Phlebotomy PDF

CHAPTER  - * 12 has per year total D. All of the above PHI = Protected Health Information Brittany & B w S E  Chapter 3 Study Guide Questions *P....

CHAPTER  - * 12 has per year total D. All of the above PHI = Protected Health Information Brittany & B w S E  Chapter 3 Study Guide Questions *P. D E. Personal Protective = Equipment 1. Which of the following items should a phlebotomist recognize as part of the aseptic technique *L A 1 = Laboratory acquired -. protocol?.. Infecti on A. Quality control logs B. Standard precautions C. Disaster emergency plan D. Safety devices ↑ 2. Which of the following pieces of personal protective equipment should a phlebotomist wear to adhere to universal precautions in anticipation of body fluid splashes? A. Sterile gloves B. Gown C. Shoe covers D. Hair cap 3. Which of the following is an appropriate technique when preparing a site for venipuncture after applying antiseptic? A. Allow to air dry B. Wipe with clean gauze C. Wave hands over site D. Blow on site 4. Which of the following is the first step a phlebotomist should take to prevent the spread of infection? A. Wearing gloves for any patient contact B. Washing hands with antimicrobial soap and water C. Decontaminating '' the equipment before use D. Applying antiseptic to the puncture sites prior to venipuncture 5. OSHA is responsible for regulating which of the following? A. Universal precautions B. Accuracy of laboratory results C. Patient privacy D. Immunization schedules 6. Which of the following refers to the process of cleaning up a blood specimen spill on a counter? in this A. Sterilization * Containment role process. also plays a Make sure not spread the spill to. B. Disinfection C. Neutralization D. Containment 2 7. Which of the following is an appropriate choice for cleaning a surface contaminated with blood or body fluids? A. 70% isopropyl alcohol other disinfectant approved by EPA *. B. 10% bleach solution or C. Povidone-iodine D. Boiling water 8. A phlebotomist is preparing to collect a capillary blood specimen from a patient using the aseptic Aseptic techniques important to blood technique. Which of the following cleansing agents should the phlebotomist use? collection per- sonnel include: A. Povidone-iodine Following proper hand hygiene procedures. B. 70% isopropyl alcohol Asep- tic technique is a healthcare Keeping supplies within easy reach to prevent drop- C. 10% chlorine bleach solution practice used to reduce the chance of - microbial contamination with the ping them. Opening equipment D. Hand sanitizer goal of protecting patients from infection and preventing the spread packages in a way that avoids con- tamination. of infection. Prompt and safe disposal of contaminated equipment. Prompt cleanup up of 9. A phlebotomist finds a patient who is unresponsive and not breathing. In which of the following infectious material. Wearing gloves for blood collection and other PPE positions should the phlebotomist place the patient before initiating CPR? when indicated. A. Semi-Fowler’s B. Side-lying C. Supine D. Prone 10. A phlebotomist should administer CPR to which of the following patients? A. A patient who is pulseless B. A patient who is short of breath C. A patient who has chest pain D. A patient who is lethargic 11. A patient suspected of having a severe medication reaction goes into shock. Which of the following first aid measures should the phlebotomist take? A. Provide a cooling blanket B. Administer oral fluids C. Keep the patient as upright as possible D. Maintain open airway 12. If a phlebotomist receives an accidental needlestick, which of the following actions should be taken first? A. Wash the area with soap and water B. Complete the blood draw C. Seek immediate treatment D. Report the needlestick to the supervisor 13. A phlebotomy technician experiences a needlestick injury while performing a draw. The technician is at greatest risk for exposure to which of the following blood borne pathogens? A. Hepatitis A virus (HAV) B. Hepatitis C virus (HCV) C. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) 2 D. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) 14. A phlebotomist is preparing to collect a blood specimen from a patient who has active mycobacterium tuberculosis. Which of the following precautions should the phlebotomist follow? A. Droplet precautions B. Airborne precautions contact precautions + C. Standard precautions D. Contact precautions 15. A NIOSH-certified N95 or higher-level mask should be worn when entering what type of isolation room? A. Droplet B. Airborne C. Indirect contact D. Direct contact 16. Which of the following actions should a phlebotomist take when interacting with a patient who has a “Contact Precautions” sign on their door? A. Don a mask prior to entering the patient’s room and remove before leaving the room B. Don a gown prior to entering the patient’s room and remove it before leaving the room C. Don a face shield prior to entering the patient’s room and remove it after leaving the room D. Don gloves after cleaning and evaluating the patient’s venipuncture site. 17. A patient who is on droplet precautions requires daily blood glucose monitoring. Besides gloves, what piece of personal protective equipment must the phlebotomist wear when drawing the sample? A. Mask B. Gown C. Show covers D. Googles 18. There has been a chemical spill in the laboratory. To which of the following should a phlebotomist refer for directions to clean up the spill? A. SDS B. CLIA C. CDC D. OSHA 19. Which of the following must a phlebotomist perform to demonstrate proficiency in aseptic technique? A. Proper needle insertion angle B. Correct tube selection and order of collection C. Proper disposal of contaminated materials D. Correct vein anchoring 2 20. Aseptic techniques are followed by phlebotomists during phlebotomy procedures for which of the following reasons? A. To minimize the volume of blood sample required B. To increase the likelihood of successful collection C. To maintain the stability of patient specimens D. To decrease the risk of infection to patients and phlebotomists 21. When a phlebotomist is performing a venipuncture on a patient, which of the following actions is included in aseptic technique? A. Cleansing skin with sodium hypochlorite B. Disposing of contaminated material C. Completing quality control procedures D. Performing hand hygiene once daily 22. If a phlebotomist’s hands are visibly soiled with blood or body fluids, which of the following decontamination agents should the phlebotomist use to clean them? A. Alcohol rinse including · a hand saniter after B. Soap and water C. Alcohol based hand rub D. Sterile water rinse 23. Immediately after a needle stick injury has occurred, the employee should: A. Check the patient’s HIV status B. Clean it with soap & water C. Report the incident to the nurse D. Make the site bleed, clean with antiseptic and report to supervisor 24. Which of the following actions is required immediately after a phlebotomist experiences an accidental needlestick injury when drawing blood from a patient who has HIV? A. Report the exposure to the supervisor B. Report the exposure to the CDC C. Save the collection device for future evaluation D. Send the patient for further STI testing 25. Which of the following governing bodies mandates the use of safety features on needles and the immediate disposal as one unit in a biohazard container after use? A. OSHA B. HIPAA C. CLIA D. CDC 26. Standard precautions: A. Apply only to secretions and excretions that contain blood. 