Pediatric 2 Unsolved Final PDF

1. The intranatal period is understood as: A) from the 76th to the 180th day of pregnancy B) from the 16th to the 180th day of pregnancy C) from the 16th to the 75th day of pregnancy D) from 28 weeks of pregnancy until birth E) from the onset of labor until the birth of the child 2. The early neonat...

1. The intranatal period is understood as: A) from the 76th to the 180th day of pregnancy B) from the 16th to the 180th day of pregnancy C) from the 16th to the 75th day of pregnancy D) from 28 weeks of pregnancy until birth E) from the onset of labor until the birth of the child 2. The early neonatal period refers to the interval: A) from the 28th week of pregnancy to the 1st week of extrauterine life B) from birth to 40 days of life C) from the 7th to the 29th day of life D) from the child’s first birthday to the 29th day E) from birth to the 7th day of life 3. The neonatal period includes: A) from the birth of the child to the 40th day of life B) late fetal and early neonatal periods C) intranatal and early neonatal periods D) the period from the 7th to the 28th day of a newborn’s life E) early and late neonatal periods 4. A post-term baby is a baby born: A) after 39 weeks of pregnancy B) at 41 weeks of pregnancy C) after 37 weeks of pregnancy D) after 42 weeks of pregnancy E) after 40 weeks of pregnancy 5. Choose the wrong answer regarding intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR) : A) In children with IUGR, hypothermia is much more common B) In children with IUGR, glycogen reserves in the liver are low C) 20-40% of children with IUGR are born with asphyxia D) Children with a symmetrical form of IUGR may have developmental defects E) Children with IUGR often have hyaline membrane disease and pulmonary atelectasis 6. To assess the physical development of a newborn in the delivery room, it does not matter: A) gestational age B) body weight C) baby’s cry D) chest circumference measurements 1 E) head circumference dimensions 7. Scale used to assess the neuromuscular status of a newborn: A) Hoffner et al. B) Kramer C) Silverman D) Apgar E) Bollard 8. Primary prevention of conjunctivitis in newborns is carried out: A) On the 10th day after birth B) At the age of 1 month C) After birth in the delivery room D) 6 hours after birth E) On the first day of life 9. The disadvantages of tightly swaddling a newborn include: A) decreased neuro-reflex coordination B) baby's anxiety during breastfeeding C) all of the above answers are correct D) decreased hemodynamics in tight areas E) decreased ventilation 10. According to the table for assessing the morphological characteristics of a newborn child, the following criterion is not taken into account: A) Assessment of skin transparency B) Condition of the breast and areola C) Evaluation of the auricle D) Assessment of skin folds on the plantar surface of the foot E) Baby's cry 11. Select the reasons for prematurity: 1) Socio-economic 2) Social biological 3) Political 4) Pathological 5) Clinical 6) Paraclinical A) 3,5,6; B) 2, 4.6; C) 1,2,3; D) 1,2,5; 2 E) 2,3,4; 12. Select the characteristic functional signs of premature babies: 1) Active 2) Sluggish 3) Muscle hypertonia 4) Decreased reflexes 5) Muscle hypotonia 6) Weak crying 7) Heat stable 8) Heat labile 9) Intense crying 10) Weak sucking and swallowing A) 2,3,4,6,7,10; B) 3,4,6,7,9,10; C) 1,3,4,7,9,10; D) 1,3,4,7,8,9; E) 2,4,5,6,8,10; 13. Initial weight loss in premature infants depends on: A) Maternal nutrition B) Caring for the umbilical wound C) Dry skin D) Gender of the child E) Birth weights 14. Transient hyperbilirubinemia of prematurity is not characterized by: A) It is possible to develop kernicterus even with low levels of indirect bilirubin B) Compared to full-term, the frequency of occurrence C) Compared to full-term children, rare occurrence D) Bilirubin intoxication develops more often E) Reaches maximum limits by 5-8 days 15. In premature babies, seizures are most rarely observed when: A) Subarachnoid hemorrhage B) Severe (profound hypoglycemia) C) Hypomagnesemia D) Primary hypocalcemia E) Late hypocalcemia 16. In premature infants, this is not a cause of pathological acidosis (pH up to 7.2) : 3 A) Intrauterine pneumonia B) Progressive asphyxia C) Hypoxic-traumatic damage to the central nervous system D) Hyaline membrane disease E) Lack of feeding the baby in the first 2 hours of life 17. In premature infants, one of the observed signs does not relate to metabolic adaptation: A) Hypomagnesemia B) Hypocalcemia C) Hyperkalemia D) Hyperhydration E) Transient hyperbilirubinemia 18. Immediately after the birth of the child, it is necessary to keep: A) Much lower than the mother's level B) Much higher than the mother's level C) Below the level of the mother D) Above the level of the mother E) On the same level as the mother: 19. Spontaneous breathing should normally appear: A) Within 180 seconds after birth B) Within 60 seconds after birth C) During the first 30 seconds after birth D) Within 240 seconds after birth E) Within 120 seconds after birth 20. In what cases is bathing a newborn considered mandatory: A) Premature placental abruption B) Premature termination of pregnancy C) Post-term pregnancy D) Maternal oligohydramnios E) Turbid and dirty amniotic fluid in the mother 21. To prevent gonoblennorrhea, the following is used: A) Vitamin K, 0.1% gentamicin ointment B) 1% tetracycline ointment, 1% hydrocortisone C) Sudocrem, 25% magnesium sulfate solution D) 0.5% erythromycin solution, vitamin K E) 30% sodium sulfacyl solution, 1% tetracycline ointment 22. Brown adipose tissue in a healthy newborn makes up the total weight at birth: 4 A) 20-30% B) 1-2% C) 0.5-1% D) 16-20% E) 6-8% 23. Severe hypothermia in newborns occurs at body temperature: A) Below 36 о B) Below 35.2 о C) Below 34 о D) Below 33.5 о E) Below 32 о 24. In the regulation of the temperature regime of a newborn, an important role is played by: A) Lanugo B) Volume of circulating blood C) Brown adipose tissue D) Body hair E) White adipose tissue 25. To the basic conditions for providing the body of newborns with energy not applicable: A) If it is impossible to meet the energy requirement by the enteral route, replenish the missing amount by parenteral feeding B) In the absence of sucking and swallowing reflex, feeding with a tube C) Feeding the baby with mother's milk D) Lack of feeding the newborn at night E) Initiation of enteral feeding as soon as possible after birth 26. Indications for urgent transfer of a newborn to the surgical department are: A) Fracture of the humerus B) Clavicle fracture C) Cleft lip D) Cleft palate E) Atresia of the anus 27. Activities carried out in the delivery room immediately after the birth of a child do not include: A) Sanitation of the respiratory tract B) Assessment of the newborn's condition using the Apgar scale C) Drying the newborn D) Carrying out preventive vaccinations E) Umbilical cord treatment 5 28. Sign characteristic of cephalohematoma: A) Resorption in the first two days B) Painful palpation C) Extension beyond the skull suture D) Local hyperemia is noted E) Limited to the boundaries of one skull bone 29. CNS lesions most common in full-term newborns born with severe asphyxia: A) Facial nerve paresis B) Periventricular hemorrhage C) Subdural hemorrhage D) Subarachnoid hemorrhage E) Periventricular leukomalacia 30. The most common