TYBSC Sem V Paper III-Form and Function-III (MCQ) PDF

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ToughestMossAgate6742

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Smt. Chandibai Himathmal Mansukhani College, Ulhasnagar-3

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biology cytology molecular biology biology exam

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This document is a multiple choice question (MCQ) past paper from a university-level biology course. The paper covers various aspects of cytology and molecular biology.

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TYBSC Sem V Paper III-Form and Function-III (MCQ) UNIT- I-Cytology and Mol Biology 1.Which of the following is initiator codon a AGU b AUG c AGG d ACC 2.The triplet code was first suggested by a Watson b Crick c Gamov d Mendel 3.The c...

TYBSC Sem V Paper III-Form and Function-III (MCQ) UNIT- I-Cytology and Mol Biology 1.Which of the following is initiator codon a AGU b AUG c AGG d ACC 2.The triplet code was first suggested by a Watson b Crick c Gamov d Mendel 3.The chain initiator in prokaryotic translation is a Formyl methionine b Methionine c Formyl Gunaine d Gunaine 4.UAA is which terminator a Ochre b Amber c Opal d Copal 5.Salivary glands giant chromosomes are found a Hibiscus b Dog c Earthwarm d Drosophila 6.The store house of all genetic information is a Mitochondria b Chloroplast c Nucleus d Chromoplast 7.The outer memberane of the nucleus is continuous with a Endoplasmic reticulum b Vesicles c Plastids d Lysosomes 8.A thickened ring surrounding nuclear pore is called as a Annulus b Diaphragm c Lens d Disc 9.Ribosomes are manufactured in a Nucleolus b Chromosomes c Nucleoplasm d Cytoplasm 10.The vacuoles of plant cell are bounded by a Chloroplast b Tonoplast c Chromoplast d Leucoplast 11. In unicellular organisms like Paramecium the function of osmoregulation is done by a Plasma membrane b Vacuole c Lysosomes d Cellwall 12.The ribosome binding site is prokaryotic mRNA is called a SE Sequence b SD Sequence c SM Sequence d SG Sequence 13.The genetic code has how many codons a 60 b 62 c 64 d 66 1.Which of the following codons codes for Methionine a.AGU b.AGG c.ACC d.AUG 2.The experimental evidence of triplet code was provided by a.Watson b.Crick c.Gamov d.Mendel 3.The chain initiator in Eukaryotic translation is a.Methionine b.Guanine c.Valine d.Serine 4.UGA is which teminator a.Ochre b.Opal c.Amber d.Copal 5.Salivary gland chromosome of Drosophila has how many arms a.4 b.6 c.8 d.10 6. Chromatin material is present in a.Nucleus b.Cellwall c.Vacuole d.Vesicles 8. The nucleolus is the active site for production a.Vitamins b.Lipids c.RNA d.DNA 9. Polytene chromosomes were discovered by a.Punett b.Balbiani c.Maggio d.Wobble 11. Sequestration of toxic substances is brought about by a.Vacuoles b.Ribosome c.Chromosomes d.Plastids 12. SD sequence stands for a.Standard deviation b.Standard difference c.Shine Delgarno d.Shine Deficient 13. The genetic code dictionary has how many stop codons a.2 b.3 c.4 d.5 Structure and Function of the Nucleus 1. The nucleus is surrounded by a double membrane known as the __________. A. Plasma membrane B. Nuclear envelope C. Cell wall D. Ribosome membrane 2. The region within the nucleus where ribosomal RNA is synthesized is called the __________. A. Nucleoid B. Chromatin C. Nucleolus D. Lysosome 3. The fluid inside the nucleus is referred to as __________. A. Cytosol B. Nucleoplasm 4. C. Cytoplasm D. Matrix 5. __________ are thread-like structures found in the nucleus that carry genetic information. A. Mitochondria B. Ribosomes C. Chromosomes 6. D. Chloroplasts 7. During cell division, the nuclear envelope disassembles in the phase of __________. A. Telophase B. Anaphase C. Prophase D. Metaphase Structure and Function of the Vacuole 6. The large central vacuole in plant cells is primarily involved in __________. A. Photosynthesis B. Storage and maintaining turgor pressure 7. C. Protein synthesis