Obstetrics Exam 1 PDF
Document Details
Tags
Summary
This document is an obstetrics exam, including questions on family planning, contraception, and pregnancy complications. It covers topics such as the guiding principles of family planning, various contraceptive methods, and conditions during labor and delivery.
Full Transcript
1 OBSTETRICS Exam 1 DIRECTION: READ THE QUESTIONS VERY CAREFULLY. CHOOSE THE LETTER OF THE BEST ANSWER AND WRITE YOUR ANSWER ON THE ANSWER SHEET PROVIDED. AVOID ERASURES 1. Which of the following gui...
1 OBSTETRICS Exam 1 DIRECTION: READ THE QUESTIONS VERY CAREFULLY. CHOOSE THE LETTER OF THE BEST ANSWER AND WRITE YOUR ANSWER ON THE ANSWER SHEET PROVIDED. AVOID ERASURES 1. Which of the following guiding principles of family planning has this description, “the couple should be informed fully on the different family planning methods and they will have to decide and choose the methods based on their decision?” a. Responsible parenthood c. Respect for life b. Birth spacing d. Informed choice 2. A woman of reproductive age with 2 children comes to the lying-in clinic with her husband because they are asking for advice as to the best method of contraception considering that she has diabetes mellitus and hypertension. What is the best contraceptive method that you can advise for them now? a. Vaginal ring c. Progestin only Pill (POP) b. Combined oral contraceptive pill d. Transdermal patch 3. How is the long acting contraceptive Norplant implant placed on the woman? a. Inserted intradermally in the deltoid area. b. Inserted sub-dermally in the inner aspect of the upper arm. c. Inserted subcutaneously in the inner aspect of the thigh. d. Inserted intramuscularly in the inner aspect of the upper arm. 4. Which of the following reversible contraceptives do not contain a hormone? a. Combined oral contraceptive c. Vaginal ring b. Transdermal patch d. Female & Male condom 5. Which of the following is not true about the diaphragm as a means of physical barrier of contraception? a. It prevents pregnancy by acting as a barrier to the passage of semen with sperm into the cervix. b. It provides effective contraception for six hours after contraception. c. It has to be inserted in the vagina when the penis is erected. d. It is most effective if a spermicide is used with it. 6. These are conditions that occur during the pre-labor phase which are acted upon by uterotropins except: a. false labor pains c. ripening of cervix b. lightening d. Braxton Hicks contraction 7. A mother comes to you for check-up today. Based on LMP, EDC is expected in January. According to Bartholomew’s rule, you would expect her uterus to be: a. large for date c. at the navel b. above the navel d. below the navel 8. The smallest transverse diameter to which the fetus must pass is found in the: a. Inlet c. mid pelvis b. Outlet d. pelvic cavity 9. Deep muscles not sutured by midwife are: 1. Sphincter ani 2. Urethral muscles 3. levator ani 4. coccygeus a. 1,2 & 3 b. 1 only c. 1 &2 d. 3&4 10. Deep lacerations of the vulva may cause this complication which can lead to shock: a. Uterine rupture c. hematoma b. AF embolism d. all 11. Which among these situations is not considered an aim of OB? a. A mother of 23 years old, mature, professional and healthy b. Babies are screened right after birth to determine metabolic disorders c. Mothers are advised to have only 2 kids d. Immunizations, PNC are mandated to assure mother’s health 12. If the head is station +2, with 2 cm caput, the station is: a. +1 b. –1 c. +2 d. –2 2 13. What is the Para of a woman with OB score of 6 –1 –2 –4? a. 6 b. 7 c. 9 d. 4 14. Which lines the inner membrane of the uterus of a postpartum mother? a. Perimetrium b. endometrium c. deciduas d. epithelium 15. Examples of uterotonins: 1. Progesterone 2. Oxytocin, prostaglandin 3. Relaxin, prostaglandin 4. Estrogen, prostaglandin a. 1 only b. 1,2&3 c. 2 only d. all of these 16. When a mother reaches 35 