location of intracranial hemorrhage in premature infants with low and extremely low body weight: A) Subarachnoid region B) Cerebellum C) Epidural area D) Lateral ventricles E) Brain parenchyma 31. Clonic-tonic convulsions in newborns are observed with: A) Increased blood pressure B) Increased intracranial pressure C) Hypoglycemia D) Hypomagnesemia E) All answers are correct 32. Drugs for relieving cerebral edema in newborns do not include: A) Osmotically active substances B) Saluretics C) Barbiturates D) Antibiotics E) Hormones 33. Treatment measures used in newborns with cerebral hemorrhage do not include: A) Blood gas monitoring B) Ensuring energy needs C) Control of acid-base status D) Supportive therapy E) Phototherapy 34. The pathogenetic treatment of the acute period of hypoxic-traumatic damage to the central nervous system of newborns does not include: A) Prevention of the development of hypo- and hypervolemia B) Prevention of hemorrhagic disorders 6 C) Supportive therapy D) Paraffin applications to the site of injury E) Ensuring adequate ventilation 35. If damage to the fetus by toxoplasmosis occurs after the 29th week of intrauterine development, then with what signs is the child born: A) Candilomas around the anus B) Purulent conjunctivitis and allergic rash C) Pyoderma D) Rhinitis and conjunctivitis E) Meningoencephalitis and eye damage 36. For specific therapy of neonatal herpes the following is used: A) Erythromycin B) Corticosteroids C) Chloridine D) Sulfadimezine E) Acyclovir 37. Specify the characteristic signs of chlamydia in newborns: 1) Purulent conjunctivitis 2) Maculopapular exanthema 3) Rhinitis 4) Interstitial pneumonia 5) High temperature 6) Hydrocephalus 7) Numerous vices A) 2, 3, 5; B) 2, 4, 6; C) 3, 5, 6; D) 1, 4, 7; E) ) 1, 3, 4; 38. Which of the following applies to bacteria: A) Herpes B) Malarial plasmodium C) Toxoplasma D) Cytomegalovirus E) Listeria 39. Purulent-necrotic damage to the hair follicle and surrounding tissue is: A) Periporitis B) Ostiofolliculitis C) Carbuncle D) Hidradenitis E) Furuncle 40. In the clinic of a benign form of pemphigus, the following is noted: A) Severe condition due to acute intoxication B) Positive Nikolsky sign 7 C) Numerous flaccid blisters, mostly large in size D) Blisters with a diameter of 2-3 cm E) Blisters with a diameter of 0.5-2 cm against the background of an erythematous spot 41. Children with extremely low body weight reach their peers in psychomotor development in: A) 10 years B) 3 years C) 1 year D) 4 years E) 2 years 42. Newborns with a body weight of 2001-2500 reach their peers in psychomotor development at the age of: A) 4 years B) 2.5 years C) 1 year D) 2 years E) 3 years 43. The maximum loss of body weight in premature newborns occurs at: A) 8-10 days B) 1-2 days C) 2-3 days D) 4-7 days E) 7-15 days 44. Restoration of the initial body weight of premature newborns occurs: A) at 3-4 months B) in 2-3 months C) at 6 weeks D) at 2-3 weeks E) at 1 week 45. The socio-economic reasons for the birth of premature babies do not include: A) Nutrition for pregnant women B) Professional activity and working conditions of a pregnant woman C) Living conditions D) Infectious diseases of pregnant women E) Age of the pregnant woman 46. Premature babies weighing more than 2000g. need to be fed every: A) 30-45 minutes B) 6-8 hours C) 2-3 hours D) 1-2 hours E) 4 hours 47. Select a sign that is not typical for the appearance of premature babies: A) low umbilical ring B) the skull bones are soft 8 C) the subcutaneous fat layer is poorly developed D) disproportionate physique E) cranial sutures and small fontanel are closed 48. Select a sign that is not typical for the appearance of premature babies: A) low umbilical ring B) the skull bones are soft C) cranial sutures and the small fontanel are open D) disproportionate physique E) well-developed subcutaneous fat tissue 49. Select a sign that is not typical for the appearance of premature babies: A) the skull bones are soft B) cranial sutures and the small fontanel are open C) low umbilical ring D) proportional body type E) subcutaneous fat is poorly developed 50. A pronounced retardation in the motor development of children with cerebral palsy is revealed: A) at 4 months B) at 3 months C) at 6-7 months D) at 9-10 months E) at 5 months 51. The development of gross organic changes in premature newborns depends on: A) From the use of general anesthesia during childbirth B) From delivery by cesarean section C) From drugs received by the mother D) From living conditions during pregnancy E) On gestational age and degree of hypoxia 52. A child born at 34 weeks of gestation weighing 1900g. is: A) premature IV degree B) full term C) premature I degree D) stage III premature E) premature II degree 53. A child born at 36 weeks of gestation weighing 2160 g. is: A) stage III premature B) premature IV degree C) premature II degree D) full term E) premature I degree 54. The malignant form of pemphigus includes: A) No crusts after opening 9 B) Against the background of erythematous spots, vesicles with a diameter of 0.5-2 cm C) Negative Nikolsky sign D) Polymorphic nature of blisters E) A large number of flaccid blisters, mostly large in size 55. Ritter’s exfoliative dermatitis begins: A) At the end of the 3rd, beginning of the 4th week of acute intoxication B) At the end of the 1st, beginning of the 2nd week with hypothermia C) Skin manifestations at the end of the 1st, beginning of the 2nd week D) Skin manifestations at the end of the 2nd, beginning of the 3rd week E) At the end of the 1st at the beginning of the 2nd week with intestinal upset 56. Skin changes in Ritter’s exfoliative dermatitis occur in 3 stages: A) Blistering, scarring and depigmentation B) Erythema, edema and depigmentation C) Erythema, blistering and scarring D) Erythema, exfoliation and epithelialization E) Papular rashes, desquamation of the epidermis and epithelization 57. With staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS) , the following appears: A) papular rash on the face and quickly spreads to other parts of the body B) intense generalized erythema, starting from the face and quickly spreading to other areas of the skin C) erythema on the scalp and quickly spreads to other parts of the body D) erythema begins on the arms and quickly spreads to other areas of the body E) erythema on the face and after a week spreads to other parts of the body 58. The most common localization of Figner’s pseudofurunculosis: A) Skin of the buttocks, limbs B) Back of the neck C) Back skin D) All answers are correct E) Scalp 59. The most common localization of Figner’s pseudofurunculosis: A) In the genital area B) All answers are correct C) In the axillary area and upper buttocks D) Back of the neck and scalp E) On the sole and palms 60. Indicate the sequence of stages of necrotic phlegmon in newborns: A) Rejection, alterative, necrotic, reparation 10 B) Initial, rejection, alterative, reparation C) Alterative, necrotic, rejection, reparation D) Initial, alterative, rejection, reparation E) Necrotic, alternative, rejection, reparation 61. Streptoderma includes: A) Simple ecthyma B) Paronychia C) Vulgar ecthyma D) Erysipelas E) All answers are correct 62. Staphyloderma does not include: A) Figner's pseudofurunculosis B) Pemphigus C) Erysipelas D) Neonatal mastitis E) Ritter's exfoliative dermatitis 63. Diseases of the