D. Respiration 8. The membrane that surrounds the plant vacuole is known as the __________. A. Tonoplast B. Cell wall C. Plasmodesmata D. Nuclear membrane 9. Vacuoles in plant cells store __________, which helps regulate water balance. A. Starch B. Ions (Correct) C. Proteins D. Glycogen 10. A primary function of the vacuole in maintaining plant rigidity is through __________. A. Cell wall production B. Cytoplasmic streaming C. Turgor pressure (Correct) D. Active transport Structure and Function of Giant Chromosomes 11. Giant chromosomes are most commonly found in the __________ cells of certain insects. A. Muscle B. Salivary gland C. Neurons D. Stem cells 12. Giant chromosomes are often referred to as __________ chromosomes. A. Lampbrush B. Polytene C. Circular D. Linear 13. In giant chromosomes, the visible bands correspond to regions of __________. A. Centromeres B. Active genes C. Non-coding regions D. Telomeres 14. The polytene chromosomes were first discovered in __________. A. Drosophila B. Arabidopsis C. Yeast D. C. elegans 15. The characteristic banding pattern of giant chromosomes is due to their __________ structure. A. Compact B. Repetitive (Correct) C. Spiral D. Interphase The Genetic Code: Characteristics of the Genetic Code 16. The genetic code is said to be __________, meaning that more than one codon can specify the same amino acid. A. Ambiguous B. Redundant (Correct) C. Non-overlapping D. Universal 17. The start codon for translation is __________. A. UAA B. UAG C. AUG D. UGA 18. The genetic code is considered __________, as it is used by almost all living organisms. A. Non-overlapping B. Universal C. Conservative D. Polar 19. Each codon consists of __________ nucleotides. A. Two B. Four C. Three D. Five 20. A stop codon signals __________ in translation. A. The start of transcription B. The end of translation C. The beginning of replication D. The continuation of protein synthesis Translation in Prokaryotes 21. Translation in prokaryotes begins when the ribosome binds to the __________ sequence. A. TATA B. Shine-Dalgarno C. Promoter D. Kozak 22. In prokaryotes, the __________ subunit of the ribosome first associates with the mRNA during translation initiation. A. 30S B. 40S C. 50S D. 60S 23. The first amino acid in prokaryotic protein synthesis is usually __________. A. Serine B. Methionine C. Formylmethionine D. Leucine 24. In prokaryotes, translation and __________ occur simultaneously. A. Replication B. Transcription C. Cell division D. Splicing 25. During elongation in prokaryotes, aminoacyl-tRNA binds to the __________ site of the ribosome. A. A B. P C. E D. S Translation in Eukaryotes 26. Translation initiation in eukaryotes requires the recognition of the __________ cap structure at the 5' end of the mRNA. A. Methylated B. Phosphorylated C. Adenylated D. Glycosylated 27. In eukaryotes, the ribosome scans the mRNA from the 5' end until it finds the __________ codon. A. Stop B. AUG C. Shine-Dalgarno D. Intron 28. The ribosome in eukaryotes consists of two subunits, __________ and __________. A. 30S, 50S B. 40S, 60S C. 20S, 40S D. 60S, 80S 29. The energy for peptide bond formation during translation is provided by __________. A. ATP B. GTP C. ADP D. NADH 30. In eukaryotic cells, translation occurs in the __________. A. Nucleus B. Mitochondria C. Cytoplasm D. Golgi apparatus UNIT-II-Plant Physiology 1. Which of the following best defines water potential (Ψ)? a) The energy required to transport water from roots to leaves b) A measure of the potential energy of water relative to pure water c) The osmotic pressure required to maintain turgor pressure in cells d) The gravitational energy of water at the top of a plant 2. What is the water potential (Ψ) of pure water under standard conditions? a) +1 MPa b) -1 MPa c) 0 MPa d) 1 kPa 3. Which component of water potential is primarily affected by the presence of solutes in a solution? a) Pressure potential (Ψp) b) Osmotic potential (Ψs) c) Gravitational potential (Ψg) d) Kinetic