years and over, several perinatal complications occur. These would include: a. preterm delivery c. congenital anomalies b. fetal growth retardation d. all of these 17. When the lower extremities in breech presentation is extended at the hips and flexed at the knees, it is: a. Compound presentation c. complete breech b. Frank breech d. incomplete breech 18. A 37 year old woman was admitted for convulsions, albuminuria and edema: a. PE+severe b. chronic Hypertensive disease c. chronic Hypertensive pre-eclampsia d. eclampsia 19. What does synclitism/asyncliticism indicate? a. confirms that mother is in labor b. assess fetal adaptation to the pelvis c. determines progress of labor d. ascertains fetal well being 20. If the mother is less than 18 years old, which is the most likely condition that may complicate her pregnancy? a. gestational diabetes b. risk of chronic HPN c. prolonged nulliparous labor d. increased risk of toxemia 21. Multiparas have increased risks of the following conditions: a. placenta previa b. postpartum hemorrhage c. perinatal & maternal mortality d. double ovum twinning 22. These would include support and comfort measures rendered to a woman in labor: 1. Breathing exercises, relaxation exercises 2. Provision of privacy & rest, positioning 3. Backrub, medications, application of heat or cold to lower back 4. Constant monitoring of fetal well being, progress of labor and watching for complications a. 1 only b. 1,2 & 3 c. 4 only d. all of these 23. Mrs. Olivar, 31 years old, G2P1, returns to you for PNC visit at 28 weeks AOG. Which laboratory test would you ask her to do? a. Pap smear c. VDRL, HIV test b. Diabetes screen d. Varicella antibody screen 3 24. You are called to attend to Myrna, G3P2, 38 weeks AOG at home. Upon assessment, you diagnose her to be having placenta previa with bouts of bleeding. Your management would consist of: 1. Place woman in T-position, monitor vital signs 2. Start IV – 1 liter of D5W, fast drip with 18 gauge intracatheter 3. Call for help or prepare for transfer to the hospital 4. Prepare delivery of the baby by ascertaining your asepsis and preparing equipment needed. a. 1 only b. 1,2 &3 c. all of these d. 4 only 25. Women with the following conditions exhibit a higher incidence of polyhydramnios, except: a. fetal twinning c. gestational diabetes b. ABO/Rh diseases d. CPD, Pelvic abnormality 26. Which among these signs would not indicate post maturity syndrome: a. long fingernails b. wrinkled peeling skin c. abundant vernix caseosa d. less of subcutaneous fat 27. Regimen for heart disease in pregnancy would include all these except: 1. prevention/correction of anemia 2. increase in physical activity and strenuous work 3. prompt recognition and treatment of infections 4. low sodium diet, lateral position, adequate rest a. 1,2 & 3 b. 2 & 3 c. 3 only d. 4 only 28. These / This are/is true of anemia in pregnancy: a. There is a need to manage woman with hgb. level of less than 10 gms / dl b. Iron is more readily absorbable from foodstuff than from oral iron medication c. Those women with hgb. level at 10-12 gms/dl should be started on folic acid and vitamin supplements d. All of these 29. The daily recommended dose for iron in pregnancy would be: a. 15 mg b. 30 mg c. 40 mg d. 50 mg 30. This screening test for diabetes makes use of ___gm of glucose, without fasting, 1 hour later of which blood is drawn: a. 25 gm b. 50 gm c. 60 gm d. 100 gm 31. These conditions in the mother can cause IUGR in the fetus except: a. chronic HPN b. multiple gestation c. placental malformation d. diabetes 32. These are increased either markedly or slightly during pregnancy & purperium except: 1. Body’s O2 consumption is increased 2. Blood volume and red cell mass both increase 3. Hemoglobin concentration falls slightly 4. Cardiac output is decreased especially during contractions a. 1,2 &3 b. 1 & 2 c. 2 & 3 d. 4 only 33. The main cause of postpartum hemorrhage are these: a. uterine atony c. trauma and lacerations b. bleeding disorders d. all of these 34. When suturing the periclitoris area, what preventive action is done by the health giver that sutures the laceration? a. Suture are as soon as possible as it may cause profuse bleeding. b. A catheter should be inserted to guide the needle away from it. c. The RM can leave the laceration to heal by itself. 