NUMS Guess Paper 2024 PDF

Summary

This NUMS Guess Paper 2024 provides practice multiple-choice questions (MCQs) to prepare for the upcoming exam. The paper focuses on various science concepts and includes detailed explanations for each question. It's a useful resource for students reviewing key scientific topics.

Full Transcript

NUMS GUESS PAPER 2024 (NOTE) DR AQIB 2024 NUMS GUESS PAPER 2024 CONSISTS...

NUMS GUESS PAPER 2024 (NOTE) DR AQIB 2024 NUMS GUESS PAPER 2024 CONSISTS OF MCQS WHICH ARE COLLECTED FROM ANALYSING PAST PAPERS STUDYING PATTERNS AND FROM MOST REPEATED CONCEPTS.WE ARE AIMING TO HIT MORE THAN 60 MCQS THIS YEAR AS PER LAST YEAR WE HIT 42 STRAIGHT/EXACT HITS IN PAPER,REGARDS DR AQIB BY DR AQIB @MDCATASPIRANTSS VERSION 1. Which enzyme is released in your gut when you eat a loaf of bread? A) Amylase B) Lactase C) Cellulase D) Lipase Correct Answer: A Explanation: Amylase is the enzyme that breaks down carbohydrates like those found in bread into simpler sugars. 2. Which one of the following will be covalent? A) NaCl B) KCl C) MgCl₂ D) AlCl₃ Correct Answer: D Explanation: AlCl₃ (Aluminum chloride) is predominantly covalent due to the high polarization of the aluminum ion. 3. Freshwater ecosystem covers: A) 2% B) 1% C) 3% D) 5% Correct Answer: B Explanation: Freshwater ecosystems, such as lakes, rivers, and streams, make up about 1% of the Earth's surface. 4. Rate of change of velocity is called: A) Work B) Acceleration C) Force D) Power Correct Answer: B Explanation: Acceleration is defined as the rate at which the velocity of an object changes with time. DR AQIB 2024 5. Which hormone regulates the spermatogenesis process? A) Testosterone B) Inhibin C) FSH D) LH Correct Answer: A Explanation: Testosterone is crucial in the regulation of spermatogenesis, supporting sperm production in the testes. 6. The heat produced by a current I in a wire of resistance R during time interval t is given by: A) I²/Rt B) I²Rt C) I²/R/t D) IR²t Correct Answer: B Explanation: The heat produced (Joule's law) in a resistor is proportional to the square of the current, resistance, and time. 7. Which of the following is polar? A) CO₂ B) HCl C) CCl₄ D) AlCl₃ Correct Answer: B Explanation: HCl (hydrogen chloride) is a polar molecule due to the significant electronegativity difference between hydrogen and chlorine. 8. What is the end of a chromosome called? A) Telomere B) Kinetochore C) Centromere D) Monomer Correct Answer: A Explanation: Telomeres are the protective end caps of chromosomes that prevent the loss of genetic information during cell division. 9. Which part of the brain controls body temperature? A) Pons B) Hypothalamus C) Cerebellum DR AQIB 2024 D) Medulla Correct Answer: B Explanation: The hypothalamus is responsible for regulating body temperature, hunger, and thirst, among other functions. 10. Foul smell in a lake is produced by: A) Algae B) Bacteria C) Fungi D) All of these Correct Answer: D Explanation: Algae, bacteria, and fungi can all contribute to the decomposition of organic material in a lake, producing foul odors. 11. The human body contains what percentage of water? A) 6080% B) 7090% C) 7595% D) 8090% Correct Answer: B Explanation: The human body is composed of approximately 7090% water, varying slightly based on age and body composition. 12. Which part of the nerve cell is a long extension? A) Axon B) Dendrite C) Schwann cell D) Auxin Correct Answer: A Explanation: The axon is the long, threadlike part of a nerve cell along which impulses are conducted. 13. When speed is doubled, kinetic energy will be: A) ½mv² B) 4mv² C) mv² D) 2mv² Correct Answer: D Explanation: Kinetic energy is proportional to the square of velocity; therefore, doubling the speed quadruples the kinetic energy. DR AQIB 2024 14. The minimum velocity required to send a satellite into space is called: A) Terminal velocity B) Critical velocity C) Escape velocity D) Minimum velocity Correct Answer: C Explanation: Escape velocity is the minimum speed that an object needs to escape the gravitational pull of a celestial body. 15. Which one of the following is an anhydride of sulfuric acid? A) Sulfur(II) oxide B) Sulfur(VI) oxide C) Iron pyrite D) Sulfur(VI) oxide Correct Answer: D Explanation: Sulfur(VI) oxide (SO₃) is the anhydride of sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄). 16. During the contact process of H₂SO₄ synthesis, which step increases the yield of SO₃? A) Temperature is raised to a very high degree B) SO₃ formed is removed very quickly C) Both temperature and pressure are kept very low D) An excess of air is used to drive the equilibrium to the right side Correct Answer: D Explanation: Using excess air drives the equilibrium towards the formation of more SO₃, enhancing yield. 17. The horizontal distance covered by a wave per second is known as: A) Wavelength B) Frequency C) Time period D) Amplitude Correct Answer: A Explanation: Wavelength is the distance between successive crests of a wave, especially points in a sound wave or electromagnetic wave. 18. Which of the following has a high rate of vaporization? A) Water B) Acetone C) Ethylene glycol DR AQIB 2024 D) Mercury Correct Answer: C Explanation: Ethylene glycol has a higher rate of vaporization compared to water due to its lower boiling point. 19. Synthesis of ammonia by the Haber process is a reversible reaction. What should be done to increase the yield of ammonia? A) Pressure should be decreased B) Ammonia should remain in the reaction mixture C) Pressure should be increased D) Concentration of nitrogen should be decreased Correct Answer: C Explanation: Increasing pressure favors the formation of ammonia, as the reaction produces fewer moles of gas. 20. What is the condition to prevent a gas from expanding? A) Temperature and pressure both increase B) Temperature increases and pressure decreases C) Temperature decreases and pressure increases D) Both temperature and pressure decrease Correct Answer: C Explanation: Decreasing temperature and increasing pressure will reduce the kinetic energy of gas particles, limiting expansion. 21. Which of the following contain covalent bonds? A) NaCl B) KCl C) MgCl₂ D) AlCl₃ Correct Answer: D Explanation: AlCl₃ exhibits covalent bonding due to the polarization of the aluminum cation and chloride anions. 22. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate? A) Glucose B) Sucrose C) Rhamnose D) Lactic acid Correct Answer: D Explanation: Lactic acid is not a carbohydrate; it is an organic acid. The others are carbohydrates. 23. Two buses moving at 100 km/h and 80 km/h in opposite directions cross each other. The relative speed of one bus with respect to the other is: DR AQIB 2024 A) 80 km/h B) 100 km/h C) 20 km/h D) 180 km/h Correct Answer: D Explanation: When two objects move in opposite directions, their relative speed is the sum of their speeds (100 + 80 = 180 km/h). 24. Foul smell in a lake is produced by: A) Algae B) Bacteria C) Fungi D) All of these Correct Answer: D Explanation: Algae, bacteria, and fungi all contribute to foul odors through the decomposition of organic matter in the lake. 25. Which quantum number tells about the shape of the orbital? A) N B) L C) M D) S Correct Answer: B Explanation: The azimuthal quantum number (L) describes the shape of the orbital (e.g., s, p, d, f). 26. Which part of the brain controls body temperature? A) Pons B) Hypothalamus C) Cerebellum D) Medulla Correct Answer: B Explanation: The hypothalamus is responsible for regulating body temperature as part of the autonomic nervous system. 27. In RNA, nucleotides are attached by: A) Peptide bonds B) Hydrogen bonds C) Covalent bonds D) Phosphodiester bonds Correct Answer: D Explanation: In RNA, nucleotides are linked by phosphodiester bonds, forming the backbone of the RNA strand. 28. Skeletal formula of an organic compound is given below. It is a hydrocarbon. The IUPAC DR AQIB 2024 name of the compound is: A) 3,3dimethyl3hexene B) 3,4dimethyl3hexene C) 3hexene D) 2,3dimethyl1hexene Correct Answer: B Explanation: The IUPAC name of the compound is 3,4dimethyl3hexene, indicating the positions of the double bond and methyl groups. 29. Which of the following is polar? A) CO₂ B) HCl C) CCl₄ D) AlCl₃ Correct Answer: B Explanation: HCl is polar because of the difference in electronegativity between hydrogen and chlorine, leading to a dipole moment. 30. What is the condition to prevent gas from expanding? A) Temperature and pressure both increase B) Temperature increases and pressure decreases C) Temperature decreases and pressure increases D) Both temperature and pressure decrease Correct Answer: C Explanation: Decreasing temperature and increasing pressure reduce the kinetic energy of gas molecules, limiting their expansion. 31. What is the ratio of retarding force to speed for a spherical object moving through a fluid? A) 6πη r² B) 6πη/r² C) 6πη r D) 6πη/r Correct Answer: B Explanation: The ratio of retarding force to speed for a sphere moving through a fluid is given by the formula 6πη/r², according to Stokes' law. 32. The chromosome is composed of: A) Gene B) Genes + protein DR AQIB 2024 C) DNA + genes D) Gene + protein Correct Answer: B Explanation: Chromosomes are made up of DNA and associated proteins, including histones, which help package the DNA. 33. The angle at which height (H) is equal to range (R) for a projectile is: A) 45° B) 0° C) 76° D) 90° Correct Answer: C Explanation: At an angle of approximately 76°, the height and range of a projectile can be equal depending on the initial velocity and gravity. 34. Which quantum number tells about the shape of the orbital? A) N B) L C) M D) S Correct Answer: B Explanation: The azimuthal quantum number (L) defines the shape of the orbital, such as s (spherical), p (dumbbell), etc. 35. Distance between neurons in synapse is called: A) Synaptic cleft B) Synaptic vesicle C) Knob D) Synaptic delay Correct Answer: A Explanation: The synaptic cleft is the small gap between two neurons where neurotransmitters are released. 36. Which of the following have covalent bonds? A) NaCl B) KCl C) MgCl₂ D) AlCl₃ Correct Answer: D Explanation: AlCl₃ has covalent characteristics due to the polarization of its bonds. DR AQIB 2024 37. Which part of the brain controls body temperature? A) Pons B) Hypothalamus C) Cerebellum D) Medulla Correct Answer: B Explanation: The hypothalamus is the control center for body temperature regulation. 