potential 4. What happens to the water potential (Ψ) of a cell when it experiences exosmosis? a) It increases b) It becomes more negative c) It remains constant d) It becomes positive 5. Which of the following is true about pressure potential (Ψp)? o a) It is always negative in plants o b) It only applies to water in soil o c) It can be positive due to turgor pressure in plant cells o d) It is not a component of water potential 6. Gravitational potential (Ψg) becomes significant when: o a) The plant is short and close to the ground o b) The plant is growing in an arid environment o c) Water is present in a vertical column, such as in tall trees o d) The solute concentration is high in the plant cells 7. Water moves from regions of: o a) Lower water potential to higher water potential o b) Higher water potential to lower water potential o c) Higher osmotic potential to lower osmotic potential o d) Negative pressure potential to positive pressure potential 8. What type of osmosis occurs when water moves into a cell, leading to cell swelling? o a) Exosmosis o b) Endosmosis o c) Plasmolysis o d) Hyperosmosis 9. Which of the following statements is correct about osmotic pressure? o a) It is the force that drives water out of a cell o b) It prevents further movement of water during osmosis o c) It is higher in hypotonic solutions than in hypertonic solutions o d) It measures the gravitational pull on water molecules 10. Plasmolysis occurs in plant cells when: o a) The cell is placed in a hypotonic solution o b) The cell is placed in an isotonic solution o c) The cell is placed in a hypertonic solution o d) The pressure potential is very high 11. In which scenario would osmotic potential (Ψs) be the most negative? o a) Pure water o b) A dilute solution of sugar o c) A highly concentrated salt solution o d) Distilled water at room temperature 12. Osmosis is a passive process because: o a) It requires energy in the form of ATP o b) It only occurs in plants o c) Water moves based on its kinetic energy, not external energy o d) It occurs against the concentration gradient 13. The pressure required to stop the flow of water during osmosis is called: o a) Hydrostatic pressure o b) Osmotic equilibrium o c) Osmotic pressure o d) Water potential 14. What happens to the turgor pressure in a plant cell placed in a hypertonic solution? o a) It increases o b) It remains the same o c) It decreases, leading to plasmolysis o d) It becomes positive SET III 1. Which of the following is a terminator codon a UAA b UUU c AUU d GUU 3. Formyl methionine acts as an initiator in prokaryotic a Transversion b Translation c Transduction d Translocation 4. UAG is which terminator a Ochre b Amber c Opal d Copal 5. Where are giant chromosomes found in chironomous larve a Head b Tail c Guts d Salivary glands 6. The hereditary material in a cell is present in a Vacuole b Nucleus c Mitochondria d Lysosomes 7. The exchange of material between nucleus and cytoplasm is regulated by a Nucleopores b Nucleoplasm c Nucleous d Chromosomes 8. The outer diameter of annulus is about a 600A b 800A c 1000A d 1200A 9. E.G. Balblani discovered a Jumping genes b Lethal chromosomes c Laggards d Polytene chromosomes 10.Tonoplast is semi permeable membrane enclosing the a Mitochondria b Vesicles c Vacuole d Ribosomes 11.One of the important functions of vacuole is a Respiration b Mechanical support c Translation d Reproduction 12.The leader sequence in prokaryotic gene expression is a SD b SE c SM d SG Q1.In plant cells, by-product of metabolic pathways are store in__ a.Mitochondria b.Chloroplast c.Vacuole d.Nucleus Q2.Tonoplast is a__ a.Toxic compound b.Membrane c.Glycoprotein d.Sphingolipid Q3.water enters vacuole by_ a.Osmosis b. Reverse osmosis c.Active diffusion d.Passive diffusion Q4.Tonoplast is a differentially permeable membrane surrounding the a.Vacuole b.Cytoplasm c.Nucleus d.Chloroplast Q5.Plant cell accumulate a variety of toxin compounds in a.Mitochondria b.Nucleus c.Vacuole