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PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 1 of 200 Question ID: 612119 You have a discussion with the finance department manager about the acceptable cost performance index range for the project you ar...

PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 1 of 200 Question ID: 612119 You have a discussion with the finance department manager about the acceptable cost performance index range for the project you are leading. The manager argues that the current CPI of 0.9 is unacceptable and should be within +/- 5%, while you insist that an acceptable CPI range is +/- 10%. Where should you look to determine the acceptable metric? A Quality metrics B Cost metrics C Scope metrics D Schedule metrics J Question answered incorrectly Hint: What is an output of the Plan Quality Management process and an input to both the Manage Quality and Control Quality process? Correct Answer: A Explanation: Among the answer choices given, only Quality Metrics is a valid term specified in the reference provided. A quality metric describes a project or product attribute and how the Control Quality process will verify compliance to it. Cost performance measured by CPI is an example of a quality metric. Reviewing the quality metrics established in the project management plan or quality management plan will allow you to verify the tolerance value (or allowable variations) for CPI on this project. Details for Each Option: A Quality metrics Correct. Quality metrics are determined during the planning phase of a project to describe a project or product attribute and how the Control Quality process will verify compliance to it. Cost performance index (CPI) is one example of a quality metric. B Cost metrics /  Incorrect. 'Cost metrics' is not a term specified in the reference provided. While it may be tempting to select cost metrics as an answer because the question refers to cost performance, the question is really about quality. C Scope metrics Incorrect. 'Scope metrics' is a made-up term. D Schedule metrics Incorrect. 'Schedule metrics' is a made-up term. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 287, 291, 300 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 2 of 200 Question ID: 613060 Your project team members are writing software code together as a pair and reviewing each other's work to determine if the code conforms to the requirements documentation. Which of the following will be a result of these reviews? A Accepted deliverable B Acceptance criteria C Work performance data D Verified deliverable J Question answered incorrectly Hint: Peer reviews are considered part of the inspection tool and technique. Correct Answer: D Explanation: Writing software code together as a pair and reviewing each other's work is known as pair programming. This practice is often used on agile projects. As far as traditional project management is concerned, the scenario suggests the team is in the Control Quality process and is using the tool of inspection, such as peer reviews, to determine if the software conforms to documented standards. The goal of the Control Quality process and the inspection is to verify the correctness of deliverables thereby producing the output of verified deliverables. The verified deliverables then become an input to the Validate Scope process to determine if the deliverables meet the acceptance criteria for formal acceptance by the customer or sponsor. Formal acceptance of the verified deliverables produces an output from the Validate Scope process called accepted deliverables. Since the team is conducting a code review to determine the correctness of the software, the result of their efforts will be a verified deliverable. Details for Each Option: A Accepted deliverable Incorrect. Accepted deliverables are products produced by a project and validated by the project customer or sponsors as meeting their specified acceptance criteria. Accepted deliverables are an output of the Validate Scope process. In this scenario, the team is checking the deliverables for correctness which is done during the Control Quality process and results in a verified, not accepted, deliverable. / B Acceptance criteria Incorrect. Acceptance criteria is a set of conditions that are required to be met before deliverables are accepted by the customer or sponsor. The acceptance criteria are determined during the Define Scope process and are part of the project scope statement. The Control Quality process described in the scenario does not produce acceptance criteria. C Work performance data Incorrect. Work performance data is the raw observations and measurements identified as part of the activities performed during project execution. In the scenario described, the team is carrying out code review sessions suggesting the processes of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group are being performed rather than the processes of the Executing Process Group. D Verified deliverable Correct. Verified deliverables are completed project deliverables that have been checked and confirmed for correctness through the Control Quality process. In the scenario, the team is using the tool of inspection to determine if the software conforms to the requirements documentation which will ultimately result in a verified deliverable. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 305 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 3 of 200 Question ID: 613169 Due to favorable weather conditions, the heating equipment you have rented for your construction project is no longer required. Following the resource management plan, you are returning the equipment earlier than originally planned to realize cost savings. What should you do first? A Use the saved funds to hold a team building activity B Update the resource management plan C Let the project sponsor know about cost savings D Update the physical resource assignments J Question answered incorrectly Hint: Where should physical resources that are used during the project be documented? Correct Answer: D Explanation: Control Resources is the process of ensuring that the physical resources assigned and allocated to the project are available as planned, as well as monitoring the planned versus actual utilization of resources and performing any corrective action as necessary. In this case, the actual utilization of the heating equipment was lessened by favorable weather conditions. The physical resource assignments represent one of the project documents that may be updated as part of the Control Resources process. Documentation of the physical resource assignments records the material, equipment, supplies, locations, and other physical resources that are used during the project. The incorrect answer choices represent actions which should not be necessary in this case. Therefore, of the available options, updating the physical resource assignments is what you, as the project manager, should do next. Details for Each Option: A Use the saved funds to hold a team building activity Incorrect. While it is important to hold team building activities to enhance the team's social relations and build a collaborative and cooperative working environment, the saved funds cannot be used at will without using the procedures established for the project. Typically, dedicated funds are allocated for such activities. B Update the resource management plan /  Incorrect. The question indicates that the resource management plan is being followed by returning the heating equipment early when it is no longer needed. Thus, it is reasonable to assume the possibility of realizing cost savings based on favorable weather conditions was previously captured in the resource management plan. Therefore, the resource management plan needs to be followed, rather than updated, in this scenario. C Let the project sponsor know about cost savings Incorrect. There is nothing wrong with sharing the good news of cost savings with the project sponsor. However, it is unlikely that the savings in the scenario described are so significant that they warrant to be shared with the sponsor. Additionally, of the choices provided, there is a more important action for you to take before updating the project sponsor. D Update the physical resource assignments Correct. The physical resource assignments represent one of the project documents that may be updated as part of the Control Resources process. Documentation of the physical resource assignments records the material, equipment, supplies, locations, and other physical resources that are used during the project. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 358 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 4 of 200 Question ID: 613789 As a project manager for a small university, you are currently in the process of selecting a vendor to develop a textbook and other training materials for a new course. Several vendors are interested in bidding on the contract. During a bidder conference, one of the prospective suppliers asks about ownership of the intellectual property that will be created from the project. Which project document should have this information at this stage of the project? A Seller proposals B Requirements documentation C Source selection criteria D Procurement contract J Question answered incorrectly Hint: Where can information on nontechnical requirements be found? Correct Answer: B Explanation: The requirements documentation may include technical and nontechnical requirements that the seller is required to satisfy. Nontechnical requirements include requirements with contractual and legal implications including intellectual property rights among others. The question implies that the project manager is carrying out the Conduct Procurements process. Information on ownership of the intellectual property can be included in the requirements documentation which is an input to the Conduct Procurements process or the procurement contracts which are an output from the process. Based on the scenario described, a bidder conference takes place; therefore, it is reasonable to assume that no contracts have been awarded yet. This means that at this stage of the project, of the available options, the requirements documentation is the best place to find information on intellectual property rights. Details for Each Option: A Seller proposals Incorrect. The question indicates that a bidder conference is underway. A bidder conference is conducted before proposal submittal. Therefore, this answer choice can be eliminated. B Requirements documentation /  Correct. Intellectual property rights are included among other nontechnical requirements in the requirements documentation. C Source selection criteria Incorrect. Source selection criteria describe how bidder proposals will be evaluated. The source selection criteria do not provide information on intellectual property rights. D Procurement contract Incorrect. The terms and conditions of the contract may contain information on the ownership of intellectual property. However, the question states that the selection process is currently being performed. Therefore, a contract has yet to be created to be used as a source for this information. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 485 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 5 of 200 Question ID: 613747 To complete the Plan Risk Management process and establish risk thresholds for your project, you want to get a better understanding of the key stakeholder’s attitudes toward risk. Where is the best place to find this information? A Stakeholder register B Risk management plan C Project charter D Probability and impact matrix J Question answered incorrectly Hint: What input to the Plan Risk Management process contains information on key stakeholder’s attitudes toward risk? Correct Answer: A Explanation: The question states that you are performing the Plan Risk Management process. One input to this process is the stakeholder register. The stakeholder register contains details of the project’s stakeholders and provides an overview of their project roles and their attitude toward risk on the project. This information is useful in setting risk thresholds for the project. Details for Each Option: A Stakeholder register Correct. The stakeholder register contains details of the project’s stakeholders and provides an overview of their project roles and their attitude toward risk on the project. B Risk management plan Incorrect. According to the scenario, you are performing the Plan Risk Management process. The risk management plan is an output of the Plan Risk Management process. Therefore, it has yet to be created and is not available as an input to the Plan Risk Management process. Even if it was available, the risk management plan does not contain information about stakeholders’ attitudes toward risk. / C Project charter Incorrect. The project charter may contain high-level information on overall project risks. However, it does not have details on the stakeholder’s attitudes towards risk on the project. D Probability and impact matrix Incorrect. A probability and impact matrix is a grid for mapping the probability of occurrence of each risk and its impact on project objectives if that risk occurs. It does not contain information on the stakeholder’s attitudes toward risk. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 403 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 6 of 200 Question ID: 651378 Managing the project team for an agile based project, the project manager takes a servant role and allows the team to be self-organizing. Why is this possible? A The team relies on the project manager's leadership and assignments. B The team is comprised of subject matter experts that have specific roles and skills. C The team is comprised of generalists and able to support each other fluidly. D The team is larger than one project manager can put in one meeting room. J Question answered incorrectly Hint: Agile project teams are made up of cross-functional members who have both a focused specialty plus a breadth of experience across multiple skills. Correct Answer: C Explanation: Directing and managing a project team in an agile environment often enables the project manager to take a servant role and the project team to take more ownership and decision making roles. Ideally, agile teams are comprised of generalized specialists, meaning the team members are cross-functional who have both a focused specialty plus a breadth of experience across multiple skills, instead of subject matter experts as often acceptable in traditionally managed projects. As such, the project team can move as necessary between the tasks and form self-organizing units freely and fluidly as the project demands. The project manager takes a more supportive role and works to remove roadblocks and empower the team. Details for Each Option: A The team relies on the project manager's leadership and assignments. Incorrect. In agile projects where the team members are highly capable and knowledgeable, the role of the project manager does not require them to direct and instruct the team members. The team members are empowered to make their own choices and direction without a need to rely on the project manager's leadership and assignments. B The team is comprised of subject matter experts that have specific roles and skills. /  Incorrect. Teams comprised of specialists can primarily only perform the tasks they are trained for. As such, this does not enable them to freely move between tasks and be self-organizing. C The team is comprised of generalists and able to support each other fluidly. Correct. Self-organizing teams are successful when the team members have broad skills and understanding of the project activities enabling them to effectively move between tasks and project needs. D The team is larger than one project manager can put in one meeting room. Incorrect. The size of agile teams is typically small - around 6 to 10 members in most circumstances. Nevertheless, the size of the room does not dictate or mandate the teams to be self-organizing or not. The team's ability to be self-organizing is not based on physical limitations. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 310-311 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 7 of 200 Question ID: 651370 The project iteration's costs are below estimates and work is being completed well ahead of schedule. The resource costs and the scope are being measured in story points. How should the burndown chart look? A The remaining work line is above the ideal burndown rate B The remaining work line is below the ideal burndown rate C The earned value line is below the planned value line D Cannot be determined from the information provided J Question answered incorrectly Hint: What does it look like to burn down a pile of work? Correct Answer: B Explanation: An iteration burndown chart is an example of a data analysis technique that can be used as part of the Control Schedule process described in the scenario. To assist the project team monitor and control the costs and schedule of an iteration, a burndown chart displays the planned work to be completed and the associated costs or resources allocated to work. Typically, the burndown chart begins with the sum value of the work on the left then trends down to the end point of the iteration. All the work is expected to be done at the end of the iteration. Hence, the endpoint is to be at zero for work and costs remaining. The ideal burndown rate line is that straight line from the start of the iteration to the last point in the iteration when all the work is to be done. Work completed faster than planned has a steeper slope than the ideal line. That line is reaching the zero work remaining point faster. Details for Each Option: A The remaining work line is above the ideal burndown rate Incorrect. The remaining work line will be above the ideal burndown rate if the work is being completed behind schedule. In the scenario, work is being completed well ahead of schedule implying the remaining work line is below, not above, the ideal burndown rate. B The remaining work line is below the ideal burndown rate /  Correct. At the start of the iteration, the ideal burndown rate of the work and costs are mapped. The ideal burndown rate typically is a straight line from the total of story points at the start to zero at the end of the iteration. In this scenario, the project is burning points faster than expected, resulting in the remaining work line to be below the ideal burndown rate. C The earned value line is below the planned value line Incorrect. The earned value and the planned value lines are typically displayed using a burnup, not burndown, chart. If a burnup chart were used in this scenario, the earned value line would be above, not below, the planned value line, meaning the project is earning more value than planned. D Cannot be determined from the information provided Incorrect. When work is being completed well ahead of schedule, an iteration burndown chart will show the line that represents work completed tracing below the line that represents the ideal burndown rate. Therefore, saying that the answer to the question asked cannot be determined from the information provided would be illogical. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 226, 116 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 8 of 200 Question ID: 613257 Midway into project execution, the director of marketing leaves the company and is replaced by an external candidate. After meeting with the new stakeholder, the project manager learns that the new director of marketing has a much greater interest in the project, and would like to be updated on progress and project specifics with greater frequency. With the stakeholder register updated to reflect the relevant information, what should the project manager do next? A Review and revise the stakeholder engagement plan as necessary B Perform stakeholder analysis for the newly identified stakeholder C Update the project documents with the information for the new stakeholder D Submit a change request to update the communications management plan J Question answered incorrectly Hint: Any modification of a component of the project manager management plan requires an approved change. Correct Answer: D Explanation: The communications management plan is a component of the project management plan that describes how, when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and disseminated. The communications management plan includes information on who will receive project information, including information about their needs, requirements, and expectations. The new director of marketing would like to be updated on progress and project specifics with greater frequency than her predecessor. This information should be reflected in the communication management plan. However, since the project is underway, implying the project management plan has been approved, a change request is required for any subsidiary plan to be modified. The incorrect answer choices either have already been completed or cannot be done without first seeking an approved change request. Therefore, of the available options, submitting a change request to update the communications management plan is what the project manager should do next. Details for Each Option: A Review and revise the stakeholder engagement plan as necessary /  Incorrect. The stakeholder engagement plan is a component of the project management plan that identifies the strategies and actions required to promote the productive involvement of stakeholders in project decision making and execution. While the stakeholder management plan should be revised in this scenario, an approved change request is first required to modify any component of the project management plan. B Perform stakeholder analysis for the newly identified stakeholder Incorrect. Stakeholder analysis is performed during the Identify Stakeholders process in order to create or update the stakeholder register. However, according to the scenario, the stakeholder register has already been updated with the relevant information about the newly identified stakeholder. C Update the project documents with the information for the new stakeholder Incorrect. The stakeholder register is a project document that includes the identification, assessment, and classification of project stakeholders. The stakeholder register should be updated in this scenario, and the question indicates that this action has already been completed. D Submit a change request to update the communications management plan Correct. The communications management plan includes information on who will receive project information, including information about their needs, requirements, and expectations. The plan should be updated with the communication needs of the new marketing director. However, first, an approved change request is required to update the communications management plan since it is a subsidiary of the project management plan. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 515, 377 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 9 of 200 Question ID: 613308 A project manager is leading an infrastructure development project and is just starting the process of prioritizing individual project risks for further analysis. A stakeholder has expressed concern that the existing information about individual project risks may not be accurate and reliable. What is the best course of action? A Perform the Identify Risks process again B Capture the concern in the stakeholder register C Perform a risk data quality assessment D Conduct a risk probability and impact assessment J Question answered incorrectly Hint: Which data analysis technique might be useful in evaluating the degree to which the data about individual risks is accurate and reliable as a basis for qualitative risk analysis? Correct Answer: C Explanation: The question implies that the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is underway. A risk data quality assessment is an example of the data analysis technique that can be used in this process. A risk data quality assessment evaluates the degree to which the data about individual project risks is accurate and reliable as a basis for qualitative risk analysis. The use of low-quality risk data may lead to a qualitative risk analysis that is of little use to the project. If data quality is unacceptable, it may be necessary to gather better data. Risk data quality may be assessed via a questionnaire measuring the project's stakeholder perceptions of various characteristics, which may include completeness, objectivity, relevance, and timeliness. A weighted average of selected data quality characteristics can then be generated to provide an overall quality score. Therefore, of the available choices, to address the stakeholder's concern, performing a risk data quality assessment is the best course of action. Note, ideally, the project manager would have to meet with the stakeholder to better understand the concerns expressed by the stakeholder before spending project resources to perform the risk data quality assessment. However, this answer choice is not provided. Details for Each Option: / A Perform the Identify Risks process again Incorrect. Identify Risks is the process of identifying individual project risks as well as sources of overall project risk. While this process can be performed more than once throughout the project, the scenario does not indicate that risks have been missed. Rather, the concern is that information about already identified risks may not be accurate. B Capture the concern in the stakeholder register Incorrect. The stakeholder register is a project document that includes the identification, assessment, and classification of project stakeholders. Information about project risks is not part of this document. C Perform a risk data quality assessment Correct. Risk data quality assessment evaluates the degree to which the data about individual project risks is accurate and reliable as a basis for qualitative risk analysis. D Conduct a risk probability and impact assessment Incorrect. A risk probability assessment considers the likelihood that a specific risk will occur. A risk impact assessment considers the potential effect on one or more project objectives. A risk probability and impact assessment cannot provide an evaluation of the degree to which the data about individual project risks is accurate and reliable. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 423 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 10 of 200 Question ID: 651368 A supplier the project is using to subcontract some of the project work has delivered all the contracted work. Which value does the project manager attribute to the accepted deliverable? A Net present value B Earned value C Accepted value D Planned value J Question answered incorrectly Hint: What value has been gained from the delivery? Correct Answer: B Explanation: When project work is being completed and accepted - whether performed by the project team or component of the project team in the form of a supplier or third party - those results are considered earned values or EV. The EV is tracked to monitor gains that have been earned over the course of the project life cycle. The EV can be measured against the planned values (PV) and the actual costs (AC) of the work to monitor and control the project and to communicate the state of the project. The EV is an example of the data analysis techniques that can be used as part of the Control Costs process described by the scenario. Details for Each Option: A Net present value Incorrect. Net present value (NPV) is a concept used to determine the value of a project or undertaking an initiative after factoring all the gains and losses. NPV is not used by projects to calculate the value earned from the project and components of the project. B Earned value Correct. Earned value (EV) is a measure of work performed expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work. In the scenario, the work has been accepted and completed. The deliverable delivers value to the project. As such, the project has earned value from the result. / C Accepted value Incorrect. 'Accepted value' is a made-up term. D Planned value Incorrect. Planned value (PV) is the authorized budget assigned to schedule work. Based on the scenario, the deliverable has been accepted. Therefore, the value is no longer planned but earned. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 261 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 11 of 200 Question ID: 651425 Decisions were made to move a major portion of the work and to add some additional work to an outsourcing firm in another country where labor costs are cheaper. Which components of the project management plan are likely to be updated as a result of the approved change? A Benefits management plan and project charter B Requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix C Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline D Risk register, stakeholder register, and lessons learned register J Question answered incorrectly Hint: Which ones are project plans and which are project documents? Correct Answer: C Explanation: The scenario implies the Control Scope process is underway. There are a variety of project management plan updates that are an output of this process. In this scenario, the scope was changed to include more work as well as to specify who was to perform that work. As such, various components of the project management plans may be updated. These components include but are not limited to the scope management plan (to specify the work added), the resources management plan (to describe who is doing the work and other resources needed), the schedule management plan (to indicate when work is being done), the communications management plan (to mention the flow of information is going to change), the procurement management plan (to guide how the work will be sourced and managed), the quality management plan (to define how the standards are to be assured and controlled), the risk management plan (to outline the new risks involved), and the stakeholder engagement plan (to indicate there are more stakeholders in the project). All of those plans could be the answer. In this case, the options presented did not include a collection of those plans, but the other essential components of the project management plan: the baselines of scope, cost, and schedule. The other answer choices include project documents, which could be updated as a result of the approved change but are not components of the project management plan. Details for Each Option: A Benefits management plan and project charter /  Incorrect. The project charter is a high-level document explaining the objectives of the project, not the plans for sourcing the work. Benefits management plan is a documented explanation defining the processes for creating, maximizing, and sustaining the benefits provided by a project. None of those artifacts is a component of the project management plan, nor either one of them is updated as a result of the Control Scope process suggested by the question. B Requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix Incorrect. While the requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix may be updated as a result of the Control Scope process described in the scenario, these are project documents, not components of the project management plan. C Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline Correct. The scope baseline, cost baseline, schedule baseline, and performance measurement baseline could be updated based on the approved change. These baselines are among the components of the project management plan. D Risk register, stakeholder register, and lessons learned register Incorrect. Although updates to the lessons learned register is an output of the Control Scope process implied by the scenario, the risk register, stakeholder register, and lessons learned register are all project documents, not components of the project management plan. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 171 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 12 of 200 Question ID: 612446 A project manager is about to start planning a software development project. The project sponsor would like to review any project risks that have been identified at this point. Which document should the project manager recommend the sponsor to review? A Project charter B Issue log C Risk register D Risk report J Question answered incorrectly Hint: Which document is available at this point in the project and might contain high-level project risks? Correct Answer: A Explanation: Ideally, to learn about all identified risks on the project, the project sponsor would have to review the risk register. However, the question states that the project manager is about to start project planning, implying that the risk register, which is created during the Identify Risks process, is not yet available. At this point in the project, only the project charter can serve the needs of the project sponsor as it contains a list of high-level risks that were identified at the time the project charter was drafted and approved. Details for Each Option: A Project charter Correct. The project charter contains any high-level risks that have been identified at the time the charter was drafted and approved. B Issue log Incorrect. The issue log is a project document that is created during the Direct and Manage Project Work process. Not only does the issue log not yet exist at this point in the project, but also, the issue log contains issues that have occurred rather than risks. / C Risk register Incorrect. The risk register is a project document that is created as an output of the Identify Risks process and captures the details of identified individual project risks. However, the question states that the project manager is about to start project planning, implying that the risk register is not yet available. D Risk report Incorrect. The risk report presents information on sources of overall project risk, together with summary information on identified individual project risks. The risk report is created during project planning as an output of the Identify Risks process which, according to the scenario described, has not yet started. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 81, 417 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 13 of 200 Question ID: 613499 You are managing an IT infrastructure development project. The project is being monitored for several performance indicators such as the percentage of tasks completed on time, the number of defects identified per day, and the number of change requests that have been submitted. How will you know if your project is compliant with these indicators? A By comparing the results to the quality management plan B By reviewing the audit report C By comparing the results to the quality metrics D By using quality analysis J Question answered incorrectly Hint: Which project document provides information on an acceptable range of variation? Correct Answer: C Explanation: The scenario suggests the project is in the Control Quality process as performance indicators are being monitored and compared against an acceptable range of variation. The quality metrics are developed as an output of the Plan Quality Management process and used as an input to the Control Quality process. Quality metrics define which areas of the project will be measured and what the acceptable range of variation will be. Therefore, to determine if the project is compliant in the areas that are monitored in the scenario, the results should be compared to the quality metrics. Details for Each Option: A By comparing the results to the quality management plan Incorrect. In this scenario, the project is being monitored to determine whether the project is meeting several performance indicators. The quality management plan describes how the quality objectives will be achieved but does not provide acceptability data. B By reviewing the audit report /  Incorrect. The goal of an audit is to evaluate whether the project is following the organization's quality policies and procedures documented in the quality management plan. In the scenario described, the project team is monitoring performance indicators, not quality policies. C By comparing the results to the quality metrics Correct. Quality metrics define which areas of a project are essential to measure as well as what range of variation is acceptable. By comparing the indicators mentioned in the scenario to the quality metrics, you will be able to determine if the project complies with the metrics. D By using quality analysis Incorrect. 'Quality analysis' is a made-up term. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 287 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 14 of 200 Question ID: 613679 A project manager is preparing for a status meeting by examining the project's cost performance to date. She produces a chart which depicts the performance of EV, PV, and AC over the past year. The chart reveals that even though costs are over budget, cost performance has been improving over the past four consecutive months. What tool or technique has the project manager used? A Trend analysis B Reserve analysis C Variance analysis D Root cause analysis J Question answered incorrectly Hint: What tool or technique is used to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating over time? Correct Answer: A Explanation: Trend analysis is one of the tools and techniques that may be used during the Control Costs process, which is the process described by the question. Trend analysis examines project performance over time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating. Charts can be particularly helpful in visualizing trends derived from earned value analysis. Therefore, of the choices provided, it is reasonable to assume that in the scenario described, the project manager has performed a trend analysis. Details for Each Option: A Trend analysis Correct. Trend analysis examines project performance over time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating. Charts can be particularly helpful in visualizing trends derived from earned value analysis. B Reserve analysis Incorrect. Reserve analysis is an analytical technique used to establish a reserve for the schedule duration, budget, estimated cost, or funds for a project. Based on the description provided by the question, the project manager is not determining a reserve. / C Variance analysis Incorrect. Variance analysis is a technique for determining the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance. Variance analysis by itself does not provide information on performance over time. Thus, of the available options, variance analysis is not the best choice. D Root cause analysis Incorrect. Root cause analysis is an analytical technique used to determine the basic underlying reason that causes a variance or a defect or a risk. The project manager is depicting cost performance over time rather than the causes of the variance. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 263 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 15 of 200 Question ID: 625022 A project has just been formally authorized, and the project manager is currently identifying stakeholders for the new project. What should the project manager do to find information on the responsibilities of key project stakeholders? A Check the stakeholder engagement plan B Meet with the stakeholders C Consult with the project sponsor D Review the project charter J Question answered incorrectly Hint: Which document might contain information on the roles of stakeholders that can be used in the creation of the stakeholder register? Correct Answer: D Explanation: The question states that the project has just been formally authorized implying the project charter has been approved. The scenario suggests that the project manager is now starting the Identify Stakeholders process to create the stakeholder register. The stakeholder register will eventually contain information on the roles of stakeholders on the project which is the information the project manager is looking for. However, the stakeholder register is not yet ready. The project charter is an input to the Identify Stakeholders process and has the high-level information about the roles and responsibilities of the key project stakeholders. This information will be used in the development of the stakeholder register. Hence, to find information on the responsibilities of stakeholders, reviewing the project charter is what the project manager should do, and is, therefore, the best answer to the question asked. Details for Each Option: A Check the stakeholder engagement plan Incorrect. The stakeholder engagement plan identifies the strategies and actions required to promote the productive involvement of stakeholders in project decision making and execution. The plan does not have information on the responsibilities of stakeholders. Even if it did, the question suggests that the project manager is just starting the process of creating the stakeholder register. Therefore, the stakeholder engagement plan is not yet available. / B Meet with the stakeholders Incorrect. While meeting with the stakeholders may provide the project manager with the information she is looking for, meeting with the stakeholders is unlikely to be the best use of the project manager's and the stakeholders' time. Another answer choice represents a better and more effective course of action. C Consult with the project sponsor Incorrect. The project sponsor may or may not have the knowledge of the responsibilities of project stakeholders. Consulting with the project sponsor is not the best choice when other options, such as reviewing the project charter, are readily available for the project manager. D Review the project charter Correct. The project charter identifies the key stakeholders and may also have high-level information about their responsibilities. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 509 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 16 of 200 Question ID: 613841 Your team has been spending an unusual amount of time arguing in meetings. You have conducted team training to improve meeting discipline and listening skills. Which document should be updated to reflect the new team standards of conduct? A Issue log B Team register C Skill assessments D Team charter J Question answered incorrectly Hint: Where are team standards recorded? Correct Answer: D Explanation: This scenario indicates that you are in the Develop Team process. Developing the team's emotional intelligence and meeting skills are part of this process. The new team standards for meeting behavior should be recorded as an update to the team charter, which is an output of the process. This document records team values, agreements, and operating guidelines, as well as establishes clear expectations for acceptable behavior by the team. Details for Each Option: A Issue log Incorrect. It is reasonable to assume that the issue of arguing in meetings was captured in the issue log. Therefore, when the issue is resolved, its status should be updated. However, first, the scenario does not say the issue has already been resolved. Second, the issue log is not the place to record team standards of conduct. B Team register Incorrect. 'Team register' is a made-up term. C Skill assessments /  Incorrect. Skill assessments are considered enterprise environmental factors (EEFs) which can be updated as an output of the Develop Team process described in the scenario. However, the team standards of conduct are not captured in this document. D Team charter Correct. The team charter records the team's values, agreements, and establishes clear expectations regarding acceptable team behavior. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 344, 319 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 17 of 200 Question ID: 651384 A project manager is in the process of creating the quality management plan for a product development project. Currently, the project manager needs to understand and then estimate the cost of quality for a particular process. What is the best course of action? A Develop a RACI chart B Create a fishbone diagram C Construct a RAM D Build a SIPOC model J Question answered incorrectly Hint: Which tool or technique associated with the Plan Quality Management process may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality for a process? Correct Answer: D Explanation: The quality management plan is created as an output of the Plan Quality Management process. Tools and techniques that may be used in the development of the quality management plan include flowcharts. A SIPOC (suppliers, inputs, process, outputs, and customers) model is a type of flowchart that may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality for a process. The incorrect answer choices represent tools and techniques that may be used in various project management processes but are not likely to be useful in the development of the quality management plan. Therefore, of the available choices, the best course of action for the project manager is to build a SIPOC model. Details for Each Option: A Develop a RACI chart Incorrect. A RACI chart is a common type of responsibility assignment matrix that uses responsible, accountable, consult, and inform statuses to define the involvement of stakeholders in project activities. A RACI chart is more likely to be developed during the Plan Resource Management process, while the question implies that the Plan Quality Management process is currently underway. B Create a fishbone diagram /  Incorrect. A cause and effect diagram (also known as a fishbone diagram) is a decomposition technique that helps trace an undesirable effect back to its root cause. A cause and effect diagram may be used in various processes throughout a project. However, the question is asking about estimating the cost of quality for a process rather than the identification of the root cause of a problem. C Construct a RAM Incorrect. A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) is a grid that shows the project resources assigned to each work package. A RAM is most helpful in the creation of a resource management plan, whereas the question states that the project manager is developing the quality management plan. D Build a SIPOC model Correct. A SIPOC (suppliers, inputs, process, outputs, and customers) model a type of flowchart that may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality for a process. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 284-285 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 18 of 200 Question ID: 613200 After losing a member of her high performing team, the project manager implements the response planned for this risk by hiring an independent contractor. However, as a result of adding the new team member, the team is thrown back to the storming stage of team development, and the project falls behind schedule. How might the project manager have avoided this situation? A Developed a response plan for the residual risk B Established sufficient contingency reserves C Developed a response plan for the secondary risk D Established sufficient management reserves J Question answered incorrectly Hint: Residual risk is the risk that remains after risk responses have been implemented, whereas a secondary risk is a risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response. Correct Answer: C Explanation: A secondary risk is a risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response. In this case, the risk response of replacing a team member introduced the secondary risk of the team member disrupting the cohesiveness of the high performing team represented by the team reverting to the storming stage of team development. Thus, the team falling behind schedule is the result of the secondary risk posed by the introduction a new member to the team. One cannot assume that a newly hired team member will be able to replace a member of a high performing team without some disruption. The project manager should have anticipated this secondary risk and developed an appropriate risk response. For example, the project manager could have included schedule reserves during project planning to address this secondary risk, which may have prevented the project from falling behind schedule. Therefore, of the choices provided, identifying the secondary risk and developing a response plan to address it could have helped avoid the situation described in the scenario. Details for Each Option: A Developed a response plan for the residual risk /  Incorrect. Residual risk is the risk that remains after risk responses have been implemented. Although residual risk may or may not have been a factor in this case, the risks associated with the implementation of the risk response by introducing a new member to a high performing team is best described as a secondary risk. In this scenario, the secondary risk is more likely to be the cause of the project running behind schedule rather than any residual risk. B Established sufficient contingency reserves Incorrect. Contingency reserves are established to address known risks. According to the scenario, the planned risk response has been implemented implying contingency reserves have been established and were sufficient. C Developed a response plan for the secondary risk Correct. The risk that the new team member might not perform as well as the original team member, or disrupt the cohesiveness of a high performing team, should have been anticipated by the project manager. The project manager should have anticipated these secondary risks and developed a risk response during project planning to address them. D Established sufficient management reserves Incorrect. The question suggests that the loss of a project team member had been identified as a risk during project planning with the development of a planned risk response. Thus, this risk was a known rather than unknown risk. Management reserves are set aside to address unknown risks. Even if management reserves were insufficient, according to the scenario, the risk has been addressed as planned implying contingency reserves were used without the need to tap into management reserves. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 439, 448, 455, 457 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 19 of 200 Question ID: 612698 You have completed a nine-month project, and you are in the closing stage. The project completed on time and under budget and everyone in your department has congratulated you on your achievement. The vice president of your company heard about the success of your project and wants a summary overview of project performance so that he can talk about your success at the next board meeting. What should you provide to him? A Lessons learned repository B Project closure documents C Final lessons learned register D Final report J Question answered incorrectly Hint: You are looking for a summary overview of project results. Correct Answer: D Explanation: The scenario suggests the project has been closed. In other words, the Close Project or Phase process is now complete. The final report is one of the outputs of this process. The final report includes information such as a summary level description of the project, a summary of any risks and issues encountered and how they were addressed, a summary of how the final product, service or result was achieved, and more. Since the vice president wants a summary overview of project results, providing the vice president with the final report will likely meet their needs and is, therefore, of the choices provided, the best answer to the question asked. Details for Each Option: A Lessons learned repository Incorrect. The lessons learned repository is a store of historical information about lessons learned from projects. Even though the lessons learned repository includes the final lessons learned and knowledge gained throughout the project, the vice president wants a summary of project performance, not lessons learned. The summary of project performance is typically found in the final report and not the lessons learned repository. Therefore, this choice is not the best answer to the question asked. / B Project closure documents Incorrect. The project closure documents consist of formal documentation on completion of the project and the information on project deliverables transferred to the ongoing organization. The project closure documents do not contain a summary of project performance, making this choice an incorrect answer. C Final lessons learned register Incorrect. The final lessons learned register is finalized during project closure, before being entered in the lesson learned repository. Even though the final lessons learned register includes the final lessons learned and knowledge gained throughout the project, the vice president wants a summary of project performance which is found in the final report and not the final lessons learned register. D Final report Correct. The final report provides a summary of the project performance. The report includes information such as a summary level description of the project, a summary of any risks and issues encountered and how they were addressed, a summary of how the final product, service or result was achieved, etc. Therefore, providing the final report to the vice president would address her needs, making this choice the best answer to the question asked. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 127 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 20 of 200 Question ID: 651402 After completing eight iterations, the team realizes the mistakes they made in the first iteration. What is the next best action for the project team to do? A Proceed to the next iteration as planned B Update the lessons learned repository C Apply the lesson learned to the next iteration D Restart the first iteration J Question answered incorrectly Hint: When is this knowledge most useful? Correct Answer: C Explanation: The scenario is designed around the Manage Project Knowledge process which is the process of using existing knowledge and creating new knowledge to achieve the project's objectives and contribute to organizational learning. Managing the vast amount of project knowledge and the lessons that are constantly learned by all project stakeholders throughout the project enables the project team to leverage that knowledge and apply it. Applying lessons learned and project knowledge supports the project organization, the project outcomes, and operation of the current and future projects. Documenting the knowledge into a lesson learned register is one method of capturing that knowledge to ensure it is not lost. Applying that knowledge to the project is even more beneficial. There is a misconception that projects must wait until the end of a project in order to document it. Just accepting mistakes happened is not enough. Knowledge is fluid and best shared and used at the point it is most needed. Details for Each Option: A Proceed to the next iteration as planned Incorrect. Mistakes happen on projects all the time. It is important that the project team understands their mistakes and how to correct or avoid repeating them in the future. Proceeding to the next iteration as planned without taking any action to correct the mistakes is unlikely to be the best choice in this situation. B Update the lessons learned repository /  Incorrect. The lessons learned repository is a store of historical information about the lessons learned from projects. The lessons learned repository is typically updated at the end of the project/phase as part of project/phase closure. It is unclear from the scenario provided if the project has entered the Close Project or Phase process. Therefore, updating the lessons learned repository may be premature. C Apply the lesson learned to the next iteration Correct. The project knowledge and the lessons learned are most useful when applied. This knowledge may be explicit and immediately applicable or could be tacit and subtly influence the decisions and actions at any point throughout the project. D Restart the first iteration Incorrect. Project iterations are timeboxed sections of a project organized in an agile fashion. Projects and iterations move forward. Restarting the first iteration is unfeasible. It would be better to apply the lesson to the next iteration instead of trying to rewrite history. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 100 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 21 of 200 Question ID: 651416 As an employee of a large organization, you have been building a business case for a community outreach project. The project selection steering committee is meeting in a few weeks. What is the best action for you to get your project chartered? A Find a potential sponsor who can champion your project at the meeting B Use pre-assignment to secure the best available team in the organization C Prepare the list of key project deliverables and milestone schedule D Offer to act as both the project sponsor and the project manager J Question answered incorrectly Hint: Who holds more influence to get a project chartered? Correct Answer: A Explanation: To develop and greenlight a project to initiate via a project charter, a project sponsor is needed to authorize and allocate necessary resources to fulfill project objectives. The project sponsor may be an individual or a group of individuals. Whatever the makeup of the entity, a sponsor must be willing to back a project and its alignment to business needs and strategy. In this scenario, there is a project selection steering committee. Having someone on that committee to evangelize the benefits, merits, and business case of a project proposal increases the chances of the project being selected and chartered. No other work on the project, such as pre-assignment of resources, should occur until a project is chartered. Details for Each Option: A Find a potential sponsor who can champion your project at the meeting Correct. The steering committee at the enterprise in this scenario selects projects. Presenting and attempting to influence a potential sponsor who is part of the selection and can support its selection is the best action for a project manager to get the project chartered. B Use pre-assignment to secure the best available team in the organization /  Incorrect. No project has yet been chartered. As such, no resources should be acquired, procured, or pre- assigned. There are no funds granted for these actions. Additionally, it is unclear from the scenario if you even have the power and authority over resources. C Prepare the list of key project deliverables and milestone schedule Incorrect. According to the scenario, the project has not yet even been selected. Key project deliverables and milestone schedule are typically prepared later, during project initiation, as part of the Develop Project Charter process, which has not yet started (and may not even start if the project is not selected eventually). D Offer to act as both the project sponsor and the project manager Incorrect. A project sponsor must be someone or some group with enough authority and ability to allocate resources. It is unclear from the scenario if you have the necessary power and authority in the organization to sponsor the project. Typically, employees in large organizations do not have the power to charter their own projects and subsequently lead them. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 73, 75-77 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 22 of 200 Question ID: 651417 A project manager has been called into an urgent meeting with senior management that starts in an hour, which is the same time that the project manager is supposed to attend a brainstorming session being held by the project team to determine the best technical approach for the development of the features for the next iteration. What should the project manager do? A Reschedule the brainstorming meeting so the project manager can facilitate the session B Attend the first half of the management meeting and then ask to leave to join the team C Attend the senior management meeting, then get an update from the team later D Postpone the senior management meeting until after the brainstorming meeting J Question answered incorrectly Hint: Can any meeting be held without the project manager present? Correct Answer: C Explanation: Meetings make up a large part of how projects manage communications. Meetings happen in many ways and formats. Not all project meetings require the project manager to lead, facilitate, or control. More so, some project meetings may not even require the presence of the project manager, such as the meeting described in the scenario where a technical approach will be discussed. A project manager must do what they can to ensure the proper flow and exchange of communications occurs. They are not required to personally deliver all communications or micromanage the techniques used for project communications. In this scenario, the project team is likely capable of handling the brainstorming session they have planned to hold. A project manager's best action is to communicate with the project team before and after the concurrent meetings. Details for Each Option: A Reschedule the brainstorming meeting so the project manager can facilitate the session Incorrect. A project manager does not need to control and facilitate every meeting. Meetings for iterations are repeated more than once over the project life cycle granting enough experience to the project team to handle the discussions. B Attend the first half of the management meeting and then ask to leave to join the team /  Incorrect. It is unlikely that the project manager will be able to leave in the middle of the meeting with senior management easily. Even if she does, the benefit of attending half of each one of the meetings is unclear. Leaving meetings in the middle is not a good practice and may harm the reputation of the project manager. This course of action does not look like the best approach. C Attend the senior management meeting, then get an update from the team later Correct. The project team is capable of conducting their own brainstorming session. A project manager's time is better spent on the senior management meeting. Communication between the project manager and team can happen before and after the meetings. D Postpone the senior management meeting until after the brainstorming meeting Incorrect. The project manager most likely does not have the authority to postpone or reschedule senior-level meetings. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 386 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 23 of 200 Question ID: 651407 Midway into project execution, a competitor is about to release a product similar to the one planned to be delivered by your project. If the competitor launches their product to the market before you, your project will be deemed as failed. With a response prepared to run some of the development activities in parallel, what should you do next? A Compress the schedule B Meet with the team to assess the risk C Terminate the project D Request management reserves J Question answered incorrectly Hint: Is there a risk response plan? Correct Answer: A Explanation: When identified project risks are realized, project managers and their team implement the planned risk responses. The question reads, 'with a response prepared', implying the risk of the competitor releasing a similar product has been identified, and the response has been planned. The risk response was to run some of the development activities in parallel which is the essence of fast tracking. Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique in which activities or phases that are normally done in sequence are performed in parallel for at least a portion of their duration. By compressing the schedule, the project will likely be completed earlier than planned and hopefully ahead of their competitor. Therefore, of the available choices, implementing the planned risk response, i.e. compressing the schedule, is what you should do next. Details for Each Option: A Compress the schedule Correct. The risk response plan was to speed up the schedule. Now that the risk has been realized, the response should be implemented. Fast tracking is a method to speed up the schedule. B Meet with the team to assess the risk /  Incorrect. The scenario implies the risk has already been identified and assessed, and the response has been planned. The team now needs to implement the plan. C Terminate the project Incorrect. Terminating the project is a premature action. According to the scenario, the competitor has not yet released the product. The competitor is 'about to release' it. First, a response planned to address the risk should be implemented. If the response does not result in the desired effect, other actions, including project termination may be considered. D Request management reserves Incorrect. Management reserves are allocated for unknown risks. According to the scenario, the risk of the competitor releasing a similar product has been identified, and the response has been planned. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 449-451, 215 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 24 of 200 Question ID: 651373 A request for proposal (RFP) has been sent out to prospective sellers. The sellers' responses came back with a much higher cost than expected. However, per company policy, if the responses meet the specifications and the quality requirements, which the responses do, the requested service must be selected from one of these sellers. What is the best course of action for the project manager? A Increase the quality standards B Update the cost baseline C Conduct a procurement audit D Resend the RFP J Question answered incorrectly Hint: How might the information received from the sellers change the project management plan? Correct Answer: B Explanation: Cost estimates are based on what is known or understood in the project at the time the estimates are developed. Based on these estimates, the cost baseline is created. The scenario implies the project is in the Conduct Procurements process, which is part of the Executing Process Group. Therefore, the cost baseline must have been already approved before project execution begun. Updates to the cost baseline are among the outputs of the Conduct Procurements process. The scenario states that per the company policy if the response meets the specifications and the quality requirements, the requested service must be selected from one of these sellers. Therefore, the project must select a seller and adjust the cost baseline accordingly. Breaking the policy or changing the specifications is not good practice, to say the least. Resending the same RFP to prospective sellers is only acceptable if errors or some other factor impacting all parties were discovered in the initial requests, which is not the case described in the scenario. An approved change request will be required to modify the cost baseline. However, this option is not provided. Therefore, of the choices provided, adjusting the cost baseline is the best answer to the question asked. Details for Each Option: A Increase the quality standards /  Incorrect. Quality standards are established prior to the RFP being sent to potential sellers so that the sellers can provide estimates based on the specifications and the required quality level. Altering the quality expectations after the RFP has been sent and responded is unfair without proper procedures and communication. B Update the cost baseline Correct. The cost baseline would be based on the expectations of the RFP. As the sellers responded, the baseline should be updated based on the new information. An approved change request will be required to modify the cost baseline. C Conduct a procurement audit Incorrect. A procurement audit is a structured review of contracts and contracting processes for completeness, accuracy, and effectiveness. The audit will typically take place after the vendor delivered on the contract, while according to the scenario, the project has just received responses from the sellers implying no contract has been signed. D Resend the RFP Incorrect. The RFP was sent out, and the sellers responded. Breaking the policy in attempts to gain a more expected return by sending out the same RFB breaks trust and working relations with suppliers. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 490 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 25 of 200 Question ID: 651418 Your organization has a dedicated procurement department. Per your request, the department prepares the procurement documentation and, during the next week, will request bids from the prospective vendors. You really want XYZ Incorporated to be selected. What can you say to XYZ Incorporated? A They should expect an invitation to bid by next week. B You need product-specific information. C You can say nothing related to the bid while the bid is being prepared. D Price is the deciding factor in vendor selection. J Question answered incorrectly Hint: What action is reasonable and does not violate the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct? Correct Answer: C Explanation: When conducting the procurement activities on a project, it is important that you remain fair, honest, and ethical. The PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct expects this standard of behavior of every project manager. Procurement professionals should also conduct themselves in a fair, honest, and ethical manner. In buyer-seller transactions, it is extremely important to ensure that all parties are given equal treatment and equal footing. Providing any inside information, regardless of how small, could be interpreted as extending an unfair advantage to one potential vendor over the others. The bid documents are going to announce the terms and evaluation criteria of the procurement, including the price, timing, and other details. The procurement department will send all relevant bid documents all prospective vendors at the same time. No one should be receiving information that others are not. The communications should follow the rules and terms of the bidding procedures, which implies that you can say nothing related to the bid while the bid is being prepared. Details for Each Option: A They should expect an invitation to bid by next week. Incorrect. Providing inside information about the timing of the bid only to one vendor and not informing their competitors is unethical. It gives an unfair advantage to one vendor over the others. / B You need product-specific information. Incorrect. Requesting specific information on the vendor's products may tip them off. It gives them an unfair advantage since they can start to prepare a potential response sooner than their competitors. C You can say nothing related to the bid while the bid is being prepared. Correct. Prior to a formal bid, the communication between the buyers and potential vendors should not involve any bid-related subjects. The communications should follow the rules and terms of the bidding procedures. D Price is the deciding factor in vendor selection. Incorrect. Telling one vendor that price is the deciding factor without providing the same information to other competitors gives an unfair advantage to this vendor, violates the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct, and goes against the best project management and procurement practices. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 482-491 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 26 of 200 Question ID: 613377 You are attending a meeting where the project manager, sponsor, vendors, and several other stakeholders are capturing lessons learned. The attendees are in a celebratory mood, the sponsor is happy, and the vendors are asking if there is the potential for any follow-on work. What type of meeting are you attending? A Team building meeting B Project kick-off meeting C Project retrospective D Bidder conference J Question answered incorrectly Hint: The people at the meeting appear to have spent a lot of time together. Correct Answer: C Explanation: A project retrospective is a meeting held during project closure to record lessons learned during the project and transfer the information captured in the lessons learned register to the lessons learned repository, where it can be used to improve the performance of future projects. Since the project has concluded, the atmosphere is likely to be celebratory, especially if the project was a success. Additionally, it is not surprising that vendors, who just had their contracts closed, could be inquiring about follow-on work during such a meeting. Note that the question describes three different meetings including a lessons learned meeting (retrospective), a celebration meeting, and a customer wrap-up meeting. However, these meetings can be held independently or in combination. Since the scenario implies that the meeting is occurring as part of project closure, the project retrospective is the best answer to the question asked. The incorrect responses would not likely occur at the end of the project and be celebratory in nature. Details for Each Option: A Team building meeting /  Incorrect. Team building meetings are typically jovial meetings and can include vendors, but team building meetings rarely cover lessons learned and is not typically a meeting where vendors inquire about follow-on work. B Project kick-off meeting Incorrect. Kick-off meetings are often light-hearted events, can include vendors, and at times, have reviews of lessons learned from other projects. However, at a kick-off meeting, the vendors are more likely to be focused on the current project, not potential future projects. C Project retrospective Correct. Project retrospectives are often light-hearted (especially if the project ended well) events held during project closure. These meetings are where the project team members, and possibly stakeholders and vendors, capture what went right or wrong and how to improve the future projects. Vendors, who just finished their contracts, might be looking for future contracts. Retrospectives and lessons learned are often used interchangeably. D Bidder conference Incorrect. A bidder conference is a meeting with prospective sellers prior to the preparation of a bid or proposal to ensure all prospective vendors have a clear and common understanding of the procurement. The customer may explain lessons learned from prior projects as stipulations for vendors to accommodate. However, bidder conferences are usually serious business meetings and are not celebratory. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 127, 750 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 27 of 200 Question ID: 651429 The project is required to notify the public at various stages. A public relations specialist was involved in planning the communications for the project. Now, when the project is in execution, the communications with the public up to this point do not appear to be effective. A survey revealed only 2% of the public was aware of the project. Whom should the project manager contact first? A The public relations specialist B The project sponsor C The project management office D A quality specialist J Question answered incorrectly Hint: Who knows most about the topic? Correct Answer: A Explanation: The scenario surrounds the Monitor Communications process. Expert judgment is among the tools and techniques that can be used as part of this process. Expertise should be considered from individuals or groups with specialized knowledge or training in communications with the public, the community, and the media. When monitoring and controlling the project communications there are often many people involved in the process. A project manager's role is not always to be the one performing all the project activities, but assuring that they are being done. For the benefit of the project and all involved, activities, such as in this scenario where decisions need to be made regarding the communications with external stakeholders (the public), the project manager is better off consulting with those who know most and can suggest the most effective solutions. That is the public relations specialist in the company. S/He is the subject matter expert (SME) in this case. They are most equipped to recommend what to do next. The project manager and relevant stakeholder can make an informed decision based on the advice from the SME. The project manager is the one responsible for turning those decisions into actionable plans and results. The project sponsor provides the authority and support - typically in the form of resources and finances - to commission those actions. All the identified roles are involved, but the best advice can come from the one with the most expert judgment. While it can be argued for the effectiveness (or the lack thereof) of the public relations specialist, project communications failure cannot be blamed on only one person. The specialist was involved in project planning, however, it is unclear if the specialist's inputs have been properly documented. And even if yes, the failure could have been caused by the improper implementation of the Manage Communications process. There are too many / assumptions to be made as to why the communications up to this point do not appear to be effective. While the public relations specialist could be one of the reasons, under the circumstances described in the scenario and with the given set of the answer choices (none of which is a perfect/ideal answer), it is still the public relations specialist who is the best to advise on how to proceed with the communications with the public. Details for Each Option: A The public relations specialist Correct. At this point to best monitor and control the communications the expert judgment of a public relations subject matter expert is best to determine what is the next best action for the project. B The project sponsor Incorrect. The project sponsor is backing the project, primarily thru finances and resources. The project sponsor would not typically have the knowledge related to the communication needs of the public. C The project management office Incorrect. The project management office (PMO) is an organizational structure that standardizes the project- related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques. It is unlikely that contacting the PMO would help the project manager in advising on the issue described in the scenario. D A quality specialist Incorrect. A quality specialist would be most helpful with quality management issues related to the project rather than topics covering communications with the public. Reference: A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 391 /  PMP Exam Simulator PMP Exam 7 Question 28 of 200 Question ID: 651390 A key stakeholder has been resistant to the project's objectives, and the support of this stakeholder is vital to the success of the project. The project manager has employed various engagement strategies which have been ineffective and needs to determine the underlying reason that stakeholder engagement is not having the planned effect. What should the project manager do next? A Develop a stakeholder engagement assessment matrix B Conduct data analysis C Submit a change request to update the stakeholder engagement plan D Perform an alternative analysis J Question answered incorrectly Hint: Root cause analysis can be used to determine the basic underlying reason that stakeholder engagement is not having the planned effect. Correct Answer: B Explanation: The scenario suggests that the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process has identified a variance in the current and desired engagement level of a key stakeholder. The question asks about root cause analysis which is a data analysis technique that may be useful in performing the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process. As it applies to this process, root cause analysis can be used to determine the basic underlying reason that stakeholder engagement is not having the planned effect. Thus, the project manager should perform a root cause analysis in this scenario. What makes this question challenging is that root cause analysis is not listed as an answer choice. There will likely be instances on the actual PMP exam where the obvious answer is not available, and the best option of the available responses must be selected. In this case, root cause analysis is a form of data analysis. Therefore, among the available choices, conducting a data analysis is the best answer to the question asked. Details for Each Option: A Develop a stakeholder engagement assessment matrix /  Incorrect. A stakeholder engagement assessment matrix is a data representation technique that compares current and desired stakeholder engagement levels. However, the question indicates that the key stakeholder's current engagement level is resistant and the desired engagement level is supportive. Therefore, a determination of the current and desired engagement levels for this stakeholder has already been determined. B Conduct data analysis Correct. As it applies to the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process, root cause analysis can be used to determine the basic underlying reason that stakeholder engagement is not having the planned effect. Root cause analysis is an example of a data analysis technique. C Submit a change request to update the stakeholder engagement plan Incorrect. The stakeholder engagement plan may or may not need to be updated in this scenario. The project manager should first seek to understand why the existing stakeholder engagement plan is not having the desired effect in order to determine what changes need to be made. D Perform an alternative analysis Incorrect. Alternative analysis can be used to evaluate options to respond to variances in the desired results of stakeholder engagement. However, the question states that the project manager needs to determine the underlying reason that stakeholder engagement is not having the planned effect, which describes root cause analysis rather than alternative analysis. Additionally, the root cause of the variance should be understood