umbilical vessels are often observed in children: A) Premature newborns (weighing less than 2000 g) B) With early loss of the umbilical cord remnant C) With umbilical fistulas D) With an umbilical hernia E) With catheterization of the umbilical vessels 64. Purulent inflammation of the umbilical vessels can be complicated by: A) Umbilical hernia B) Navel fistulas C) Appendicitis, colitis, peritonitis D) Appendicitis, peritonitis E) Periphlebitis, periarteritis, peritonitis 65. Factors predisposing to the development of neonatal sepsis do not include: A) Chronic fetal hypoxia B) Asphyxia during childbirth C) Caesarean section D) Brain hemorrhage E) Severe damage to the central nervous system 66. The etiology of sepsis does not include: A) Streptococcus aureus B) Staphylococcus C) Klebsiella D) Escherichia coli E) Bordet-Gengou stick 67. Osteomyelitis in children most often affects: A) Joints B) Ribs 11 C) Sternum D) Skull bones E) Femur and humerus 68. It is not typical for neonatal sepsis of staphylococcal etiology: A) possible development of osteomyelitis B) signs of intoxication are pronounced C) purulent changes in the skin and subcutaneous fat layer are often observed D) purulent changes in the umbilical wound are often observed E) often observed after prolonged intubation 69. For neonatal sepsis, the etiological factor of which is Pseudomonas aeruginosa, a characteristic sign is: A) signs of intoxication are pronounced B) purulent changes in bone tissue are often observed C) is more often observed in newborns who have been intubated for a long time D) purulent changes in the umbilical wound are often observed E) purulent changes in the skin and subcutaneous fat layer are often observed 70. Stage II of “septic shock” is not characterized by: A) general anxiety of the newborn gives way to lethargy and adynamia B) symptoms of intoxication and hemodynamic disturbances continue to increase C) gradually decreasing symptoms of intoxication and hemodynamic disturbances D) acrocyanosis is observed E) seizures develop 71. The 1st stage of septic shock is accompanied by: A) Decreased blood pressure, bradycardia, tachypnea, hypercapnia B) Increased blood pressure, tachycardia, tachypnea, profuse bleeding C) Increased blood pressure, bradycardia, tachypnea, hypocoagulation D) Decreased blood pressure, tachycardia, arrhythmia, hypocoagulation E) Increased blood pressure, tachycardia, hypercoagulation 72. Clinical manifestations of sepsis can be: A) Toxic hepatitis B) Meningitis C) Osteomyelitis D) Necrotizing ulcerative enterocolitis E) All of the above 73. Infectious and inflammatory diseases of newborns do not include: A) Abscess B) Purulent omphalitis C) Toxic erythema D) Pyoderma E) Pemphigus 74. The cause of infection of a newborn cannot be: A) Bacterial infection of the mother B) Long dry period C) Artificial feeding D) Early breastfeeding E) Caesarean section 75. Transient conditions of newborns do not include: A) simple erythema B) toxic erythema C) physiological diaper rash 12 D) birth tumor E) hemangioma 76. The cause of jaundice associated with breast milk is: A) Immaturity of the newborn’s enzyme system B) Presence of glucuronyltransferase system inhibitors C) Glucuronyltransferase enzyme deficiency D) Hypogalactia E) Lactorrhea 77. Conjugative jaundice of newborns does not include: A) Gilbert-Meulengracht syndrome B) Crigler-Najjar syndrome C) Jaundice associated with breast milk D) Alagille syndrome E) Aries-Lucey-Driscoll syndrome 78. In newborns, the reason for the delay in the transformation of bilirubin entering the intestines with bile into stercobilin is: A) Insufficient secretion of pancreatic enzymes B) Weak intestinal motility C) Disruption of the formation of biocenosis D) Reduced activity of gastric enzymes E) Deformation of the gallbladder 79. In newborns, the cause of the development of hemolytic jaundice is not: A) Violation of the synthesis and structure of hemoglobin B) Incompatibility of maternal and fetal blood for erythrocyte antigens C) Breakdown of red blood cells with fetal hemoglobin D) Violation of the shape and structure of red blood cells E) Deficiency of erythrocyte enzymes 80. Laboratory triad for Minkowski-Choffard anemia: A) Increased osmotic resistance of red blood cells, erythropenia, poikilocytosis B) Poikilocytosis, reticulocytosis, anisocytosis C) Ovalocytosis, reticulocytosis, anisocytosis D) Spherocytosis, reticulocytosis, increased osmotic resistance of the red blood cells E) Spherocytosis, reticulocytosis, decreased osmotic resistance of the red blood cells 81. In newborns, erythrocyte enzymopathies develop due to enzyme deficiency: A) Phosphohexoisomerase, AST, G-6PD B) Glucuronyltransferase, lactate dehydrogenase, glutathione peroxidase C) Hexokinase, ALT, gammaglutamine transferase 13 D) G-6PD, glutathione reductase, lactate dehydrogenase E) G-6PD, pyruvate kinase, glutathione reductase 82. The clinical forms of hereditary deficiency of the G6PD enzyme do not include: A) Acute hemolysis (under the influence of medications) B) Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia C) Hypoplastic anemia D) Hereditary non-spherocytic chronic hemolytic anemia E) Favism 83. Specify the pathological hemoglobin detected in erythrocytes in thalassemia: A) HbH B) HbM C) HbA D) HbS E) HbF 84. Signs of thalassemia do not include: A) Hepatosplenomegaly B) Yellowish-gray skin color C) Osteoporosis D) Hyperchromic anemia E) Hypochromic anemia 85. Hemoglobinopathies do not include: A) Cooley's disease B) Hemoglobinosis with unstable hemoglobin C) Sickle cell hemolytic anemia D) Hemolytic spherocytic anemia E) Methemoglobinemia 86. The reasons for the development of parenchymal jaundice in newborns do not include: A) Parasitic infection B) Toxic-drug effects C) Bacterial infection D) Acute hemolysis E) Viral infection 87. Causes of bleeding in parenchymal jaundice of newborns: A) Hypocalcemia B) Damage to the vascular endothelium C) Thrombocytopathies 14 D) Afibrinogenemia E) Reduced synthesis of blood clotting factors 88. In congenital G-6PD deficiency, the following is noted: A) Increased osmotic resistance of red blood cells B) (+) Apt test C) Guthrie test (+) D) (-) Coombs reaction E) Decreased osmotic resistance of red blood cells 89. In congenital G-6PD deficiency, the following is noted: A) Shortening of blood clotting time, hepatosplenomegaly, direct bilirubin ↑ B) Increased activity of phosphohexoisomerase, (+) Coombs reaction, splenomegaly C) Anemia, loose stool, decreased activity of the enzyme gammaglutamine transferase D) Acute hemolysis, dark urine, decreased osmotic resistance of red blood cells E) Acute hemolysis, (-) Coombs reaction, indirect bilirubin ↑ 90. In McElfresh syndrome the following is observed: A) Jaundice with a greenish tint, anemia B) Jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, retardation in physical and psycho-motor development C) Hyperbilirubinemia with the development of kernicterus D) Hemolytic jaundice, dark urine E) Cholestatic jaundice, up to 3-5 months acholic stool 91. 