d.Chloroplast Q6. The membrane around the vacuole is known as a.Tonoplast b.Cytoplast c.Elaioplast d.Amyloplast Q7.All the metabolic activities of cell is controlled by a.Lysosomes b.Mitochondria c. Nucleus d.Endoplasmic reticulum Q9.The protein Network that lines the inner side of nuclear membrane is called a.Nucleolus b. Nuclear Matrix c. Nuclear lamina d.Nuclear proteins Q10. Nucleus consists of a homogenous matrix of a fluid substance called a.Cytoplasm b. Protoplasm c. Cell sap d. Nuclear sap 11.Major Function of Nucleolus is a.DNA synthesis b. Protein synthesis c.rRNA source d.mRNA 12.Nuclear pore were first observed by a. Callan b. Fontana c. Robert brown d.Vincent Q13. Enzymes present in the nucleolus is a.Phosphatase b.Ligase c.Aldolase d. Amylase Q14 Chromosomes found in the salivary gland of Chironomous larva Is a. Polytene b. Lampbrush c.Supernumerary d.B-chromosomes Q16 Puffs or balbiani rings in the salivary gland chromosome are the sites of (a) Protein synthesis (b) RNA synthesis (c) DNA replication (d) DNA duplication Q17.Genetic code is not a.universal b.degenerate c.overlappining d.Triplet Q18.Opal is coded by a.UUG b.UGA c.UAA d.UAG Q20. Which one of these is not an mRNA codon a.AUG b.GUC c.CAU d.TAG Q21.Ingenious technique for artificially synthesizing mRNA with repeated sequence of Known nucleotides was devised by a.Nirenberg b.Watson c.Korenberg d.Khorana Q23.The anticodon sequence is located in a.mRNA b.tRNA c.DNA d.rRNA Q24.The Shine-Dalgarno (SD) sequence in prokaryote is the part of a.tRNA b.rRNA c.mRNA d. DNA Q25.Clover leaf shape structure is of a. mRNA b. t.RNA c. r.RNA d.Ribosome Q.26.During the initiation of translation in prokaryote which of the following is first to dissociate from the 30S ribosomal subunit? a.IF1 b.IF2 c.IF3 d.GTP Q27The eukaryotic initiation codon recognizes a. f-Met-tRNA-f-Met b. Met-tRNAi-Met c. f-Met-tRNAi-Met d. f-Met-tRNA-Met Q28.The chemical reaction that links amino acid together to make a chain takes place in a.Ribosome b. mRNA c. DNA d. tRNA Q29. The step where amino acids are brought to the ribosome by tRNAs and linked together to form a chain is called a.Initiation b.Elongation c.Termination d. Processing Q30. During intiation the factor which helps stabilize 30S ribosomal sub unit is a.IF-1 b.IF-2 c.IF-3 d.RF-1 Q31.Translation occurs in a. Cytoplasm b. Nucleus c. Nucleolus d. Nuclear Sap Q32.During translation activation amino acid is carried by enzyme a.aminoacyl tRNA synthatase b.ATP synthatase c. aminoacyl rRNA synthatase d. aminoacyl mRNA synthatase Q33 What is the final factor in eukaryotes that releases the peptide and ribosome? a.eRRF b.EF2 c.RF3 d.RF4 Q34.Translation in eukaryotes is intiated by binding the ribosome to a.5’Cap b.poly Atail c.SD sequence d.Hogness box Q35. The no. of initiation factor invoved in eukaryote translation are a.three b.Nine c.Five d. eight Q36.The chain initiating amino acid in eukaryote is a. N-formyl methionine b.N-Methyl methinine c. formyl methionine d. methionine Q37. Name the term which is given for the movement of water through a semipermeable membrane? a) Diffusion b) Osmosis c) Tonicity d) Transpiration Q38. Which of the following is NOT the component of water potential? a) Osmotic potential b) Pressure potential c) Gravitational potential d) Assimilation potential Q39. The movement of materials from the leaves to other tissues of the plant is called a.Tropic movement b.Guttation c.Transpiration d.Translocation Q40.Rate of transpiration increases with an increase in a.Carbon dioxide concentration b.root shoot ratio c. atmospheric humidity d. temperature Q41.Transpiration helps in a.acent of sap b. mass flow of mineral along with water c. active absorbtion of water d. temperation regulation in plants Q42.Mass flow hypothesis was first put forward by, a.Craft b.Munch c.De vries d.Curtis Q43.The process by which water is absorbed by solid such as colloids causing them to increase in volume is called a.Diffusion b.Osmosis c.Plasmolysis d.Imbibation Q44.Loss of water from aerial parts in the form of water vapour is called as. a. Guttation b. Evaporation c. Transpiration d. Condensation Q45. In higher plants,water is lost from aerial parts mainly through a.Stomata b. epidermis c. cuticule d. lenticular Q46. The water potential of pure water is a.