4 d. all of these 35. Fertility rate is the number of live births per ___ female population aged 15 to 44 years: a. 100 b. 1,000 c. 10,000 d. 100,000 36. Which factor cannot be assessed by the RM during lE? a. cervical consistency, dilatation and effacement b. determine the size of the pelvis thru the diagonal conjugate c. determine the position of the baby d. determine possible congenital anomalies of fetal head 37. Which does not refer to the transverse diameter of the outlet? a. Biischial diameter c. Bispinous b. Bituberous diameter d. Intertuberous diameter 38. In which condition is Oxytocin stimulation indicated? a. G3P2 – prolonged labor b. Mother wit gestational diabetes c. G7P6 – fetal distress d. Mother whose babies have an LS ratio of 2:1 39. Elvie, A G3P3 just delivered mother experienced early postpartum bleeding. This means that the lost 500cc or more of blood: a. within 12 hours c. after 24 hours b. during the 1st 24 hours d. after 2 hours vigilance postpartum 40. What is the attitude of the fetal head is brow presentation? a. completely flexed c. completely extended b. partially extended d. partially flexed 41. In cephalic presentation, when the anterior fontanel is lower than the posterior fontanel, it is: a. sincipital presentation c. brow presentation b. face presentation d. vertex presentation 42. During puberty, there are about how many egg cells? a. 2 million c. 400 to 600 thousand b. 6.8 million d. 500,000 43. Syntocinon 1 amp. was injected to a mother one hour post delivery to control bleeding. Potential side effects of this drug include which of the following? a. sudden hypertension c. sudden dizziness b. sudden hypotension d. uterine rupture 44. Mrs. Santos at 32 weeks AOG begins to experience labor pains. Which of the following drugs would be ordered to her? a. MgSO4, Ca gluconate c. Terbutaline, Ritodrine b. Methergin, Syntocinon d. Amoxicillin, Nubain 45. The fetus engages into the transverse diameter of the inlet and extends into the ____ diameter of the outlet: a. oblique c. interspinous b. intertuberous d. diagonal conjugate 46. If a woman has a 36 day menstrual cycle, when will she ovulate? a. 20th day b. 21st day c. 22nd day d. 23rd day 47. Barrio San Felipe has a maternal death of 5. If the total births was 200,000, what would be the MDR be? a. 2 b. 2.5 c. 20 d. 200 48. These are hormonal IUDs except: a. CuT380A, Progestasent c. Progestasent, Sevonorgestrel IUD b. Levonorgestrel IUD, Lippes Loop d. CuT380A, Lippes Loop 5 49. A 15 year old primi with a BP of 170/110 goes into eclampsia. Your foremost concern is: a. inject Mg SO4 c. insert D5LR-1 liter b. prevent injury d. bring her to the doctor 50. A midwife was giving health teachings on pregnancy. On exercise, which would benefit most from limitation of activities? a. singleton pregnancy c. breech presentation b. diabetic mother d. growth retarded pregnancies 51. Fe comes to you for her 1st prenatal check-up. All these laboratory procedures would be done to her except: a. CBC c. urinalysis b. Ultrasound d. diabetic screen 52. Which occurs first in the development of events? a. blastocyst formation c. trophoblast formation b. fertilization d. ovulation 53. The ovulation age is 8 weeks, menstrual age would be place at ____weeks: a. 10 weeks b. 6 weeks c. 12 weeks d. 4 weeks 54. These are drugs contraindicated in pregnancy except: a. dexamethazone, surfactant c. Methergin, chloramphenicol b. Streptomycin, Vit. A d. tetracycline, dexamethasone 55. When the cephalic prominence is opposite the occiput, the presentation