38. Which part of the nerve cell is a long extension? A) Axon B) Dendrite C) Schwann cell D) Auxin Correct Answer: A Explanation: The axon transmits electrical signals from the cell body to other neurons or muscles. 39. Radian is a unit of angular displacement that can also be measured in degrees. How many radians are equal to one degree? A) 180/π B) π/180 C) 2π/180 D) π/57.3 Correct Answer: B Explanation: One degree is equal to π/180 radians. 40. When speed is doubled, kinetic energy will be: A) ½mv² B) 4mv² C) mv² D) 2mv² Correct Answer: D Explanation: Kinetic energy is proportional to the square of velocity, so doubling the speed quadruples the kinetic energy. 41. Force × velocity is the formula of: A) Work B) Power C) Acceleration DR AQIB 2024 D) Impulse Correct Answer: B Explanation: Power is defined as the rate of doing work, which is calculated as force multiplied by velocity. 42. The yellow light of wavelength 500 nm emitted by a single source passes through two narrow slits 1 mm apart. How far apart are two adjacent bright fringes when interference is observed on a screen 10 m away? A) 5 mm B) 1.33 mm C) 0.5 mm D) 50 mm Correct Answer: A Explanation: Using the formula for interference patterns, the distance between fringes is 5 mm. 43. The number of protons in ²³Na₁₁ is: A) 10 B) 11 C) 12 D) 23 Correct Answer: B Explanation: Sodium (Na) has an atomic number of 11, indicating it has 11 protons. 44. Other than nucleus division, chromosomes are in a loose coil form called: A) Chromatin B) Satellite C) Genes D) DNA Correct Answer: A Explanation: Chromatin is the relaxed form of chromosomes, allowing gene expression and replication. 45. Which of the following has the highest rate of vaporization? A) Water B) Acetone C) Ethylene glycol D) Mercury Correct Answer: C Explanation: Ethylene glycol vaporizes quickly due to its chemical structure, which is less polar than DR AQIB 2024 water. 46. Which of the following hormones regulate the spermatogenesis process? A) Testosterone B) Inhibin C) FSH D) LH Correct Answer: A Explanation: Testosterone is essential for the development of sperm in the testes. 47. The minimum velocity required to send a satellite into space is called: A) Terminal velocity B) Critical velocity C) Escape velocity D) Minimum velocity Correct Answer: C Explanation: Escape velocity is the speed necessary to break free from a celestial body's gravitational pull. 48. Which of the following have covalent bonds? A) NaCl B) KCl C) MgCl₂ D) AlCl₃ Correct Answer: D Explanation: AlCl₃ has significant covalent character due to the high polarization of the Al³⁺ ion. 49. Rate of change of velocity is called: A) Work B) Acceleration C) Force D) Power Correct Answer: B Explanation: Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity per unit time. DR AQIB 2024 50. Synthesis of ammonia by the Haber process is a reversible reaction. What should be done to increase the yield of ammonia? A) Pressure should be decreased B) Ammonia should remain in the reaction mixture C) Pressure should be increased D) Concentration of nitrogen should be decreased Correct Answer: C Explanation: High pressure favors the formation of ammonia in the Haber process. 51. What is the condition to prevent a gas from expanding? A) Temperature and pressure both increase B) Temperature increases and pressure decreases C) Temperature decreases and pressure increases D) Both temperature and pressure decrease Correct Answer: C Explanation: Lowering temperature and increasing pressure decrease the gas volume. 52. Freshwater ecosystem covers: A) 2% B) 1% C) 3% D) 5% Correct Answer: B Explanation: Freshwater ecosystems cover about 1% of the Earth's surface. 53. Foul smell in a lake is produced by: A) Algae B) Bacteria C) Fungi D) All of these Correct Answer: D Explanation: The decomposition of organic matter by algae, bacteria, and fungi causes foul odors. 54. What is the end of a chromosome called? A) Telomere B) Kinetochore C) Centromere D) Monomer DR AQIB 2024 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Telomeres are the protective ends of chromosomes that prevent deterioration. 55. Which of the following contain covalent bonds? A) NaCl B) KCl C) MgCl₂ D) AlCl₃ Correct Answer: D Explanation: AlCl₃ has covalent characteristics due to the high polarization of the aluminum ion. 56. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate? A) Glucose B) Sucrose C) Rhamnose D) Lactic acid Correct Answer: D Explanation: Lactic acid is not a carbohydrate; it's an organic acid. 57. Which enzyme is released in your gut when you eat a loaf of bread? A) Amylase B) Lactase C) Cellulase D) Lipase Correct Answer: A Explanation: Amylase breaks down carbohydrates in bread into simpler sugars. 58. Which hormone regulates the spermatogenesis process? A) Testosterone B) Inhibin C) FSH D) LH Correct Answer: A Explanation: Testosterone is essential for the regulation of spermatogenesis. 59. Which of the following have the highest rate of vaporization? DR AQIB 2024 A) Water B) Acetone C) Ethylene glycol D) Mercury Correct Answer: C Explanation: Ethylene glycol vaporizes more quickly than water due to its lower boiling point. 60. The horizontal distance covered by a wave per second is known as: A) Wavelength B) Frequency C) Time period D) Amplitude Correct Answer: A Explanation: Wavelength is the distance between two successive crests of a wave. 61. What is the percentage composition of carbon and oxygen? Options: A) 0.5 B) 1.5 C) 0.25 D) 1.00 Correct Answer: A Explanation: The question asks about the specific percentage composition related to a compound involving carbon and oxygen. This concept is often related to stoichiometry in chemistry. 62. Vasopressin is an example of: Options: A) Steroid hormone B) Catecholamine C) Peptide hormone D) Glycoprotein Correct Answer: C Explanation: Vasopressin is a peptide hormone produced by the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary gland. It plays a key role in water retention in the kidneys. 63. The feelings and emotions of love and hate are controlled by: Options: A) Amygdalae B) Hippocampus DR AQIB 2024 C) Thalamus D) Hypothalamus Correct Answer: A Explanation: The amygdala is a part of the brain responsible for processing emotions, such as fear, anger, and pleasure. 64. Which axon would transmit an action potential most rapidly? Options: A) 1 mm diameter neuron lacking myelin B) 1 mm diameter neuron with myelin C) 2 mm diameter neuron lacking myelin D) 2 mm diameter neuron with myelin Correct Answer: D Explanation: Larger diameter and myelinated neurons conduct action potentials faster due to saltatory conduction. 65. The end of the chromosome is called? Options: A) Kinetochore B) Primary constriction C) Telomere D) Satellite Correct Answer: C Explanation: Telomeres are the protective ends of chromosomes that prevent degradation during DNA replication. 66. The dissolved solute is in equilibrium with undissolved solute. What is the solution? Options: A) Dilute B) Saturated C) Unsaturated D) Supersaturated Correct Answer: B Explanation: A saturated solution is when the maximum amount of solute is dissolved in a solvent at a given temperature, and any additional solute will not dissolve. 67. Device that stores electrical potential energy: Options: A) Capacitor B) Inductor C) Generator D) Diode Correct Answer: A DR AQIB 2024 Explanation: A capacitor is an electronic component that stores energy in an electric field. 68. Coordination in plants is by: Options: A) Nervous system B) Enzymes C) Hormones D) Roots Correct Answer: C Explanation: In plants, hormones regulate growth and response to stimuli, serving a similar function to the nervous system in animals. 69. Posterior lobe of the pituitary gland produces: Options: A) Oxytocin B) Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) C) AdrenoCorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) D) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) Correct Answer: A Explanation: The posterior pituitary gland stores and releases oxytocin, a hormone involved in childbirth and lactation. 70. The heart is enclosed in a membrane called: Options: A) Pleura B) Pericardium C) Peritoneum D) Epithelium Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pericardium is a doublewalled sac that contains the heart and the roots of the major vessels. 71. Which function is NOT controlled by the hypothalamus? Options: A) Regulate hunger B) Regulate sleep C) Regulate water balance D) Storing longtime memories Correct Answer: D Explanation: The hypothalamus regulates various autonomic functions, but longterm memory storage is primarily managed by the hippocampus. DR AQIB 2024 72. Which of the following is used to convert AC into DC? Options: A) Diode B) Transistor C) Inductor D) Capacitor Correct Answer: A Explanation: A diode allows current to flow in one direction only, making it essential in converting alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC). 73. Which one is abundant in lymph? Options: A) Oxygen B) Lipids C) Water D) Proteins Correct Answer: D Explanation: Lymph is rich in proteins and plays a vital role in the immune system, transporting proteins and other substances throughout the body. 74. Negative feedback mechanism is a characteristic of which class? Options: (OUT OF SYLLABUS SKIP IF YOU WANT TO) A) Class Fish B) Class Amphibia C) Class Reptilia D) Class Mammalia Correct Answer: D Explanation: Negative feedback is a process where the body maintains homeostasis, common in mammals. 75. The horizontal distance traveled by a wave in one complete cycle is called: Options: A) Frequency B) Wavelength C) Amplitude D) Trough Correct Answer: B Explanation: Wavelength is the distance between consecutive points of a wave, such as from peak to peak. DR AQIB 2024 76. Range is maximum at which angle? Options: A) 45 degrees B) 90 degrees C) 76 degrees D) 45 degrees Correct Answer: A Explanation: For projectile motion, the range is maximum at a 45degree angle due to the optimal balance between vertical and horizontal velocity components. 