NUR-194-P1-Examination-SY-2425-Sem1.-Answer-Key.pdf

P1 EXAMINATION NUR 194 Care of Mother, Child, Adolescent- Well Client 1st Semester SY 2024 – 2025 GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: 1. This is a 100-item Multiple Choice Test. 2. Please check if you have a comp...

P1 EXAMINATION NUR 194 Care of Mother, Child, Adolescent- Well Client 1st Semester SY 2024 – 2025 GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: 1. This is a 100-item Multiple Choice Test. 2. Please check if you have a complete set of test paper. 3. Read and understand the questions carefully. 4. Shade the letter corresponding to your answer in the answer sheet provided. 5. Strictly no erasures, alterations or superimpositions allowed. 6. Nobody is allowed to go out of the room once examination started. 7. You are given 1 hour and 30 minutes to finish the examination. 8. Cellular phones are strictly not allowed. 9. Please raise your hand if you have any concern, the proctor will assist you. 10. Cheating is a major offense, anybody caught will be dealt with accordingly. Good Luck & God Bless! 1.Which statement accurately describes the Global Health Goals related to maternal and child health? a. The United Nations (UN) and the World Health Organization established Millennium Health Goals in 2000 in an effort to improve health worldwide. b. These concentrate on improving the health of women and children because increasing the health in these two populations can have such long-ranging effects on general health. c. These are Global Health Goals d. MILLENNIUM DEVELOPMENT GOALS - These eight goals, set by the United Nations back in 2000 to eradicate poverty, hunger, illiteracy and disease, expired in 2015. A. Option a only B. Options a and b only C. Options b and c only D. Options c and d only 2. The family tasks refers to the just division and distribution of basic needs such as food. A. Physical maintenance B. Reproduction, recruitment and release of family members C. Allocation of resources D. Maintenance of order 3. Group of people who choose to live together as an extended family and their relationship is motivated by social or religious rather than kinship. A. Nuclear family B. Communal Family C. Adoptive Family D. Multigenerational family 4. The family that loosens ties to allow freedom and prepares the children to lead their own lives is in the life cycle stage of: A. Stage 8: The Family in Retirement or Old Age B. Stage 5: The Family with an Adolescent C. Stage 5: The Family of Middle Years D. Stage 6: The Launching Stage Family 5. Which stage of the family life cycle is characterized by young adults returning home to live with their family after college or a failed relationship? A. Stage 2: The Early Child-bearing Family B. Stage 6: The Launching Stage Family C. Stage 7: The Family of Middle Years D. Stage 8: The Family in Retirement or Old Age 6. When does the Empty Nest Syndrome typically occur in the family life cycle? A. Stage 1: Marriage B. Stage 3: The Family with a Pre-school Child C. Stage 5: The Family with an Adolescent D. Stage 7: The Family of Middle Years 7. What is the primary purpose of a genogram in family therapy? A) To identify genetic disorders within the family B) To document family members' birthplaces C) To illustrate family dynamics and relationships D) To list financial assets and liabilities of family members 8. What is the main purpose of an ecomap in family assessment? A) To outline the family's financial resources B) To document the fit of the family within their community C) To list the educational achievements of family members D) To illustrate the family's genetic predispositions 9. Which of the following best describes a cohabitation family? A) Composed of two parents and children living together in a committed but unmarried relationship B) Composed of extended family members living in the same household C) Composed of single parents raising their children together D) Composed of siblings living together after leaving their parental home 10. What is an advantage of a nuclear family structure? A) Enhanced family independence and autonomy B) Increased cultural diversity within the household C) Access to a wider support network D) Greater flexibility in household decision-making Top of Form Bottom of Form 11.What is a primary function of the male reproductive system? A) Menstruation B) Sperm production C) Ovulation D) Fertilization 12. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the regulation of the menstrual cycle in females? A) Testosterone B) Estrogen C) Progesterone D) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) 13. During which phase of the menstrual cycle does ovulation typically occur? A) Menstrual phase B) Proliferative phase C) Secretory phase D) Ovulatory phase 14. Which structure in the female reproductive system serves as the site of fertilization? A) Uterus B) Ovary C) Fallopian tube  D) Vagina 15. Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) is caused by a bacterium and can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) if left untreated in females? A) Human papillomavirus (HPV) B) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) C) Chlamydia D) Gonorrhea 16. Which structure in the male reproductive system stores sperm and allows for their maturation? A) Seminal vesicles B) Prostate gland C) Epididymis D) Vas deferens 17. What is the function of the prostate gland in males? A) Production of testosterone B) Storage of sperm C) Secretion of a fluid that nourishes and protects sperm D) Transport of sperm from the testes to the urethra 18. Which male reproductive organ is responsible for the production of testosterone? A) Seminiferous tubules B) Epididymis C) Prostate gland D) Testes 19. Which method of contraception involves the surgical cutting or blocking of the vas deferens to prevent the release of sperm during ejaculation? A) Oral contraceptives B) Condoms C) Tubal ligation D) Vasectomy 20. Which female reproductive organ sheds its lining during menstruation if fertilization does not occur? A) Uterus B) Ovary C) Fallopian tube D) Cervix 21. Which hormone is primarily responsible for thickening the endometrium during the menstrual cycle? a. Follicle stimulating hormone b. Estrogen c. Luteinizing hormone d. Progesterone 22. In a normal 28-day menstrual cycle, when would you expect the LH surge to occur? a. Days 8-10 b. Days 11-13 c. Days 14-16 d. Days 17-19 23. Which of the following is a common symptom of premenstrual syndrome (PMS)? a. Hot flashes b. Constipation c. Mood swing d. Rapid weight gain 24. Which of the following represents the correct order of events during the menstrual cycle? a. FSH rise, ovulation, LH surge, luteal phase, menstruation  b. Luteal phase, menstruation, FSH rise, ovulation, follicular phase c. Follicular phase, luteal phase, FSH rise, ovulation, menstruation d. Menstruation, FSH rise, LH surge, ovulation, luteal phase 25. What is the difference between the follicular and luteal phases of the menstrual cycle? a. The follicular phase involves the formation of corpus albicans, while the luteal phase prepares the uterus for pregnancy. b. The follicular phase follows ovulation and involves the development of the corpus luteum, while the luteal phase involves follicle development. c. The follicular phase is characterized by rising estrogen levels and follicle growth, while the luteal phase follows ovulation and involves high progesterone levels. d. The follicular phase occurs during menstruation, while the luteal phase occurs during ovulation. 26. Which of the following are effects of increased levels of estrogen in the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle? I. Thinning of endometrium II. Thickening of cervical mucus III. Thinning of cervical mucus IV. Thickening of the endometrium a. I and II b. II and IV c. III and IV d. I and IV 27. Which of the following is NOT a function of progesterone? a. Inhibition of estrogen production b. Inhibition of LH and FSH production c. Initiation of the secretory phase of the endometrium d. Increase in basal body temperature 28. What is the purpose of the luteal phase in the menstrual cycle? a. It prepares the ovaries for the development of new follicles b. It ensures the release of luteinizing hormone (LH) for the next menstrual cycle. c. It triggers the start of menstruation and shedding of the uterine lining. d. It supports the maintenance of the uterine lining for a potential pregnancy. 