2 B. Are used regardless of a patient’s diagnosis or presumed infection status C. Never supersede the CDC isolation recommendations D. Should not be combined with other precautions 27. A large spill has occurred in a laboratory involving venous blood. Which of the following actions should a phlebotomist take? A. Apply a liquid thickening agent on top of the spill B. Evacuate the laboratory C. Cover the spill until maintenance arrives D. Pour bleach on the spill and let it soak for 60 seconds 28. Which of the following is the general concept behind standard precautions? A. Assume that all body fluids are infected with bloodborne pathogens B. Ensure that employees receive training regarding workplace hazard C. Provide information about hazardous chemicals to the environment within D. Maintain a workplace that is free of environmental hazards. 29. A phlebotomy technician is preparing to perform a venipuncture for a patient who has pneumonia. Besides gloves, which of the following pieces of personal protective equipment should technician wear? A. Gown B. N95 respirator C. Face mask D. Goggles 30. When testing a patient for streptococcal pharyngitis, a phlebotomy technician should implement which of the following types of transmission-based precautions? A. Contact B. Standard C. Airborne D. Droplet 31. Define nosocomial infection: A. Infection acquired while in the hospital B. Infection acquired at home C. Infection acquired through mucous membranes D. Infection acquired through the skin 32. A phlebotomist should avoid using a site with burned skin during venipuncture for which of the following reasons? A. Increased risk of infection B. Precipitates vein sclerosis C. Inaccuracy of laboratory results D. Damages to skin elasticity 33. A phlebotomist is obtaining a blood specimen from a patient who is suspected of having a A. Face shield B. N95 respirator 2 mycobacterium tuberculosis infection. Which of the following pieces of equipment is required? C. Sterile gloves D. Nonlatex tourniquet 34. A patient is on contact isolation precautions. What PPE, other than the standard gloves, would be required? A. Surgical mask B. N95 mask C. Face shield or goggles D. Gown 35. A phlebotomist is concerned about contracting HIV during venipuncture. Which of the following precautions should the phlebotomist take for venipuncture? A. Airborne B. Droplet C. Contact D. Standard 36. Which of the following organizations regulates laboratory chemical hazards and exposure? A. DEA B. OSHA C. CLIA D. FDA 37. In case of chemical splash to the eyes, the healthcare worker should: A. Rub the chemical B. Flush with water continuously for 5 minutes C. Go to nearest emergency room D. Flush with water continuously for 15 minutes 38. Which of the following meet the OSHA BBP standard definition of an engineering control? A. Self-sheathing needle B. Sharps container C. Splash shield D. All of the above 39. The best defense against HBV infection is: A. HBV vaccination B. Proper hand hygiene C. Using safety needles D. Wearing gloves 40. A physical or mechanical device that reduces or eliminates the likelihood of occupational exposure to blood borne pathogens is call (an): A. Required control B. Automatic control C. Work practice control 2 D. Engineering control  41. Radiation exposure: A. Is cumulative B. Has not long-term effect C. Wears off after 24 hours D. Is not cumulative 42. Which of the following would not necessarily lead to work restrictions for a hospital employee? A. Positive PPD (Purified protein derivative) TB skin test B. Influenza C. Rubella D. Weeping dermatitis 43. Which government agency oversees moderate diseases that have developed into an epidemic? A.CDC B. OSHA C. JACHO D. All of the above 44. Which of the following diseases does NOT involve a blood borne pathogen: A. HIV B. Malaria C. Syphilis D. Tuberculosis 45. A pathogen is: A. Any virus B. Any microorganism C. An organism capable of causing disease D. Normal flora 46. A trash can with burning paper is classed as what type of fire? A. Type A B. Type B C. Type C D. Type D 47. The Most common type of nosocomial infection in United States is: A. Hepatitis infection B. Urinary tract infection C. Respiratory infection D. Wound infection 2 48. The