. 37.Surface treatment to counter the effects of dye-penetrant b. By magnetic particle inspection. inspection on a propeller is accomplished by c. By etching. a. washing off with solvent. 50.How does the propeller overspeed governor on a turboprop b. wiping with alcohol. engine decrease propeller RPM?  a. By allowing oil to escape from the propeller hub a. Blade angle changes are accomplished by the use thus driving the blades to a increased blade of two forces, one hydraulic and the other angle. centrifugal. b. By increasing oil pressure in the propeller thus b. Since an infinite number of blade angle positions are driving the blades to a increased blade angle. possible during flight, propeller efficiency is greatly c. By reducing fuel flow to the fuel control thus improved. driving the blades to a increased blade angle. c. The pilot selects the RPM and the propeller changes 51.For takeoff, a constant-speed propeller is normally set in pitch to maintain the selected RPM. the a. HIGH PITCH, high RPM position. b. HIGH PITCH, low RPM position. 63. (1) During takeoff, propeller thrust (pull) is greatest if the c. LOW PITCH, high RPM position. blade angle of attack is low and the engine power setting is 52.On aircraft equipped with hydraulically operated constant- high. speed propellers, all ignition and magneto checking is done (2) With the aircraft stationary, propeller thrust is greatest if with the propeller in which position? the blade a. High RPM. angle of attack is high and the engine power setting is high. b. Low RPM. Regarding the above statements, c. High pitch range. a. only No. 1 is true. 53.Constant-speed non-feathering McCauley, Hartzell, and b. only No.2 is true. other propellers of similar design without counterweights c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. increase pitch angle using 64. Which of the following best describes the blade movement a. oil pressure. of a propeller that is in the high RPM position when reversing b. spring pressure. action is begun? c. centrifugal twisting moment. a. Low pitch directly to reverse pitch. 54.The purpose of a three-way propeller valve is to b. Low pitch through high pitch to reverse pitch. a. direct oil from the engine oil system to the c. Low pitch through feather position to reverse pitch. propeller cylinder. 65 During the on-speed condition of a propeller, the b. direct oil from the engine through the governor to a. centrifugal force acting on the governor flyweights is the propeller. greater than the tension of the speeder spring. c. permit constant-speed operation of the propeller. b. tension on the speeder spring is less than the 55.A propeller synchrophasing system allows a pilot to reduce centrifugal force acting on the governor flyweights noise and c. centrifugal force of the governor flyweights is vibration by equal to the speeder spring force. a. adjusting the phase angle between the propellers 66. Most engine-propeller combinations have one or more on an aircraft’s engines. critical ranges within which continuous operation is not b. adjusting the plane of rotation of all propellers. permitted. Critical ranges are established to avoid c. setting the pitch angle of all propellers exactly the a. severe propeller vibration. same. b. low or negative thrust conditions. 56.Proper operation of electric deicing boots on individual c. inefficient propeller pitch angles. propeller blades may best be determined by 67.Propeller blade station numbers increase from a. feeling the sequence of boot heating and have an a. hub center line to tip. assistant observe the loadmeter indications. b. tip to hub center line. b. observing the ammeter or loadmeter for current c. blade shank butt to tip. flow. 68.(1) A mechanic certificate with a powerplant rating c. feeling the boots to see if they are heating. authorizes the holder to repair deep scars, nicks, and dents on 57.What is the purpose of an arbor used in balancing a aluminum propeller blades. propeller? (2) A mechanic certificate with a powerplant rating authorizes a. To support the propeller on the balance knives. the holder to perform minor straightening of steel propeller b. To level the balance stand. blades. c. To mark the propeller blades where weights are to Regarding the above statements, be attached. a. only No. 1 is true. 58.Generally, unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer, b. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. repairs of nicks, scratches, gouges, etc. on aluminum propeller c. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. blades must be made 69.Inspection of propeller blades by dye-penetrant inspection a. parallel to the length of the blade. is accomplished to detect b. perpendicular to the blade axis. a. cracks or other defects. c. so as to return the damaged area to the original b. corrosion at the blade tip. dimensions. c. torsional stress. 59. Blade angle is an angle formed by a line perpendicular to 70. Which of the following determines oil and grease the crankshaft and a line formed by the specifications for a. relative wind. lubrication of propellers? b. chord of the blade. a. Airframe manufacturers. c. blade face. b. Engine manufacturers. 60.How is anti-icing fluid ejected from the slinger ring on a c. Propeller manufacturers. propeller? 71.Ice formation on propellers, when an aircraft is in flight, a. By pump pressure. will b. By centripetal force. a. decrease thrust and cause excessive vibration. c. By centrifugal force. b. increase aircraft stall speed and increase noise. 