29. During the luteal phase, high levels of progesterone have a feedback effect on the hypothalamus and pituitary. What is this effect? a. Stimulation of FSH and LH release b. Inhibition of FSH and LH release c. Stimulation of GnRH release d. Inhibition of GnRH release 30. Why is it important to educate about the importance of tracking menstrual cycles? a. To predict the exact timing of ovulation for conception b. To determine the effectiveness of birth control methods c. To monitor overall reproductive health and detect abnormalities d. To prevent hormonal imbalances during menstruation 31. Suzanne typically has a menstrual cycle of 34 days. She tells you she had sexual intercourse on days 8, 10, 15, and 20 of her last cycle. Which is the day on which she most likely conceived? a. Day 8 b. Day 10 c. Day 15 d. Day 20 32. Lisa experiences severe menstrual cramps every month, affecting her daily activities. Which nursing intervention would be most appropriate to alleviate her symptoms? a. Suggesting the use of hot water bottles or heating pads on the lower abdomen. b. Advising bed rest and avoiding physical activity during menstruation. c. Recommending the use of aspirin or other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). d. Encouraging the intake of caffeine and salty foods to reduce water retention. 33. Jennifer is planning to conceive and wants to optimize her chances of pregnancy. How would you educate Jennifer about her fertile window in the menstrual cycle? a. Inform Jennifer that her fertile window occurs during the menstrual phase. b. Advise Jennifer that her fertile window is approximately one week after ovulation. c. Explain to Jennifer that her fertile window spans the days leading up to and including ovulation. d. Tell Jennifer that her fertile window occurs during the luteal phase. 34. David, a 25-year-old man, is concerned about his partner's irregular menstrual cycles and seeks advice on possible causes. How would you apply your knowledge to help David identify potential causes of irregular cycles? a. Advise David that irregular cycles are primarily caused by stress-related fluctuations in LH levels. b. Educate David about the impact of poor nutrition on FSH secretion, leading to irregular cycles. c. Explain to David that irregular cycles can result from hormonal imbalances affecting ovulation. d. Inform David that irregular cycles are typically caused by excessive physical exercise during menstruation. 35. Given a scenario where there is a sudden drop in estrogen and progesterone levels, what is the most likely physiological consequence? a. Ovulation will occur immediately after the sudden drop in estrogen and progesterone levels b. The endometrial lining is maintained by HCG for continued implantation c. The corpus luteum continues to secrete hormones to compensate the sudden drop in estrogen and progesterone levels d. There will be an increase in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) levels 36. After an ultrasound, it is determined that the corpus luteum is persisting longer than expected in a patient who is not pregnant. What is the most likely physiological explanation for this observation? a. The corpus luteum is not degenerating because of continued high levels of estrogen and progesterone from the ovaries. b. The corpus luteum persists due to the continuous secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) from the pituitary gland. c. The corpus luteum remains because of elevated levels of luteinizing hormone (LH), maintaining its function. d. The persistence of the corpus luteum is due to the absence of sufficient luteinizing hormone (LH) to signal its degradation. 37. It is the union of the ovum and a spermatozoa and usually occurs in the outer third of a fallopian tube. A. Implantation B. Fertilization C. Ovulation D. Capacitation 38. A contact between the growing structure and the uterine endometrium, occurs after 10 days fertilization. A. Implantation B. Fertilization C. Ovulation D. Capacitation 39. Fertilization is never a certain occurrence because it depends on at least three separate factors, except: A. Ability of the sperm to penetrate the zona pellucida and cell membrane B. Mature sperm and ovum C. Ability of the sperm to reach the ovum D. Immature sperm and ovum 40. A zygote migrates toward the body of the uterus, aided by the currents initiated by the muscular contractions of the fallopian tubes. During this time, mitotic cell division, or cleavage, begins. This event happens in what day after fertilization. A. 3 to 4 days B. 8 to 10 days C. 11or 12 days D. 1 to 2 days 41. The following are the Phases of Implantation. Except: A. APPOSITION  B. ADHESION C. INVASION D. MIGRATION 42. As early as the 11th or 12th day after fertilization, a miniature villi resembling probing fingers reach out from the trophoblast cells into the uterine endometrium to begin formation of the placenta. A. Chorionic villi B. Blastocyst C. Inner cell mass D. Zygote 43. How does intrauterine (fetal) circulation differs from extrauterine circulation? A. the fetus derives oxygen and excretes carbon dioxide from gas exchange in the lungs but NOT from exchange in the placenta. B. the fetus derives oxygen and excretes carbon dioxide NOT from gas exchange in the lungs but from exchange in the placenta. C. the fetus derives oxygen and excretes carbon dioxide from gas exchange in the lungs AND in the placenta. D. the fetus derives oxygen and excretes carbon dioxide from gas exchange in the lungs. 