85% of bilirubin is formed from: A) Leukocytes B) Methemoglobin C) Red blood cells D) Myoglobin E) Hemoglobin 92. In Alagille syndrome the following is not observed: A) Cholestasis, renal malformations, delayed psychomotor development B) Periodically weakly colored or acholic stools, xanthomas, malformations C) Cholestasis, congenital aplasia of the skin, diarrhea syndrome D) Hypercholesterolemia, hepatosplenomegaly, xanthomas E) Cholestasis, spinal defects, pulmonary stenosis 93. In the clinic of obstructive jaundice is not observed: A) Intensely colored urine B) Acholic stool C) Intensely colored stool 15 D) Hepatosplenomegaly E) Hemorrhagic syndrome 94. The edematous form of hemolytic disease of the newborn is characterized by: A) hyperalbuminemia B) hypoproteinemia C) erythrocytosis D) hyperproteinemia E) neutrophilia 95. Newborns with the icteric form of hemolytic disease are characterized by the appearance of jaundice: A) at the end of the first week of life B) at the end of the second week of life C) in the first 72 hours of life D) in the first 48 hours of life E) in the first 24 hours of life 96. Initial symptoms of bilirubin intoxication: A) tremor of the upper extremities, convulsions B) athetosis, deafness C) “setting sun” symptom, “brain scream” D) hyperesthesia, hands clenched into a fist E) lethargy of the child, weakening of innate reflexes of automaticity 97. Factors that do not increase the toxic effect of indirect bilirubin: A) hypoglycemia B) acidosis C) hypoxia D) normothermia E) infection 98. Symptom characteristic of “kernicterus”: A) retraction of the large fontanelle B) weak squeaky voice C) aphonia D) spastic opisthotonus E) tachycardia 99. In hemolytic disease of the newborn, the improvement observed in phase III of bilirubin encephalopathy is called the period: A) a period of progressive well-being B) recurring well-being C) late-onset well-being 16 D) true well-being E) false prosperity 100. In newborns with Rh incompatibility, donor blood used for replacement blood transfusion should be: A) One-group with a child Rh (+) B) Rh (+) Аβ (II) group C) Rh (+) Oαβ(I) group D) Rh (-) Bα(III) group E) Rh (-) Oαβ (I) group with minimal titers of anti-A and anti-B antibodies 101. In the anemic form of hemolytic disease of the newborn: A) from the first days of newborns, hyperesthesia and tension in the neck muscles are observed B) at the end of the first week of life, hyperemia of the skin is noted C) from the first days of newborns the “setting sun” symptom is observed D) erythrocytosis is observed in the peripheral blood E) pallor of the skin and mucous membranes is observed from the end of the first week of the newborn’s life 102. In newborns, transient conditions do not include: A) simple erythema B) toxic erythema C) birth tumor D) physiological peeling E) telangiectasia 103. In all women with Rh-negative blood, the first test for anti-Rh antibody titers is carried out: A) before childbirth B) when registering with an antenatal clinic C) after childbirth D) before pregnancy E) at 18-20 weeks of pregnancy 104. In all children born from Rh-negative mothers, if hemolytic disease of the newborn is suspected, the following is determined in the umbilical cord blood: A) Rh, platelets, serum bilirubin level B) Rh, hemoglobin, platelet count C) blood group, number of red blood cells and platelets D) blood group, Rh, serum bilirubin level E) Rh, hemoglobin, serum bilirubin level 17 105. In the edematous form of hemolytic disease of the newborn, late clamping of the umbilical cord can lead to the development of: A) pancytopenia B) thrombocytopenia C) hypervolemia D) hypovolemia E) anemia 106. Phototherapy in newborns is used for: A) obstructive jaundice B) manifestation of anemia in early neonatal age C) indirect bilirubin level 25-30µmol/l D) conservative treatment of jaundice with direct hyperbilirubinemia E) indirect bilirubin level 85-100µmol/l or does not reach the level required for exchange transfusion 107. In full-term infants, the indication for exchange blood transfusion is: A) indirect bilirubin level more than 340 -340 µmol/l, hourly increase more than 6 µmol/l B) hypoalbuminemia in the blood, daily increase in bilirubin less than 4 µmol/l C) hepatomegaly, the level of indirect bilirubin in the blood is more than 170 µmol/l D) hepatosplenomegaly, blood level of indirect bilirubin 200 µmol/l, hourly increase more than 3 µmol/l E) anemia, hourly increase in indirect bilirubin 2 µmol/l 108. Complications that may occur during exchange blood transfusion do not include: A) metabolic acidosis or alkolosis B) ulcerative necrotizing enterocolitis C) thrombosis D) hyperglycemia E) air embolia 109. Metabolic complications of exchange blood transfusion include: A) monocytosis, hypomagnesemia B) hypocalcemia, hyperglycemia C) hypoglycemia, acidosis D) leukocytosis E) HIV infection, hyperglycemia 110. Skin disease -pigment incontinence refers to the syndrome: A) “butterfly” B) Harlequin 18 C) Sturge-Weber D) Bloch-Sulzberger E) Alice-Danlos 111. Specify the scale that is used to assess the general condition of newborns at the 1st and 5th minute of life: A) Harris B) Ashworth C) SNAP D) Silverman E) Apgar 112. The causative agent of congenital transplacental pneumonia is: A) Staphylococcus aureus B) opportunistic bacteria C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa D) pneumococcus E) listeriosis 113. Risk factors for developing pneumonia in newborns include: A) Maternal anemia B) Gestosis of the first half of pregnancy C) Long-term use of antibiotics during pregnancy D) Long water-free period E) Endocrine pathology in the mother 114. To identify the etiological factor of pneumonia in newborns, it is necessary to carry out: A) blood gas composition B) complete stool examination C) complete urine examination D) complete blood count E) bacteriological examination of the contents of the tracheobronchial tree. 115. The main differential criteria for intrauterine pneumonia include: A) inflammatory changes during histological examination of the placenta B) on the 3rd day of life there is leukocyosis in the blood C) thrombocytopenia (less than 100x10 9 g/l) D) negative blood dynamics on the 2nd day of life E) the presence of focal and infiltrative shadows during Xray examination 116. Chlamydia infection in peripheral blood analysis is characterized by: A) Leukopenia 19 B) Anemia C) Eosinophilia D) Neutropenia E) Monocytosis 117. Which group does a child with a gestational age of 36 weeks at birth and weight 2400g belong to: A) premature IV degree B) full-term baby C) premature II degree D) stage III premature E) premature I degree 118. Pneumonia, the etiological factor of which is the influenza virus, is characterized by: A) conjunctivitis B) obstructive syndrome C) encephalitis D) neurotoxicosis E) otitis media 119. Respiratory syncytial pneumonia is characterized by: A) conjunctivitis B) neurotoxicosis C) obstructive syndrome D) otitis media E) encephalitis 120. Along with the main symptoms of pneumonia caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa, the following are characteristic: A) hyperreflexia B) epiglotite C) allergic skin rashes D) necrotic-hemorrhagic changes on the skin E) sinusitis 121. Specify the types of pneumonia in newborns according to the classification (K.A. Sotnikova) : A) one and bilateral bronchopneumonia, small and large focal B) pleuropneumonia, bronchopneumonia, small and large focal, interstitial C) lobar, allergic, interstitial, confluent, segmental, focal D) segmental, pleuropneumonia, bronchopneumonia, focal, interstitial E) small-focal, large-focal, confluent, interstitial, mono- and polysegmental 122. Specify the main symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency: 