proper order in putting on isolation apparel is: A. Mask, gown, gloves B. Gloves, mask, gown C. Gown, gloves, mask D. Gown, mask, gloves 49. Tourniquets contaminated with visible blood should be: A. Disposed of in a biohazard bag B. Cleaned with 70% alcohol C. Cleaned with soap and water D. Cleaned with 100% alcohol 50. Identify the symbol: A. Bio-hazard symbol B. Radiation symbol C. Fire hazard symbol D. Chemical hazard 51. Identify the symbol: A. Biohazard symbol B. Radiation Symbol C. Fire Hazard Symbol D. Chemical Hazard 52. A phlebotomist enters a patient’s room and observes the patient to be motionless and cyanotic. Which of the following actions should the phlebotomist take first? A. Ask the patient if they are okay in a loud voice B. Perform the head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver C. Look, Listen, and feel for breathing movements D. Administer wo rescue breaths 2  Chapter 3 Study Guide Key 1. B 43. A 2. B 44. D 3. A 45. C 4. B 46. A 5. A 47. B 6. B 48. D 7. B 49. A 8. B 50. A 9. C 51. B 10. A 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. B 16. B 17. A 18. A 19. C 20. D 21. B 22. B 23. B 24. A 25. A 26. B 27. A 28. A 29. C 30. D 31. A 32. A 33. B 34. D 35. 36. 37. D B D 2 38. D 39. A 40. D 41. A 42. A 2  Chapter 4 Study Guide 1. What is the word element that established the basic meaning of a medical term? A. Combining form B. Prefix C. Suffix D. Root word 2. The prefix is which of the following? A. The main part of the word B. A word element added after a root word C. A word element added before a root word D. A vowel that changes the word meaning 3. A patient comes into have a GTT, which test will you draw for? A. Gonorrhea screen B. Glucose tolerance test C. Gastric test D. Glycosylated hemoglobin 4. What part of the word pericarditis is the root word? A. Ardi B. Cardi C. itis D. peri 5. What is the abbreviation PPD mean? A. Purified protein derivative B. Purified plums derivative C. Purified pie derivative D. Purified probiotic derivative 6. What is the meaning of “pre”? A. After B. Never C. Before D. On top of 7. What is the meaning of “RBC” mean? A. Random blood count B. Rare blood cancer C. Red Blood Cells D. Reduced blood content 8. What is the meaning of “logy”? A. the stew of B. the study of C. the sturdy of D. the string of 9. What does the suffix angina mean? A. Pain B. Disease C. Condition / D. Between 10. What does the suffix lysis mean? A. Incision B. Stoppage C. Breakdown D. Surgical puncture 11. What is the meaning of “cry”? A. Clot B. Kidney C. Cold D. Deficiency 12. What is the meaning of “ren”? A. Inflammation B. Many C. Kidney D. Cell 13. What is the meaning of “brady”? A. Slow B. Fast C. Many D. Clot 14. What is the meaning of “tomy”? A. Cell B. Cold C. Deficiency D. Incision, cutting into 15. What is the meaning of “lip”? A. Fluffy B. Skinny C. Fat D. Hot 16. What is the meaning of “H and H”? A. homo & homeo B. Hemoglobin & hematocrit C. Hot & Hotter D. Hemoglobin & hepat 17. What is the meaning of “NPO”? A. Negative patient outcome B. New patients only C. No parental output D. Nothing by mouth 18. What does thromb mean? A. Veni B. derm C. Arterio D. Clot 19. What is does the abbreviation stat mean? A. As soon as possible B. Status unknown C. Immediately D. As necessary 20. What is the meaning of “glyc”? A. Sugar B. Incision C. Fat D. Cold 21. What does “FUO” refer to? A. Fever of unknown origin B. Fever of unknown orbit C. Fever under other D. Fever of unknown oak 22. What is the meaning of “hemat”? A. Fat B. Cold C. Clot D. Blood 23. What is the meaning of “cyt”? A. Slow B. Sugar C. Cell D. Cold 24. Electrical activity in the heart wall would be recorded on a: A. EEG B. BMR C. ECG (EKG) D. X-ray 25. What is the meaning of “itis”? A. Inflammation B. Cold C. Cell D. Sugar 26. What is the meaning of “poly”? A. Many B. Sugar C. Cell D. Cold 27. What is the meaning of “penia”? A. Deficiency B. Incision C. Cell D. Clot 28. What does the abbreviation “ABG” stand for? A. Apples, bubbles, and gum B. Ants, bugs and grass C. Arterial blood guns D. Arterial Blood Gas 29. What is the meaning of “CABG”? A. Congestive artery bypass garbage B. Cabbage C. Coronary artery bilateral graft D. Coronary artery bypass graft 30. What is the meaning of pco2? A. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide B. Pass pressure of carbon dioxide C. Present pressure of carbon dioxide D. This is the right answer 31. What is the meaning of “Cyan”? A. White B. Red C. Blue D. Yellow 32. What is the meaning of “epi”? A. On, over, upon B. On, over, beyond C. On, over, below D. On, over 33. What is the meaning of “osteo”? > A. Bone B. Joint C. Cartilage D. Tendon 34. What is the meaning of “CBC”? A. Complete bubble count B. Complete blue count C. Complete blood count D. Complete blow count 35. What is the meaning of “tachy”? A. Slow B. Mild C. Fast D. Palpations 36. What is the meaning of “BMP”? A. Basic Metabolic Panel Profile B. Basic Metal Panel C. Basic Motion Panel D. Basic Movement Panel 37. What is the meaning of “phleb”? A. Artery B. Vein C. Tendon D. Muscle 38. What is the meaning of “arth”? A. Joint B. Bones C. Cartilage D. Vertebra  NKA 39. What is the meaning of “NKDA”? A. No known dual allergies B. Nothing known drug allergies C. No known drug allergies D. No knowable rug allergies 40. What is the abbreviation “h.s.” stand for? A. Hours of sleep B. Hours of snore C. Honestly sweet D. Hours of day 41. What is the abbreviation “prn” stand for? A. plus, run, now B. pull, run, necessary C. purse, register, nurse D. as needed or necessary 42. What is the meaning of “enter”? A. intestines B. clot C. heart D. joint 43. What is the meaning of “UTI”? A. urinary truck infection B. urinary tack infection C. urinary tacker infection D. urinary tract infection 44. What is the meaning of “gastr”? A. mouth B. lip C. stomach D. intestines 45. What is the meaning of “pathy”? A. cell B. small C. study of D. disease 46. What does the medical term for “syncope” mean? A. fainting B. before meals C. bilirubin D. as desired 47. What is the meaning of “hyper”? A. low B. high C. fast D. slow 48. What is the meaning of “hypo”? A. low B. High C. fast D. slow 49. What is the meaning of “A.C.” stand for? A. air cubes B. after meals C. during meals D. before meals 50. What is the abbreviation “FBS” stand for? A. fasting blood gases B. fasting bug sugar C. fasting blood sugar D. fasting blend sugar 51. What is the meaning of “UA”? A. urine B. urine associates C. urinalysis D. under 52. What is the meaning of “peri”? A. around B. below C. above D. under 53. What is the meaning of “CHF”? A. congestive heart failure B. Congestive hung failure C. Congestive heart future D. Congestive hemoglobin future 54. What does “DOB” stand for? A. dead on beach B. date of birth C. date of breath D. date of breast 55. What is the meaning of “hemoglobin”? A. oxygen in the blood B. oxygen in the back C. oxygen on the front D. oxygen on the foot 56. What is the meaning for “po”? A. nothing by mouth B. by month C. by moth D. by mouth 57. What is the meaning of “statis”? A. stopping, confronting B. stopping, confusing C. stopping, controlling D. stopping, cocktails 58. What is the meaning of “A” before a word?? A. without B. with you C. with D. before 59. What is the meaning of “My” in a word?? A. music B. muscle C. mass D. moisture 60. What is the meaning of “BUN”? A. blood urine and nitrogen Blood Urea Nitrogen B. Blood urine and nothing C. blend urine and nitrogen D. blend under and nitrogen 61. What is the meaning of “PT”? A. patient B. Prothrombin time Physical therapy C. Probating time D. people 62. What is the meaning of “PKU”? A. Phenylketonuria B. Penny C. plus, urine D. ketones 63. What is the meaning of “PTT”? A. patient technician teacher B. patient teacher technician C. partial prothromboplastin time D. partial pro time 64. What is the medical terminology for “ACT” mean? A. act B. Activated clotting town C. Activated clotting time D. Activated clothing time 65. What is the meaning of “INR”? A. International nothing ratio B. International normalized ratio C. International nuts ratio D. International normalized rats 66. What is the meaning of “gtt”? A. liquid GTT B. dripping C. glucose tolerance test D. drops  MATCHING THE KEY TERMS AND DESCRIPTIONS PART 1 1. Cry A. high 2. 