77. What regulates heartbeat? Options: A) SA node B) AV bundle C) Purkinje fiber D) Bundle of His Correct Answer: A Explanation: The sinoatrial (SA) node, known as the heart's natural pacemaker, initiates the electrical impulses that regulate the heartbeat. 78. During the menstrual cycle, after ovulation, when the female gamete is transferred to the oviduct, the remaining follicle produces: Options: A) Progesterone B) LH C) FSH D) Estrogen Correct Answer: A Explanation: After ovulation, the corpus luteum (remaining follicle) produces progesterone, which is essential for maintaining pregnancy. 79. The explosion of explosive material is an example of: Options: A) Law of conservation of energy B) Law of conservation of momentum C) Conservation of charge D) Conservation of mass Correct Answer: B Explanation: During an explosion, momentum is conserved, but energy is transformed, often into kinetic energy, sound, and heat. 80. The simplest fatty acid is: Options: DR AQIB 2024 A) Palmitic acid B) Butyric acid C) Oleic acid D) Acetic acid Correct Answer: D Explanation: Acetic acid (CH3COOH) is the simplest fatty acid, containing just two carbon atoms. 81. ATP synthase is located in which organelle? Options: A) Mitochondria B) Lysosomes C) Golgi complex D) Chloroplast Correct Answer: A Explanation: ATP synthase is an enzyme located in the mitochondria, where it synthesizes ATP during cellular respiration. 82. Cervix is a part of: Options: A) Uterus B) Vagina C) Uterine tube D) Ovary Correct Answer: A Explanation: The cervix is the lower part of the uterus, connecting it to the vagina. 83. Reduction takes place at: Options: A) Cathode B) Anode C) SHE Correct Answer: A Explanation: In electrochemical cells, reduction occurs at the cathode, where electrons are gained by the species. 84. Which of the following is not a function of the large intestine? Options: A) Production of vitamins B) Absorption of electrolytes C) Absorption of amino acids Correct Answer: C Explanation: The large intestine primarily absorbs water and electrolytes; amino acids are absorbed in the small intestine. DR AQIB 2024 85. Intracellular digestion of food is done by the organelle: Options: A) Vacuole B) Lysosome C) Golgi apparatus D) Ribosome Correct Answer: B Explanation: Lysosomes contain enzymes that digest cellular waste and foreign material inside the cell. 86. The standard hydrogen potential is taken arbitrarily as: Options: A) 10 B) +1 C) 1 D) Zero Correct Answer: D Explanation: The standard hydrogen electrode (SHE) is assigned a potential of zero volts, serving as a reference for measuring electrode potentials. 87. Lucas test is used to distinguish between? Options: A) Alcohol B) Alkane C) Alkene D) Aldehydes Correct Answer: A Explanation: The Lucas test differentiates between primary, secondary, and tertiary alcohols based on their reactivity with hydrochloric acid and zinc chloride. 88. Which organelle is abundant in secretory cells? Options: A) Golgi apparatus B) Lysosome C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Mitochondria Correct Answer: A Explanation: The Golgi apparatus is involved in modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins for secretion, making it abundant in secretory cells. 89. The heat capacity of water is: DR AQIB 2024 Options: A) 4.18 B) 6.08 C) 7.06 D) 8.60 Correct Answer: A Explanation: The specific heat capacity of water is 4.18 J/g°C, meaning it requires 4.18 joules of energy to raise the temperature of one gram of water by one degree Celsius. 90. Male reproductive part of the flower is: Options: (OUT OF SYLLABUS SKIP IF YOU WANT TO) A) Stigma B) Stamen C) Carpel D) Ovule Correct Answer: B Explanation: The stamen is the male reproductive part of a flower, consisting of the anther and filament. 91. What is formed in the nucleolus? Options: A) mRNA B) Ribosomes C) Proteins Correct Answer: B Explanation: The nucleolus is the site of ribosome synthesis within the nucleus. 92. Which of the following has the highest rate of evaporation? Options: A) Acetone B) Ethanol C) Water D) Ethylene glycol Correct Answer: D Explanation: Among the options, ethylene glycol has the highest rate of evaporation due to its lower boiling point and molecular structure. 93. The microscopic gap between the two neurons is called: Options: A) Synapsis B) Synapse C) Collapse D) Synaptic knob Correct Answer: B DR AQIB 2024 Explanation: A synapse is the small gap between neurons through which neurotransmitters are transmitted to pass signals. 94. Which of the following is TRUE about Amoebae? Options: A) They have flagella B) They are multicellular C) They do not cause any disease in humans D) They move by forming specialized cytoplasmic projections called pseudopodia Correct Answer: D Explanation: Amoebae are singlecelled organisms that move using pseudopodia, which are temporary projections of the cell membrane. 95. In neurons, the message is transmitted across the synapse in the form of a chemical messenger called: Options: A) Communication B) Neurotransmitter C) Nerve impulse D) Noci receptors Correct Answer: B Explanation: Neurotransmitters are chemicals that transmit signals across a synapse from one neuron to another. 96. What is the solubility of alkaline earth metals down the group? Options: A) Decreases down the group B) Increases down the group C) Remains the same D) First increases, then decreases Correct Answer: B Explanation: The solubility of alkaline earth metal compounds generally increases as you move down the group in the periodic table. 97. Degenerate orbitals are filled by which rule? Options: A) Aufbau principle B) Hund's rule C) Pauli principle Correct Answer: B Explanation: Hund's rule states that electrons occupy degenerate orbitals singly before pairing, minimizing electronelectron repulsions. DR AQIB 2024 99. Jaws without teeth are found in: Options: (OUT OF SYLLABUS SKIP IF YOU WANT TO) A) Birds B) Reptiles C) Fish D) None of these Correct Answer: A Explanation: Birds have beaks instead of teeth, an adaptation that suits their feeding habits. 100. Pancreatic lipase operates in: Options: A) Alkaline pH B) Acidic pH C) Neutral pH Correct Answer: A Explanation: Pancreatic lipase functions in an alkaline environment, typically found in the small intestine, where it breaks down fats. 101. Which hormone regulates the production of gametes in the testis? Options: A) FSH B) ICSH C) Inhibin D) Testosterone Correct Answer: D Explanation: Testosterone regulates sperm production and the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. 102. Which of the following is a steroid hormone? Options: A) Cortisone B) Aldosterone C) Insulin Correct Answer: B Explanation: Aldosterone is a steroid hormone produced by the adrenal glands, involved in regulating blood pressure and water balance. 103. What is the principle of transformers? Options: A) Mutual inductance B) Selfinductance DR AQIB 2024 C) Halfwave rectification D) Fullwave rectification Correct Answer: A Explanation: Transformers operate on the principle of mutual inductance, where a change in current in one coil induces a voltage in another coil. 104. In Fleming's righthand rule, the thumb indicates: Options: A) Magnetic field B) Electric field C) Induced current D) Force Correct Answer: D Explanation: Fleming's righthand rule is used to determine the direction of force in a conductor moving in a magnetic field. The thumb indicates the direction of force. 105. Number of moles of CO2 that has 16 g of oxygen: Options: A) 0.5 B) 1.5 C) 0.25 D) 1.00 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Using molar mass calculations, 16 g of oxygen corresponds to 0.5 moles of CO2. 106. Which hormone is responsible for regulating spermatogenesis at a normal rate? Options: A) LH B) FSH C) Testosterone D) Inhibin Correct Answer: C Explanation: Testosterone is the primary hormone that regulates spermatogenesis and male reproductive functions. 107. Which hormone is secreted by endocrine glands and regulates digestion in gastric juice? Options: A) Chief cells B) Oxyntic cells C) Endocrine glands Correct Answer: C Explanation: Endocrine glands, such as the stomach's G cells, secrete hormones like gastrin, which stimulates the production of gastric acid. DR AQIB 2024 108. In a reflex arc, the cell body of sensory neurons is located in: Options: A) Ventral root ganglion B) Grey matter of the spinal cord C) White matter of the spinal cord D) Dorsal root ganglion Correct Answer: D Explanation: Sensory neuron cell bodies are found in the dorsal root ganglion, which lies outside the spinal cord. 109. What is the principle behind Lenz's law? Options: A) Conservation of energy B) Conservation of momentum C) Conservation of charge D) Conservation of mass Correct Answer: A Explanation: Lenz's law states that the direction of induced current will oppose the change in magnetic flux, adhering to the conservation of energy principle. 110. In a nuclear division, what are chromosomes called when they are loosely coiled? Options: A) Chromatin B) DNA C) Genes D) Ribosomes Correct Answer: A Explanation: Chromatin is the loosely coiled form of DNA found in the nucleus during interphase, allowing for transcription and replication. 111. Kentones are distinguished by which test? Options: A) Tollen’s test B) Fehling’s test C) Sodium nitroprusside test D) Benedict’s test Correct Answer: C Explanation: The sodium nitroprusside test specifically reacts with ketones to form a purplecolored complex, distinguishing them from other compounds. DR AQIB 2024 112. Jaws without teeth are found in: Options: (OUT OF SYLLABUS SKIP IF YOU WANT TO A) Birds B) Reptiles C) Fish D) None of these Correct Answer: A Explanation: Birds lack teeth and have beaks instead, adapted for different feeding habits. 113. Nature of diamond as a solid is: Options: A) Ionic B) Metallic C) Covalent D) Nonmetallic Correct Answer: C Explanation: Diamond has a covalent crystal structure, where each carbon atom is bonded to four others in a tetrahedral lattice. 114. Which function is NOT controlled by the hypothalamus? Options: A) Regulate hunger B) Regulate sleep C) Regulate water balance D) Storing longtime memories Correct Answer: D Explanation: The hypothalamus controls various autonomic functions, but memory storage is primarily managed by the hippocampus. 