-1 bar b.-2 bar c.-3 bar d.zero Q47. Which of the following is an example of electroneutral pump a.H+-ATPase b.H+-PPase c.H+/K+-ATPase d.Ca2+-ATPase Q48.Which of the following is most important in the transport of ionisable solutes across the membrane? a.concentration of solutes b.electrochemical potential gradient c. chemical potential gradient d.electric potential gradient Q49.Transport of ions Through channels is always a.Passive b.Active c.Both a and b d. None of the above Q50.Translocation of organic solute in higher plants takes place mainly through a. Phloem sieve tubes b.Xylem vessels c. Xylem parenchyma d. Pith Q51.Mass flow hypothesis was put forward by munch in year a.1930 b.1928 c.1935 d.1938 Q52.Transfer of sugars from mesophyll cells to sieve tube elements in leaf is called as a.Phloem loading b.Phloem unloading d.Acent of sap e.both a and b Q54. Sucrose –H+ symport or cotransport mechanism explains the transfer of sugars in phloem loading from a. Apoplast to symplast b. symplast to apoplast c. apoplast d. symplast Q55.Which of the following element are not called as macronutrients a.C,H,and O b.N,P,and K c.Ca,S and Mg d.Fe,Zn and Mo Q56.An important constituent of protein, nucleic acid, prophyrin and alkaloid is a.Mg b.N c.S d.Ca Q57.Deficiency of which mineral causes dark green coloration of the leaves? a) Phosphorus b) Potassium c) Nitrogen d) Calcium Q58.mineral required for activation of respiratory enzyme is a.Manganese b.Zinc c.Boron d.Nickel Q 59Which one from the following element can counteract the toxic effect of other elements by maintain ionic balance. a.Cu b.zn c.Ni d.Ca Q 60 Die –back disease of citrus is caused due to deficiency of a.Boron b. Zinc c.Copper d.Manganese Q 61.Whip tail disease in cauliflower is caused due to deficiency of a.Boron b. Zinc c.Copper d.Molybdenum Q62..Calcium is is an important constituent of a.Primary cell wall b.Secondary cell wall c. middle lamella d.plasmadesmata Q 63.Bronzing of the leaves is typically caused by deficiency of a.Mo b.Fe c. Cl d. Ni Q64.Which of the following amino acid does not contain sulphur a.Histidine b.Methionine c.cyseteine d.Cystine Q65. Method where Plants are used to remove or detoxify the harmful pollutants from the air, water and soil. Is called a.Phytoremediation. b. Microremediation c.Mycoremediation d. Bioremediation Q66.Bioremediation process which involves aerobic biodegradation of pollutants by circulating air through sub-surface of soil is called a.Biostimulation b.Bioventing c.Bioaugmentation d.Biosparging Q 67.Bioremediation process which is involves the injection of air under pressure below the water table to increase groundwater oxygen concentrations and enhance the rate of biological degradation of contaminants by naturally occurring bacteria a.Biostimulation b.Bioventing c.Bioaugmentation d.Biosparging Q68.pseudomonas and clostrium can detoxify a.nitrocellulose b.Detergent c.2,4,6-Trinitrotoluene d.Organo-nitro compound Q69 The method which involves the removal of contaminants from the soil through plant roots and translocate to their aerial shoot is called a.Phytoextraction b. Rhizofiltration c. Phytovolatization d.Phytodegradation Q70.Aprocesses in which both terrestrial and aquatic plants are utilise to absorb, concentrate and precipitate contaminant from polluted aqueous sources in their roots. a.Phytoextraction b. Rhizofiltration c. Phytovolatization d.Phytodegradation Q 71.Bioremediation frequently involves the addition of microorganisms exogenous to the contaminated sites is called a..Biostimulation b.Bioventing c.Bioaugmentation d.Biosparging Q 72. Addition of materials to enhance the growth and activity of indigenous