3. i lip my ↓ B. break down C. kidney 4. Y thromb - D. pain - 5. C ren E. blue - 6. th a- F. same - 7. Y epi G. cell - 8. T poly - H. before 9. H pre I. clot - 10. L penia - J. no known drug allergies 11. w itis - K. study of 12. lysis L. deficiency 3 - 13. logy - M. bone 14. homeo - N. red blood cell 15. P tomy / O. low 16. glyc - P. cutting into, incision 17. 18. * cyt NKDA Q. cold X R. without 19. angina / S. immediately 20. ⑰ cyan T. many I 21. A hyper U. muscle - 22. M osteo S V. upon, on, over 23. M RBC I W. inflammation 24. 25.o hypo Stat T X. sugar Y. fat 26. z HGB/hgb - Z. hemoglobin -  MATCHING THE KEY TERMS AND DESCRIPTIONS PART 1 1. U Cardi " A. before meals · 2. FBS B. fasting blood sugar 3. ____pathy C. by mouth 4. M ABG D. Fast 5. L fainting E. joint 6. PPD F. drops 7. arth G. complete blood count 8. phleb H. hours of sleep 9. brady I. vein 10. prn J. stomach 11. ac K. slow 12. HS L. syncope 13. NPO M. arterial blood gas 14. EKG N. fever of unknown origin m GTT 15. enter O. disease 16. /P. purified protein derivative 17. D Tachy Q. as needed, as necessary Y gastr Y 18. CABG R. intestines 19. S. nothing by mouth 20. Y PC02 ( T. electrocardiogram 21. F gtt / U. heart 22. G CBC / V. partial pressure of carbon dioxide 23. C P O / W. glucose tolerance test N PT 24. FUO - X. coronary artery bypass graft 25. - Y. prothrombin time 26. Z UA / Z. urinalysis  Stick It Phlebotomy, LLC Answers to the Study Guide Questions Chapter 4 Chapter 4 33. A 1. D 34. C 2. C 35. C 3. B 36. A 4. B 37. B 5. A 38. A 6. C 39. C 7. C 40. A 8. B 41. D 9. A 42. A 10. C 43. D 11. C 44. C 12. C 45. D 13. A 46. A 14. D 47. B 15. C 48. A 16. B 49. D 17. D 50. C 18. D 51. C 19. C 52. A 20. A 53. A 21. A 54. B 22. D 55. A 23. C 56. D 24. C 57. C 25. A 58. A 26. A 59. B 27. A 60. A 28. D 61. B 29. D 62. A 30. A 63. C 31. C 64. C 32. A 65. B 66. D Chapter 4 Matching key terms Part 2 Matching key terms Part 1 1. U 1. Q 2. B 2. Y 3. O 3. U 4. M 4. I 5. L 5. C 6. P 6. R 7. E 7. V 8. I 8. T 9. K 9. H 10. Q 10. L 11. A 11. W 12. H 12. B 13. S 13. K 14. T 14. F 15. R 15. P 16. W 16. X 17. D 17. G 18. X 18. J 19. J 19. D 20. V 20. E 21. F 21. A 22. G 22. M 23. C 23. N 24. N 24. O 25. Y 25. S 26. Z 26. Z Chapter 5 Study Guides 1. The body system responsible for support, protection and production of blood cells is: A. Muscular B. Integumentary C. Circulatory D. Skeletal 2. Proximal is define as: A. Away from the middle B. Closet to the middle C. Nearest to the point of attachment D. Farthest from the center 3. The transverse plane divides the body: A. Diagonally into upper and lower portions B. Horizontally into upper and lower portions C. Vertically into from and back portions D. Vertically into right and left portions 4. A person who is supine is: A. Lying face up B. Lying on the side C. Sitting up D. Standing erect 5. Upper extremities include with regions of the body? A. Ankle and foot B. Legs C. Hand and wrist D. Pelvis 6. Which layers make up the human skin? A. Striated and visceral B. Muscular and hematopoietic C. Epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous D. Pharynx, trachea, bronchiole, and alveolus 7. The endocrine system can be best evaluated by: A. Tissue biopsy B. Testing spinal fluid C. Blood gas analyses D. Analyzing hormone levels 1 8. A patient has meningitis. What body system is associated with this diagnosis? A. Digestive B. Endocrine C. Nervous D. Urinary 9. The largest organ of the body is: A. Heart B. Skin C. Liver D. Stomach 10. What is the