61.The propeller governor controls the c. decrease available engine power. a. oil to and from the pitch changing mechanism. 72.What is indicated when the front cone bottoms while b. spring tension on the boost pump speeder spring. installing a propeller? c. linkage and counterweights from moving in and out. a. Propeller-dome combination is incorrect. 62.Which of the following statements about constant-speed b. Blade angles are incorrect. counter weight ropellers is also true when referring to two- c. Rear cone should be moved forward. position counter weight propellers? 73.The primary purpose of a cuff on a propeller is to  a. distribute anti-icing fluid. b. Full increase, high propeller blade pitch angle. b. strengthen the propeller. c. Full increase, low propeller blade pitch angle. c. increase the flow of cooling air to the engine 85.How is the oil pressure delivery on a hydromatic propeller nacelle. normally stopped after the blades have reached their full- 74.The centrifugal twisting force acting on a propeller blade is feathered position? a. greater than the aerodynamic twisting force and tends a. Pulling out the feathering push button. to move the blade to a higher angle. b. Electric cutout pressure switch. b. less than the aerodynamic twisting force and tends to c. Stop lugs in the teeth of the rotating cam. move the blade to a lower angle. 86.Why is a constant-speed counterweight propeller normally c. greater than the aerodynamic twisting force and placed in full HIGH PITCH position before the engine is tends to move the blade to a lower angle. stopped? 75.Counterweights on constant-speed propellers are generally a. To prevent exposure and corrosion of the pitch used to aid in changing mechanism. a. increasing blade angle. b. To prevent hydraulic lock of the piston when the oil b. decreasing blade angle. cools. c. unfeathering the propellers. c. To prevent overheating of the engine during the next 76.If propeller cones or hub cone seats show evidence of start. galling and wear, the most likely cause is 87.The actual distance a propeller moves forward through the a. the pitch change stops were located incorrectly, air during one revolution is known as the causing the cone seats to act as the high pitch stop. a. effective pitch. b. the propeller retaining nut was not tight enough b. geometric pitch. during previous operation. c. relative pitch. c. the front cone was not fully bottomed against the 88.Repairs of aluminum alloy adjustable pitch propellers are crankshaft splines during installation. not permitted to be made on which of the following propeller 77.One of the advantages of inspecting an aluminum propeller blade areas? utilizing dye penetrant inspection procedure is that a. Shank. a. defects just below the surface are indicated. b. Face. b. it shows whether visible lines and other marks are c. Back actually cracks rather than scratches. 89.What is the primary purpose of the metal tipping which c. it indicates overspeed condition. covers the blade tips and extends along the leading edge of 78.The aerodynamic force acting on a rotating propeller blade each wood propeller blade? operating at a normal pitch angle tends to a. To increase the lateral strength of the blade. a. reduce the pitch angle. b. To prevent impact damage to the tip and leading b. increase the pitch angle. edge of the blade. c. bend the blades rearward in the line of flight. c. To increase the longitudinal strength of the blade. 79. A fixed-pitch wooden propeller that has been properly 90.Geometric pitch of a propeller is defined as the installed and the attachment bolts properly torqued exceeds a. effective pitch minus slippage. the out-of-track allowance by 1/16inch. The excessive out-of- b. effective pitch plus slippage. track condition may be corrected by c. angle between the blade chord and the plane of a. slightly over tightening the attachment bolts adjacent rotation. to the most forward blade. 91.During operational check of an aircraft using hydromatic b. discarding the propeller since out-of-track conditions full-feathering propellers, the following observations are cannot be corrected. made: The feather button, after being pushed, remains c. placing shims between the inner flange and the depressed until the feather cycle is complete, then opens. propeller. When unfeathering, it is necessary to manually hold the button 80. What is the basic purpose of the three small holes (No. 60 down until unfeathering is accomplished. drill) in the a. Both feather cycle and unfeather cycle are tipping of wood propeller blades? functioning properly. a. To provide a means for inserting balancing shot b. Both feather and unfeather cycles indicate when necessary. malfunctions. b. To provide a means for periodically impregnating c. The feather cycle is correct. The unfeather cycle the blade with preservation materials. indicates a malfunction. c. To allow the moisture which may collect between 92.Propeller blade angle is the angle between the the tipping and the wood to escape (vent the a. chord of the blade and the relative wind. tipping). b. relative wind and the rotational plane of the propeller. 81.During which of the following conditions of flight will the c. chord of the blade and the rotational plane of the blade pitch angle of a constant-speed propeller be the greatest? propeller. a. Approach to landing. 