44. This grows from a few identifiable trophoblastic cells at the beginning of pregnancy to an organ measuring 15 to 20 cm in diameter and 2 to 3 cm in depth and covering about half the surface area of the internal uterus at term. Latin for “pancake,” which is descriptive of its size and appearance at term. A. Placenta B. Abdomen cavity C. Uterus cavity D. Cranium 45. During placental circulation, the maternal blood begins to collect in the intervillous spaces of the uterine endometrium surrounding the chorionic villi. A. 12th day of pregnancy B. 4th day after fertilization C. 8th day after fertilization D. 3rd day after fertilization 46. What is one of the primary functions of amniotic fluid during pregnancy? A) To regulate maternal blood pressure B) To cushion and protect the fetus from mechanical shocks C) To facilitate the fertilization of the egg D) To support the implantation of the blastocyst 47. Mrs. C.D, a 32-week pregnant woman, was instructed to lie on her back in order to measure her fundal height. She felt lightheaded and said she felt as though the room was spinning a minute later. Blood pressure of 70/50mmHg. Given your understanding of the pathophysiology of this syndrome, how would you position Mrs. C. D to avoid this? A. Supine B. Left lateral recumbent C. Right lateral recumbent D. Prone 48. Contractions that is barely noticeable uterine contractions present from about the 12th week of pregnancy on, aid in maintaining pressure in the intervillous spaces by closing off the uterine veins momentarily with each contraction. A. Hagar’s sign B. Chadwick’s sign C. Braxton hicks D. Ballottement 49.Which is TRUE regarding human placental lactogen (human chorionic somatomammotropin)?  A. promotes placental growth B. regulating maternal glucose, protein, and fat levels so adequate amounts of these nutrients are always available to the fetus. C. produced by the placenta beginning as early as the 10th week of pregnancy, increasing to a peak level at term. D. is a hormone with both growth-suppressing and lactogenic 50. A gelatinous mucopolysaccharide which gives the umbilical cord body & prevents pressure on the blood volume. A. Whartons jelly B. Zona pellucida C. Corona radiata D. Chorionic villi 51. Which of the following statement is correct about the function of amniotic Fluid: 1. produces phospholipids that initiate formation of prostaglandins that initiate labor by producing contractions. 2. shields fetus from pressure or blow to the abdomen. 3. Aids in muscular development since it allows fetus to move freely. 4. Protects umbilical cord from pressure thus protecting the fetal O2 supply. A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 2, 3 ,4 C. 3, 4 D. 4 52. Mrs. A.C expresses her concern that her child may be born with a congenital cardiac condition. The most crucial step in the detection of congenital cardiac abnormalities would be the evaluation of the umbilical cord at birth. How is this carried out? A. Assess whether the pH of the Wharton jelly is higher than 7.2 B. Assess whether the umbilical cord has two arteries and one vein C. Measure the length of the cord to be certain it is longer than 3 ft D. Determine that the umbilical cord is neither green nor yellow stained 53. The mucous membranes of the anus, mouth, and nose are derived from what germ layer? A. Endoderm B. Ectoderm C. Mesoderm D. Ecdoderm 54. Fetal heartbeat may be heard with a Doppler instrument as early as A. 16th day of life B. 24th day of pregnancy C. 6th to 7th week of pregnancy. D. 10th to 12th week of pregnancy Situation A: Joan Claus, a 40- year old mother of three has come to the OB clinic where you are a nurse. Her LMP was 1/21/2024. The results of her tests indicate she is pregnant. 