microorganisms in a contaminated site. is called a.Biostimulation b.Bioventing c.Bioaugmentation d.Biosparging Q73. Technique in which plants reduce the mobility and migration of pollutants in contaminated soil. a.Phytoextraction b Phytostabalization c. Phytovolatization d.Phytodegradation Q74. The process in which involve the use of plants to take up contaminants from the soil, transformingthem into volatile form and transpiring into the atmosphere. a.Phytoextraction b Phytostabalization c. Phytovolatization d.Phytodegradation Q75. The intermediate developmental phase in an ecological succession is known as (a) ecesis (b) climax (c) nudation (d) sere Q76.Initiation of succession on a bare rock surface a. Lithosere b.Psammosere c.Xerosere d.Hydrosere Q 77.Which is the first process in ecological succession? a)Nudation b) Migration c)Ecesis d) Invasion Q78.Monoclimax theory was developed by a. Clements b.Odum c.Tansley d.Cowel Q79.The pioneers in Xerach succession is the a.Mosses b.Crustose lichen c.Foliose lichen d. shrubs Q80 The stable community of an ecosystem is termed as a.climax community bPrimary community c.secondary community d.seral community Q81. In which stage of hydrosere plants like hydrilla,Vallisneria flourish a.Rooted floating stage b.Rooted submerged stage c. Reed swamp stage d.sedge-meadow stage Q82 when succession occurs in regions where water is in plenty, as ponds, lakes, streams, swamps, bogs it is called a. Lithosere b.Psammosere c.Xerosere d.Hydrosere Q83. succession occurring in saline water or saline soil. a..Psammosere b Xerosere c.Hydrosere d. Halosere Q84. succession initiating on sand is called a. Lithosere b.Psammosere c.Xerosere d.Hydrosere Q 85.A climax is a stage in succession of forests just preceding the climate climax Community a.Pre-climax b.Post-climax c.sub-climax d.Disclimax Q86. Polyclimax theory was developed by a. Clements b.Odum c.Tansley d.Cowel Q 87.The growth of some xerophytic mosses species Such as Polytrichum, Tortula and Grimmia.are found in which stage of lithosphere a.Moss stage b.Herb stage c.Shrub stage d. forest stage Q88.Which of the following does not act as a fusogen in protoplast fusion? a)2,4D b)Polyethyleneglycol c)Calcium d) PVA Q89. The production of secondary metabolites requires the use of ________. (a) Meristem (b) Protoplast (c) Axillary buds (d) Cell suspension Q90 Synthetic seeds are produced by the encapsulation of somatic embryos with___________. (a) Sodium acetate (b) Sodium nitrate (c) Sodium chloride (d) Sodium alginate Q91.Which of the following chemicals are most widely used for protoplast fusion? (a) Mannitol (b) Polyethylene glycol (c) Sorbitol (d) Mannol Q92. Rapid production of large number of identical clones in vitro within a short duration is called a.Gene expression b.Micrpropogation c.Hybridization d.Transgenesis Q.93 Production of embryo like structure from callus is called a) Anther culture b) Callus culture c) Somatic embryogenesis d) Organogenesis Q94Murashige and skoog formulated the media for tissue culture is called a.B5medium b.M.S.Medium c.S.H.Medium d.L.S Medium Q95. B5medium was formulated by a.Gamborg b.Chu c.Nitsch d. Murashige and skoog Q96The production of secondary metabolites Shikonin is carried out by (a) Meristem (b) Protoplast (c) Axillary buds (d) Cell suspension Q97.What is the best temperature for shikonin Production a.20-25oc b.20-27 oc c.30-35 oc d.30-37 oc Q98Which growth hormone promotes and induces Shikonin production a.IAA b.2,4-D c.nepthalacetic acid d.IBA Q99.The most reliable technique for sympodial orchids are a. Meristem culture b. Anther culture c.Shoot tip culture d.protoplast culture Q100. Pomato, a novel interspecific and intergenic hybrid was produced using a. Meristem culture b. Anther culture c.Shoot tip culture d. somatic hybridization Q101.Fusion of protoplast by electric field was pointed out by a.Keller and Melches b.Zimmerman c. Vienken d.Nagata

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