Pregnancy Exam Questions PDF

Summary

This document contains a collection of questions related to pregnancy, including physiological characteristics, diagnosing early pregnancy, gestational age determination, and ultrasound findings. It covers various aspects of pregnancy and childbirth, potentially suitable for medical students or professionals.

Full Transcript

# Physiological characteristics of a pregnant woman include all of the following except + increase in functional residual capacity of the lungs - increased cardiac output - increased ventilation - increased oxygen consumption - increase in lung capacity during inspiration # For diagnosing early pre...

# Physiological characteristics of a pregnant woman include all of the following except + increase in functional residual capacity of the lungs - increased cardiac output - increased ventilation - increased oxygen consumption - increase in lung capacity during inspiration # For diagnosing early pregnancy, the most important are + ultrasound data - assessment of doubtful signs of pregnancy - assessing possible signs of pregnancy - vaginal examination data - immunological pregnancy tests # The most important sign of pregnancy during vaginal examination: + increase in the size of the uterus in accordance with the period of delay of menstruation, its soft consistency - softening in the isthmus area - hardening of the uterus upon palpation - asymmetry of one of the corners of the uterus - increase in uterine size # Determination of gestational age is based on: + all listed data - determining the height of the uterine fundus - ultrasound data - vaginal examination data at the first visit to the gynecologist - date of last menstruation # Ultrasound during pregnancy allows you to determine: + all of the above - gestational age - position of the fetus, localization of the placenta and its pathology - undeveloped pregnancy - fetal malformations # Leopold-Levitsky techniques allow you to determine: + all of the above - position and appearance of the fetus - relation of the presenting part to the inlet of the pelvis - nature of the presenting part - fundal height of the uterus # Leopold-Levitsky techniques allow you to determine + all of the above - position, appearance of the fetus - relation of the presenting part to the inlet of the pelvis - nature of the presenting part - fundal height of the uterus # The second Leopold–Levitsky technique determines: + position, appearance and type of fetus - nature of the presenting part - relation of the presenting part to the inlet of the pelvis - fundal height of the uterus - all of the above # At 40 weeks of pregnancy and average fetal size, the height of the uterine fundus and abdominal circumference should correspond to: + 100 and 32 cm - 105 and 38 cm - 85 and 32 cm - 95 and 32 cm - 85 and 30 cm # The fetal head in a primigravida at 40 weeks should be located in relation to the planes of the pelvis: + pressed to the entrance to the pelvis - above the entrance to the pelvis - fixed by a small segment at the entrance to the pelvis - fixed by a large segment at the entrance to the pelvis - in the narrow part of the pelvic cavity #. Methods for assessing the condition of the intrauterine fetus include: + all of the above - fetal auscultation data - counting the number of fetal movements during the day - amnioscopy - determination of hormone levels in the blood # The main criterion for assessing fetal maturity is: + fetal length - Apgar score - fetal weight - condition of sutures and fontanelles - gestational age # Term of the fetus is determined based on: + gestational age - fetal condition - body weight values - signs of physical development of the fetus - Apgar scale parameters # Cardiovascular changes during pregnancy include: + all of the above - physiological hypertrophy of the left ventricle - increase in cardiac output - increase in heart rate - horizontal position of the heart # The rate of opening of the uterine pharynx in primigravidas: + 1 cm per hour - 3 cm per hour - 2 cm per hour - 3 cm in 2 hours - there is no right answer # The rate of opening of the uterine pharynx in multiparous women: + 2 cm per hour - 1 cm per hour - 3 cm per hour - 3 cm in 2 hours - there is no right answer # Timely release of water should occur: + when the cervix is dilated by more than 6 cm - before contractions start - when irregular contractions occur - when regular contractions occur - when the cervix is dilated less than 6 cm # The beginning of labor should be considered: + the appearance of regular contractions leading to shortening and smoothing of the cervix - pressing the head to the entrance to the pelvis - the appearance of irregular contractions - the appearance of regular contractions - discharge of amniotic fluid # The second stage of labor begins: + from the moment of complete dilation of the uterine cervix - with the beginning of pushing - when cutting into the fetal head - when the fetal head erupts - with rupture of amniotic fluid # The latent phase of the first stage of labor is the period of time when: + one or more