20 A) conjunctivitis B) Bitot spots C) dermatitis D) rhinitis E) atrophy of the papillae of the tongue 123. Specify the disease occurring with abundant sputum, obstructive syndrome and a long course with which differential diagnosis of pneumonia in newborns should be carried out,: A) enterocolitis B) perinatal encephalopathy C) hemolytic anemia D) mucoviscidosis E) meningitis 124. Indicate the type of pneumonia that develops with cytomegalovirus etiology: A) destructive B) lobar C) large focal D) microfocal E) interstitial 125. For pneumonia caused by gram-negative (-) bacteria, it is not recommended to use antibiotics: A) aminoglycosides B) carbopenems C) macrolides D) cephalosporins I-II generation E) semi-synthetic penicillin drugs 126. Specify radiological changes in the lungs specific for staphylococcal pneumonia: A) small focal bronchopneumonia B) calcifications in the lungs C) expansion of the roots of the lungs D) increased pulmonary pattern E) destructive foci 127. In newborns for pneumonia,caused byHaemophilus influenzae,along with the main clinical signs it is characteristic: A) palatinite B) cheilitis C) gingivitis D) vomiting 21 E) epiglotite 128. Specify a sign pathognomonic for cytomegalovirus pneumonia in newborns on an x-ray: A) destructive pneumonia B) small focal bronchopneumonia C) small abscesses D) the lungs are like a “honeycomb” E) “cotton” lungs 129. Staphylococcal pneumonia in newborns is characterized by: A) Obstructive syndrome B) Skin bullae C) Leukopenia and neutropenia in the blood D) Destructive changes in the lungs and purulent metastases to other organs E) Epiglotitis 130. For pneumonia of newborns caused by B-streptokokk infection, the following is not typical for the clinic: A) noisy breathing B) apnea attacks C) epiglotite D) pallor of the skin and mucous membranes E) tachycardia 131. In newborn children with adenoviral infection it is typical: A) paroxysmal cough, febrile temperature B) mechanical asphyxia and acrocyanosis are noted C) apnea attacks are observed, cyanosis is not observed D) conjunctivitis is often observed E) low-grade fever, no intoxication 132. In case of 2nd degree of respiratory failure, the ratio of pulse to respiration number is: A) 2.5-2:1 B) 1:1 C) 1.5-1.0 : 1 D) 3.5-2.5 : 1 E) 2-1.5 : 1 133. For mycoplasma and chlamydia pneumonia, newborns are prescribed an antibiotic: A) penicillin B) aminoglycosides C) macrolides 22 D) cephalosporins E) macropenems 134. Neonatal pneumonia is not characterized by: A) refusal to suck B) periodically increasing temperature C) muscular hypotonia D) muscle hypertonia E) adynamia, weakness 135. In case of respiratory failure of the 1st degree, the ratio of pulse to respiration number is: A) 2.5-2:1 B) 2-1.5 : 1 C) 1:1 D) 3.5-2.5 : 1 E) 1.5-1.0 : 1 136. The most common clinical form of pneumonia in premature infants is: A) Late neonatal B) Aspiration C) Intrapartum D) Postnatal E) Secondary 137. In young children, conditions predisposing to the development of pneumonia do not include: A) congenital heart defects B) aspiration syndrome C) severe perinatal pathology D) lung malformations E) chronic foci of infection of ENT organs 138. In case of intertriginous streptoderma after the extinction of inflammatory changes: A) Ends with depigmentation B) Hyperemia remains C) No trace remains D) Pityriasis-like peeling appears E) Scars appear 139. Inflammation of the soft tissues of the palate is called: A) cheilitis B) glossitis C) palatinite D) papitis E) gingivitis 23 140. Megaloblastic anemia does not include: A) iatrogenic (medicinal) B) vitamin B12 deficient C) folate deficiency (malnutrition or malabsorption) D) associated with impaired DNA and RNA synthesis E) physiological anemia of newborns 141. To megaloblastic anemia not applicable: A) iatrogenic (drug induced) B) vitamin B12 deficient C) folate deficiency (malnutrition or malabsorption) D) anemia associated with impaired DNA and RNA synthesis E) iron deficiency (due to lack of iron) 142. Hematopoietic blood in the bone marrow appears in the prenatal period of development on: A) 19-20 weeks B) 25-26 weeks C) 3-4 weeks D) 13-14 weeks E) 10-11 weeks 143. Erythrocytes in the fetus at 5-6 weeks of intrauterine development are formed in: A) lymph nodes B) red bone marrow C) yolk sac D) thymus gland E) liver 144. Acquired aplastic anemia does not include: A) dyserythropoietic anemia B) sideroblastic anemia C) anemia associated with partial damage to erythropoiesin D) folate deficiency anemia E) anemia associated with a deficiency of specific factors 145. The lifespan of erythrocytes in peripheral blood on the first day of life of a full-term baby is: A) 150 days B) 100 days C) 120 days D) 30-40 days E) 10-12 days 24 146. Specify the disease in which the Chvostek and Trousseau symptom is observed: A) heart defects B) latent spasmophilia C) dysbacteriosis D) pneumonia E) bronchial asthma 147. Indicate the disease in which “shoemaker’s breast” and “chicken breast” are observed: A) pneumonia B) dysbiosis C) bronchial asthma D) generic herb E) rickets 148. Specify the sequence of stages of stenosing laryngotracheitis: A) compensation, decompensation, asphyxia B) initial, compensation, subcompensation, decompensation C) stenosis, subcompensation, compensation, decompensation D) compensation, subcompensation, decompensation, asphyxia E) compensation, subcompensation, decompensation 149. In a newborn, the loss of what amount of circulating blood volume can lead to the development of post-hemorrhagic shock: A) 1-4% B) 3-9% C) 5-9% D) 2- 5% E) 10-15% 150. Specify the indicators characteristic of premature infants of the 2nd degree: A) body weight 1500g – 1001g, gestational age 31-29 weeks B) body weight 2200g – 2400g, gestational age 35-36 weeks C) body weight less than 1000 g or less, gestational age up to 29 weeks D) body weight 2500g – 2001g, gestational age 37-35 weeks E) body weight 2000g-1501g, gestational age 32-34 weeks 151. Specify indicators characteristic of III degree premature babies: A) body weight 2000g – 1501g, gestational age 34-32 weeks B) body weight 1500g - 1001g, gestational age 31-29 weeks C) body weight less than 1000 g, gestational age up to 29 weeks D) body weight 1700g – 1900g, gestational age 32-33 weeks E) body weight 2500g – 2001g, gestational age 35-37 weeks 152. Specify indicators characteristic of premature infants of the 1st degree: A) body weight 3001g – 3200g, gestational age 38-39 weeks B) body weight 1500g – 1001g, gestational age 31-29 weeks 25 C) body weight 2900g – 3000g, gestational age 38-39 weeks D) body weight 2000g – 1501g, gestational age 34-32 weeks E) body weight 2500g – 2001g, gestational age 37-35 weeks 153. Specify a disease related to infectious diseases of the skin and subcutaneous tissue: A) toxic erythema B) adiponecrosis C) scleredema D) hydradenitis E) sclerema 154. The characteristic syndrome for iron deficiency anemia is not: A) muscular B) cardiovascular C) asthenoneurotic D) epithelial E) aminoaciduric 155. Specify a vitamin, deficiency of which may cause megaloblastic anemia: A) B6 B) B2 C) E D) B1 E) B12 156. Specify a predisposing factor to the development of pneumonia in newborns: A) asphyxia with aspiration syndrome B) all of the above C) intracranial and especially spinal damage D) long dry period E) pneumopathy 157. Specify a disease related to non-infectious lesions