93.What controls the constant-speed range of a constant-speed b. Climb following takeoff. propeller? c. High-speed, high-altitude cruising flight. a. Engine RPM. 82. When the centrifugal force acting on the propeller b. Angle of climb and descent with accompanying governor flyweights overcomes the tension on the speeder changes in airspeed. spring, a propeller is in what speed condition? c. The mechanical limits in the propeller pitch a. On speed. range. b. Underspeed. 94.When preparing a propeller blade for inspection it should c. Overspeed. be cleaned with 83. What are the rotational speed and blade pitch angle a. mild soap and water. requirements of a b. steel wool. constant-speed propeller during takeoff? c. methyl ethyl ketone. a. Low-speed and high-pitch angle. 95.How is aircraft electrical power for propeller deicer b. High-speed and low-pitch angle. systems transferred from the engine to the propeller hub c. High-speed and high-pitch angle. assembly? 84.In what position is the constant-speed propeller control a. By slip rings and segment plates. placed to check the magnetos? b. By slip rings and brushes. a. Full decrease, low propeller blade pitch angle. c. By flexible electrical connectors. 96.What is the result of moving the throttle on a reciprocating 106. Which of the following occurs to cause front cone engine when the propeller is in the constant-speed range with bottoming during propeller installation? the engine developing cruise power? a. The front cone becomes bottomed in the front a. Opening the throttle will cause an increase in propeller hub cone seat before the rear propeller hub blade angle. cone seat has engaged the rear cone. b. The RPM will vary directly with any movement of b. The front cone enters the front propeller hub cone the throttle. seat at an angle causing the propeller retaining nut to c. Movement of the throttle will not affect the blade appear tight when it is only partially tightened. angle. c. The front cone contacts the ends of the shaft 97.Propeller fluid anti-icing systems generally use which of splines, preventing the front and rear cones from the following? being tightened against the cone seats in the a. Ethylene glycol. propeller hub. b. Isopropyl alcohol. 107. How does the aerodynamic twisting force affect c. Ethyl alcohol. operating propeller blades? a. It tends to turn the blades to a high blade angle. 98. A constant-speed propeller provides maximum efficiency b. It tends to bend the blades forward. by c. It tends to turn the blades to a low blade angle. a. increasing blade pitch as the aircraft speed 108. What normally prevents a Hartzell Compact propeller decreases. from going to feather when the engine is shut down on the b. adjusting blade angle for most conditions ground? encountered in flight. a. Propeller cylinder air pressure. c. increasing the lift coefficient of the blade. b. A latch mechanism composed of springs and lock 99. Which of the following defects is cause for rejection of pins. wood propellers? c. Accumulator provided oil pressure. a. Solder missing from screw heads securing metal 109. Oil leakage around the rear cone of a hydromatic tipping. propeller usually indicates a defective b. An oversize hub or bolt hole, or elongated bolt holes. a. piston gasket. c. No protective coating on propeller. b. spider-shaft oil seal. 100. When lubricating a Hartzell propeller blade with grease, c. dome-barrel oil seal. to prevent damage to the blade seals, the service manual may 110. The thrust produced by a rotating propeller is a result of recommend on some models to a. an area of low pressure behind the propeller blades. a. pump grease into both zerk fittings for the blade b. an area of decreased pressure immediately in simultaneously. front of the propeller blades. b. remove the seals prior to greasing and reinstall them c. the angle of relative wind and rotational velocity of afterwards. the propeller. c. remove one of the two zerk fittings for the blade 111. What will happen to the propeller blade angle and the and grease the blade through the remaining engine RPM if the tension on the propeller governor control fitting. spring (speeder spring) is 101. What method would be used to inspect an aluminum increased? propeller blade when a crack is suspected? a. Blade angle will decrease and RPM will decrease. a. Use a bright light. b. Blade angle will increase and RPM will decrease. b. Magnetic particle. c. Blade angle will decrease and RPM will increase. c. Dye-penetrant. 112. Which of the following is identified as the cambered or 102. Apparent engine roughness is often a result of propeller curved side of a propeller blade, corresponding to the upper unbalance. The effect of an unbalanced propeller will usually surface of a wing airfoil be sect ion? a. approximately the same at all speeds. a. Blade back. b. greater at low RPM. b. Blade chord. c. greater at high RPM. c. Blade face. 103. Manually feathering a hydro mechanical propeller means 113. When running-up an engine and testing a newly installed to hydromatic propeller, it is necessary to exercise the propeller a. block governor oil pressure to the cylinder of the by moving the governor control through its entire travel propeller. several times to b. port governor oil pressure to the cylinder of the a. seat the blades fully against the low pitch stop. propeller. b. free the dome of any entrapped air. c. port governor oil pressure from the cylinder of the c. test the maximum RPM setting of the governor. propeller. 114. Maximum taper contact between crankshaft and propeller 104. The low pitch stop on a constant-speed propeller is hub is determined by using usually set so