uterine contractions in 10 minutes and effacement and dilatation of the cervix up to 4 cm - irregular labor - regular contractions and cervical dilatation 5 cm - rupture of water and the appearance of bloody discharge from the vagina - irregular cervical pain up to 3 cm long # The active phase of the first stage of labor is the period of time when: + regular uterine contractions: more than 2 in 10 minutes and opening of the uterine cervix - more than 4 cm - one or more uterine contractions in 10 minutes and cervical effacement and dilatation to 3 cm - rupture of water and the appearance of bloody discharge from the vagina - regular cervical pain up to 2 cm long - regular labor and uterine cervix dilatation by 2 cm # Active management of the 3rd stage of labor is carried out + immediately after the birth of the fetus - after signs of placental separation appear - in 10 minutes - in 20 minutes - in 5 minutes # Heart rate in a newborn: + 120–160 beats/min - 80–100 beats/min - 100–120 beats/min - 160–180 beats/min - 160–200 beats/min # Prevention of ophthalmoblenorrhea is carried out + 1% tetracycline ointment - 2% silver nitrate solution - 3% silver nitrate solution - 2% sodium albucid solution - furatsilin solution # Duration of labor for first-time mothers: + 10-14 hours - 6-4 hours - 2-4 hours - 6-8 hours - up to 24 hours # Duration of labor in multiparous women: + 6-8 hours - 10 – 14 hours - 2 – 4 hours - up to 24 hours - 1 – 2 hours # The Apgar score does not include assessment of + weight and body length of the newborn - skin colors - states of nerve reflexes - heart rate and breathing rate of the newborn - muscle tone # The normal condition of the newborn is assessed using the Apgar scale + 8 – 10 score - 1 – 3 score - 4 – 5 score - 6-7 score 14 – 15 score # The Apgar scale allows you to evaluate: + severity of hypoxia - severity of respiratory failure - degree of maturity of the newborn - severity of hemolytic disease - there is no right answer # Complications that occur during pregnancy with pyelonephritis: + all specified complications - premature birth - fetal growth restriction syndrome - development of preeclampsia - fetal infection # The most common kidney disease in pregnant women is: + pyelonephritis - glomerulonephritis - urolithiasis disease - hydronephrosis - kidney tumors # Antibacterial drugs for the treatment of pyelonephritis in the first trimester of pregnancy: + penicillin antibiotics - aminoglycosides - tetracyclines - streptomycin - sulfonamides # Which of the following antibiotics should not be used by pregnant women: + tetracyclines - penicillins - ampicillin cephalosporins aminoglycosides # Tactics of pregnancy management for kidney diseases: + all of the above - hospitalization in early pregnancy to determine the severity of the disease - and the possibility of prolonging pregnancy - hospitalization in case of exacerbation of the disease or complications of pregnancy # The causative agents of gestational pyelonephritis can be: + All listed - Escherichia coli, Proteus, Klebsiella - Enterococci, staphylococci - Microbial associations - None of the above # With gestational pyelonephritis, the infectious agent penetrates the kidney more often + ascending urinogenic and hematogenous - lymphogenous route - hematogenous - contact and lymphogenous - during transfusion of blood and its preparations # Factors contributing to the development of pyelonephritis in pregnant women are + all listed - increased levels of progesterone and corticosteroids - decreased tone of the urinary tract, presence of reflux - compression of the ureters by the pregnant uterus - none of the above # Contraindications to prolonging pregnancy with pyelonephritis + all listed - kidney failure - pyelonephritis of a single kidney - arterial hypertension - none of the above # The most common form of anemia in pregnant women is: + iron deficiency hypochromic anemia - megaloblastic hyperchromic anemia - hypoplastic anemia - hemolytic anemia - aplastic # Factors contributing to the development of anemia in pregnant women: + all of the above factors - occupational hazards - birth interval less than 2 years - diseases of the gastrointestinal tract - multiple births # In the pathogenesis of hypochromic anemia in pregnant women, the following is important: + all of the above - impaired iron absorption in anacid gastritis - poor nutrition - increased iron consumption during fetal development - increased tissue turnover during pregnancy # In mild IDA, the hemoglobin level corresponds to + 110-90 g/l - 90-70 g/l - 70g/l and below - 130-120 g/l - none of the above # In case of moderate IDA, the hemoglobin level corresponds to + 90-70 g/l - 110-90 g/l - 70g/l and below - 130-120 g/l - none of the above # In severe IDA, the hemoglobin level corresponds to + 70g/l and below - 110-90 g/l - 90-70 g/l - 130-120 g/l - none of the above # The criterion for IDA in pregnant women is a decrease in hemoglobin below + 110 g/l - 80 g/l - 90 g/l - 100 g/l - 120 g/l # Increased blood pressure in combination with proteinuria during pregnancy indicates + preeclampsia - chronic hypertension - pyelonephritis - none of the above - glomerulonephritis # An increase in diastolic blood pressure 90 mm Hg and above at a gestation period of - up to 20 weeks is a symptom + chronic hypertension - mild preeclampsia - combined mild preeclampsia - pregnancy-induced hypertension - severe preeclampsia # In a pregnant woman with high blood pressure and proteinuria, severe headache is a symptom + severe preeclampsia - mild preeclampsia - moderate preeclampsia - threatened eclampsia - chronic hypertension # The first choice drug for preventing or treating seizures in severe preeclampsia or eclampsia may be: + magnesium sulfate - diazepam - hydralazine - corvitol - Corinfar # When treating eclampsia, an overdose of magnesium sulfate must be stopped: + administration of calcium supplements - administration of diuretics - introduction of GHB - administration of diazepam - none of the above # Anticonvulsant therapy for severe preeclampsia or eclampsia should: + carried out within 24 hours after delivery or the last spasm, whichever occurs last - be terminated immediately after birth - be terminated before birth - be carried out within 12 hours after delivery or the last spasm, whichever occurs last - continue as long as the hypertensive syndrome persists # Antihypertensive drugs should be administered to lower blood pressure in severe preeclampsia if diastolic blood pressure is diagnosed + 110 mmHg and above - 90 mmHg and above - Between 100 and 110 mm Hg - 120 mmHg and above - over 90 mmHg # The goal of antihypertensive therapy for severe preeclampsia or eclampsia is to maintain diastolic BP + between 90 mmHg and 100 mmHg - on normal numbers - below 80 mmHg - between 80mmHg and 90mmHg - at 100/110 mmHg. # Signs of eclampsia are: + convulsions and coma - albuminuria and edema - diarrhea - hypertension - decreased diuresis # The most common cause of maternal mortality in eclampsia: + brain hemorrhage - kidney failure - pulmonary edema - infection - brain edema # The classification of hypertensive conditions does not include: + renal hypertension - gestation hypertension. - chronic hypertension (hypertension up to 20 weeks) - severe preeclampsia - eclampsia # Severe preeclampsia is characterized by except; + twice increase in dbp of 90 mmhg. every 4 hours. - gestation period is more than 20 weeks - proteinuria up to 3g/l - other signs (symptoms) of severe preeclampsia - increase in DBP more than 100 mmHg with an interval of 4 hours # Express diagnostic method for consumption coagulopathy in late pregnancy: + bedside test - ethanol test - protamine sulfate test - ß-naphthalan test - PTI # A loading dose of magnesium sulfate is administered for severe preeclampsia. + iv 16 ml. for 5 minutes, 20 ml intramuscularly into each buttock - iv and im 10 ml. - iv 10 ml. for 5 minutes, 10 ml intramuscularly into each buttock - 10 ml intramuscularly into each buttock. - iv 15 ml. for 5 minutes, 10 ml intramuscularly into each buttock. # An attack of eclampsia can develop: + during pregnancy, childbirth and the postpartum period - only during pregnancy - only during childbirth - outside of pregnancy - only in the late postpartum period # What drugs are considered hormonal methods of contraception? + regividon, triziston - hydrocortisone, duphaston - retabolil, choriogonic gonadotropin - omnadren, sustanon - clomiphene, prophasia # What does not apply to hormonal contraception + duphaston - regividon - novinet - logest - microgynon # How are synthetic progestins prescribed? + from the 5th to the 26th day of the cycle - from 1st to 21st day of the cycle - from the 5th to the 29th day of the cycle - from the 1st to the 27th day of the cycle - from the 3rd to the 25th day of the cycle # What complications often arise when using synthetic progestins? + headaches, dizziness, nausea, irritability - tachycardia, decreased libido - itching, epigastric pain - petechial rashes, hepatomegaly - constipation, thromboembolic complications # On what days of the menstrual cycle is the IUD inserted? + 1-7 days - 5-10 day - 10-12 day - 13-14 day - 20-25 day # Absolute contraindications for IUD insertion include: + acute and subacute inflammation of the genitals - kidney disease - pulmonary tuberculosis - heart disease - bronchial asthma # The contraceptive effect of oral contraception is associated with: + inhibition of ovulation, impact on the hypothalamic-pituitary system - effects on the adrenal glands - effect on the endometrium - effect on the ovarian follicle - impact on the fallopian tubes # Which contraceptives are less effective: + barrier and chemical methods - IUD - oral contraceptives - surgical - injectable contraceptives # What should be done if pregnancy occurs while taking oral contraceptives. + prolong pregnancy - terminate the pregnancy - continue taking medications - stop taking medications - start maintenance therapy # Name the role of estrogenic hormones in the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, except: + causes secretory transformation of the endometrium - increased formation of contractile muscle protein in the uterus - increase in the amount of phosphorus compounds, glycogen - increased uterine tone - proliferation of the excretory ducts of the mammary gland # Indicate the incorrect answer for the effect of progesterone on a woman’s body: + increased uterine tone - causes secretory transformation of the endometrium - inhibits myometrial contractility - stimulates the growth of mammary gland parenchyma - affects fat metabolism # Mechanism of action of copper-containing IUDs + prevents implantation of the fertilized egg - inhibits ovulation - blocks the fallopian tubes - inhibits sperm migration - causes endometrial atrophy # The scope of primary contraception counseling includes: + information about all existing methods of contraception - information about an appropriate method of contraception - information about the advantages and disadvantages of hormonal contraception - information about the side effects of the IUD - information about natural methods of contraception # The scope of secondary contraception counseling includes: + information about the patient’s chosen method of contraception - information about the contraceptive method selected by the doctor - information about the side effects and benefits of hormonal contraception - mandatory screening and counseling on all contraceptive methods - mandatory examination, ultrasound, health counseling # Which method of contraception is contraindicated for an actively smoking woman over 35 years of age? + COC - pure progestine - voluntary surgical sterilization - IUD - spermicides # Which of the following is not a progestin-only contraceptive (PPC)? + 17 OPK - Mini-pili - Depo-Provera - Norplant - Noristerate # The main side effect of progestin-only contraceptives +menstrual irregularities - amenorrhea - breast engorgement - nausea, vomiting - thromboembolic disorders # Depo-Provera injection is done through: + 3 months - 1 month - 2 months - First after 3 months, then after 4 months - None of the above # Contraindications to breastfeeding are: + maternal HIV infection, diphtheria - maternal fever - diphtheria, hepatitis, Anemia - low birth weight baby - rhesus immunization # The most acceptable method of contraception for a couple in which one of the partners is HIV-infected + Condom - COC - pure progestine - IUD - voluntary surgical sterilization # HAART therapy is: + highly effective antiretroviral therapy - detoxification therapy - general restorative therapy - immunostimulating therapy - anti-inflammatory therapy # Specify the method of HIV transmission from mother to fetus + all of the above - hematogenous - transplacental - iatrogenic - vertical # Carriage of HIV infection continues for + all life - 5 years - about 20 years - depends on the route of infection - 40 years # The most common infection of the fetus and child with HIV occurs + during childbirth - in utero - in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy - in the 1st trimester of pregnancy - when breastfeeding # Childbirth in HIV-infected people: + require the same prevention of all complications as in the general population - have no special features - occurs with a large number of complications - require bleeding prevention - there is no correct answer # The causative agent of genital herpes is + HSV - HPV - CMV - Treponema pallidum - Sarcoptes scabiei # Standard Precautions for Infection Prevention (PI) include: + application of infection prevention measures to all patients and health care workers - application of infection prevention measures to hospitalized patients - listing specific symptoms and syndromes present in hospitalized adults and children - application of isolation measures based on transmission routes - applying infection prevention measures to health care workers only # What is the first step in processing used tools: + disinfection in 0.5% chlorine solution for 10 minutes - rinse under running water - soak in cleaning solution for 10 minutes - soak in 3% chlorine solution for 1 hour - soak in 3% chlorine solution for 20 minutes # Used disposable needles and syringes should be: + rinse the needle in a 0.5% chlorine solution and place it in a puncture-resistant container along with the syringe - rinse in running water followed by disinfection - be sure to bend and break the needle to avoid repeated use - recap the needle and throw it in the trash. - soak in 3% chlorine solution for 20 minutes # Blood-soaked cotton wool and gauze: + dispose of in a leak-proof container - soak in a 0.5% chlorine solution for 10 minutes, and then throw away - soak in 3% chlorine solution for 20 minutes - throw away with other trash - there is no correct answer # When sterilizing as opposed to deep disinfection + all known microorganisms die, including endospores - practically no different - all known microorganisms die except fungal spores and endospores - vegetative forms of microorganisms die - all of the above # How many germs are removed by proper hand washing with soap: + 80% - 50% - 20% - 40% - 10%

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