of the skin and subcutaneous tissue in newborns: A) Figner's pseudofurunculosis B) streptoderma C) hydradenitis D) sclerema E) Ritter's exfoliative dermatitis 158. Specify the laboratory indicator characteristic of congenital hypoplastic Blackfan-Diamond anemia: A) leukocytosis B) thrombocytosis C) increased HbA levels D) erythrocytosis 26 E) increased HbF levels 159. Specify a sign characteristic of congenital hypoplastic Blackfan-Diamond anemia: A) polydactyly, syndactyly B) anomaly of ribs and vertebrae C) absence or hypoplasia of the thumbs D) isolated lesion of the erythrocyte lineage of the bone marrow E) absence of the radius 160. Which of the following does not apply to conjugation jaundice of newborns: A) transient jaundice of newborns B) Gilbert–Meulengracht syndrome C) Byler's syndrome D) Kligler-Najjar syndrome E) “breast milk jaundice" 161. Does not apply to conjugated jaundice of newborns: A) transient jaundice of newborns B) Kligler-Nayjar syndrome C) Alagille syndrome D) Gilbert–Meulengracht syndrome E) “breast milk jaundice” 162. In what cases does hemolytic disease of newborns develop with conflict according to the ABO system: A) the mother has B (III) blood type, the child has 0 (I) B) the mother has A (II) blood type, the child has 0 (I) C) the father has Rh negative blood D) if the child has AB (IV) blood type E) the mother has 0(I) blood group, the child has A(II) or B(III) blood group 163. A characteristic sign of the edematous form of hemolytic disease of newborn based on Rh conflict during ultrasound examination of the fetus is: A) polydactyly B) syndactyly C) microcephaly D) hypoplasia of the biliary tract E) Buddha pose 164. The indication for exchange blood transfusion in full-term newborns is the level of indirect bilirubin in the blood: A) 280 µmol/l B) 172 µmol/l C) 210 µmol/l D) more than 340 µmol/l E) 120 µmol/l 165.When conducting phototherapy in newborns with hemolytic disease, all changes can be observed, except: 27 A) transient thrombocytopenia B) fluid loss is greater than normal C) darkening of the skin D) looseness and changes in stool color E) development of hemolytic anemia 166. Conjugated jaundice of newborns does not include: A) Kligler-Najjar syndrome B) “breast milk jaundice” C) Gilbert-Meulengracht syndrome D) McElfresh syndrome E) transient jaundice of newborns 167. Pulmonary complications that develop with pneumonia in children include: A) cardiovascular failure B) adult respiratory distress syndrome C) infectious-toxic shock D) intravascular coagulation syndrome (DIC) E) pneumothorax 168. Nosocomial pneumonia is understood as: A) developing after 48 hours of hospital stay or within 48 hours after discharge from hospital B) developing after 48 hours of hospital stay or within 24 hours after hospital discharge C) developing after 24 hours of hospital stay or within 72 hours after discharge from hospital D) developing after 72 hours of hospital stay or within 48 hours after discharge from hospital E) developing after 48 hours of hospital stay or within 72 hours after discharge from hospital 169. A prolonged course of pneumonia is considered to be the absence of recovery within the period from the onset of the disease: A) more than 2 months B) from 1 to 2 months C) from 8 to 10 weeks D) from 4 to 6 weeks E) from 6 to 8 weeks 170. Specify a sign that is not characteristic of mycoplasma pneumonia: A) painful cough with little sputum production B) The interstitial tissue of the lungs is most often affected C) tendency to have a long course of the disease D) long low-grade fever E) respiratory failure 28 171. Specify the duration of acute pneumonia: A) up to 4 months B) up to 6 months C) up to 9 weeks D) up to 3 months E) up to 6 weeks 172. Does not apply to the anatomical features of the respiratory system in infants: A) the tracheal mucosa is rich in blood vessels B) narrow and short nasal passages C) elastic tissue is poorly developed D) "inspiratory" structure of the chest E) “expiratory” structure of the chest 173. In infants, the main signs of respiratory failure do not include: A) tension of the wings of the nose B) shortness of breath C) retraction of the xiphoid process of the sternum D) participation of auxiliary muscles in the act of breathing E) tension of the large fontanelle 174. It is not typical for pneumococcal pneumonia: A) pain syndrome (abdominal) B) high sensitivity to penicillin C) leukocytosis in the blood D) acute onset E) obstructive syndrome 175. Which pathogen plays a leading role in the etiology of hospital-acquired pneumonia? A) chlamydia B) mycoplasma C) streptococci D) pneumococci E) E.coli 176. Which pathogen plays a leading role in the etiology of community-acquired pneumonia? A) klebsiella B) Proteus vulgaris C) Escherichia coli D) staphylococci E) pneumococci 177. For pneumonia of what etiology are specific immunocorrective drugs indicated: A) viral B) mycoplasma C) chlamydia 29 D) staphylococcus E) unknown 178. In what etiology of pneumonia is destruction most often observed in the lungs: A) mycoplasma B) streptococcus C) fungal D) klebsiella E) staphylococcus 179. Specify the first line antibiotic that is prescribed for chlamydia pneumonia: A) I generation of cephalosporins B) semisynthetic penicillin series C) aminoglycosides D) III generation of cephalosporins E) macrolides 180. Pulmonary complications that develop in children with pneumonia include: A) adult-type respiratory distress syndrome B) disseminated intravascular coagulation syndrome(DIC syndrome) C) synpneumonic pleurisy D) cardiovascular insufficiency E) infectious-toxic shock 181. Specify the classification of acute pneumonia: A) lobar, interstitial, focal, segmental B) interstitial, allergic, pneumothorax, , segmental C) lobar, pleuropneumonia, interstitial, segmental D) focal, segmental, lobar, interstitial E) large-focal, fine-focal, interstitial, allergic 182. What disease by hematogenous route leads to the development of pneumonia? A) tuberculosis B) peptic ulcer C) colitis D) sepsis E) bronchitis 183. Main clinical signs of acute pneumonia: A) pleurisy, hyperthermia, myalgia B) obstructive syndrome, hypothermia, vomiting C) pneumothorax, presence of bulla, conjunctivitis D) myocarditis, myalgia, auscultatory hard breathing E) hyperthermia, shortness of breath, local crepitation on auscultation 30 184. Pulmonary complications, developing for acute pneumonia in children, includes: A) cardiovascular failure B) adult-type respiratory distress syndrome C) infectious-toxic shock D) disseminated intravascular coagulation syndrome E) metapneumatic pleurisy 185. Pulmonary complications, developing for acute pneumonia in children includes: A) cardiovascular failure B) adult-type respiratory distress syndrome C) disseminated intravascular coagulation syndrome D) pneumothorax E) infectious-toxic shock 186. Specify the sequence of stages of respiratory failure: A) subcompensated, compensated, decompensated B) compensated, subcompensated, asphyxia C) subcompensated, decompensated, asphyxia D) compensated, asphyxia, decompensated E) compensated, subcompensated, decompensated 187. Specify a sign characteristic of spasmophilia: A) increase in temperature B) conjunctivitis C) cough D) convulsions E) alopecia 188. Specify the antibiotic used for children with pneumonia of fungal etiology: A) penicillin B) tetracycline C) cephalosporin D) amphotericin