is: a. Cephalic b. face c. shoulder d. breech 56. The mini pill contains: a. Estrogen, testosterone c. Progestin only b. Estrogen only d. Estrogen, progestin 57. Prior to oxytocin augmentation, which of the following should be assured? a. There is no fetopelvic disproportion. c. A patient is in true labor b. There is no hypotonic uterine dysfunction d. All of these 58. If the posterior fontanel is lower than the anterior fontanel the head is _______. a. Flexed b. Sinciput c. Military attitude d. Deflexed 59. Which portion of the blastocyst will give rise to the embryo? a. Outer cell mass b. Trophoblast c. Inner cell mass d. Blastomere 60. The following are true regarding the transformation zone of the cervix, except: a. It is important to get samples from this area in PAPSMEAR b. In older women this goes within the endocervix c. This is not involved in malignancy d. It is the junction of squamous and columnar epithelium 61. Which among the following is/ are true contraindications for the use of injectable contraceptives? a. Obese patient c. Irregular menstrual date b. History of jaundice d. All of these 62. A patient tells you that she had a total hysterectomy. This means she has no more risk for cancer of the: a. Ovaries b. Fallopian tubes c. Cervix and corpus d. All of these 63. The type pf pelvis with an almost circular inlet with wide pubic arch and curves sacrum is: a. Platypeloid b. Gynecoid c. Android d. Anthropoid 64. The following are effects of severe asthma in pregnancy EXCEPT: a. Preterm labor c. Low birth weight b. Abortion d. Congenital anomalies 65. General anesthesia together with the following drugs EXCEPT _____ are used for uterine relaxation & repositioning postpartum uterine inversion: a. Ritodrine b. MgSO4 c. Terbutaline d. Oxytocin 6 66. The following contain 23 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome: a. Mature oocytes c. Primary spermatocyte b. Spermatids d. Secondary spermatocyte 67. Which drug is used for medical management of selected tubal pregnancy? a. Ampicillin c. Progesterone b. Methylergometrine maleate d. Methotrexate 68. A 30 week pregnant multigravida called you because she had painless vaginal bleeding and about 3 glassfuls in amount. You will do all of these, EXCEPT: a. Bring a blood donor c. Insert an IV fluid b. Do an internal exam d. Bring to a hospital 69. Higher levels of hCG are found in all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Multifetal pregnancy c. Hydatidiform mole b. Hydrocephalic pregnancy d. Erythroblastosis fetalis 70. Natural childbirth is all, EXCEPT: a. Elimination of fear c. Relaxation exercises b. Antepartum training d. Elimination of pain 71. The benefit of having a woman with fetus in breech presentation deliver in a hospital is: a. There are more assistance in terms of complications. b. Immediate surgery can be done if cord prolapse occur. c. The midwife does not know how to handle breech delivery. d. To avoid malpractice suit. 72. If HbsAg of a pregnant mother is positive, the following are done, EXCEPT: a. Breastfeeding is not allowed c. Baby is given recombinant vaccine b. Baby is given Hepatitis B immune globulin d. Mother is given immune globulin 73. Ultrasonography during the first trimester is useful for all, EXCEPT: a. Embryo identification c. Fetal number b. Congenital anomalies d. Location of gestational sac 74. Which antibacterial medication is avoided in pregnancy? a. Penicillin b. Tetracycline c. Nitrofurantoin d. Clindamycin 75. Which of the following cause failure of bilateral tubal ligation? a. Spontaneous re-anastomosis c. Surgical error b. Luteal phase pregnancy d. All of these 76. The reason/s a pregnant woman with significant bleeding in late pregnancy should NOT be subjected to internal exam by midwife is/are: a. Need for immediate Cesarean section c. Danger of profuse bleeding b. Medico legal problem d. All of these 77. A breech presentation must be differentiated from