115. Geometric isomerism occurs in: Options: A) Alkene B) Alkyne C) Alcohol D) Ether Correct Answer: A Explanation: Geometric isomerism arises in alkenes due to the restricted rotation around the carboncarbon double bond, leading to cis and trans isomers. 116. What is the solution called if it contains more solute than is in equilibrium with the undissolved solute? Options: A) Saturated DR AQIB 2024 B) Unsaturated C) Supersaturated Correct Answer: A Explanation: A saturated solution contains the maximum amount of dissolved solute that can remain in equilibrium with undissolved solute at a given temperature. 117. Coordination in plants is regulated by: Options: A) Nervous system B) Enzymes C) Hormones D) Roots Correct Answer: C Explanation: Plants regulate their growth and responses to stimuli through hormones like auxins, gibberellins, and cytokinins. 118. From the right ventricle, blood is pushed into: Options: A) Pulmonary trunk B) Brain C) Aorta D) Body Correct Answer: A Explanation: The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood into the pulmonary trunk, which carries it to the lungs for oxygenation. 119. When aldehyde reacts with 50% NaOH, this reaction is called as: A) 2, 4 DNPH reaction B) Aldol condensation reaction C) Clemmensen reaction D) Cannizarro's reaction Correct Answer: B Explanation: Aldol condensation occurs when aldehydes or ketones with at least one αhydrogen atom react in the presence of a base, like NaOH, forming βhydroxy aldehyde (aldol). 120. The relation between radian and degree is: A) 1 rad = 57.3° B) 1°=57.3 rad C) 1 rad = 1° DR AQIB 2024 D) 1°=π rad Correct Answer: A Explanation: One radian equals 57.3 degrees, based on the conversion factor \( 1 \text{ rad} = \frac{180}{π} \) degrees. 121. In an isochoric process: A) Pressure is kept constant B) Exchange of heat is zero C) Volume is kept constant Correct Answer: C Explanation: An isochoric process is characterized by a constant volume, meaning no work is done by the gas during the process. 122. The S.I. unit of capacitance of a capacitor is: A) Coulomb B) Volt C) Farad D) Ampere Correct Answer: C Explanation: The S.I. unit of capacitance is the farad (F), which represents the ability of a system to store charge per unit voltage. 123. The amount of energy associated with a quantum of radiation is directly proportional to: A) Photon B) Wavelength C) Frequency D) Velocity Correct Answer: C Explanation: According to Planck's theory, the energy of a quantum (or photon) is directly proportional to its frequency, \( E = hν \), where \( h \) is Planck's constant. 124. By which of the following factors is the equilibrium state attained earlier? A) Temperature B) Pressure C) Concentration D) Catalyst Correct Answer: D Explanation: Catalysts speed up the attainment of equilibrium without affecting the position of equilibrium by providing an alternative pathway with lower activation energy. 125. Volt × Ampere is the unit of: DR AQIB 2024 A) Current B) Volt C) Resistance D) Power Correct Answer: D Explanation: Volt × Ampere equals watt, which is the S.I. unit of power. 126. The cracking method used to obtain better quality gasoline is: A) Thermal B) Catalytic C) Steam D) Radiations Correct Answer: B Explanation: Catalytic cracking is preferred over thermal cracking for producing highquality gasoline due to better control over product distribution and higher efficiency. 127. What is the mass of sulfur in 24.5 g of H2SO4? A) 32 g B) 24 g C) 16 g D) 8 g Correct Answer: D Explanation: The molecular mass of H2SO4 is 98 g/mol. Sulfur's contribution is \( 32/98 \times 24.5 = 8 \) grams. 128. The boiling point of ether is less as compared to alcohols and phenols due to: A) Functional group B) Intermolecular forces C) Nature of alkyl groups D) Isomerism Correct Answer: B Explanation: Ethers have weaker intermolecular forces compared to alcohols and phenols, resulting in a lower boiling point. 129. The first law of thermodynamics is the generalization of the law of conservation of: A) Mass B) Charge C) Energy D) Momentum Correct Answer: C Explanation: The first law of thermodynamics states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed, which is a restatement of the law of conservation of energy. DR AQIB 2024 130. If the length of the wire becomes twice its original value and the area becomes half its original value, then the resistance of the wire becomes: A) Double B) Four times C) Half D) One fourth Correct Answer: B Explanation: Resistance \( R \) is directly proportional to the length and inversely proportional to the crosssectional area, so doubling the length and halving the area increases resistance fourfold. 131. The high pressure of 200 atm in the Haber process is used for: A) Better yield B) Lower yield C) Lower rate D) Cost decrease Correct Answer: A Explanation: High pressure favors the production of ammonia in the Haber process due to Le Chatelier's principle, resulting in a better yield. 132. Pepsinogen is converted into its active form pepsin by: A) Proteolytic enzyme action B) Dissolving in mucus C) Hormonal action D) Hydrochloric acid Correct Answer: D Explanation: Hydrochloric acid activates pepsinogen by cleaving it to form pepsin, an active proteolytic enzyme in the stomach. 133. Catalytic reduction of aldehyde & ketone forms: A) Alcohol B) Carboxylic acid C) Alkane D) Aldehyde Correct Answer: A Explanation: Catalytic reduction of aldehydes and ketones typically leads to the formation of alcohols, as the carbonyl group is reduced to a hydroxyl group. 134. The Weber is a unit of measure for: A) Conductance B) Electric current C) Magnetic flux DR AQIB 2024 D) Electric flux Correct Answer: C Explanation: The Weber (Wb) is the S.I. unit of magnetic flux, measuring the amount of magnetic field passing through a given area. 135. If the value of the azimuthal quantum number is 2, the total values of the magnetic quantum number will be: A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 10 Correct Answer: B Explanation: The magnetic quantum number \( m_l \) can have values ranging from \(l\) to \(+l\), so if \( l = 2 \), there are 5 possible values: 2, 1, 0, 1, 2. 136. Which of the following has sp3 hybridization? A) BF3 B) C2H4 C) BeCl2 D) CH4 Correct Answer: D Explanation: CH4 (methane) has a tetrahedral structure with sp3 hybridization, where one s orbital and three p orbitals mix to form four equivalent orbitals. 137. The expression for centripetal force, the value of instantaneous acceleration is given by: A) F = mω^2 B) F = mrω C) F = mrω^2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: The centripetal force for an object moving in a circular path is given by \( F = mrω^2 \), where \( m \) is mass, \( r \) is radius, and \( ω \) is angular velocity. 138. 1 kWh equals: A) 0.36 × 10^6 J B) 36 × 10^6 J C) 3.6 × 10^6 J D) 0.036 × 10^5 J Correct Answer: C Explanation: 1 kilowatthour (kWh) is the energy consumed when a power of 1 kW is used for 1 hour, equivalent to 3.6 × 10^6 joules. DR AQIB 2024 139. Select the one which is NOT a function of Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)? A) Metabolism of lipids B) Transmission of impulses C) Transport of materials D) Processing of glycoproteins Correct Answer: D Explanation: SER is involved in lipid metabolism, not the processing of glycoproteins, which is a function of the Golgi apparatus. 140. Each centriole is composed of _____ microtubules. A) Seven triplets B) Eleven triplets C) Nine triplets D) Five triplets Correct Answer: C Explanation: A centriole is composed of nine triplets of microtubules arranged in a cylindrical shape. 141. Hydrolysis of nitriles produces: A) Carboxylic acid B) Aldehydes C) Ketones D) Esters Correct Answer: A Explanation: Hydrolysis of nitriles in acidic or basic conditions produces carboxylic acids as the nitrile group is converted to a carboxyl group. 142. When a charged particle enters the magnetic field parallel, it will: A) Deflect toward the north B) Deflect toward the south C) Move straight D) Move in a circular path Correct Answer: C Explanation: When a charged particle moves parallel to the magnetic field, there is no force acting perpendicular to its motion, so it moves straight. 143. The factor which does NOT affect bond length is: A) Presence of multiple bonds B) Nature of hybridization present C) Difference in electronegativity between the two bonded atoms D) Ionization energies of the two bonded atoms Correct Answer: D Explanation: Ionization energy affects the energy required to remove an electron, not the bond length DR AQIB 2024 directly, which depends on bond type and hybridization. 144. The LennardJones law is also a statement of the law of conservation of: A) Charge B) Mass C) Energy D) Pressure Correct Answer: C Explanation: Lenz's law, related to electromagnetic induction, also implies the conservation of energy by opposing changes in magnetic flux. 145. When 2 ice cubes are pressed over each other, they unite to form one cube due to: A) Dipoledipole attraction B) Covalent attraction C) Van Der Waal's force D) Hbonding Correct Answer: D Explanation: Hydrogen bonding between the water molecules on the surfaces of the ice cubes causes them to adhere and form a single cube. 146. In parallel combination of two capacitors, their equivalent capacitance is equal to: A) C1 + C2 B) 1/C1 + 1/C2 C) C1C2/(C1 + C2) D) 2C1C2/(C1 + C2) Correct Answer: A Explanation: In a parallel circuit, the total capacitance is the sum of individual capacitances because the voltage across each capacitor is the same. 147. The organs which are similar in function but differ in structure are called: A) Analogous organs B) Homologous organs C) Convergent organs D) Divergent organs Correct Answer: A Explanation: Analogous organs perform similar functions but have different evolutionary origins and structures, like wings of bats and birds. 148. The cracking method used to obtain better quality gasoline is: A) Thermal B) Catalytic DR AQIB 2024 C) Steam D) Radiations Correct Answer: B Explanation: Catalytic cracking is more efficient and produces higher quality gasoline than thermal cracking due to better control over the reactions. 