B E) aminoglycosides 189. Specify the indications for phototherapy: A) condition after intestinal surgery B) congenital heart defects C) condition after heart surgery D) congenital pneumonia E) hemolytic disease of the newborn 190. Unconditioned reflexes of newborns include: A) palmo-oral B) proboscis 31 C) searching D) sucking E) all of the above 191. In healthy newborns, initial transient loss of body weight is observed gradually during: A) 10-14 days and is 7-8% B) 8-10 days and is 10-12% C) 5-6 days and is 13-14% D) 3-5 days and is 9-10% E) 3-5 days and is 5-6% 192. The intranatal period includes: A) after birth, the first 7 days of a newborn’s life B) from 22 weeks of intrauterine development until birth C) from 22 weeks of intrauterine development and the first 7 days of a newborn’s life D) from the beginning to the end of labor (birth period) E) from the onset of labor and the first 7 days of a newborn’s life 193. The neonatal period includes: A) the period from the beginning to the end of labor (parturition period) B) the period from the beginning of labor and the first 7 days of a newborn’s life C) from 7 to 28 days of a newborn’s life D) the first 28 days of a newborn baby’s life E) from 1 to 7 days of a newborn’s life 194. In infants, endogenous causes of hypovitaminosis do not include: A) diseases of the gastrointestinal tract B) reducing the rate of formation of coenzymes in the body C) malabsorption D) congenital metabolic disorder E) feeding the child low-quality food 195. What vitamin deficiency causes Beri-Beri disease: A) B12 B) A C) D D) E E) B1 196. What vitamin deficiency causes Bitot spots to appear on the conjunctiva of the eye: A) B1 B) B6 C) E D) D E) A 197. Specify anemia that develops as a result of folic acid deficiency: A) hemolytic B) microcytic C) posthemorrhagic D) megaloblastic E) hypochromic 198. Specify anemia that develops as a result of vitamin B12 deficiency: 32 A) microcytic B) posthemorrhagic C) hypochromic D) megaloblastic E) hemolytic 199. Primary metabolism of vitamin D occurs: A) in the lymph nodes B) in the lungs C) in the stomach D) in the kidneys E) in the liver 200. Indicate a non-characteristic sign for rickets during its peak period: A) craniotabes is noted B) late teething C) febrile temperature D) lag in physical and psychomotor development E) muscle hypotonia 201. Indicate the characteristic changes in the skeletal system observed during rickets during the peak period: A) there are no changes B) destructive changes C) ankylosis of joints D) the pineal gland takes on a saucer-shaped shape E) periarticular thickening 202. Specify a sign characteristic of the initial period of rickets: A) deformation of the lower extremities B) vomiting C) high temperature D) retarded physical development E) functional changes in the nervous system 203. Indicate a sign that is not characteristic of rickets during the peak period: A) chest deformation B) delayed physical and psychomotor development C) increased serum calcium levels D) hypophosphatemia is observed in the blood E) “rachitic rosary” is formed 204. When treating rickets, along with the administration of vitamin D, it is not recommended: A) purpose of baths B) massage C) physical therapy D) carrying out the ultraviolet irradiation procedure E) nutrition correction 205. According to the classification of rickets, it does not belong to periods of the disease: A) in full swing B) convalescence C) residual effects D) recurrent E) initial 33 206. Specify a drug, long-term use of which may cause the development of rickets in children: A) vitamins B) carnitine C) calcium supplements D) phenobarbital E) citrate mixture 207. When the shoulder is compressed with an elastic tourniquet for 3 minutes, a convulsive contraction of the fingers occurs in the form of an “obstetrician’s hand.” This phenomenon is called: A) Erb B) Khvosteck C) Maslov D) Lust E) Trousseau 208. Specify a sign that is not characteristic of spasmophilia: A) eclampsia B) hyperthermia C) laryngospasm D) convulsions E) carpopedal spasm 209. Specify a drug that is not used as an emergency aid for severe forms of spasmophilia (eclampsia) A) intramuscular seduxen B) intravenous sodium hydroxybutyrate C) intravenous calcium gluconate D) intramuscular magnesium sulfate E) intramuscular tocopherol acetate 210. Specify a sign not characteristic of spasmophilia: A) Lust phenomenon B) laryngospasm C) carpopedal spasm D) increased neuromuscular reflexes E) increased calcium levels in the blood serum 211. Indicate the age of children at which spasmophilia is most often observed: A) 4-5 years B) 7-8 years C) 1-5 months D) 2-3 years E) 6-18 months 212. Specify a sign characteristic of spasmophilia: A) hypercalcemia B) iron deficiency in the blood C) febrile seizures D) epileptic syndrome E) hypocalcemia 213. Specify a sign that is not characteristic of spasmophilia: 34 A) carpopedal spasm B) laryngospasm C) Chvostek phenomenon D) Maslov phenomenon E) intoxication 214. Specify an anticonvulsant drug used in children with spasmophilia with convulsive syndrome: A) diclofenac B) penicillin C) seduxen D) vitamin E E) diphenhydramine 215. Specify a characteristic sign for spasmophilia: A) alopecia B) temperature rise C) convulsions D) cough E) conjunctivitis 216. With a slight prick of the skin of a child with spasmophilia, breathing stops at the height of inspiration. This is called the phenomenon: A) Erb B) Lust C) Chvostek D) Trousseau E) Maslov 217. Specify the cause of seizures in spasmophilia: A) leukocytosis B) reducing the activity of alkaline phosphatase C) hypercalcemia D) hypophosphatemia E) hypocalcemia 218. Specify the disease in which laryngospasm, carpopedal spasm, eclampsia is observed: A) exudative-catarrhal diathesis B) anemia C) rickets D) hypervitaminosis D E) spasmophilia 219. Specify the study performed to diagnose hypervitaminosis D: A) conduct x-ray examination of the bones of the hands every two weeks B) conduct a weekly clinical blood test C) perform a weekly urine analysis D) conduct a ECG every week E) perform a Sulkovich test in urine every two weeks 220. Indicate for what purpose the Sulkovich test is used: 35 A) for the diagnosis of vitamin D deficiency rickets B) for the diagnosis of hypervitaminosis D C) to determine the recovery period for a diagnosis of rickets D) for the diagnosis of vitamin D-resistant rickets E) for the diagnosis of vitamin D dependent rickets 221. According to the clinical course, hypervitaminosis D is: A) long-term and recurrent B) acute and recurrent C) recurrent and chronic D) acute and subacute E) acute and chronic 222. In case of hypervitaminosis D, the following is not typical in a biochemical blood test: A) hypokalemia B) hypercholesterolemia C) hypomagnesemia D) hypercalcemia E) hypocalcemia 223. In case of hypervitaminosis D, urine analysis is not characterized by: A) moderate cylindruria B) aminoaciduria C) hyperphosphaturia D) glucosuria E) hypercalciuria 224. Specify a factor that is not the cause of hypervitaminosis D: A) taking vitamin D with calcium in high doses B) increased sensitivity of the child to vitamin D C) simultaneous administration of vitamin D and ultraviolet irradiation D) eating foods containing vitamin D E) long-term intake of vitamin D in high doses 225. In hypervitaminosis D, for gastrointestinal syndrome is not typical: A) loss of appetite B) nausea C) constipation