which of the following? a. Shoulder presentation c. Anencephalic presentation b. All of these d. Face presentation 78. The term applied to external organs from mons to perineum is: a. Vulva b. Fourchette c. Labia majora d. Perineal body 79. Fetal complication/s of severe anemia of the mother is/are: a. Low birth weight c. Still birth b. All of these d. Perineal body 80. Factors which improve success of external versions for breech presentation include the following, EXCEPT: a. Engaged breech c. Anteriorly located fetal spine b. Frank breech d. Adequate amniotic fluid 81. The most useful index of the quality of obstetrics care is the _______________ rate. 7 a. maternal mortality c. neonatal mortality b. stillbirth d. perinatal mortality 82. A 5-week pregnant student from Nursing School wants to know what protection she needs since many of her friends had Hepatitis A. a. Do not eat with her friends b. Have hepatitis A immune globulin injection c. Her hepatitis B immunization protects her from A d. Drink only bottled water 83. Which of the following is derived from the mesoderm: a. Pancreas b. Liver c. Kidney d. Brain 84. The reproductive function of women is directed towards which of the following: a. Delivery of the fetus c. Achievement of pregnancy b. Nourishment of fetus d. All of these 85. Adherent placenta may result in which of these? a. Infection b. All of these c. Perforationd. d. Severe hemorrhage 86. The most common gynecologic complaints is/are: a. Vaginal discharge b. Pain c. All of these d. Bleeding 87. Which is NOT an indication for repeat internal exam? When _________: a. Malpresentation is suspected b. Membranes rupture c. Prior to transport to referral center d. Contraction are weak and irregular 88. Which of these favor growth of anaerobic bacteria? a. All of these c. Blood and sperm collection b. Devitalized tissue d. Foreign body 89. If there is doubt to presence of tubal pregnancy, which single procedure is done? a. Culdoscopy b. Culdocentesis c. Laparotomy d. Culpotomy 90. Which of the following antenatal factors is/are proven to predispose to postpartum pelvic infections? a. Premature rupture of membrane b. Malnutrition c. Anemia d. All of these 91. The first day of the last menstrual period of a woman with regular 28 days cycle was March 1. Her ovulation date will be March ______. a. 16 b. 12 c. 10 d. 14 92. Which of the following Immunizations is contraindicated during pregnancy? a. Typhoid b. Mumps c. Influenza d. Poliomyelitis 93. Methods of estimating blood loss in pregnant women are the following, EXCEPT: A. Urinary output b. Furosemide test c. BP & PR values d. Visual 94. Post oral glucose screening for gestational diabetes is recommended for all of the following, EXCEPT: a. Patients over 30 years old c. Family history of diabetes b. History of antiasthma drugs d. History of still births 95. For high risk patients, FHT should be checked every ____ minutes during the first stage of labor: a. Every 60 min b. Every 15 min c. Every 10 min d. Every 30 min 96. Which of the following are aggregation of veins which are pushed beneath the pubic arch during delivery, injury of which may cause bleeding: a. Bartholin’s gland b. Clitoris c. Labia minora d. Vestibular bulbs 8 97. A painful bluish red ischiorectal mass is due to: a. Varicosities c. Hemorrhoids b. Hematoma d. Edema 98. A woman who had four previous term deliveries with one neonatal death is pregnant again, she is called: a. Grand Multipara b. Grand multigravida c. These means the same d. Multipara 99. Which of the following conditions in the use of prostaglandin is considered relatively safe? a. To hasten labor b. For induction of delayed menstruation c. To ripen the cervix d. To correct postpartum atony 100. Precipitate labor is caused by which of the following: a. Absence of painful sensation b. All of these c. Low resistance of soft parts d. Abnormal strong contractions GOD HELPS THOSE WHO HELP THEMSELVES….