meaning of Body cavities: A. Sex cells B. Referring to the front C. Air sacs in the lungs D. Hollow body spaces that house body organs 11. What is the meaning of “Alveoli” A. Flat surface of a real line cut thorough the body B. Air sacs in the lungs where exchange of gases take place C. Sex cells D. Hollow body spaces that house body organs 12. Define “Prone” A. Lying face down B. Farthest point of attachment C. Sex cells D. Flat surface of a real or imaginary cut through the body 13. What is the meaning of distal? A. Farthest from the point of attachment B. Nearest from the point of attachment C. Anterior from the point of attachment D. Posterior from the point of attachment 14. The avascular layer of the skin is called? A. Dermal- subcutaneous layer B. Dermis C. Epidermis D. subcutaneous 2 15. The ability of the body to maintain all systems in a steady state is called: A. Homeostasis B. Metabolism C. Hemostasis D. Coagulation 16. Define body plane: A. referring to the front B. farthest from point of attachment C. flat surface of a real or imaginary cut through the body D. hollow body spaces that house body organs 17. What is the meaning of “Anterior” A. referring to the front of the body B. referring to the back of the body C. referring to the side of the body D. referring to the foot 18. What is the meaning of dorsal? A. refers to the front B. referring to the back of the body C. referring to the side D. lying face down 19. What is the meaning of “frontal plane.” A. hollow body spaces that house body organs B. referring to the front C. divides the body vertically into front and back portion D. sex cells 20. What is the definition of metabolism? A. Sex cells B. Air sacs C. sum of all physical and chemical reactions that sustain life D. Substance that coats the alveoli 21. How many bones are in the human body? A. 209 bones B. 245 bones C. 306 bones D. 206 bones 3 22. Approx. about how many liters of blood does the human body contain? A. 5 liters B. 4 liters C. 3 liters D. 6 liters 23. Which body system is responsible for the transportation of oxygen and nutrients to the tissues: A. circulatory B. Integumentary C. Respiratory D. Lymphatic 24. The sum of all the chemical processes occurring in the cell in order to use energy is: A. Metabolism B. Homeostasis C. Hemostasis D. Coagulation 4 1. RBC - red blood cells Tachy – fast 2. Cardi - heart 35. Homo/homeo – same 3. Logy – study of 36. Fainting- syncope 4. NPO – nothing by mouth 37. Cyan – blue 5. Angina - pain 38. Gastr – stomach 6. Stat – immediately 39. Lip – fat 7. Lysis – breakdown 40. Phelb – vein 8. Glyc – sugar 41. Epi – on, over, upon 9. Cry – cold 42. Peri – around 10. Ren – kidney 43. Arth – joint 11. Cyt – cell 44. Pre – before 12. Hemat – blood 45. CHF – congestive heart failure 13. Penia – deficiency 46. DOB – date of birth 14. itis- inflammation 47. UTI – urinary tract infection 15. tomy – incision 48. PKU – Phenylketonuria 16. poly – many 49. INR – International Normalized 17. brady – slow Ratio 18. hyper- high 50. UA – urinalysis 19. hypo – low 51. CBC – complete blood count 20. ABG – arterial blood gas 52. FUO – fever of unknown origin 21. AC – before meals 53. BUN – blood urine & nitrogen 22. PRN – when needed/necessary 54. PT – prothrombin time/Protime 23. GTT- Glucose tolerance test / pt - patient gtt drops 55. P. O. – By mouth 24. FBS – fasting blood sugar 56. PTT – partial prothromboplastin 25. HS – hours of sleep time 26. Enter – intestines 57. HH – hemoglobin and 27. Pathy – disease hematocrit 28. CABG – coronary arterial 58. HGB – hemoglobin bypass graft 59. ACT- Activating clotting time 29. NKDA – no known drug 60. BMP – Basic metabolic allergies panel/profile 30. Pc02 - partial pressure of carbon 61. Statis – stopping, controlling dioxide 62. A – without 31. Thromb – clot 63. My – muscle 32. EKG Or ECG – 64. Osteo – bone electrocardiogram 65. Phleb 33. PPD – Purified protein derivative (TB skin test) 34.