149. The boiling point of ether is less compared to alcohols and phenols due to: A) Functional group B) Intermolecular forces C) Nature of alkyl groups D) Isomerism Correct Answer: B Explanation: Ethers have weaker intermolecular forces than alcohols and phenols, leading to a lower boiling point. 150. The mass of sulfur in 24.5 g of H2SO4: A) 32 g B) 24 g C) 16 g D) 8 g Correct Answer: D Explanation: Sulfur’s atomic mass is 32 g/mol, and the molar mass of H2SO4 is 98 g/mol. The mass of sulfur in 24.5 g of H2SO4 is calculated as (32/98) × 24.5 ≈ 8 g. 151. The high pressure of 200 atm in the Haber process is used for: A) Better yield B) Lower yield C) Lower rate D) Cost decrease Correct Answer: A Explanation: In the Haber process, high pressure favors the forward reaction, leading to a higher yield of ammonia. 152. When a charged particle enters a magnetic field parallel, it will: A) Deflect toward the north B) Deflect toward the south C) Move straight D) Move in a circular path Correct Answer: C DR AQIB 2024 Explanation: When a charged particle moves parallel to a magnetic field, it experiences no force, causing it to move straight. 153. Lenz's law is also a statement of the law of conservation of: A) Charge B) Mass C) Energy D) Pressure Correct Answer: C Explanation: Lenz's law, which opposes changes in magnetic flux, upholds the conservation of energy by ensuring that induced currents counteract the change. 154. In the parallel combination of two capacitors, their equivalent capacitance is equal to: A) C1 + C2 B) 1/C1 + 1/C2 C) C1C2 / (C1 + C2) D) 2C1C2 / (C1 + C2) Correct Answer: A Explanation: In parallel circuits, the total capacitance is the sum of the individual capacitances. 155. The organs that are similar in function but differ in structure are called: A) Analogous organs B) Homologous organs C) Convergent organs D) Divergent organs Correct Answer: A Explanation: Analogous organs perform similar functions but have different evolutionary origins and structures. 156. The boiling point of ether is lower than that of alcohols and phenols due to: A) Functional group B) Intermolecular forces C) Nature of alkyl groups D) Isomerism Correct Answer: B Explanation: Ethers have weaker intermolecular forces compared to alcohols and phenols, leading to a lower boiling point. 157. When aldehyde reacts with 50% NaOH, the reaction is called: A) 2,4DNPH reaction B) Aldol condensation reaction DR AQIB 2024 C) Clemmensen reaction D) Cannizzaro's reaction Correct Answer: B Explanation: Aldol condensation involves the reaction of aldehydes (or ketones) in the presence of a base to form βhydroxy aldehydes or ketones. 158. The conditions for the application of Boyle's law hold good in: A) Adiabatic process B) Isothermal process C) Isobaric process D) Isochoric process Correct Answer: B Explanation: Boyle's law states that for a fixed amount of gas at a constant temperature (isothermal process), the pressure and volume of the gas are inversely proportional. 159. Oxidation number of an element in the free state is: A) Negative B) Positive C) Zero D) ±1 Correct Answer: C Explanation: The oxidation number of an element in its free, uncombined state (like O₂, H₂, etc.) is always zero. 160. The capacitance of a capacitor does not depend on: A) Area of plates B) Medium C) Distance between plates D) Thickness of plates Correct Answer: D Explanation: The capacitance depends on the area of the plates, the distance between them, and the dielectric material (medium), but not on the thickness of the plates. 161. Electric potential is defined as: DR AQIB 2024 A) Work per unit charge B) Force per unit charge C) Power per unit charge D) Force Correct Answer: A Explanation: Electric potential is the work done to move a unit positive charge from infinity to a point in an electric field. 162. Which of the following properties decreases in Group 2 as we go down the group? A) Shielding B) Atomic radius C) Proton number D) Ionization energy Correct Answer: D Explanation: As you go down Group 2, the ionization energy decreases due to the increasing atomic radius and the added electron shells which increase shielding. 163. The maximum displacement of particles from its mean position is called: A) Frequency B) Amplitude C) Wavelength D) Crest Correct Answer: B Explanation: Amplitude is the maximum displacement of a wave's particles from their mean position. 164. The internal energy of a system during an isothermal process: A) Decreases B) Increases C) Becomes zero D) Remains constant Correct Answer: D Explanation: In an isothermal process, the temperature remains constant, so the internal energy of the system also remains constant. 165. Skin burns, loss of hair, drop in white blood cells, etc., are examples of: DR AQIB 2024 A) Somatic effect B) Genetic effect C) Metabolism effect D) Mutation effect Correct Answer: A Explanation: Somatic effects are radiationinduced changes that affect the body cells, leading to conditions like burns and hair loss. 166. 1 Nms⁻¹ equals: A) 1 Kilowatthour B) 1 J.s C) 1 watt D) 1 J.s⁻² Correct Answer: C Explanation: 1 Nms⁻¹ is equivalent to 1 watt, which is a unit of power. 167. Which of the following has the greatest difference in electronegativity? A) HF B) HCl C) HBr D) HI Correct Answer: A Explanation: The bond in HF has the greatest difference in electronegativity due to the high electronegativity of fluorine. 168. The unit of rate constant is the same as that of the rate of reaction in which following order of reaction? A) Zero B) First C) Second D) Third Correct Answer: A Explanation: For a zeroorder reaction, the rate constant has the same units as the rate of the reaction, typically concentration per time. DR AQIB 2024 169. The correct equation for the first law of thermodynamics is: A) ΔE = q + W B) ΔE = W q C) ΔE = Δg pΔv D) ΔE = Δg + pΔv Correct Answer: A Explanation: The first law of thermodynamics states that the change in internal energy (ΔE) of a system is equal to the heat added (q) plus the work done on the system (W). 170. The thermal energy at constant pressure is called: A) Enthalpy B) Internal energy C) Heat capacity D) Work done Correct Answer: A Explanation: Enthalpy is the measure of total heat content in a system, typically at constant pressure. 171. Which allotment correctly describes the term Standard Electrode Potential? A) It is the electrode potential determined at room temperature and pressure B) It is the electrode potential determined under standard conditions using the Standard Hydrogen Electrode as the other electrode C) It is the electrode potential of an element and its solution compared to a standard value D) It is the potential which is measured when two halfcells are connected together Correct Answer: B Explanation: The standard electrode potential is measured under standard conditions with the Standard Hydrogen Electrode as the reference. 172. Carbon atoms in ethane are_____hybridized: A) sp3 B) sp2 C) sp D) sp3d Correct Answer: A Explanation: In ethane (C2H6), carbon atoms are sp3 hybridized, meaning each carbon forms four sigma bonds. DR AQIB 2024 173. In Fleming's righthand rule, the middle finger indicates: A) Force B) Magnetic field C) Induced current D) Volt Correct Answer: C Explanation: Fleming's righthand rule states that if you align your thumb, forefinger, and middle finger perpendicular to each other, the thumb indicates the motion, the forefinger the magnetic field, and the middle finger the direction of the induced current. 174. Calculate the number of σ bonds and π bonds in the molecule: A) 1π and 5σ bonds B) 2π and 4σ bonds C) 3π and 3σ bonds D) 6π and 6σ bonds Correct Answer: A Explanation: The structure in question likely has one pi bond and five sigma bonds, which is typical in molecules with double bonds or aromatic rings. 175. The ultrasonic waves have a frequency higher than: A) 20 Hz B) 20 kHz C) 200 Hz D) 2000 kHz Correct Answer: B Explanation: Ultrasonic waves have frequencies higher than 20 kHz, which is above the range of human hearing. 176. Transformer works on the principle of: A) Lenz's Law B) Faraday's Law C) Mutual Induction D) Ampere's Law Correct Answer: C DR AQIB 2024 Explanation: A transformer operates on the principle of mutual induction, where a changing current in one coil induces a voltage in another coil. 177. 1 eV is equal to: A) 1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ J B) 16.02 × 10⁻¹⁹ J C) 1620 J D) 162.0 × 10⁻¹⁹ J Correct Answer: A Explanation: 1 electron volt (eV) is the amount of kinetic energy gained or lost by an electron moving across an electric potential difference of one volt, equal to 1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ joules. 178. By which of the following factors is equilibrium state attained earlier? A) Temperature B) Pressure C) Concentration D) Catalyst Correct Answer: D Explanation: A catalyst speeds up the attainment of equilibrium by lowering the activation energy for the reaction without being consumed. 179. The increase in the speed of sound for each degree rise above 0°C is: A) 0.61 m/s B) 0.51 m/s C) 0.41 m/s D) 0.31 m/s Correct Answer: A Explanation: The speed of sound in air increases by approximately 0.61 m/s for each degree Celsius rise in temperature above 0°C. 180. Which of the following alkali metals can form both normal oxide and peroxide? A) Na B) K C) Li D) Cs DR AQIB 2024 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Sodium (Na) can form both Na₂O (sodium oxide) and Na₂O₂ (sodium peroxide) under different conditions. 181. 1 calorie is equal to: A) 4.18 kJ B) 4.18 J C) 0.418 kJ mol⁻¹ D) 0.418 kJ Correct Answer: B Explanation: One calorie is the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius, equivalent to 4.18 joules. 181. Work done will be negative if the angle between force and displacement is: A) 0° B) 45° C) 60° D) 180° Correct Answer: D Explanation: Work done is negative when the force applied is in the opposite direction to the displacement, which happens at an angle of 180°. 182. The molecules of iodine (I₂) form: A) Molecular crystals B) Covalent crystals C) Ionic crystals D) Metallic crystals Correct Answer: A Explanation: Iodine molecules (I₂) form molecular crystals, which are held together by weak van der Waals forces. 