Pharmacology Past Paper PDF

Which of the following drug is currently considered as the preferred drug to prevent erosive gastritis in patient at risk of developing this side effect when NSAIDs have to be given to the patient? a. Omeprazole b. Ranitidine c. Sucralfate d. Telenzepine All the know NSAIDs are weak acids....

Which of the following drug is currently considered as the preferred drug to prevent erosive gastritis in patient at risk of developing this side effect when NSAIDs have to be given to the patient? a. Omeprazole b. Ranitidine c. Sucralfate d. Telenzepine All the know NSAIDs are weak acids. Which of the following drugs is the only exception? a. Piroxicam b. Sulindac c. Nabumetone d. Tolmetin Warfarin exerts its effect primarily by inhibiting the gamma-carboxylation of the glutamate residues of which of the following clotting factors? a. IXa,Xa, XIa, XIIIa b. IIa, VIIa, IXa, Xa c. II, VII, IX, X d. IX, X, XI, XIII Which of the following findings may be consistent with an overdose of or accidental exposure to an organophosphate? a. constipation b. mydriasis c. emesis d. peripheral vasodilation 5. What is the mechanism of skeletal muscle paralysis produces by Succinylcholine? a. Competitively inhibits binding of acetylcholine to the NM receptors b. Increased inward chloride conductance leading to hyperpolarization of the neuromuscular endplate membrane c. Sustained depolarization of the motor end plate making it unesponsive to other impulses upon repolarization cannot easily depolarized d. Repeated short depolarizations of the motor end plate leading to prolonged state of sodium channel inactivation 6. Which of the following is a tyrosine kinase enzyme inhibitor that is used to treat chronic myelogenous leukemia? a. Anastrazole b. Doxorubicin c. Imatinib d. Vincristine 7. Used in treating complex partial seizure: a. phenytoin b. carbamazepine c. both d. none 8. Which of the following is/are adverse effect of clozapine? a. Agranulocytosis b. Myocarditis c. Erectile dysfunction d. Hyperlipidemia e. All of the above 9. The following examples of insulin are used to control post-prandial hyperglycemia EXCEPT: a. Insulin Lispro b. Insulin Glargine c. Insulin Glulisine d. Insulin Aspart e. Regular insulin 10. Parkinson\'s disease is due to? a. Excessive cholinergic activity b. Damage to the basal ganglia c. Deficiency of dopamine level in the brain d. All of these 11. A number of NSAIDS cannot be given to pxs with gouty arthritis as these may precipitate an acute attack of gout or induce uric acid stone formation. Which of the following NSAIDS should not be given to pxs with gout? a. Tolmetin b. Ibuprofen c. Indomethacin d. Diclofenac e. Mefenamic acid 12. Hemorrhagic cystitis from cyclophosphamide is managed by? a. MESNA b. Leucovorin c. Dexrazocine d. Acrolein e. Ifosfamide 13. Adverse effects of opioid analgesics do not include: a. Diarrhea b. Emesis c. Increased intracranial pressure d. Respiratory depression e. Urinary retention 14. Anakinra, a drug used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis works by which means? a. T-cell co-stimulation modulation b. Interleukin-1 receptor antagonist c. Anti- CD20 B-cell deplete d. Antibody against TNF- alpha e. None of the above 15. All of the following agents are correctly paired with an appropriate clinical use of the drug except: a. Desmopressin: treatment of diabetes insipidus b. hCG: treatment of infertility c. Octreotide: Treatment of bleeding esophageal varices d. Oxytocin: induction of labor e. Goserelin: growth hormone deficiency 16. Patients with unrecognized renal insufficiency who take normal doses of metformin are at increased risk of which of the following? a. Hypoglycemia b. Interstitial nephritis c. Lactic acidosis d. Liver failure e. Torsades de pointes 17. All atypical antipsychotics are associated with weight gain, except? a. Molindole b. Aripiprazole c. Amisulpride d. Clozapine 18. These benzodiazepines have no active metabolites, EXCEPT: a. Clonazepam b. Oxazepam c. Alprazolam d. Diazepam 19. Drug of choice for Petit mal seizure. a. Phenobarbital b. Valproic acid c. Ethosuximide d. Carbamazepine 20. Which of the following antineoplastic drugs is correctly matched with its adverse effect? a. Cisplatin- Cardiotoxicity b. Bleomycin- Nephrotoxicity c. Ifosfamide- Hemorrhagic cystitis d. Mitomycin- Pulmonary fibrosis 21. Type of hypertension accompanied by target end-organ damage: a. Hypertensive crisis b. Hypertensive emergency c. Hypertensive urgency d. Essential hypertension 22. Used in prevention of seizures during pre-eclampsia. a. MgSO4 b. minoxidil c. hydralazine d. Labetalol e. Nifedipine 23. If 10 mg naproxen produces the same analgesic response as 100 mg Ibuprofen, it signifies that: a. Naproxen is more efficacious than Ibuprofen b. Naproxen is more potent than Ibuprofen c. Naproxen is a full agonist and Ibuprofen is a partial agonist d. Naproxen is a better drug to take for pain relief than Ibuprofen 24. Which of the following can reverse the action of Heroin? a. Succimer b. Atropine c. Flumazenil d. Naloxone 25. Sulfonylureas is the primary mode of therapy in the treatment of: a. diabetic pregnant women b. non-insulin dependent DM pxs c. insulin-dependent DM pxs d. Pxs with diabetic ketoacidosis 26. Secreted by pancreatic alpha cells and stimulates processes like glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, ketogenesis, and lipolysis. a. Glucagon b. Somatomedin c. Insulin d. Vasopressin 27. Which of the following drugs for gout decreases uric acid production? a. Colchicine b. Probenecid c. Febuxostat d. Aspirin 28. Which of the following is a major tranquilizer? a. Diazepam b. Halothane c. Lithium d. Chlorpromazine 29. Which of the following CNS disorders is INCORRECTLY paired with its affected neurotransmitters? a. Parkinson\'s disease: High Acetylcholine. Low dopamine b. Alzheimer\'s disease: Low acetylcholine c. Schizophrenia: Low dopamine d. Major depression: Low NE; Low serotonin 30. Which of the following is NOT an anticancer drug? a. Bevacizumab b. Tacrolimus c. Carmustine d. Methotrexate 31. Which of the following statements regarding Thioamides is INCORRECT? a. Agranulocytosis is a serious but rare toxicity associated with thioamides b. Methimazole is teratogenic and has been associated with aplasia cutis congenita. c. PTU has an added mechanism in which peripheral deiodination of T4 to T3 is inhibited. d. PTU is generally preferred to methimazole because it can be administered once a day. 32. The following are associated with pulmonary fibrosis, except: a. Amrinone b. Bleomycin c. Nitrofurantoin d. Busulfan 33. At what usual adult dose of aspirin is its anti-inflammatory effect observed? a. 0.3-2.4g/day b. \ 34. What is the principal mechanism which can explain anti-pyretic effect of Aspirin? a. Peripheral reduction in the levels of prostaglandins b. Peripheral vasodilation c. Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis at subcortical sites d. Inhibtion of CNS response to interleukin-1 e. Activation of the thermoregulatory sweat glands 35. What is the primary advantage of drugs like Celecoxib and etoricoxib? a. Less incidence of gastric irritation or ulceration b. Less incidence of nephrotoxicity c. Less incidence of hematologic toxicities d. Minimal risk of causing worsening hypertension e. Less likelihood of inhibiting platelet aggregation 36. Which of the following agents is currently used as the first-line DMARDs in the management of Rheumatoid Arthritis? a. Hydroxychloroquine b. Auranofin c. Penicillamine d. Azathioprine e. Methotrexate 37. Which of the following agents is associated with formation of antibodies that can cause development of allergic reaction with subsequent exposure to the drug? a. Urokinase b. Streptokinase c. Alteplase d. Tissue plasminogen Activator e. Tenecteplase 38. Which of the following mechanisms correctly describes the mechanism of action of aspirin as an inhibitor of platelet aggregation? a. Irreversible inhibition of platelet and endothelial cell cyclooxygenase b. Irreversible inhibition of endothelial cell cyclooxygenase c. Irreversible inhibition of platelet cyclooxygenase d. Reversible inhibition of platelet and endothelial cell cyclooxygenase 39. Poisoning resulting from ingestion of high dose quarternary antimuscarinic agents can be best managed with which of the following agents? a. Physostigmine b. Neostigmine c. Pilocarpine d. Atropine e. Scopolamine 40. Ipratropium, Oxytropium, and Tiotropium and antimuscarinic agents that are most useful as a. Mydriatics b. Cycloplegic agents c. Relaxants of bronchial smooth muscles d. Inhibitors of involuntary muscle contractions 41. Ambemonium, neostigmine, and pyridostigmine are most commonly used for which condition? a. Atropine overdose b. Myasthenia gravis c. Bronchial asthma d. COPD e. ADHD 42. Anaphylactoid reaction may be seen as a side effect with which of the following neuromuscular blockers? a. Pancuronium b. Vecuronium c. Gallamine d. Tubocurarine e. Rocuronium 43. The rate of dissolution of a weakly acidic drug may be increased by: a. Increasing the pH of the medium b. Increasing the particle size of the solid drug c. Increasing the viscosity of the medium d. both 1st and second choices 44. Which of the following antihypertensive is contraindicated in pregnancy? a. Nifedipine b. Losartan c. Labetalol d. Hydralazine 45. A type of angina that is precipitated by reversible spasm of coronary vessels and often occurs at rest. a. Classic angina b. Unstable angina c. Variant angina d. Crescendo angina 46. Thiazide diuretics: a. Decrease excretion of Na and K b. Decrease excretion of uric acid c. Increase excretion of Ca d. None of the above 47. A class of anti-arrhythmic drug that markedly blocks sodium channel but with minimal effect on the action potential duration; a. Class IA b. class IB c. Class 1C d. Class II e. Class III 48. Which of the following diuretics is used for catamenial seizure? a. Dichlorphenamide b. Acetazolamide c. Mannitol d. Spironolactone 49. A selective MAO a inhibitor a. Moclobemide b. Selegiline c. Isocarboxazid d. Phenylzine e. Tranylcypromine 50. Drug for dyslipidemia which has a side effect of steatorrhea or fatty stool. a. Ezetimibe b. Rosuvastatin c. Atorvastatin d. Colestipol e. Cholesterenol