NDEB Released Questions 2019 PDF

COPYRIGHT NOTICE All rights and interests (including copyright) in the released test items are owned by the National Dental Examining Board of Canada (NDEB). Reproduction of these test items is permitted only on the specificterms set by the NDEB. Any editing or manipulation of these test items is st...

COPYRIGHT NOTICE All rights and interests (including copyright) in the released test items are owned by the National Dental Examining Board of Canada (NDEB). Reproduction of these test items is permitted only on the specificterms set by the NDEB. Any editing or manipulation of these test items is strictly prohibited. The NDEB strictly prohibits the addition of answers, suggested answers, commentary, or any other additional material to these released test items. The NDEB also strictly prohibits the sale of these released test items and the distribution or sale of any material with the intent to provide the answers to the released test items. Please contact the NDEB by email at [email protected], or by telephone at 613-236-5912,to reqeust written permission before reproducing the released test items. DISCLAIMER Since 2009, the NDEB has made available a Released Test Item Bank that includes both retired and active test items in English and French. The proportion of test item categories within the bank is not necessarily representative of the Written Examination and Assessment of Fundamental Knowledge Blueprints. Furthermore, the content of the released test items is not necessarily representative of any given form of past assessments or examinations. Some of the items in the bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, some question formats may not be currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. Lichen planus occurs most frequently on the The setting of a zinc-phosphate cement can best be retarded by A. buccal mucosa. B. tongue. A. decreasing the particle size. C. floor of the mouth. B. increasing the concentration of water in the D. gingiva. liquid. C. increasing the rate of addition of the powder to the liquid. D. cooling the glass mixing slab. In the absence of “Hanks balanced salt solution”, what is the most appropriate media to transport an avulsed tooth? What is the most likely diagnosis of a white lesion A. Saliva. on the retromolar pad opposing a non-functional B. Milk. molar? C. Saline. D. Tap water. A. Alveolar ridge keratosis. B. Candidiasis. C. Lichen planus. D. Squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the following is the most likely cause of osteoporosis, glaucoma, hypertension and peptic ulcers in a 65 year old with Crohn’s disease? Upon examination of an edentulous patient, it is A. Uncontrolled diabetes. observed that the tuberosities contact the retromolar B. Systemic corticosteroid therapy. pads at the correct occlusal vertical dimension. The C. Chronic renal failure. treatment of choice is to D. Prolonged NSAID therapy. E. Malabsorption syndrome. A. reduce the retromolar pads surgically to provide the necessary clearance. B. reduce the tuberosities surgically to provide the necessary clearance. A 7 year old patient is missing tooth 5.5 and tooth C. construct new dentures at an increased occlusal 7.5. Space maintainers were not placed. A current vertical dimension to gain the necessary mixed dentition analysis yields the following data: clearance. D. proceed with construction of the denture and R L reduce the posterior extension of the -5mm -3mm (maxilla) mandibular denture to eliminate interferences. -3mm -4.5mm (mandible) The actual space loss assuming there was no asymmetry in tooth sizes is A hinge axis facebow records A. 8mm in the maxilla. A. Bennett angle. B. 2mm in the maxilla. B. centric relation. C. 7.5mm in the mandible. C. lateral condylar inclination. D. 4.5mm in the mandible. D. horizontal condylar inclination. E. opening and closing axis of the mandible. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 The most important objective of occlusal adjustment Which condition has NOT been associated with of a natural dentition is to Candida albicans infection? A. prevent temporomandibular joint syndrome. A. Median rhomboid glossitis. B. increase the shearing action in mastication. B. Angular cheilitis. C. improve oral hygiene by preventing food C. Denture stomatitis. impaction. D. Aphthous ulcerations. D. achieve a more favorable direction and E. Oral hairy leukoplakia. distribution of forces of occlusion. If a complete mandibular denture causes a burning Which of the following is essential for successful sensation in the premolar region, this is due to the periodontal treatment? denture exerting pressure in/on the A. Scaling. A. fibres of the buccinator muscle. B. Final evaluation and maintenance on a one- B. lingual branch of the mandibular division of year recall. the trigeminal nerve. C. Periodontal flap surgery. C. underlying bone. D. Elimination of local etiologic factors. D. mental branch of the inferior alveolar nerve. E. buccal frenum area. A hinge axis facebow records Which of the following microorganisms are most A. Bennett angle. frequently found in infected root canals? B. centric relation. C. lateral condylar inclination. A. Streptococcus viridans. D. horizontal condylar inclination. B. Staphylococcus aureus. E. opening and closing axis of the mandible. C. Lactobacilli. D. Enterococci. E. Staphylococcus albus. The predominant type of movement produced by a finger spring on a removable appliance is Epinephrine should be administered immediately in A. torque. which of the following emergencies? B. tipping. C. rotation. A. A severe angina attack. D. translation. B. A mild asthmatic attack. C. Severe anaphylaxis. D. Severe hypotension. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 The location and extent of subgingival calculus is Endotoxin is most accurately determined clinically by A. a cell wall component of gram-negative A. radiopaque solution used in conjunction with bacteria. radiographs. B. a potent inflammatory agent. B. disclosing solution. C. present in diseased root cementum. C. probing with a fine instrument. D. All of the above. D. visual inspection. The bond between porcelain and metal in a In inhalation analgesia, what is the safe maximal ceramometal (porcelain bonded to metal) crown is nitrous oxide concentration that can be delivered? A. chemical. A. 50%. B. mechanical. B. 60%. C. equally chemical and mechanical. C. 70%. D. neither chemical nor mechanical. D. 80%. Soft tissue pockets CANNOT be reduced by The predominant immunoglobulin isolated from saliva is A. occlusal adjustment. B. scaling and root planing (debridement). A. IgG. C. open flap curettage. B. IgM. D. guided tissue regeneration. C. IgA. D. IgD. When designing a removable partial denture, changing the tilt of the cast on the surveyor alters the Roots of the permanent maxillary central incisors are completed by what age? A. path of insertion of the planned removable partial denture. A. 8 years. B. the position of the survey line on the cast. B. 10 years. C. the undercut and non-undercut areas. C. 12 years. D. the direction of forces applied to the partial D. Later than 12 years. denture. Increased overjet, moderate facial convexity and a Needle deflection increases as deep labio-mental sulcus is most characteristic of which facial type? A. depth of injection increases. B. needle length increases. A. Prognathic. C. needle gauge decreases. B. Orthognathic. D. All of the above. C. Retrognathic. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 Acute or subacute suppurative osteomyelitis occurs most frequently in the The line drawn through the occlusal rests of two principal abutments is A. anterior maxilla. B. posterior mandible. A. survey line. C. posterior maxilla. B. terminal line. D. anterior mandible. C. axis of rotation/fulcrum line. D. line of greatest torque. Intraoral soft tissue examination will NOT assist in the diagnosis of An anxious 67 year old patient presents for consultation to extract tooth 4.6. The medical history A. lichen planus. includes a heart murmur, hypertension and a B. sinusitis. cerebrovascular accident 5 years ago. Medications C. erythema multiforme. include clopidrogel, hydrochlorothiazide and D. anemia. rosuvastatin. What is the most appropriate E. vitamin deficiencies. preoperative management? A. Prescribing antibiotic prophylaxis. B. Ordering an INR test within 24 hours prior to Which of the following improves the prognosis of procedure. pulp vitality after indirect pulp capping? C. Discussing with the patient the use of sedation. D. Requesting a complete blood count. A. Use of calcium hydroxide. B. Having a well sealed restoration. C. Reducing other traumas to the pulp. D. Removing all demineralized dentin. In clinical dentistry, stiffness of wire is a function of A. length of the wire segment. B. diameter of the wire segment. An 8 year old patient has a permanent central incisor C. alloy composition. with a necrotic pulp and a wide open apex. The most D. All of the above. appropriate management is to perform a/an E. None of the above. A. pulpotomy. B. apexification. C. regenerative endodontics. The major disadvantage of zinc phosphate used to D. root canal therapy. cement crowns is the A. development of heat during setting. B. pulp irritation. Hyperplastic lingual tonsils may resemble which of C. lack of edge strength. the following? D. low crushing strength. A. Epulis fissuratum. B. Lingual varicosities. C. Squamous cell carcinoma. D. Median rhomboid glossitis. E. Prominent fungiform papillae. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 The most effective way of minimizing a patient’s An acute periapical abscess originating from a radiation dose is mandibular third molar generally points and drains in the A. a lead apron and thyroid collar. B. prescription radiography. A. submandibular space. C. fast emulsion film. B. pterygomandibular space. D. intensifying screens. C. buccal vestibule. D. buccal space. Which of the following require prophylactic antibiotics prior to dental procedures causing a Which of the following is/are NOT usually affected bacteremia? by hereditary ectodermal dysplasia? A. Implanted cardiac pacemakers. A. Salivary glands. B. Prosthetic cardiac valves. B. Teeth. C. Coronary artery bypass grafts. C. Sweat glands. D. Cardiac stents one year after placement. D. Hair. E. Fingernails. A bite-wing radiograph of tooth 1.4 reveals caries penetrating one third into the mesial enamel. The The smear layer created by root canal most appropriate management of tooth 1.4 is to instrumentation can be removed by A. place an amalgam restoration. A. hydrogen peroxide and ethyl chloride. B. place a porcelain inlay. B. sodium hypochlorite and EDTA. C. place a direct composite restoration. C. chlorhexidine and chloroform. D. apply fluoride and improve oral hygiene. D. calcium hydroxide and phenol. Desquamation of the gingiva usually occurs as a Abrasion is most commonly seen on the result of A. lingual surface of posterior teeth. A. inflammation. B. occlusal surface of posterior teeth. B. benign neoplasia. C. incisal edges. C. normal cell turnover. D. facial surfaces of teeth. D. a developmental abnormality. The most appropriate management of an avulsed In the surgical removal of an impacted mandibular maxillary central incisor in a 10 year old is the third molar, which of the following would be placement of a considered to be the most difficult? A. removable space maintainer. A. Mesio-angular. B. bonded resin bridge (Maryland bridge). B. Horizontal. C. conventional fixed partial denture. C. Vertical. D. single tooth implant. D. Disto-angular. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 A laboratory remount of processed dentures is done During extraction of a maxillary third molar, the in order to correct occlusal disharmony produced by tuberosity is fractured. The tooth with the tuberosity errors primarily in the remains attached to the surrounding soft tissue. You should A. mounting of the casts on the articulator. B. registration of jaw relation records. A. remove both and suture. C. processing of acrylic dentures. B. leave both and stabilize, if possible. D. registration of condylar guidance. C. remove both, fill the defect with Gelfoam and suture. D. reflect the mucoperiosteum, remove the tooth, leaving the tuberosity in place and suture. An adult patient has several multilocular lesions associated with vital mandibular teeth. A histopathologic analysis reveals the presence of multinucleated giant cells. The most appropriate If a tooth has an inadequate ferrule, which of the management for this patient is to following is an effective strategy to increase tooth structure available for crown preparation? A. extract the involved teeth. B. obtain a serum parathormone (PTH) level. A. Cementation of the restoration with a glass C. commence antibiotic therapy. ionomer cement. D. initiate endodontic treatments. B. Sub-gingival preparation and prolonged E. perform a mandibular resection. temporization. C. Orthodontic eruption. D. Elective endodontic treatment and a post core. The tissue which is most sensitive to radiation is A. nerve. Methemoglobinemia is a potential complication of B. dental pulp. an excessive dose of C. lymphoid. D. muscle. A. bupivacaine. B. lidocaine. C. mepivacaine. D. prilocaine. The level of streptococcus mutans has been shown to be significantly higher in the bacterial plaque adjacent to which type of posterior restoration? Maxillary skeletal arch expansion A. Glass-ionomer. B. Composite resin. A. is easiest in the preadolescent patient. C. Amalgam. B. requires surgery in skeletally immature D. Gold castings. patients. C. decreases arch space. D. increases overbite. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 Warfarin (Coumadin®) acts by In complete denture contruction, the physiologic rest position A. preventing formation of thromboplastin. B. preventing fibrinogen conversion to fibrin. A. provides a quide to establish the vertical C. inhibiting the synthesis of prothrombin in the dimension of occlusion. liver. B. determines the level of the occlusal plane. D. incorporating ionic calcium. C. provides a guide for the selection of cusp inclination. D. determines the shape of the compensating curve. E. is useful to the determination of condylar In the pterygomandibular space, the inferior alveolar inclination. nerve passes A. anterior to the deep tendon of the temporal muscle. Upon stimulation of salivary flow, which gland is B. lateral to the sphenomandibular ligament. the main source of salivary volume? C. medial to the medial pterygoid muscle. D. medial to the pterygomandibular raphe. A. Submandibular. B. Submaxillary. C. Sublingual. D. Parotid. The gingivectomy is a useful technique to eliminate A. infrabony pockets. B. suprabony pockets. Following periodontal surgery, the curetted root C. thick osseous ledges. surface is repopulated by cells derived from all of D. mucogingival problems. the following tissues EXCEPT A. periodontal ligament. B. cementum. Periapical osseous dysplasia (periapical cemento- C. alveolar bone. osseous dysplasia) D. epithelium. E. gingival connective tissue. A. is associated with a vital tooth. B. is found mainly in children. C. has an orange peel radiographic pattern. With excessive forward mandibular growth in a patient with minimal overjet, the mandibular incisors will most likely Which of the following drugs can be administered to manage pain following the acute onset of a A. tip labially. migraine? B. tip lingually. C. tip laterally. A. Amitriptyline. D. remain unchanged. B. Nifedipine. C. Propranolol. D. Sumatriptan. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 "Tic douloureux" is synonymous with By definition, a compound fracture of the mandible must have A. psychogenic facial pain. B. trigeminal neuralgia. A. multiple bone fragments. C. facial paralysis. B. exposure to the external environment. D. temporomandibular joint dysfunction. C. a tooth in the line of fracture. D. displacement of the fractured segments. The start of a mandibular bone formation coincides with Which of the following has a direct effect on periodontal tissues in diabetes mellitus-associated A. tooth germ development. gingivitis? B. completion of fusion of the facial processes. C. bone formation in the maxilla. A. Lipopolysaccharides. D. completion of a mandible cartilage model. B. Matrix metalloproteinases. C. Proinflammatory cytokines. D. Prostaglandins. E. Leukotoxin. A 35 year old female patient has multiple petechiae hemorrhages of the palatal mucosa and ecchymoses of the right and left buccal mucosae. Which of the following is the most likely laboratory finding? The inferior border of the lingual bar of a removable partial denture should A. Anemia. B. Prolonged partial thromboplastin time (PTT). A. displace the lingual frenum. C. Elevated INR. B. be in contact with the cingula of the incisor D. Thrombocytopenia. teeth. C. be superior to the gingival border. D. be as inferior as the movement of the frenum of the tongue will permit. Osteogenesis imperfecta is manifested by A. punched-out radiolucencies in the jaws. B. numerous unerupted supernumerary teeth. In radiography, minimum magnification and C. osteoporosis and anemia. maximum definition are achieved by D. multiple fractures and blue sclera. A. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and minimum FFD (focal-film distance). B. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and Keratocystic odontogenic tumours (odontogenic maximum FFD (focal-film distance). keratocysts) have a/an C. maximum OFD (object -film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance). A. inflammatory origin. D. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and B. mixed radiopaque/radiolucent appearance. minimum FFD (focal-film distance). C. solid consistency. D. tendency to recur. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 Side effects of chemotherapeutic treatment for A clinical sign of unilateral fracture of the body of malignancy include the zygoma is A. thinning of the oral mucosa. A. cerebrospinal rhinorrhea. B. ulceration. B. impaired hearing. C. necrosis. C. subconjunctival haemorrhage. D. spontaneous bleeding. D. otorrhea. E. all of the above. When probing a healthy peridontium using light The use of an intra-coronal attachment is forces, the probe tip will most likely extend to the CONTRAINDICATED for a tooth A. attached gingiva. A. that is nonvital. B. junctional epithelium. B. requiring a core procedure build up. C. transverse fibres of the periodontal ligament. C. supporting a partial denture. D. with short crown length. A surgical flap approach to periodontal pocket elimination permits World epidemiological data indicates that periodontal disease is the most likely cause of tooth A. healing by primary intention. loss in the following age group: B. retention of gingiva. C. access to perform osseous recontouring. A. 10 - 20 years. D. All of the above. B. 20 - 30 years. C. 30 - 50 years. D. 65 - 75 years. E. over 75 years. What is the most probable syndrome affecting a 9 year old patient with a history of 3 keratocystic odontogenic tumours (odontogenic keratocyst)? For a patient with cardiovascular disease, local A. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome (Gorlin anesthesia Syndrome). B. Familial colorectal polyposis (Gardner’s A. affects blood pressure more than general Syndrome). anesthesia. C. Crouzon Syndrome. B. affects blood pressure less than general D. Apert Syndrome. anesthesia. C. is responsible for bacteremia. The smear layer present on the root canal wall after cleaning and shaping is best removed by using A. EDTA. B. hydrogen peroxide. C. chlorhexidine. D. isopropyl alcohol. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 The primary etiological factor associated with Odontoblast gap junctions periodontal disease is A. adhere the cells to one another. A. bacterial plaque. B. attach the cells to the basement membrane. B. calculus. C. seal off the dentin from the pulp. C. diabetes mellitus. D. permit lateral cell-cell communication. D. tooth mobility. E. smoking. Which type of malocclusion should be corrected as early as possible? The inorganic ion that is implicated in primary hypertension is A. Class II Division 1 associated with an anterior open bite. A. sodium. B. Class II Division 2 associated with an B. fluoride. increased anterior overbite. C. potassium. C. Class III associated with an anterior open bite. D. magnesium. D. Cross-bite associated with a functional shift of the mandible from initial contact to maximum intercuspation. E. Anterior open bite associated with a lip or digit A patient with complete dentures complains of sucking habit. clicking. The most common causes are A. reduced vertical dimension and improperly balanced occlusion. Ideally, within how many hours should one receive B. excessive vertical dimension and poor medical attention for percutaneous exposure to retention. blood borne pathogens? C. use of too large a posterior tooth and too little horizontal overlap. A. 2. D. improper relation of teeth to the ridge and B. 4. excessive anterior vertical overlap. C. 6. D. 8. Which of the following drugs does NOT cause gingival enlargement? The maximum recommended number of 1.8ml cartridges of 2% lidocaine with A. Nifedipine. epinephrine 1:100,000 that may be safely B. Cyclosporine. administered to a 17kg child is approximately C. Phenytoin. D. Prednisolone. A. 0.5. B. 1. C. 1.5. D. 2. E. 2.5. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 Which of the following conditions may develop as a result of juvenile diabetes mellitus? Which of the following is the most predictable indicator of periodontal stability? A. Ataxia. B. Aphasia. A. Patient compliance with maintenance visit. C. Deafness. B. Gingival inflammation. D. Blindness. C. Plaque index. E. Motor paralysis. D. Absence of bleeding on probing. To ensure a clinically acceptable setting time, Which condition is associated with elevated serum polyalkenoic cements contain alkaline phosphatase and elevated urinary hydroxyproline levels? A. salicylic acid. B. phosphoric acid. A. Fibrous dysplasia. C. maleic acid. B. Paget disease. D. tartaric acid. C. Sjögren syndrome. E. itaconic acid. D. Gardner syndrome. A gluteal intramuscular injection may be safely The metabolic clearance of which of the following administered in which quadrant? drugs is NOT reduced in an elderly patient? A. Lower medial. A. Carbamazepine. B. Upper medial. B. Warfarin. C. Lower lateral. C. Morphine. D. Upper lateral. D. Clindamycin. Sickle cell anemia is The local anesthetic technique requiring the needle to contact the neck of the condyle is the A. a genetic disease. B. caused by exposure to radiation. A. posterior superior alveolar nerve block. C. a viral infection. B. Gow-Gates block. D. a drug reaction. C. Vazirani-Akinosi block. E. an auto-immune disease. D. inferior alveolar nerve block. Biocompatibility tests conducted in vitro When will infiltrating new blood vessels be histologically detectable following a free gingival A. follow screening with an animal model. graft? B. predict human cell growth or death. C. reproduce the in vivo environment. A. 2 to 3 hours. D. are more easily standardized than clinical B. 2 to 3 days. studies. C. 2 to 3 weeks. D. 2 to 3 months. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 In order to prevent gingival recession, a full gold Widening of the periodontal ligament space is NOT crown should have seen radiographically in A. a slightly narrow food table. A. trauma from occlusion. B. a slightly overcontoured tooth form. B. orthodontic tooth movement. C. normal contour reproduced. C. Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis). D. the margins extended 1mm subgingivally. D. Paget's disease. Bite-wing radiographs are most valuable for The pulpal floor of a Class II cavity is cut detecting perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth EXCEPT in the A. hyperemia of the pulp. B. occlusal carious lesions. A. maxillary first premolar. C. proximal surface caries. B. maxillary second premolar. D. cervical caries. C. mandibular second premolar. D. mandibular first premolar. In an infrabony pocket, the epithelial attachment is located An 86 year old patient with poor oral hygiene has a cavitated lesion with active caries. The lesion is on A. within basal bone. the vestibular root surface of a maxillary posterior B. coronal to alveolar bone crest. tooth, and the patient does not want any mercury in C. apical to alveolar bone crest. their mouth. The most appropriate restorative material for this lesion is a/an A. microfill resin composite. Which of the following presents with high serum B. hybrid resin composite. calcium levels, thinning of cortical bone and giant C. resin-modified glass ionomer. cell osteoclasts in the jaw and drifting teeth? D. amalgam. A. Hyperthyroidism. B. Hyperparathyroidism. C. Hypothyroidism. Which of the following characteristics is common to D. Hypoparathyroidism. all types of aphthous ulcers? A. History of pain. B. Involvement of keratinized mucosa. The condyle of the mandible is unique because C. Presence of vesicles. D. Presence of fever. A. it develops from Meckel's cartilage. E. Scar formation after healing. B. both interstitial and appositional bone formation are present. C. both primary and secondary cartilage growth centres are present. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 For an adult patient, the recommended time interval between bite-wing radiographic examination for the Drug-induced gingival overgrowth will most likely detection of dental caries is occur on the interdental papillae of which area? A. 6 months. A. Anterior palate. B. 12 months. B. Posterior palate. C. 24 months. C. Anterior labial. D. dependent upon caries risk. D. Posterior buccal. All of the following conditions are associated with Which of the following statements about sodium is AIDS EXCEPT correct? A. acute marginal periodontitis. A. Salt-sensitive people should avoid foods like B. hairy leukoplakia. oranges and bananas. C. candidiasis. B. A high salt intake aggravates but does not cause D. geographic tongue. hypertension. C. Renal sodium excretion varies indirectly with total sodium intake. D. The sodium recommendation is increased Which of the following “in office” preventive during pregnancy. procedures is most practical and effective for an uncooperative 4-year old patient from a non- compliant family? What is the most likely diagnosis of a white diffuse A. Oral hygiene instruction. lesion with a wrinkled appearance on the buccal B. Dietary counseling. mucosa which disappears upon stretching? C. Fluoride varnish every six months. D. Fluoride supplements. A. Leukoedema. E. Pit and fissure sealants on all primary molars. B. Lichen planus. C. Candidiasis. D. Linea alba. E. White sponge nevus. Oral nitrate is used to treat the symptoms of A. hypertension. B. angina. Which of the following landmarks is used to C. arrhythmia. determine the height of the occlusal plane of the D. tachycardia. posterior teeth in a mandibular complete denture? A. Maxillary central incisor. B. Residual ridge crest. When exposing radiographic film, the amount of C. Tongue. radiation received by the patient is best reduced by D. Mandibular canine. E. Retromolar pad. A. collimation. B. decreased object-film distance. C. low kVp correlated with high milliamperage. D. decreased target-object distance. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 In patients wearing complete dentures, the most Vitamin C is essential for frequent cause of tooth contact (clicking) during speaking is A. formation of collagen. B. osteoid. A. nervous tension. C. dentin. B. incorrect centric relation position. D. cementum. C. excessive occlusal vertical dimension. E. All of the above. D. lack of vertical overlap. E. unbalanced occlusion. The presence of flaws or cracks in a material The normal position of the alveolar crest in healthy A. influences the strength of metals more than periodontium is ceramics. B. leads to the development of stress A. 1 to 2mm coronal to the CEJ. concentrations. B. at the CEJ. C. impacts compressive strength more than tensile C. 1 to 2mm apical to the CEJ. strength. D. 3 to 4mm apical to the CEJ. D. decreases its elastic modulus. A patient with amyloidosis is taking 20 mg The most appropriate radiograph(s) to determine the prednisone once a day. What is the minimum location of an impacted maxillary cuspid is/are number of weeks taking the drug that triggers the need for corticosteroid prophylaxis before A. occlusal. proceeding with major dentoalveolar surgery under B. periapical. general anesthesia? C. periapical and occlusal. D. panoramic. A. 2. B. 4. C. 6. D. 8. Fluorides are effective in the prevention of dental caries by A. increasing the resistance of dentin to bacterial The most radiosensitive cell type is a/an penetration. B. causing tooth enamel to be more resistant to A. neuron. demineralization. B. chondrocyte. C. providing a more favorable pulpal blood C. myocyte. supply. D. epithelial basal cell. D. All of the above. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 Angiotensin II converting enzyme is primarily produced in In chewing, maximum contact between teeth occurs in the position of A. osteoblasts. B. epithelial cells of the small intestine. A. habitual occlusion. C. hepatocytes. B. lateral excursion on the non-working side. D. Kupffer cells. C. protrusive excursion. E. vascular endothelial cells of the lung. D. All of the above A patient that has been prescribed metronidazole Sterilization of carious dentin without pulp injury is should avoid assured by the application of A. alcohol. A. phenol. B. antacids. B. 70% ethyl alcohol. C. caffeine. C. chlorhexidine. D. cheese. D. absolute alcohol. E. grapefruit juice. E. None of the above. The small bubble normally seen in a local anesthetic Which periodontal pathogen can use the hormone cartridge is estrogen as a growth factor? A. nitrogen. A. Porphyromonas gingivalis. B. air. B. Aggregatibacter (Actinobacillus) C. oxygen. actinomycetemcomitans. D. a breakdown product. C. Prevotella intermedia. D. Tannerella forsythia. If an infection from an abscessed permanent mandibular first molar perforates the lingual cortex, A 13 year old complains of red, bleeding and which muscle determines the space to which the swollen gums. Clinical examination reveals this is infection will spread in the soft tissues? present only on the labial gingiva of the maxillary anterior teeth. What is the most likely etiologic A. Mylohyoid. factor? B. Temporalis. C. Digastric. A. Blood dyscrasia. D. Medial pterygoid. B. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. C. Mouth breathing habit. D. Pubertal hormones. Which syndrome has multiple cysts of the jaws? A. Gardner syndrome. B. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome. C. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. D. Sjögren syndrome. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 In dental radiography, the most effective method of reducing patient somatic exposure is to use The most appropriate treatment following the extraction of a first primary molar in a 4 year old A. a lead apron. child is B. high speed film. C. added filtration. A. regular assessment of arch development. D. collimation. B. to perform space analysis. C. insertion of a space maintainer. D. extraction of the contra-lateral molar. E. extraction of the opposing molar. A lateral force applied to the crown of a tooth will result in the crown moving A. in one direction and the root apex in the The most common form of periodontal disease is opposite direction. B. in the same direction as the root apex. A. gingivitis. C. along the line of force while the root apex B. chronic periodontitis. remains stationary. C. gingival hyperplasia. D. aggressive periodontitis. Healthy attached gingiva Metronidazole can be used to treat A. has no basal cell layer. B. is closely bound to underlying periosteum. A. denture stomatitis. C. contains elastic fibers. B. recurrent aphthous ulcers. D. has no rete pegs. C. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG). D. primary herpetic gingivostomatitis. The most common senile dementia in the elderly is An anterior crossbite of a permanent maxillary A. vascular dementia. incisor in the mixed dentition is most often B. Alzheimer’s disease. associated with C. a result of cerebral arteriosclerosis. D. multi-infarct dementia. A. a functional shift. B. unexplainable genetic factors. C. lingually situated supernumerary teeth. D. prolonged retention of a primary incisor. In the mandibular dental arch of a 12-year old boy, E. premature eruption of a maxillary incisor. the permanent first molars are in contact with the first premolars and the crowns of the second premolars have erupted lingually. The likely cause is In healthy gingiva, the level of the interproximal alveolar crest is related to the A. ankylosis of the mandibular second premolars. B. lack of space. A. thickness of the alveolar process. C. teeth too large for the dental arch. B. location of the gingival margin. D. premature loss of deciduous second molars. C. amount of underlying trabecular bone. E. faulty lingual eruption of the second premolars. D. position of the cemento-enamel junction. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019  Hypochromic anemia is associated with Heat treatment alters a gold alloy's A. iron deficiency. A. hardness. B. aminopyrine therapy. B. proportional limit. C. vitamin B12 deficiency. C. percentage elongation. D. folic acid deficiency. D. All of the above. Which of the following is a clinical The major connector of a removable partial denture CONTRAINDICATION for an all-ceramic should be designed to maxillary anterior crown? A. connect rigidly the component parts of the A. Excessive overjet and overbite. partial denture. B. Normal overjet and excessive overbite. B. act as a stress-breaker. C. An endodontically treated tooth with a cast C. dissipate vertical forces. post and core. D. A low caries index. Which of the following procedures must be done to ensure acceptable mercury hygiene in a dental The dimensional stability of polyether impression office? material is considered to be good EXCEPT if the material is A. Use of high volume evacuation when working with amalgam. A. dehydrated. B. Use of air spray when condensing, polishing or B. allowed to absorb water after setting. removing amalgam. C. used in uneven thickness. C. Storage of amalgam scrap in a dry container D. distorted by rapid removal of the impression with a lid. from the mouth. D. A quarterly mercury assessment for office E. contaminated with latex. personnel. A preparation for a Class II amalgam restoration in Which of the following changes in colour, contour primary molars should include and texture are indicative of plaque induced gingivitis? A. occlusally divergent buccal and lingual walls. B. an axial wall that parallels the dentino-enamel A. Red, swollen, increased stippling. junction. B. Cyanotic, cleft formation, lack of stippling. C. an isthmus that occupies two thirds of the C. Red, swollen, lack of stippling. intercuspal distance. D. Pink, swollen, lack of stippling. D. undercut enamel and dentin. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 The primary factor for selecting periodontal flap Which of the following preoperative instructions are surgery rather than gingivectomy is most appropriate for a well-controlled insulin- dependent diabetic patient who is scheduled at 9:00 A. presence of gingival edema. a.m. for the extraction of two teeth under local B. pocket depth. anesthesia? C. presence of subgingival calculus. D. need for access to the bony defect. A. Eat breakfast before the appointment and delay insulin injection until after the appointment. B. Take insulin before the appointment and delay breakfast until after the extractions. The most appropriate material of choice for C. Eat breakfast before the appointment and take obturating the root canal system of a primary tooth is insulin according to the regime prescribed by the physician. A. MTA. D. Delay breakfast and insulin until after the B. gutta percha. dental appointment. C. zinc-oxide eugenol. D. formocresol. During orthodontic treatment, a healthy adolescent will most frequently present with Which of the following tumours has the best prognosis? A. gingivitis. B. horizontal bone loss. A. Osteosarcoma. C. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. B. Melanoma. D. vertical bone loss. C. Ameloblastoma. D. Adenocarcinoma. Many months after trauma to a primary incisor, the development of a greyish discolouration in the A pleomorphic adenoma is characterized by crown usually indicates A. metastases. A. pulp necrosis. B. recurrence. B. pulp canal calcification. C. pain. C. external root resorption. D. ulceration. D. internal root resorption. A 4 year old has generalized bone loss, mobile teeth and generalized calculus. Which condition should NOT be included in the differential diagnosis? A. Cyclic neutropenia. B. Papillon-Lefèvre syndrome. C. Chédiak-Higashi syndrome. D. Crouzon syndrome. E. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency syndrome. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 The most appropriate time for surgical treatment of a patient with mandibular prognathism is Presence of bleeding on probing A. just before the beginning of the prepubertal A. is indicative of current inflammation. growth spurt. B. is indicative of past inflammation. B. just after the end of the prepubertal growth C. has a high positive predictive value (PPV) for spurt. further attachment loss. C. just before eruption of the second permanent molars. D. just after eruption of the second permanent molars. Which of the following is classified as a muscle of E. following the completion of growth. mastication? A. Temporalis. B. Buccinator. Enamel pearls form when C. Digastric. D. Mylohyoid. A. ameloblasts migrate apically down the root. B. cells of the epithelial root sheath do not migrate away from the dentin. C. cells of the dental follicle fail to develop. The most logical explanation for causing swelling D. epithelial rests transform into ameloblast beneath the eye caused by an abscessed maxillary vesicles. canine is that the A. lymphatics drain superiorly in this region. B. bone is less porous superior to the root apex. Which of the following should be performed to C. infection has passed into the angular vein confirm a diagnosis of pseudomembranous which has no valves. candidiasis? D. the root apex lies superior to the attachment of the caninus and levator labii superioris A. An incisional biopsy. muscles. B. A cytological smear. C. An excisional biopsy. D. A complete blood count. What percentage of natal teeth are supernumerary? A. 10. A 70 year old patient was diagnosed with squamous B. 50. cell carcinoma of the lateral border of the tongue. C. 90. The tumour measures 3.5 x 3.0 cm. A CT of the neck confirms the presence of a 2.5cm ipsilateral submandibular lymph node suggestive of locoregional disease. Chest X-rays and liver function Which of the following is NOT a symptom of tests were within normal limits. The TNM hypercalcemia? classification of this patient’s disease is A. Paresthesia. A. T1N1M0. B. Constipation. B. T1N2M0. C. Anoxia. C. T2N1M0. D. Lethargy. D. T2N2M1. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 On bite-wing radiographs of adults under the age of Which of the following has the greatest effect on the 30, the normal alveolar crest is mechanical properties of composite resin? A. at the cementoenamel junction. A. Modulus of elasticity of the filler particles. B. 1-2mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. B. Weight fraction of the filler particles. C. 3-4mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. C. Volume fraction of filler particles. D. not clearly distinguishable. D. Hardness of filler particles. E. Size of the filler particles. Which disorder presents with all permanent teeth exhibiting bulbous crowns, cervical constriction and Multiple neurofibromatosis and "café au lait" spots obliterated pulp canals and chambers? on the skin are typical of A. Amelogenesis imperfecta. A. Gardner's syndrome. B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta. B. Plummer-Vinson syndrome. C. Dentin dysplasia type I. C. Von Recklinghausen's disease. D. Dentin dysplasia type II. D. Down syndrome. In composite resin restorations, glass ionomer After the elimination of occlusal trauma, even in the cements can be used as a base because they are presence of inflammation, which of the following is most likely to result? A. sedative to a hyperemic pulp. B. neutral in colour. A. Reduction in tooth mobility. C. biocompatible. B. Regeneration of the periodontal ligament. D. compatible with the expansion of composite C. Restoration of lost alveolar bone. resins. D. Gain of clinical attachment. Which of the following structures lies inferior to the Temporary anchorage devices (TADS) have the mylohyoid muscle at the level of the mandibular greatest effect on which orthodontic movement? second molar? A. Extrusion. A. Lingual artery. B. Torqueing. B. Lingual vein. C. Intrusion. C. Lingual nerve. D. Tipping. D. Submandibular duct. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 Which of the following is most likely to have its The mean annual radiation dose equivalent for effect reduced in a patient with genetic human populations on earth is approximately polymorphism of CYP2D6? A. 3 to 4 micro- (µ) Sv. A. Acetaminophen. B. 3 to 4 milli- (m) Sv. B. Amoxicillin. C. 3 to 4 Sv. C. Clindamycin. D. 3 to 4 kSv. D. Codeine. E. Ibuprofen. Metastasis is most likely to occur in The labial/buccal attached gingiva on permanent A. squamous cell carcinoma. teeth is normally widest at the B. basal cell carcinoma. C. ameloblastoma. A. mandibular canines. D. complex odontoma. B. maxillary premolars. E. odontogenic fibroma. C. mandibular premolars. D. maxillary lateral incisors. Lidocaine (Xylocaine®) is an example of a local anesthetic which is chemically classified as an Mandibular growth A. amide. A. is sustained over a longer period of time in B. ester. girls. C. aldehyde. B. is sustained over a longer period of time in D. ethamine. boys. E. aminide. C. occurs at the same chronologic age in both sexes. D. occurs two years earlier in boys than in girls. A mixed lesion with a radiolucent rim and corticated border causing impaction of a permanent tooth is most likely a/an Which of the following drugs are classic antagonists for curare over-dosage? A. adenomatoid odontogenic tumour. B. calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour. A. Anticholinesterases. C. odontoma. B. Ganglionic stimulants. D. ameloblastic fibro-odontoma. C. Ganglionic blocking agents. D. Alpha adrenergic blocking agents. E. Beta adrenergic blocking agents. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 During endodontic treatment a file separates. The The most appropriate restoration for a primary first fragment is 3mm long and is lodged tightly in the molar with extensive carious destruction of the apical third of the canal. No radiographic changes at crown is a the apex are evident. In addition to informing the patient, the most appropriate management is to A. posterior composite resin. B. pin retained amalgam. A. extract the tooth. C. stainless steel crown. B. perform an apicoectomy and place a retrograde D. resin-modified glass ionomer. filling. C. resect the apical section of the root containing the separated instrument. D. complete the root canal filling and monitor at The physiologic wear of hard dental tissue resulting recall examination. from mastication is known as A. decalcification. B. attrition. Polycarboxylate cement may be used as a base C. abrasion. material beneath a metallic restoration because D. erosion. A. its thermal conductivity is similar to dentin and enamel. B. its thermal diffusivity is similar to dentin and Sickle cell anemia is enamel. C. its compressive strength when set will resist A. a genetic disease. forces of condensation. B. caused by exposure to radiation. D. All of the above. C. a viral infection. D. a drug reaction. E. an auto-immune disease. The collimator of an X ray tube A. produces a more homogeneous X ray beam. Blue sclera is characteristic of B. prevents secondary radiation. C. focuses the X ray beam. A. osteopetrosis. D. restricts the diameter of the X ray beam. B. osteogenesis imperfecta. C. osteitis deformans. D. fibrous dysplasia. The most significant factor in the predictable correction of an anterior crossbite is the The principal microorganism in localized aggressive A. age of the patient. periodontitis is B. degree of incisor overbite. C. shape of the incisors. A. Porphyromonas gingivalis. D. amount of mesio-distal spacing. B. Fusobacterium nucleatum. C. Aggregatobacter (Actinobacillus) actinomycetemcomitans. D. Prevotella intermedia. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 What is the most likely diagnosis of an ulcerated gingival lesion whose biopsy report confirms The management of a single tooth posterior epithelial basal layer separation from the lamina crossbite requires propria? A. opening the bite to disclude the teeth. A. An aphthous ulcer. B. creating space in the opposing arch. B. Erosive lichen planus. C. correcting the functional shift of the mandible. C. Pemphigus vulgaris. D. rapid palatal expansion. D. Mucous membrane pemphigoid (cicatricial pemphigoid). A facebow is used to record the Chewing “automatism” is dependent on which A. vertical dimension of occlusion. mechanism? B. horizontal condylar inclination. C. incisal guidance. A. Reflexes between jaw closing and opening D. relationship of the maxilla to the horizontal muscles. hinge axis. B. Swallowing and respiration neuronal activity. C. Periodontal receptor stimulation. D. Reticular formation neuronal activity. A vital canine is to be used as the anterior abutment of a four unit fixed partial denture and it has 2.0mm remaining coronal tooth structure. The most The junctional epithelium, once it has migrated acceptable foundation restoration would be apically, attaches to the cementum by means of A. bonded amalgam core build-up. A. collagen fibres. B. a pin retained amalgam core build-up. B. oxytalan fibres. C. a pin retained composite resin core build-up. C. desmosomes. D. intentional devitalization followed by a post D. hemidesmosomes. and core restoration. Condensing osteitis in the periapical region is Which of the following is associated with aggressive indicative of a/an periodontitis in adolescents? A. acute inflammation of the pulp. A. Treponema denticola. B. pulpal abscess. B. Aggregatibacter (Actinobacillus) C. chronic inflammation of the pulp. actinomycetemcomitans. D. early apical abscess formation. C. Porphyromonas gingivalis. D. Prevotella intermedia. Overhangs on restorations initiate chronic inflammatory periodontal disease by A. increasing plaque retention. B. increasing food retention. C. causing traumatic occlusion. D. causing pressure atrophy. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 In neurons, glutamate is an amino acid that binds Which of the following periodontal procedures is only to indicated on a maxillary canine that will receive a full crown with subgingival margins when the A. nuclear receptors. abutment has 1mm of attached gingiva, no sign of B. ionotropic receptors. inflammation or loss of attachment? C. metabotropic receptors. D. ionotropic and metabotropic receptors. A. Root planing. B. Coronally positioned flap. C. Localized gingivectomy. D. Autogenous connective tissue graft. Which maxillary central incisor characteristic is the E. There is no indication that this tooth requires most limiting in the construction of a Class II periodontal treatment. functional appliance? A. Retroclination. B. Proclination. Which of the following compounds released by C. Overeruption. inflammatory cells induces bone resorption? D. Undereruption. A. Nitric oxide. B. Interleukin-1. C. Bradykinin. Which of the following viruses has the greatest D. Alkaline phosphatase. chance of transmission in an occupational exposure to a vaccinated dental healthcare worker? A. Hepatitis B. Ludwig's angina may cause death by B. Hepatitis C. C. HIV. A. heart failure. D. HPV. B. asphyxia. C. convulsions. D. paralysis of muscles of respiration. E. pyemia. Which of the following results from a necrotic pulp? A. Dentigerous cyst. B. Lateral periodontal cyst. The mechanical objectives when preparing the root C. Chronic periradicular periodontitis. canal system for obturation with gutta-percha should D. Pulp polyp. include A. development of a continuously tapering cone in the root canal. B. removal of irregularities. C. maintenance of an intact foramen. D. all of the above. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 A radiograph displaying a “cotton-wool”' appearance and generalized hypercementosis is Assuming a maxillary cast is accurately mounted on suggestive of an articulator, a centric relation record is used to A. fibrous dysplasia. A. determine the vertical dimension of occlusion. B. osteopetrosis. B. mount the mandibular cast. C. osteogenesis imperfecta. C. establish the occlusal plane. D. Paget’s disease. D. record the inclination of the condylar guidance. E. cleidocranial dysplasia. Compared to heat-cured acrylic resins, cold-cure Continued smoking will impair wound healing acrylic resins are following a surgical procedure because of A. harder and more colour stable. A. stain development. B. less hard and more colour stable. B. increased rate of plaque formation. C. less hard and less colour stable. C. increased rate of calculus formation. D. harder and less colour stable. D. contraction of peripheral blood vessels. E. superficial irritation to tissues by smoke. A 30 year old patient has bilateral asymptomatic, bony hard nodules on the lingual surface of the During guided tissue regeneration therapy, the anterior mandible. The most appropriate regenerative cells originate primarily from the management is A. lamina propria. A. excisional biopsy of the nodules. B. periodontal ligament. B. referral for potential premalignant colonic C. cellular cementum. polyps. D. collagen membrane. C. vitality test of teeth adjacent to the nodules. D. observation at routine recalls. E. a bone scan for metastatic tumours. When compared to zinc phosphate cement, glass ionomer cement has a/an A patient complains of lip and tongue A. lower solubility in oral fluids. hypersensitivity (allodynea) following intake of hot, B. ability to release fluoride. spicy food. The sensory nerve fibers that are C. higher compressive strength. associated with this form of pain are D. lower film thickness. A. A-alpha. B. A-beta. C. A-gamma. The term "subdivision" in malocclusion D. A-delta and C. classification refers to molar relationships that are A. different on the right and left side. B. the same on the right and left side. C. mildly abnormal. D. severely abnormal. Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content, and translation. ©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2019 The most common barrier preventing elderly Which laboratory test is the most appropriate in a individuals from seeking dental treatment is patient with acute bacterial infection who does not respond to routine antibiotic therapy? A. the cost associated with dental treatments. B. difficulty getting to and from the dental office. A. Platelet count. C. a lack of perceived need for treatment. B. Hemoglobin level. D. fear of being “hurt”. C. Cytological smear. D. Culture and sensitivity. E. Immunoglobulin concentration. After a tooth has had nonsurgical endodontic treatment, which of the following is NOT an indication for additional endodontic intervention? What is the primary etiologic factor for generalized