183. The maximum number of electrons in electronic configuration can be calculated by using the formula: A) 2l + 1 DR AQIB 2024 B) 2n² + 2 C) 2n² D) 2n² + 1 Correct Answer: C Explanation: The maximum number of electrons in a given energy level is determined by the formula 2n², where n is the principal quantum number. 184. The efficiency of a transformer is: A) 60% B) 70% C) 80% D) 90% Correct Answer: D Explanation: A welldesigned transformer can achieve efficiencies as high as 90% or more, with minimal energy loss during the transfer of electrical power. 185. The type of bonding in zinc is: A) Ionic B) Covalent C) Dative D) Metallic Correct Answer: D Explanation: Zinc, like most metals, exhibits metallic bonding, characterized by a sea of delocalized electrons surrounding positively charged metal ions. 186. Grignard reagent is formed when alkyl halide reacts in the presence of: A) Calcium B) Potassium C) Sodium D) Magnesium Correct Answer: D Explanation: A Grignard reagent is formed by the reaction of an alkyl halide with magnesium in anhydrous ether. 187. The branch of science that deals with the conversion of electrical energy to chemical energy and vice versa is called: DR AQIB 2024 A) Electrochemistry B) Thermochemistry C) Stereochemistry D) Biochemistry Correct Answer: A Explanation: Electrochemistry is the branch of science concerned with the interconversion of electrical and chemical energy, such as in batteries and electrolysis. 188. Which Xray photon will have the longest wavelength? A) Ka B) Кв C) Ky D) Ma Correct Answer: A Explanation: The Ka line refers to Xray photons emitted when electrons transition to the Kshell from higher energy levels, which has a longer wavelength compared to other Xray emissions. 189. Electric intensity due to charge distributions is calculated using which of the following laws? A) Ohm's law B) Faraday's law C) Gauss's law D) Ampere's law Correct Answer: C Explanation: Gauss's law relates the electric field intensity to the charge distribution in a given region. 190. The thermodynamic process during which the volume of the system remains constant is called: A) Isothermal B) Isobaric C) Isochoric DR AQIB 2024 D) Adiabatic Correct Answer: C Explanation: An isochoric process is one in which the volume remains constant, meaning no work is done by or on the system. 191. Which of the following factors is not a use of the buffer solution? A) Used for the calibration of pH meters B) Used to preserve biological specimens C) Maintain the pH of human blood D) Predict the concentration of a substance Correct Answer: D Explanation: Buffer solutions are used to maintain a stable pH, but they are not used for predicting the concentration of substances. 192. The transition element that doesn't show variable valency is: A) Cu B) Sc C) Zn D) Cr Correct Answer: C Explanation: Zinc (Zn) has a stable +2 oxidation state and does not show variable valency like many other transition metals. 193. If a reaction is first order with respect to a reactant, then the rate will be if the concentration of the reactant is doubled: A) Doubled B) Halved C) One fourth D) Quadrupled Correct Answer: A Explanation: For a firstorder reaction, the rate is directly proportional to the concentration of the reactant, so doubling the concentration doubles the rate. 194. In the interconversion of energy, the work done against friction is: A) f + h DR AQIB 2024 B) f h C) f h D) f / h Correct Answer: C Explanation: The work done against friction is typically represented by the product of the frictional force and the distance moved (f h). 195. The halflife of iodine131 is: A) 10 days B) 8 days C) 45 days D) 60 days Correct Answer: B Explanation: Iodine131 has a halflife of approximately 8 days, which means it takes 8 days for half of a given amount to decay. 196. The total resistance of a wire is inversely proportional to: A) Length B) Area C) Temperature D) Time Correct Answer: B Explanation: The resistance of a wire is inversely proportional to its crosssectional area; as the area increases, resistance decreases. 197. Phenols are very reactive towards: A) Oxidizing agent B) Reducing agent C) Dehydrating agent D) Hygroscopic agent Correct Answer: A Explanation: Phenols are highly reactive towards oxidizing agents due to the presence of the hydroxyl group, which can be easily oxidized. 198. The halflife of carbon is 5730 years. How much carbon will be left after 22920 years? DR AQIB 2024 A) 1/32 B) 1/16 C) 1/64 D) 1/4 Correct Answer: B Explanation: After 22920 years, which is four halflives (22920/5730 = 4), 1/16th of the original amount of carbon14 would remain. 199. The thermodynamic process during which the volume of the system remains constant is called: A) Isothermal B) Isobaric C) Isochoric D) Adiabatic Correct Answer: C Explanation: In an isochoric process, the volume of the system does not change, so no work is done by the system. 200. The SI unit of potential difference is: A) Volt B) Coulomb C) Watt D) eV Correct Answer: A Explanation: The potential difference (or voltage) between two points is measured in volts (V), which is equivalent to one joule per coulomb. 201. The internal energy of an ideal gas depends on: A) Volume only B) Pressure only C) Temperature only D) Both pressure and volume Correct Answer: C Explanation: The internal energy of an ideal gas depends only on its temperature, as it is related to the kinetic energy of the gas molecules. 202. The energy stored in a capacitor is given by: A) Q²/2C DR AQIB 2024 B) CV²/2 C) QV D) Q²V/2 Correct Answer: B Explanation: The energy (E) stored in a capacitor is given by the formula \( E = \frac{1}{2}CV^2 \), where C is the capacitance and V is the voltage across the capacitor. 203. The phenomenon of the ejection of electrons when light falls on a material is called: A) Photoelectric effect B) Compton effect C) Zeeman effect D) Stark effect Correct Answer: A Explanation: The photoelectric effect occurs when light of sufficient energy hits a material, causing it to emit electrons. 204. Which type of bonding is present in Sodium Chloride (NaCl)? A) Covalent bonding B) Ionic bonding C) Metallic bonding D) Hydrogen bonding Correct Answer: B Explanation: Sodium Chloride (NaCl) forms an ionic bond, where sodium donates an electron to chlorine, resulting in oppositely charged ions that attract each other. 205. The SI unit of electric charge is: A) Coulomb B) Volt C) Ampere D) Ohm Correct Answer: A Explanation: The SI unit of electric charge is the coulomb (C), which represents the amount of electric charge transported by a steady current of one ampere in one second. 206. The change in entropy during a reversible adiabatic process is: DR AQIB 2024 A) Positive B) Negative C) Zero D) Infinite Correct Answer: C Explanation: In a reversible adiabatic process, there is no heat exchange, so the change in entropy is zero. 207. The bonding in diamond is: A) Ionic B) Covalent C) Metallic D) Van der Waals Correct Answer: B Explanation: Diamond consists of carbon atoms that are bonded to each other by strong covalent bonds, forming a very hard and strong crystal lattice. 208. The SI unit of magnetic flux is: A) Weber B) Tesla C) Gauss D) Henry Correct Answer: A Explanation: The SI unit of magnetic flux is the weber (Wb), which measures the quantity of magnetism, considering the strength and extent of a magnetic field. 209. The heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by one degree Celsius is called: A) Specific heat B) Latent heat C) Heat capacity D) Enthalpy Correct Answer: A Explanation: Specific heat is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by one degree Celsius. DR AQIB 2024 210. When a gas expands in a vacuum, the work done is: A) Positive B) Negative C) Zero D) Maximum Correct Answer: C Explanation: When a gas expands in a vacuum, there is no external pressure to do work against, so the work done by the gas is zero. 211. The process by which a solid changes directly to a gas is known as: A) Sublimation B) Evaporation C) Condensation D) Freezing Correct Answer: A Explanation: Sublimation is the process where a solid changes directly into a gas without passing through the liquid phase. 213. The main purpose of using a fuse in an electrical circuit is to: A) Save energy B) Provide light C) Prevent excessive current D) Increase current Correct Answer: C Explanation: A fuse is used in an electrical circuit to prevent excessive current, which could cause damage to the wiring or appliances and potentially start a fire. 214. The substance which donates a proton in a chemical reaction is called: A) Base B) Acid C) Salt D) Alkali Correct Answer: B Explanation: According to the BrønstedLowry theory, an acid is a substance that donates a proton (H⁺) DR AQIB 2024 in a chemical reaction. 215. The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely inductive circuit is: A) 0° B) 45° C) 90° D) 180° Correct Answer: C Explanation: In a purely inductive circuit, the voltage leads the current by 90 degrees, meaning the current lags behind the voltage by a quarter of a cycle. 216. The phenomenon by which a light wave bends around obstacles or openings is called: A) Refraction B) Reflection C) Diffraction D) Interference Correct Answer: C Explanation: Diffraction is the bending of light waves around obstacles or openings, which occurs when the wavelength of light is comparable to the size of the obstacle or aperture. 217. The ability of a material to be drawn into a wire is known as: A) Malleability B) Ductility C) Hardness D) Elasticity Correct Answer: B Explanation: Ductility is the property of a material that allows it to be drawn into a wire without breaking. 218. The ratio of the lateral strain to the longitudinal strain in a stretched material is called: A) Young's modulus B) Shear modulus C) Bulk modulus D) Poisson's ratio Correct Answer: D Explanation: Poisson's ratio is the ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal strain in a material that is DR AQIB 2024 stretched or compressed. 