55. If Joan did not have a LMP date to go by, the sign most useful in calculating her EDC is A. Appearance of linea nigra B. Ultrasound examination C. Estriol level at 12 weeks D. Detection of Goodell’s sign 56. While discussing the pregnancy with Joan, she says to you, “It just can’t be, I’m too old. I’m not sure my husband and I want a baby now.” Your best response is A. “Was this pregnancy planned?” B. “Would you like to talk to the social worker?” C. “You are having a normal reaction. Let’s talk about being pregnant.” D. “I understand. Would you like the number of counseling clinic?” Joan is a candidate for prenatal diagnosis by amniocentesis because of her age. 57. Amniocentesis would NOT be performed on Joan if she  A. Were carrying twins B. Would not consider an elective abortion C. Were a Ashkenazic Jew D. Had a family history of genetic disorders 58. Joan needs diet counseling for her pregnancy. She says she does not want to gain too much weight because her husband, Al, likes her thin. Your best response is A. “It’s best for the baby is you don’t try to stay too thin” B. “If you are careful about the foods you eat, especially those high in calories, you will not gain too much” C. “Let’s talk about the importance of good nutrition and weight gain in pregnancy” D. “Why don’t you have Al come to the clinic next time, and we can all talk about nutrition” 59. At her visit to the clinic, Joan tells you her 10-year old son has begun to ask questions about the pregnancy. She is afraid he’s going to ask her “where the baby comes from” and she asks you what to say. Your best response is A. “Ignore it and gently change the subject.” B. “Talk with Al so that he can discuss it with the boy” C. “Give him a simple explanation of the facts of reproduction” D. “Redirect the question to him to find out what he specifically wants to know” Situation B: Estelle Corwin comes to your prenatal clinic. She has a history of mild diabetes and has had numerous female cousins and aunts who were diabetic and who have been pregnant. Ms. Corwin has to date been controlled by insulin. 60. She asks you what will happen to her insulin requirements during her pregnancy. Your best response is A. “Because your case is so mild, you are not likely to need much insulin during your pregnancy.” B. “As the pregnancy progresses to term, you will need increased insulin” C. “Every case is individual so there’s really no way to say” D. “If you follow the diet well and don’t gain too much weight, your insulin needs should stay about the same” 61. The stage of a woman’s pregnancy when it is difficult to control diabetes is A. Early in the pregnancy B. Early in the postpartum period C. During the delivery process D. During labor 62. A woman presents to the clinic because she missed her last menstrual period and thinks she may be pregnant. She reports fatigue, breast tenderness, urinary frequency, and nausea and vomiting in the morning. The healthcare provider will interpret these findings as which of the following changes of pregnancy? A. Positive B. Probable C. Presumptive D. Possible 63. A woman with a history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) presents to the urgent care clinic with a report of dizziness, sharp abdominal pain, and scant dark red vaginal discharge. She has missed two menstrual periods and thinks she might be pregnant. A pregnancy test confirms her pregnancy. These assessment findings indicate the woman is experiencing which of the following problems? A. Placenta previa B. Gestational trophoblastic disease C. Placenta abruption D. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy 64. A nurse in the hospital is caring for a patient who suspects she is pregnant. Which of the following signs of pregnancy would be considered presumptive? A. abdominal enlargement B. fetal heart sounds C. positive pregnancy test D. Amenorrhea 65. A nurse is caring for a patient who wants to know when the best time to take an accurate home pregnancy test is. The nurse correctly replies by saying:  A. right away when you wake up in the morning B. drink lots of water and then a hour later take the test C. right before going to bed D. it does not matter when you take it, it is always accurate 66. What does the blastocyst become after implantation and before 8 weeks of development? A) Zygote B) Embryo C) Fetus D) Placenta 67. A nurse is caring for a client at a prenatal clinic. She is experiencing episode of hypotension. The client asks the nurse what could be causing these episodes. which of the following responses by the nurse is MOST correct? A. this is due to an increase in blood volume B. this is due to