D) papular rashes E) vomiting 226. In hypervitaminosis D for changes observed in the nervous system are not typical: A) hyperesthesia B) convulsions 36 C) sleep disorder D) lethargy E) shortness of breath 227. In hypervitaminosis D, the renal syndrome is not characterized by: A) phosphaturia B) polyuria C) hypercalciuria D) dysuria E) diarrhea 228. In case of hypervitaminosis D, cardiovascular syndrome is not characterized by: A) muffled heart sounds B) systolic state C) tachycardia D) cyanosis E) leukocyturia 229. A uniform retardation in body weight and height from age norms is called: A) eutrophy B) kwashiorkor C) paratrophy D) malnutrition E) hypostatura 230. In children with stage I malnutrition, there is a slight decrease in subcutaneous fat: A) on hands B) on the stomach C) on the face D) throughout the body E) on the hips 231. It is not typical for malnutrition of the first degree: A) the child’s psychomotor development is age appropriate B) no changes in internal organs C) muscle tone is normal D) slight thinning of the subcutaneous fat layer E) body weight deficiency 20% -30% 232. Specify a sign that is not typical for malnutrition II degree: A) decreased appetite, decreased food tolerance 37 B) Chulitskaya’s body condition index is 1-10 C) body weight deficiency by 20%-30% D) decreased muscle tone E) 10%-20% body weight deficit 233. With grade III malnutrition, thinning of the subcutaneous fat layer is noted: A) only on the torso and limbs B) on the stomach and face C) on the face, torso and limbs D) only on the face and limbs E) only in the abdominal area 234. Specify body weight deficiency in case of III degree malnutrition: A) 5-10% B) 11-20% C) 21-25% D) 26-29% E) more than 30% 235. Indicate the duration of the period of detection of food tolerance in case of malnutrition of the first degree: A) 7-10 days B) 6-7 days C) 10-14 days D) 3-7 days E) 1-2 days 236. Specify body weight deficiency in case of II degree malnutrition: A) 11-20% B) 3-5% C) more than 30% D) 20-30% E) 5-10% 237. Indicate the duration of the period of detection of food tolerance in case of II degree malnutrition: A) 1-2 months B) 15-20 days C) 12-18 hours D) 1-2 days E) 3-7 days 238. Indicate the initial stage in diet therapy in the treatment of malnutrition: 38 A) calculation of protein and carbohydrates based on existing body weight B) enhanced nutrition C) determining food tolerance D) water-tea break E) nutrition according to age 239. Specify the duration of the period of detection of food tolerance in case of III degree malnutrition: A) 1-2 months B) 3-7 days C) 1-3 days D) 12-18 hours E) 10-14 days 240. Specify a characteristic sign for hytostature: A) with age-appropriate growth, there is a lack of body weight B) delayed psychomotor development with normal physical development C) lag in physical development with age-appropriate psychomotor development D) body weight is above normal (more than 10%) E) uniform lag in body weight and height 241. Specify a sign that is not related to the clinical signs of Kwashiorkor disease: A) hair loss B) hyperglycemia C) retarded physical development D) dermatitis E) anemia 242. Indicate the frequency of feeding a child with II degree malnutrition during the period of determining food tolerance: A) 10 B) 3 C) 4 D) 2 E) 8 243. In the treatment of malnutrition in young children the following is not used: A) bifidumbacterin B) apilak C) vitamins D) omeprazole E) pancreatin 39 244. Specify the solution used for oral rehydration: A) 40% glucose B) albumin C) ringer D) rehydron E) hemodesis 245. Indicate the loss of body weight during moderate dehydration: A) 15% B) 10% C) more than 21% D) 5% E) 20% 246. Indicate the loss of body weight due to mild dehydration: A) 15% B) 20% C) more than 21% D) 10% E) 5%. 247. Specify the loss of body weight due to severe dehydration: A) more than 21% B) 20% C) 5% D) 10% E) 15%. 248. Specify a factor that is not the cause of simple dyspepsia: A) unfavorable premorbid background B) qualitative imbalance of food ingredients C) incorrect prescription of complementary foods D) breastfeeding E) eating low-quality baby food 249. Specify a sign that is not typical for the clinic of simple dyspepsia: A) intestinal dysfunction B) flatulence C) sleep disturbance D) vomiting E) shortness of breath 40 250. Specify a non-characteristic sign in stool analysis for simple dyspepsia: A) soaps of simple fatty acids B) the presence of a large amount of neutral fats C) the presence of free fatty acids D) a small amount of mucus E) the presence of 40-50 leukocytes in the field of view 251. Specify an anatomical and physiological sign of the gastrointestinal tract that is not typical for the newborn period: A) low intestinal barrier function B) low acidity of gastric juice C) the intestinal mucosa is rich in blood vessels D) low enzymatic activity of the stomach E) the mucous layer of the stomach is relatively thin 252. Specify the forms of functional disorders of the gastrointestinal tract based on the international classification: A) functional vomiting, dyspepsia, gastroenteritis B) gastritis, gastroenteritis, gastroduodenitis C) diseases of infectious origin, dyspepsia, gastritis D) dyspepsia, aerophagia, gastritis E) dyspepsia, aerophagia, functional vomiting 253. Specify the causes of dehydration in children: A) respiratory allergies, ear pain, rhinitis B) Quincke's edema, urticaria, low-grade fever C) headaches, rickets, hay fever D) obesity, hay fever, allergic rhinitis E) frequent diarrhea, hyperthermia, continuous vomiting 254. Specify the characteristic signs of eutrophy: A) uniform lag in body weight and height B) lag in body weight with normal growth C) only body weight is above normal (more than 10%) D) lag in physical development with age-appropriate psychomotor development E) length, height and weight correspond to the norm or ± 10% above or below the norm 255. Specify anemia that is not related to megaloblastic: A) iatrogenic anemia B) folate deficiency anemia C) iron deficiency anemia D) anemia associated with congenital and acquired disorders of DNA synthesis 41 E) B12 deficiency anemia 256. Specify microcytic anemia: A) folate deficiency anemia B) anemia associated with congenital and acquired disorders of DNA synthesis C) iatrogenic anemia D) iron deficiency anemia E) B12 deficiency anemia 257. Clinical manifestations of iron deficiency anemia do not include: A) vascular syndrome B) secondary immunodeficiency syndrome C) convulsive syndrome D) asthenoneurotic syndrome E) epithelial syndrome 258. Indicate the respiratory rate of a healthy newborn baby: A) 80-100 B) 60-80 C) 30-40 D) 20-30 E) 40-60 259. Specify a common cause of false croup: A) chlamydial infection B) meningococcal infection C) mycoplasma infection D) pneumococcal infection E) acute viral infection 260. Spasmophilia is more common in children aged: A) 13-17 years old B) 4-5 years C) 1-2 months D) 6-18 months E) 6-8 years 261. Specify a symptom (phenomenon) that is not found in latent spasmophilia: A) Erb B) Lust C) Trousseau D) Chvostek E) Lukina-Libman. 262. Specify the forms of spasmophilia according to the classification: A) recurrent and hidden B) acute and subacute C) acute and chronic 42 D) recurrent and chronic E) explicit and hidden 263. What type of shortness of breath is observed in croup: A) mixed B) hemodynamic C) expiratory D) diffuse E) inspiratory 43