219. The wavelength of visible light ranges from: A) 100 nm to 400 nm B) 400 nm to 700 nm C) 700 nm to 1000 nm D) 1000 nm to 1400 nm Correct Answer: B Explanation: Visible light has a wavelength range of approximately 400 nm to 700 nm, with violet light at the lower end and red light at the higher end of the spectrum. 220. The phenomenon where the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection is known as: A) Refraction B) Diffraction C) Reflection D) Interference Correct Answer: C Explanation: Reflection is the phenomenon where light bounces off a surface, and the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection according to the law of reflection. 221. Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity? A) Fluorine B) Oxygen C) Nitrogen D) Chlorine Correct Answer: A Explanation: Fluorine has the highest electronegativity of all elements, meaning it has the strongest ability to attract electrons in a chemical bond. 222. Which of the following is an example of a nonrenewable energy source? A) Solar energy B) Wind energy C) Coal D) Hydropower DR AQIB 2024 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Coal is a nonrenewable energy source because it is a fossil fuel that takes millions of years to form and is consumed faster than it is replenished. 223. The speed of light in a vacuum is approximately: A) 3 × 10⁸ m/s B) 3 × 10⁶ m/s C) 3 × 10⁴ m/s D) 3 × 10² m/s Correct Answer: A Explanation: The speed of light in a vacuum is approximately 3 × 10⁸ meters per second, which is the universal constant speed of light. 224. The pH of a neutral solution at 25°C is: A) 0 B) 7 C) 14 D) 10 Correct Answer: B Explanation: A neutral solution, such as pure water at 25°C, has a pH of 7, which is neither acidic nor basic. 225. The rate of change of displacement with respect to time is called: A) Acceleration B) Velocity C) Speed D) Force Correct Answer: B Explanation: Velocity is the rate of change of displacement with respect to time, taking into account both the magnitude and direction. 226. The most common isotope of hydrogen is: A) Protium B) Deuterium C) Tritium D) Quadium DR AQIB 2024 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Protium is the most common isotope of hydrogen, consisting of one proton and no neutrons in its nucleus. 227. The amount of energy required to remove an electron from an atom is known as: A) Ionization energy B) Electron affinity C) Electronegativity D) Bond energy Correct Answer: A Explanation: Ionization energy is the energy required to remove an electron from a gaseous atom or ion. 228. The law that states that the current through a conductor between two points is directly proportional to the voltage across the two points is: A) Ohm's Law B) Faraday's Law C) Kirchhoff's Law D) Coulomb's Law Correct Answer: A Explanation: Ohm's Law states that the current (I) through a conductor between two points is directly proportional to the voltage (V) across the two points, with the proportionality constant being the resistance (R), represented by the formula \( V = IR \). 229. The specific heat capacity of water is: A) 1 J/g°C B) 4.18 J/g°C C) 2.09 J/g°C D) 0.5 J/g°C Correct Answer: B Explanation: The specific heat capacity of water is 4.18 J/g°C, which means it takes 4.18 joules of DR AQIB 2024 energy to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1°C. 230. Which of the following is a vector quantity? A) Speed B) Distance C) Time D) Displacement Correct Answer: D Explanation: Displacement is a vector quantity because it has both magnitude and direction, representing the shortest path from the initial to the final position. 231. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Earth is approximately: A) 9.8 m/s² B) 8.9 m/s² C) 10.8 m/s² D) 11.8 m/s² Correct Answer: A Explanation: The acceleration due to gravity on the Earth's surface is approximately 9.8 m/s², which is the rate at which objects accelerate towards the Earth when falling freely. 232. Which of the following processes does not increase the concentration of a solution? A) Evaporation B) Crystallization C) Dilution D) Addition of solute Correct Answer: C Explanation: Dilution decreases the concentration of a solution by adding more solvent, making the solution less concentrated. 233. Which of the following is not a fundamental force of nature? A) Gravitational force B) Electromagnetic force C) Nuclear force D) Frictional force Correct Answer: D DR AQIB 2024 Explanation: Frictional force is not considered a fundamental force of nature; it is a result of electromagnetic interactions between atoms at surfaces in contact. 234. The principle that states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed, is known as: A) Law of Conservation of Energy B) Law of Conservation of Mass C) Law of Conservation of Momentum D) Law of Conservation of Charge Correct Answer: A Explanation: The Law of Conservation of Energy states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one form to another. 235. The process of combining two light nuclei to form a heavier nucleus is called: A) Nuclear fission B) Nuclear fusion C) Radioactive decay D) Chain reaction Correct Answer: B Explanation: Nuclear fusion is the process of combining two light atomic nuclei to form a heavier nucleus, releasing energy in the process. 236. The property of a sound wave that determines its loudness is: A) Frequency B) Wavelength C) Amplitude D) Speed Correct Answer: C Explanation: The amplitude of a sound wave determines its loudness; a wave with greater amplitude will sound louder. 237. The chemical formula of methane is: A) CH₃ B) CH₄ C) C₂H₄ D) C₃H₈ DR AQIB 2024 Correct Answer: B Explanation: Methane has the chemical formula CH₄, consisting of one carbon atom bonded to four hydrogen atoms. 238. The device used to measure electric current is called: A) Voltmeter B) Ammeter C) Ohmmeter D) Galvanometer Correct Answer: B Explanation: An ammeter is a device used to measure the electric current in a circuit, typically connected in series with the circuit. 239. The process by which a gas changes directly to a solid is known as: A) Sublimation B) Deposition C) Condensation D) Freezing Correct Answer: B Explanation: Deposition is the process by which a gas changes directly into a solid without passing through the liquid phase. 240. The law that relates the pressure and volume of a gas at constant temperature is: A) Boyle's Law B) Charles's Law C) Avogadro's Law D) Ideal Gas Law Correct Answer: A Explanation: Boyle's Law states that for a given mass of gas at constant temperature, the pressure is inversely proportional to the volume (P₁V₁ = P₂V₂). 241. The tendency of a fluid to resist flowing is known as: A) Viscosity B) Density DR AQIB 2024 C) Surface tension D) Buoyancy Correct Answer: A Explanation: Viscosity is the measure of a fluid's resistance to flow, with higher viscosity fluids flowing more slowly than lower viscosity fluids. 242. Which of the following particles has the highest mass? A) Electron B) Proton C) Neutron D) Alpha particle Correct Answer: D Explanation: An alpha particle, consisting of two protons and two neutrons, has a higher mass than an electron, proton, or neutron. 243. The process by which plants convert sunlight into chemical energy is known as: A) Respiration B) Fermentation C) Photosynthesis D) Transpiration Correct Answer: C Explanation: Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants use sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen, storing energy in the form of chemical bonds. 243. The SI unit of frequency is: A) Hertz B) Pascal C) Joule D) Watt Correct Answer: A Explanation: The SI unit of frequency is the hertz (Hz), which represents the number of cycles or oscillations per second. 244. The process by which heat is transferred through a material without the movement of the material itself is called: DR AQIB 2024 A) Conduction B) Convection C) Radiation D) Diffusion Correct Answer: A Explanation: Conduction is the process of heat transfer through a material without any movement of the material, occurring primarily in solids. 245. The angle between the incident ray and the normal is known as the: A) Angle of incidence B) Angle of reflection C) Angle of refraction D) Critical angle Correct Answer: A Explanation: The angle between the incident ray and the normal to the surface at the point of incidence is called the angle of incidence. 246. Which of the following is an example of a chemical change? A) Melting of ice B) Dissolution of salt in water C) Rusting of iron D) Breaking of glass Correct Answer: C Explanation: Rusting of iron is a chemical change because it involves a reaction between iron and oxygen to form a new substance, iron oxide. 247. The sum of the protons and neutrons in an atom is known as its: A) Atomic number B) Mass number C) Isotopic number D) Valency Correct Answer: B Explanation: The mass number of an atom is the sum of its protons and neutrons, representing the total DR AQIB 2024 number of nucleons in the nucleus. 248. The primary cause of tides on Earth is: A) Wind B) Sun's gravity C) Moon's gravity D) Earth's rotation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The primary cause of tides on Earth is the gravitational pull of the Moon, with the Sun's gravity also playing a secondary role. 249. The time taken for half the nuclei in a radioactive sample to decay is known as: A) Halflife B) Decay constant C) Mean life D) Activity Correct Answer: A Explanation: The halflife of a radioactive substance is the time required for half of the radioactive nuclei in a sample to undergo decay. 250. Which of the following gases is the most abundant in Earth's atmosphere? A) Oxygen B) Nitrogen C) Carbon dioxide D) Argon Correct Answer: B Explanation: Nitrogen is the most abundant gas in Earth's atmosphere, making up about 78% of the air by volume. 251. The phenomenon where a wave changes direction as it passes from one medium to another is called: A) Reflection B) Refraction C) Diffraction D) Interference DR AQIB 2024 Correct Answer: B Explanation: Refraction is the bending of a wave as it passes from one medium to another, causing a change in its speed and direction. 