pressure from the uterus on the diaphragm C. this is due to the weight of the uterus on the vena cava D. this is due to the increased cardiac output 68. A nurse is caring for patient in her third trimester. She comes into the clinic complaining of shortness of breath. The nurse knows that this is not unusual due to. A. increased blood volume due to pregnancy demand B. increased cardiac output due to increased blood volume C. increased body weight due to the enlarged uterus D. increased pressure on the diaphragm due to enlarged uterus 69. A client comes into the clinic with a dark pigmented line extending from the pubic area to the umbilicus. The nurse knows that this is a normal skin change in a pregnant women called: A. chloasma B. striae gravidarum C. linea nigra D. ballottement 70. The nurse is reviewing the assessment findings of a patient who is 35 weeks' gestation. Which of the following data suggests the need for further investigation? A. Melasma gravidarum B. Pseudoanemia C. Funic souffle D. Glycosuria 71. The patient in the prenatal clinic tells the nurse that she is sure that she is pregnant because she has not had a menstrual cycle for three months, and her breasts are getting bigger. What response by the nurse is best? A. "Lack of menses and breast enlargement are presumptive signs of pregnancy." B. "The changes you are describing are definitely indicators that you are pregnant." C. "Lack of menses can be caused by many things. We need to do a pregnancy test." D. "Breast and menstrual changes are positive signs of pregnancy. Congratulations." 72. The nurse has completed a presentation for newly-pregnant women about the changes of pregnancy. Which participant's statement reflects accurate comprehension of the information? A. "A positive Goodell's sign is a probable change of pregnancy." B. "Three positive pregnancy tests in a one-week period is considered to be a positive change of pregnancy." C. "Uterine souffle is a positive change of pregnancy." D. "Changes in the pelvic organs are presumptive signs of pregnancy." 73. A patient who is experiencing her first pregnancy has just completed the initial prenatal examination with a certified nurse-midwife. Which statement indicates that the patient has a correct understanding of her condition? A. "Because we heard the baby's heartbeat, I am undoubtedly pregnant." B. "Since I haven't felt the baby move yet, we don't know if I'm pregnant."  C. "My last period was two months ago, which means I'm two months along." D. "The increased size of my uterus means that I am finally pregnant." 74. Which of the following tasks is the most important task of the first trimester of pregnancy? A. Accepting the pregnancy B. Accepting a coming child C. Making plans for the baby D. Sharing time with a significant other 75. Blood volume normally increases during pregnancy. The extent of this increase is what percentage of pre -pregnancy volume? A. 1% to 10% B. 20% to 30% C. 30% to 50% D. 70% to 90% 76. Which of the following assessments of the pregnant woman indicates a danger sign? A. An increase in urinary output B. Blood pressure reading is 140/90 mm Hg C. Dependent edema is 1+ D. The patient complains of headache and blurred vision 77. A woman during her first trimester questions how much longer she will have urinary frequency. Which should the nurse advise her regarding urinary frequency? A. It is a common complaint during the first trimester and again later in the third trimester. B. It is a common concern reported during the entire pregnancy. C. It will subside after the first trimester. D. It is a concern until the last trimester of pregnancy. 78. Which of the following assessment data is a most accurate indication that a woman is pregnant? A. A positive pregnancy test B. Presence of fetal heartbeat C. Absence of menstruation D. Quickening 79. The nurse performs an assessment of a primigravida who is on her second trimester. Which of the following findings should be reported by the nurse to the physician? A. Consistent increase in fundal height B. Braxton Hicks contractions C. Fetal heart rate of 180 bpm D. Bluish discoloration of the mucous membranes of the vagina, vulva and the cervix 80. What is an essential skill for a nurse involved in genetic counseling? A. Phlebotomy B. Physical therapy techniques C. Active listening D. Radiological interpretation 81. What is the primary goal of genetic counselling. A. To perform genetic testing on patients. B. To cure genetic disorders. C. To educate patients about genetic risks and options. D. To conduct genetic research studies. 82. Refers to a person’s actual genetic composition: A. Genotype B. Phenotype C. Genome D. Karyotype 83. A type of disorder that has the ability to be passed from one generation to another: A. Lifestyle Disorder B. Degenerative Disorder C. Idiopathic Disorder D. Genetic Disorder 84. Which chromosomal abnormality causes Down syndrome? A. Trisomy 18 B. Trisomy 21  C. Monosomy X D. Trisomy 13 85. Which term describes a chromosomal abnormality involving the loss of a portion of a chromosome? A. Aneuploidy B. Trisomy C. Deletion D. Translocation 86. A disease that occur when 2 genes for the disease is present or is termed as homozygous recessive pattern: A. Autosomal Dominant B. Autosomal Recessive C. X-linked Dominant Inheritance D. X-linked Resessive Inheritance 87. What is the primary purpose of karyotyping? A. To determine an individual's blood type. B. To analyze the structure and number of chromosomes in a cell. C. To identify specific genes responsible for traits. D. To diagnose bacterial infections. 88. How many chromosomes are typically found in a human somatic cell? A. 23 chromosomes B. 46 chromosomes C. 22 chromosomes D. 44 chromosomes 89.Which method is typically used by mothers at home to monitor fetal well-being by counting fetal movements? A. Non-Stress Test (NST) B. Biophysical Profile (BPP) C. Kick Counts D. Doppler Flow Studies 90. What is the purpose of fetal movement counting, also known as "kick counting"3. a) To assess fetal well-being b) To determine fetal sex c) To measure fetal growth rate d) To induce labor 91. When assessing fetal well-being, which of the following assessments should a nurse prioritize? a) Maternal blood pressure readings b) Fetal movement counts c) Maternal weight gain d) Maternal dietary habits 92. What is the main purpose of a Non-Stress Test (NST)? A) To induce labor B) To monitor fetal heart rate in response to contractions C) To assess fetal heart rate in response to fetal movements D) To measure amniotic fluid volume 93. What does a Biophysical Profile (BPP) include? A) NST, fetal breathing movements, fetal movement, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume B) NST, Doppler flow studies, amniotic fluid volume, fetal heart rate monitoring C) Fetal breathing movements, amniotic fluid volume, maternal serum screening, NST  D) Fetal movement, Doppler flow studies, amniocentesis, NST 94. Which diagnostic test involves sampling amniotic fluid for genetic testing? A) Ultrasound B) Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS) C) Maternal Serum Screening D) Amniocentesis 95. What is a primary nursing responsibility before performing an invasive procedure like amniocentesis to assess fetal development? A) Administering antibiotics prophylactically B) Ensuring the patient has fasted for 12 hours C) Obtaining informed consent from the patient D) Performing a Non-Stress Test (NST) immediately before the procedure 96. What is the primary purpose of the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) examination during pregnancy? A) To determine fetal gender B) To assess fetal lung maturity C) To screen for neural tube defects and chromosomal abnormalities D) To measure amniotic fluid volume 97. What does placental grading assess during an ultrasound examination? A) The risk of preterm labor B) The position of the fetus C) The maturity and aging of the placenta D) The amount of amniotic fluid 98. Which approach is most effective for healthcare providers to assess and understand a patient's cultural values? A) Assuming all patients from a specific culture share the same values and beliefs. B) Using a standardized checklist of cultural practices. C) Asking open-ended questions about the patient's health beliefs and practices. D) Relying solely on their own cultural background and experiences. 99. What is the primary purpose of measuring fundal height during prenatal visits? a) To assess maternal weight gain b) To estimate fetal age c) To monitor fetal growth d) To determine fetal position 100. Which of the following is an example of discrimination? A) Believing that all teenagers are irresponsible. B) Feeling uneasy around people from a different culture.  C) Refusing to rent an apartment to someone because of their ethnicity. D) Assuming that all elderly people need help with technology. “Self-belief and hard work will always earn you success.”