252. Which one of the following is angular speed in radian per hour for the daily rotation of our Earth? A) 2π B) 4π C) π/6 D) π/12 Correct Answer: C Explanation: The Earth completes one rotation in 24 hours, corresponding to 360 degrees, or 2π radians. Therefore, the angular speed is 2π radians per 24 hours, simplifying to π/12 radians per hour. 253. Most enzymes have an optimum temperature of around: A) 30°C B) 40°C C) 50°C D) 20°C Correct Answer: B Explanation: Enzymes typically have an optimal temperature at which they function most efficiently. For most human enzymes, this is around 40°C, close to normal body temperature. 254. Enzyme trypsinogen is activated by: A) HCl B) Pepsin C) Enterokinase D) Erypsin Correct Answer: C Explanation: Trypsinogen is an inactive precursor of the enzyme trypsin. It is activated by enterokinase, an enzyme produced in the duodenum, to become active trypsin. 255. The tension in string at the top of a vertical circle is: A) Zero B) ma C) 2 mg D) 3 mg Correct Answer: A Explanation: At the top of a vertical circle, if the object is moving at the minimum speed necessary to maintain circular motion, the tension in the string can be zero because the gravitational force provides the necessary centripetal force. DR AQIB 2024 256. The heat produced by a current I in the wire of resistance R during time interval t is: A) \(I^2/Rt\) B) \(I^2Rt\) C) \(I^2/R/t\) D) \(IR^2t\) Correct Answer: B Explanation: The heat produced (H) in a resistor is given by Joule's law, \(H = I^2Rt\), where I is the current, R is the resistance, and t is the time. 257. Select the hormone which increases the activity of parietal and chief cells: A) Cholecystokinin B) Secretin C) Gastrin D) Acetylcholine Correct Answer: D Explanation: Acetylcholine stimulates parietal cells in the stomach to secrete hydrochloric acid, and chief cells to secrete pepsinogen, enhancing digestion. 258. The catalytic activity of an enzyme is restricted to its small portion: A) Active site B) Passive site C) Allosteric site D) Regulation site Correct Answer: A Explanation: The active site of an enzyme is the region where substrate molecules bind and undergo a chemical reaction. This small portion is critical for the enzyme's catalytic activity. 259. Wavelength of a wave is defined as: A) Distance between two consecutive crests B) Distance between two alternate crests C) Distance between two alternate troughs D) Distance between two crest and two trough Correct Answer: A Explanation: The wavelength is the distance between two consecutive crests (or troughs) of a wave, which determines the spatial period of the wave. 260. What is the contribution of the hormone cholecystokinin? A) Facilitates bile release from the gall bladder B) Mucus release from the stomach C) Production of bile from the liver DR AQIB 2024 D) Gastric juice release from the stomach Correct Answer: A Explanation: Cholecystokinin (CCK) is a hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to contract and release stored bile into the intestine, aiding in digestion. 261. He presented the theory of origin of species by means of natural selection: A) Lamarck B) Linnaeus C) HardyWeinberg D) Darwin Correct Answer: D Explanation: Charles Darwin proposed the theory of evolution by natural selection, explaining how species evolve over time due to environmental pressures. 262. In terms of enzyme action, maximum temperature refers to a temperature at which: A) Enzymes start to denature B) Enzymes start to renature C) Enzymes work best D) Enzymes are reactivated Correct Answer: A Explanation: Enzymes start to denature, losing their structure and function, at temperatures above their optimum. The "maximum temperature" is the threshold before this denaturation begins. 263. The pathways of water transport in which water moves through plasmodesmata is: A) Apoplast B) Symplast C) Vacuolar D) Ascent of sap Correct Answer: B Explanation: The symplast pathway involves water moving through the cytoplasm of plant cells, interconnected by plasmodesmata, allowing water to travel celltocell. 264. Which of the following is NOT a component of bile? A) Digestive enzymes B) Salts C) Mucus D) Lecithin Correct Answer: A Explanation: Bile does not contain digestive enzymes. It primarily consists of bile salts, bilirubin, cholesterol, lecithin, and mucus, aiding in the digestion and absorption of fats. DR AQIB 2024 265. Select the duration of the cardiac cycle: A) 0.6 sec B) 0.4 sec C) 0.7 sec D) 0.8 sec Correct Answer: D Explanation: The cardiac cycle, which includes all events during one heartbeat, lasts approximately 0.8 seconds in a typical resting human heart. 266. The maximum enzymatic activity of trypsin is shown at: A) pH 2 B) pH 4 C) pH 6 D) pH 8 Correct Answer: D Explanation: Trypsin, a digestive enzyme, has optimal activity at a slightly alkaline pH of around 8, which is typical of the small intestine environment. 267. Which one of the following provides centripetal force in a circular motion of a body? A) Vertical component of weight B) Horizontal component of weight C) Weight of the body D) Force of friction Correct Answer: A Explanation: In a circular motion, the vertical component of the gravitational force (weight) often provides the necessary centripetal force, depending on the situation. 268. Enzymes work by lowering the ____ of the reactions they catalyze: A) Kinetic energy B) Activation energy C) Heat energy D) Potential energy Correct Answer: B Explanation: Enzymes lower the activation energy required for a reaction, allowing it to proceed more quickly and efficiently at lower temperatures. 269. These are the genes that tend to be inherited together and do not assort independently: A) Linked genes B) Dependent genes C) Recombinant genes DR AQIB 2024 D) Independent genes Correct Answer: A Explanation: Linked genes are located close to each other on the same chromosome and tend to be inherited together during meiosis, not following independent assortment. 270. The first chemical digestion of proteins takes place in the: A) Mouth B) Oesophagus C) Stomach D) Intestine Correct Answer: C Explanation: The stomach is where protein digestion begins, primarily through the action of pepsin, which breaks down proteins into smaller peptides. 271. How many radians are in one degree? A) 0.0174 rad B) 0.174 rad C) 1.745 rad D) 0.00174 rad Correct Answer: A Explanation: One degree equals approximately 0.0174 radians, calculated by dividing π radians (180 degrees) by 180. 272. Among the oldest known fossils are: A) Prokaryotes B) Amphibians C) Reptiles D) Fishes Correct Answer: A Explanation: Prokaryotes, which include bacteria and archaea, are among the oldest known life forms on Earth, with fossils dating back billions of years. 273. Competitive inhibitors reduce enzyme productivity by blocking the substrate from entering into the active site due to similar shapes: A) Competitive inhibitors B) NonCompetitive inhibitors C) Coenzymes D) Activators Correct Answer: A Explanation: Competitive inhibitors mimic the substrate's structure and compete for binding to the enzyme's active site, preventing the actual substrate from binding. DR AQIB 2024 274. A yellow light of wavelength 500 nm emitted by a single source passes through two narrow slits 1mm apart. How far apart are two adjacent bright fringes when interference is observed on a screen 10 m away? A) 5 mm B) 1.33 mm C) 0.5 mm D) 50 mm Correct Answer: A Explanation: Using the formula for fringe spacing in a doubleslit experiment, \( \Delta y = \frac{\lambda D}{d} \), where λ is the wavelength, D is the distance to the screen, and d is the distance between slits, we calculate the fringe spacing as 5 mm. 275. Which of the following factors does not affect the speed of sound in air? A) Pressure B) Density C) Temperature D) Medium Correct Answer: A Explanation: The speed of sound in air is primarily affected by temperature and the medium's density, but not directly by pressure, as pressure and density changes tend to offset each other in the speed of sound equation. 276. The area between the two lungs is called: A) Periosteum B) Infundibulum C) Mediastinum D) Hilum Correct Answer: C Explanation: The mediastinum is the central compartment of the thoracic cavity, located between the lungs, containing the heart, trachea, esophagus, and other structures. 277. An elevator is moving upwards with a constant velocity of ‘v’. What is the weight of a person of mass ‘m’ inside the elevator during upward motion? A) \(mg + mv\) B) \(mg\) C) \(mg mv\) D) Zero Correct Answer: B Explanation: When the elevator moves with constant velocity, there is no acceleration, so the apparent weight (normal force) of the person remains equal to their true weight, \(mg\). DR AQIB 2024 278. Which one of the following is the angular velocity of an electric motor if it rotates at 400 rpm? A) 51.2 rad/s B) 41.9 rad/s C) 45.2 rad/s D) 38.5 rad/s Correct Answer: B Explanation: Angular velocity ω in radians per second can be calculated from rpm (revolutions per minute) using the formula \( \omega = \frac{2\pi \times \text{rpm}}{60} \). For 400 rpm, this gives approximately 41.9 rad/s. 279. The unit of kinetic energy is the same as that of: A) Work B) Power / Time C) Time / Power D) Work / Time Correct Answer: A Explanation: Kinetic energy and work share the same unit (Joules) because they both represent energy transferred or transformed when a force moves an object. 280. Emulsification of large fat globules is facilitated by: A) Lipase B) Bile salts C) Trypsin D) Chymotrypsin Correct Answer: B Explanation: Bile salts, secreted by the liver and stored in the gallbladder, emulsify large fat globules into smaller droplets, increasing the surface area for lipase action. 281. The centripetal force in terms of angular velocity is given by: A) \(Fc = mrw\) B) \(Fc = mrw^2\) C) \(Fc = mra^2\) D) \(Fc = mra\) Correct Answer: B Explanation: The centripetal force \(Fc\) required to keep an object moving in a circular path is given by the formula \(Fc = mr\omega^2\), where \(m\) is the mass, \(r\) is the radius, and \(\omega\) is the angular velocity. DR AQIB 2024 282. The oldest known fossils are of: A) Prokaryotes B) Amphibians C) Reptiles D) Fishes Correct Answer: A Explanation: The oldest known fossils are prokaryotic organisms, which are singlecelled and lack a nucleus, appearing about 3.5 billion years ago.

Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser