FORMATIVE MCQs.pdf

DENTISTRY SEM 1 - FORMATIVE EXAM Q1-20: Alya Q21-40: Elisya Q41-60: Bazilah Q61-80: Chloe Q81-100: Maryam Q101-120: Fathiah Q121-140: Zuhaira 1. A patient is being investigated for malabsorption. The biopsy from the ascending colon will show signs of villous stunting A. TRUE B. FALSE Expl...

DENTISTRY SEM 1 - FORMATIVE EXAM Q1-20: Alya Q21-40: Elisya Q41-60: Bazilah Q61-80: Chloe Q81-100: Maryam Q101-120: Fathiah Q121-140: Zuhaira 1. A patient is being investigated for malabsorption. The biopsy from the ascending colon will show signs of villous stunting A. TRUE B. FALSE Explanation: Villous atrophy or villous stunting is often observed in biopsies taken from the duodenum or the jejunum of the small intestine. The small intestine is the primary site for nutrient absorption. NOT COLON! villous stunting requires villi, which the large intestine does not have.. 2. A lady is diagnosed with iron deficiency anaemia. The following conditions can be observed: A. Feeling tired B. Pale C. Low haemoglobin D. All of the above Not taking in sufficient dietary iron Faulty or incomplete absorption of iron (by hyper menstruation) Over utilization of iron (pregnancy) Excretion of Iron in the urine due to pathological or physiological diseases in the kidney 3. Antagonists bind with receptors and initiate changes in cell function, producing submaximal effect A. TRUE B. FALSE Explanation: Antagonists are inhibitors. They do not produce the desired effect/product. Antagonists bind to the receptor, so wouldn't it be true? Antagonists (inhibitors) essentially compete with agonists (substrate) for binding to receptors, preventing the agonists from exerting their effects. Therefore, antagonists typically do not produce any cellular response on their own. 4. Competitive inhibitors in enzyme kinetics A. Bind to the enzyme-substrate complex B. Decrease the Km value C. Compete with the substrate for the enzyme's active site D. Increase the reaction rate 5. The mechanism of drug absorption involved in the gastrointestinal tract is A. Endocytosis and exocytosis - B. Filtration (aqueous diffusion) I THINK?? C. None of the above Explanation: The mechanism of drug absorption in the gastrointestinal tract typically involves passive processes such as diffusion. Drug is absorbed also by active transport, thus B cannot be correct kan? I agree - Mostly through passive diffusion - Active transport too Personally i think A cuz the wording in B is so weirddddddddddddddddddddddd And filtration takes place in the kidney where drugs are excreted, not absorbed. Am i crazy According to Dr Rajan’s (if you guys remember the short quiz he gave at the end of the lesson) the answer is passive diffusion (lipid transport so answer is C trust! 6. The primary purpose of the redness observed during inflammation is to attract immune cells to the site of injury or infection A. TRUE I THINK?? B. FALSE Explanation: The redness is due to the dilation of blood vessels (vasodilation) in the affected tissue, allowing more blood to flow through and promoting the recruitment of immune cells to help combat the perceived threat. Attraction of immune cells is due to chemokines. The redness is a visual observation of vasodilation 7. An increase in the secretion of renin would result in an increase in Na+ excretion and a decrease in K+ excretion. A. TRUE  B. FALSE Explanation: False. An increase in the secretion of renin would generally lead to increased reabsorption of sodium (Na+) and increased excretion of potassium (K+). Renin is an enzyme that plays a key role in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), which regulates blood pressure and fluid balance. When renin is released, it catalyzes the conversion of angiotensinogen (produced by the liver) to angiotensin I, which is further converted to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II stimulates the release of aldosterone from the adrenal glands. Aldosterone, in turn, increases the reabsorption of sodium in the kidneys and enhances the excretion of potassium. This process helps to retain sodium and water, which can contribute to an increase in blood pressure. 3 Na+ goes in and 2 K+ goes out 8. The hypothalamic somatostatin inhibits the release of A. Thyroid-stimulating hormone B. Luteinizing hormone C. Prolactin D. None of the above Explanation: The hypothalamic somatostatin inhibits the release of growth hormone (GH) and TSH. In the pancreas, the D cells secretes somatostatin which inhibits release of Glucagon and Insulin 9. A woman presents with a right pleural effusion observed on a chest X-ray. The fluid obtained during the pleural tap has a cloudy appearance with a high neutrophil count. Her pleural inflammation is likely A. Purulent B. Fibrinous C. Granulomatous D. None of the above Explanation: Purulent refers to the presence of pus. A cloudy appearance of the pleural fluid, along with a high neutrophil count, suggests the presence of pus in the pleural space. 10. Influenza A viruses are the most common viruses responsible for the common cold in adults. A. TRUE B. FALSE Explanation: Influenza viruses cause flu. Rhinoviruses are the most common cause of common cold. Flu is a more severe respiratory illness than the common cold. Influenza B and C are the most common causes of flu in Brunei Darussalam, globally it is the influenza type A. 11. Patients with pancreatitis will have reduced activity of A. Trypsin B. Lipase C. Ribonuclease Explanation: Pancreas produces all three of the above digestive enzymes. So why just lipase? gulps 12. Chloramphenicol interferes with the action of bacterial dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the synthesis of tetrahydrofolic acid. A. TRUE B. FALSE Explanation: NOT SURE Chloramphenicol (mentioned in antimicrobial slides) inhibits protein synthesis Then shouldn’t it be true meh 13. The following cells are most likely to be affected in a jaundiced patient with a moderate increase in both conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin: A. Reticuloendothelial cell Found in immune system, mainly in connective tissue B. Fibroblasts Found in skin and tendons C. Kupffer cells Found in sinusoids and contains macrophages D. None of the above Explanation: The cells most likely to be affected are hepatocytes. This Jaundice is Hepatic jaundice, with increase in conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin. 14. A female carrier of an autosomal recessive disease marries a normal male. The probability that their first child will also be a carrier for the disease is 15%. A. TRUE B. FALSE Explanation: Should be 50%. T T T TT TT t Tt Tt 15. A baby was diagnosed with intolerance to fructose. Lactose is also the other sugar that the baby is likely to react with A. TRUE B. FALSE Explanation: Fructose intolerance ≠ Lactose intolerance. Lactose is made up of glucose and galactose Random si ijau ah 16. p53 acts as a tumour suppressor protein by arresting cell growth and directing it to enter the G1 phase in the cell cycle. A. TRUE B. FALSE Explanation: p53 is a famous tumour suppressor. It stops the cell cycle at the G1 Checkpoint by triggering production of Cdk-inhibitor (CKI) proteins. The CKI proteins bind to Cdk-cyclin complexes and block their activity, buying time for DNA repair, before proceeding to S phase. Lets try again later I think it’s false because p53 will either arrest the cell into senesence i.e. direct it back to G0 for it to repair(?) then barutah return to G1, if the damage is too serious then the cell will be directed to undergo apoptosis 17. The main reason why Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole are usually prescribed together for urinary tract infection treatment is to achieve a longer duration of action of Sulfamethoxazole. A. TRUE B. FALSE Explanation: Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole, when prescribed together, creates a synergistic effect that enhances bacterial effect. Their combined effect is greater than their individual effects. (1 + 1 > 2) 18. Which molecule functions as a coenzyme in NAD-NADH coupled reactions? A. Pyruvate B. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) C. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) D. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP) Explanation: NAD itself serves as a coenzyme by accepting electrons and protons (H+) during certain metabolic reactions, forming NADH. 19. The lymph from the right axillary lymph nodes finally drains into the left subclavian vein. A. TRUE B. FALSE Explanation: False. The lymph from the right side of the body, including the right axillary lymph nodes, ultimately drains into the right subclavian vein. It drains to the trunk 20. The typical karyotype of Klinefelter syndrome is 47 XXY A. TRUE B. FALSE Explanation: Klinefelter’s Syndrome is due to a trisomy (aneuploidy) of sex chromosomes, i.e. the presence of an additional copy of X-chromosome resulting in a karyotype of 47 (XXY). Klinefelter: ≥XX and ≥Y 21. The nipple is part of the breast that is involved in invasive papillary tumors. A. TRUE B. FALSE Why true ? papillary breast cancer is a rare type of breast cancer that is invasive and begins in a breast duct. - according to google so shouldnt it be false ? or is it because nipple = duct ? 22. Chronic alcohol consumption can impair the liver's ability to detoxify substances, leading to A. Elevated blood sugar levels B. Decreased risk of infections C. Enhanced sensitivity to medications and toxins Because the liver detoxifies toxins and medication, so when it is impaired, it decreases its ability to detoxify, thus making toxins and medications more potent/increasing sensitivity to it 23. Alpha and beta globin chains are normally produced in the largest quantity during hematopoiesis in utero. A. TRUE B. FALSE In fetes, 2 alpha and 2 gamma globin chains are produced. Leading to production of HbF 24. Ferritin is an iron-binding protein in the blood A. TRUE B. FALSE Ferritin is the substance that stores Iron in the Liver. Transferrin is an iron-binding protein. Ferritin is an iron binding protein found in blood though FIGHT FIGHT FIGHT *senyum* 25. Interferons are chemical messengers made up of small proteins released by activated lymphocytes and macrophages and by tissue cells infected with pathogenic bacteria. A. TRUE B. FALSE Interferons affect viruses not bacteria 26. Liver sinusoids are lined by cuboidal epithelial cells A. TRUE B. FALSE Sinusoids are capillaries - blood vessels are surrounded by endothelial cells It is lined with ENDOTHELIAL not EPITHELIAL 27. A diet high in saturated fat can be linked to A. Bulimia B. Hypertension C. Hypotension D. None of the above 28. What is the primary role of the liver in processing alcohol? A. It breaks down alcohol into vitamins. B. It converts alcohol to water. C. It releases alcohol directly into the bloodstream. D. It metabolizes alcohol into harmless byproducts. ???? could be B Shouldnt be D.. alcohol is converted to water and carbon monoxide in liver. Cuba googleee 29. Which of the following enzymes can be converted to its active form by enterokinase? A. Chymotrypsinogen B. Procarboxypeptidase C. Both Chymotrypsinogen is activated by enterokinase (it is found on the brush border of the small intestine) to chymotrypsin. Enterokinase also activates trypsinogen into trypsin, then this trypsin will activate procarboxypeptidase into carboxypeptidase. Doesnt chymotrypsinogen get activated by Trypsin also …. Wtf. 30. The arterial blood gas profile of a patient shows slightly low pH, low pCO2 and low [HCO3-]. The patient consumed acidic drinks and fruit. The patient seems to have A. Compensated respiratory acidosis ???? B. Compensated metabolic acidosis  C. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis D. None of the above from google so answer should B ? 31. The pattern of inheritance associated with sickle cell anemia is A. Autosomal dominant B. X-linked dominant C. None of the above It should be autosomal recessive Autosomal dominant- breast cancer, huntington X-linked dominant- vitamin D resistant rickets: X-linked hypophosphatemia. X- linked recessive- hemophillia 32. The Fab portion is responsible for the biological activity of the antibody A. TRUE B. FALSE Fc is responsible for biological activity. Fab is only for specificity 33. A man is diagnosed with chronic alcoholism. The following conditions may be observed A. Giddiness B. Anemia C. Macrocytosis D. All of the above Macrocytosis: enlarged RBCs Yes, all of the above. Acute alcoholism will not lead to anemia 34. The bicarbonate buffering system of blood responds quickly to mild metabolic acidosis by expelling c02 in lung A. TRUE B. FALSE 35. A decrease in blood glucose concentration is a factor that will increase the degree of activity in the feeding center of the hypothalamus A. TRUE B. FALSE 36. The macula densa of the juxtaglomerular apparatus is found in the loop of Henle A. TRUE B. FALSE Macula densa is found at DCT. DCT is where Na+ and Ca2+ are reabsorbed and K+ is excreted 37. The presence of dark-coloured urine and light-coloured stools in a 2-week-old baby with jaundice since birth can be symptoms of pre-hepatic jaundice A. TRUE B. FALSE??? Prehepatic jaundice is increased in unconjugated but normal conjugated bilirubin. Conjugated bilirubin is responsible for dark coloured stools and yellow urine. Unconjugated bilirubin -> pale urine, dark stool Supposed to be post-hepatic 38. The mtDNA carries the anticodon and brings the amino acids to the site of protein synthesis A. TRUE B. FALSE That is the function of tRNA 39. The sternum bones are NOT erythropoietically active during adulthood A. TRUE B. FALSE In adult: erythropoiesis occurs in sternum, ribcage, sacrum, pelvis, skull and vertebrae 40. The primary function of prostaglandins during acute inflammation is to induce vasodilation and increase vascular permeability A. TRUE B. FALSE Because prostaglandins induce inflammatory responses. This response is inhibited by NSAIDs, eg. Aspirin, which are non-selective COX-1 and COX-2 inhibitors. - COX-1 is normally involved in the stomach lining, - COX-2 is normally involved in the inflammatory responses 41. Thyroxine is the most potent form of thyroid hormone. A. TRUE B. FALSE Circulating levels of T4 are much greater than T3 levels, but T3 is biologically the most metabolically active hormone [3-4 more potent than T4] 42. Magnesium is regulated by the parathyroid hormone in the body A. TRUE B. FALSE PTH hormone controls calcium levels in blood. + phosphorus and vitamin D levels. 43. The ileocecal sphincter opens and closes the distal end of the stomach. A. TRUE B. FALSE The opening between your stomach and the small intestine is the pylorus. Ileocecal sphincter is found at the end of Ileum where it joins the Large intestine 44. A woman with suspected tumour on the left breast lump with well-defined margins on ultrasound shows benign cells on fine needle aspiration cytology. The most likely cause of this lump is A. Acute mastitis B. Duct ectasia C. Intraductal papilloma D. None of the above Mastitis is inflammation of the breast tissue, so A cannot be the answer. Duct ectasia is a benign condition that occurs when a breast duct widens and its wall thickens. Intraductal papilloma is a small non-cancerous tumor that grows in a milk duct of a breast. Fine needle aspiration cytology is for detecting anaplastic and papillary carcinoma. So C must be the answer Chat gpt says B.idk?? 45. A pregnant female is diagnosed with simple colloid goiter. The following conditions may be observed: A. Normal free T4 B. Elevated TSH C. Asymptomatic swelling in the neck D. All of the above 46. Which of the following is the most common type of anemia? A. Hemolytic Anaemia B. Aplastic Anaemia C. Iron Deficiency Anaemia  D. Vitamin B12 Deficiency Anaemia 47. Cells grow and produce more organelles during the G0 phase of the cell cycle A. TRUE B. FALSE G0 is cell resting state - no cell division occurs 48. A laboratory result from a patient shows low blood volume and low Na+ in the body. The patient may have a deficiency of adrenocorticotropin. A. TRUE B. FALSE A deficiency of aldosterone in particular causes the body to excrete large amounts of sodium and retain potassium, leading to low levels of sodium and high levels of potassium in the blood. Severe dehydration and a low sodium level reduce blood volume. [delete explanation?] ACTH affects gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis, but does not interact with blood volume and Na+, so It must be false for the above reason as wellllllllllll 49. Glucagon stimulates beta-oxidation of fatty acids during prolonged fasting A. TRUE B. FALSE The main objective of beta-oxidation is it degrades fatty acids to acetyl CoA, used in TCA cycle 50. The primary effect of calcitonin is to decrease blood calcium by blocking its release from the bone. A. TRUE B. FALSE Calcitonin’s main job is to lower calcium levels in your blood [not your bone] it does this in two ways; calcitonin inhibits the activity of osteoclasts which are the cells that break down bone. When osteoclasts break down your bone, the calcium from your bone is released into your bloodstream. 51. Sublingual drug administration is most likely to lead to the first-pass effect. A. TRUE B. FALSE Sublingual directly enters the bloodstream. This is a confusion with Oral administration. As it enters directly enters blood, it WILL NOT enter the Liver First pass effect- phenomenon of a drug metabolism whereby the conc of a drug is greatly reduced before 52. The best justification for adding clavulanic acid to amoxicillin is to overcome the bacterial inactivation of amoxicillin. A. TRUE B. FALSE clavulanic acid is a beta lactamase inhibitor. Beta lactamase enzyme is produced by bacteria in response to amoxicillin. So Clavulanic acid must be added to counteract this by inhibiting beta lactamase 53. Which mediator is responsible for activating the complement system during inflammation? A. Histamine B. Interferon C. Interleukin-1 D. C3b IL-1 is chemoattractant, Interferon is viral so CANNOT be for inflammation. Histamine is for recruitment of immune cells. So answer must be D Complement system is activated by 54. Cytokines are released by B cells. A. TRUE B. FALSE B cells release antibodies. Antigen presenting cells are the ones that secretes Cytokines 55. The Michaelis constant (Km) represents A. The rate of product formation B. The substrate concentration at half-maximal reaction rate C. The time required for catalysis D. The enzyme concentration 56. Sickle cell disease occurs when two abnormal genes are inherited and is characterized by severe symptoms and complications A. TRUE B. FALSE SCA occurs when an individual inherits 2 abnormal hemoglobin S genes, one from each parent 57. Which of the following is/are examples of innate immunity? A. Cytotoxic T cell responses B. Inflammation C. Fever D. Natural killer cells E. Phagocytes Innate: 1) acute (local; rubor, calor, etc & systemic: fever, etc) and 2) chronic (apoptosis, etc) Adaptive: involves B cell and T cell 58. A hypertonic solution is one in which the extracellular fluid has a higher concentration of solute than the cell's cytoplasm therefore water will move out of the cell. A. TRUE B. FALSE 59. IgG is the dominant immunoglobulin in extracellular fluids and is the only immunoglobulin transported across the placenta. A. TRUE B. FALSE remember : G for googoogaga 60. Immune tolerance is the process of increasing the ability for phagocytosis of foreign bodies or organisms A. True B. False Answer : False. Tolerance is the prevention of an immune response against a particular antigen. Supposed to be opsonization 61. How does glucagon impact liver glycogen stores? A. It breaks down glycogen into glucose B. It promotes glycogen storage in muscle cells C. Converts chylomicrons into glycogen D. Converts glycogen into amino acids Answer : A 62. A woman is detected with low level thyroxine. The following conditions may be observed : A. Lethargy  B. Constipation C. Slow heart rate D. All of the above Answer : D 63. Deficiency of aldosterone causes a low sodium concentration A. True B. False Answer : A 64. The blood result from a patient with cough and green sputum confirmed pneumococcal infection. The single most effective drug for treating this condition is A. Tetracycline B. Doxycycline C. Amoxicillin D. All of the above Answer : D (Google said doxycycline and amoxicillin, and tetracycline seems to somewhat have a therapeutic role so yeah D) Chatgpt said amoxicillin which i can agree with cos cyclones do work but there’s only studies/research to back it up? So far amoxicillin is the most reliable 65. A lady was diagnosed with Graves’ disease a couple years ago. Currently she is experiencing weight loss and tremors. Her thyroid function test results will show A. Low TSH, low T4 B. High TSH, Low T4 C. High TSH, normal T4 D. None of the above Answer - Probably D. low TSH and high T4 should be the answer 66. CD8+ cytotoxic T cells attack foreign cells or body cells infected by viruses A. True B. False Answer : Effector CD8 T lymphocytes kill virus-infected cells and produce antiviral cytokines such as interferon gamma. In this way, CD8 T lymphocytes contribute to resisting primary and secondary viral infections. Does not mention anything about foreign cells. 67. The nutrients in the gut mostly absorbed in A. Ileum and ascending colon B. Small intestine and ascending colon C. Stomach and duodenum D. None of the above Answer : D. Ileum/ mostly small intestine 68. What is the primary function of alkaline phosphatase (ALP) in the liver? A. Break down fats B. Metabolize glucose C. Synthesize proteins D. Transport bilirubin Answer : C (actually ALP responsible for breakdown of proteins.. Um awkward?) but all of the choices suck so i chose protein synthesis cos its closest to protein breakdown - cl phosphatase meaning remove phosphate, so involves breakdown 69. What is the function of insulin in relation to glucose? A. Releases glucose from the liver B. Converts glucose into fatty acids C. Converts amino acids into glucose during fasting D. Transports glucose into cells for energy or storage Answer : D It could be B or D because B, insulin converts glucose to glycogen which is true, but it also increases transport of glucose into cells for energy or storage so D may be the answer. But D does not explicitly say Increase, so best answer is B 70. Quantitatively exaggerated response is the best description of idiosyncratic drug reaction A. True B. False - Can just be any reaction to smtg harmless not necessarily exaggerated - Ooo tricky Right? Traps everywhere - u thought u ate I think true… 71. The RDA of fruits and vegetables for an average adult is 400g A. True B. False Answer : B False. It’s 80g. 72. Histamine causes vascular dilation and is stored in mast cells and basophils A. True B. False Answer : A 73. The right lobe of a liver tumour can compress the esophagus A. True B. False Answer : B but im not sure because Right lobe of the liver is on the right side of the body (more towards the lateral than medial aspect) while the Esophagus is on the medial aspect of the body, so this tumor is unlikely to obstruct the esophagus. Ur right queen 74. The mRNA is a product of 5’ capping-splicing-3-adenylation A. True B. False Answer : mRNA is the product of splicing, so true 75. A boy can sit without support, responds to his own name and passes things from one hand to the other. The age of the boy is approximately : A. 1 month B. 2 months C. 4 months D. None of the above Answer : D. a child can only sit without support at 9 months old My dumb 6 month old nephew cant even lie down without losing balance lollll oh! Oop Oh tw! 76. The type of mutation seen in haemoglobin S Is frameshift mutation A. True B. False Answer : B, false. Point (missense) mutation is the type of mutation seen 1) frameshift mutation- insertion or deletion of nucleotides is not in multiples of three 2) Point mutation (silent, missense, nonsense)- change in base pair 3) Insertion or deletion- base pairs inserted or eliminated in a seq 77. One third of the total body water is made up of intracellular fluid and transcellular fluid A. True B. False Answer : False, ICF makes up 2/3 of the total body water and transcellular fluid is not part of ICF Water- 60%- ICF ⅔ and ECF (transcellular, interstitial, intravascular) ⅓ muscle/fats- 40% 78. Thyroglobulin is the major stimulus for the release of thyroid hormone A. True B. False Answer : False Because TSH is the stimulus, and thyroglobulin is the carrier protein 79. What is the role of chemokines in acute inflammation? A. Promoting chemotaxis of immune cells to the site of injury B. Inducing vasodilation C. Increasing vascular permeability Answer : A 80. Vasa recta plays an essential role in the concentration and dilution of urine A. True B. False Answer : A. Not only do the vasa recta bring nutrients and oxygen to the medullary nephron segments but, more importantly, they also remove the water and solute that is continuously added to the medullary interstitium by these nephron segments. Other than vasa recta is the peritubular capillary Vasa recta -> loop of henle Peritubular -> PCT and DCT 81. In TNM staging system for breast cancer, the presence of fixed or matted metastasis in ipsilateral axillary lymph node(s) is classified as A. NO B. N1 C. N2 D. None of the above Answer: C. TNM staging for breast cancer (PBL: Aminah Hassan LOB 7). Presence of fixed or matted metastasis in ipsilateral axillary lymph node -> N2 source: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK343820/table/ch1.t1/ 82. Robertsonian translocation occurs between chromosomes which are pericentric A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: False. Robertsonian translocation (example: Down’s Syndrome) involves chromosomes that are acrocentric, not pericentric. Acrocentric chromosomes include 13,14,15, 21, 22 Acrocentric - breaks at or near the centromere whereby the centromere is located near the end of the chromosome 83. A major cause of early mortality in Down's syndrome patients is thyroid disease A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: False. Cause of early mortality in Down’s Syndrome: heart, respiratory. NOT thyroid disease 84. The BMI classification for a 31-year-old male with a weight of 44 kg and a height of 162 cm would be A. Normal weight B. Overweight C. Underweight Answer: underweight BMI: 44/(1.62 x 1.62) = 16 85. Which one is the karyotype of a female with Turner syndrome? A. 46, XXX B. 46-1, XXX C. 45, XX D. None of the above Answer: None of the above. Turner Syndrome - > Monosomy X – only affects women. Karyotype: 45, XO Turner, like Timmy Turner, whose parents neglected him cuz hes a loser. He lonely just like the X chromosome 86. Bacterial resistance to erythromycin occurs due to inhibition of methylase enzymes that activate the drug A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: False ???? resistance to erythromycin: methylase is mutated, become resistant to erythromycin. Methylase enzyme: found in E.Coli that protects bacterial DNA from action of restriction endonuclease. Erythromycin (a macrolides): acts against bacteria by inhibiting protein synthesis (blocking the movement of mrna). Omg 87. Production of antibodies by B cells is an example of adaptive immunity A. TRUE B. FALSE answer: True. B cells: produce antibodies in adaptive immunity 88. The key endocrine organs are the hypothalamus, gallbladder, thyroid gland, thymus, parathyroid glands adrenal glands, pancreas, and gonads A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: False because gall bladder is NOT endocrine gland. It only stores and secretes bile through the bile duct. Endocrine glands: secretes hormones into the blood directly. It is ductless Gall bladder wants to fit in so bad like … its giving impostor 89. Most of the dietary fats are carried in the blood as triglyceride after meals. A. TRUE  B. FALSE Answer: True, or triacylglycerol 90. Insulin increases gluconeogenesis A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: False. Insulin: increase uptake of glucose from blood into cells (for storage or energy). It is released when there is too much glucose in blood. So there’s no need to make more glucose, no need gluconeogenesis. Ans should be glycogen 91. The following screening is recommended in 10 to12 weeks of pregnancy to detect Down's syndrome: A. Amniocentesis B. Nuchal translucency test C. None of the above Answer: None of the above. 92. Which of the following disorders is associated with Vitamin D deficiency? A. Rickets in children B. Osteomalacia in adult C. Both answers are correct Answer: Both answers are correct. Vitamin D deficiency: rickets -> CHILDREN, osteomalacia -> ADULT. 93. Quaternary structure of the fully oxygenated high affinity form of haemoglobin (HbO2) is known as the relaxed (R) state A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: True. relaxed: when oxygenated, tense: when deoxygenated. how to remember: you are tense when you are nervous. When you are nervous, you tend to grasp for more oxygen because you are ‘’deoxygenated’ Vice versa is T state for tensed 94. Drug metabolism primarily occurs in the A. Liver B. Small intestine C. Spleen D. Kidneys Answer: liver. drug metabolism: drug becomes water-soluble and converted from active to inactive to be excreted in urine. Enzyme that metabolises drugs: p450. 95. Neutrophils are predominantly found in chronic inflammation. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: False. Chronic inflammation: Macrophages. Acute inflammation: Neutrophils 96. Which of the following routes of drug administration generally results in the highest bioavailability? A. Sublingual administration B. Intramuscular injection C. Intravenous injection D. Subcutaneous injection Answer: IV injection Nice 97. The point mutation that results in sickle cell anemia is caused by the substitution of Glutamine to valine. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: False. Sickle cell anaemia: autosomal recessive. Due to point mutation ( subst of amino acid glutamic acid (polar) to valine (non polar)). SCA - missense Types of mutation: 1. Point mutation – substitution of a single base 2. Missense mutation – substitution of amino acid 3. Nonsense mutation – stop codon 98. The most common side effect of prolonged aspirin use is diarrhea A. TRUE  B. FALSE Answer: false. action of aspirin: prevent production of prostaglandins by binding to cox 1 or 2 enzymes. since it is non-selective, aspirin can lead to stomach ulcer, bleeding 99. The glomerular capillary bed plays an essential role in the concentration and dilution of urine. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: False. Glomerular capillary: acts as Filtration not control concentration of urine. -> role of LOOP OF HENLE. 100. Which of the following types of cooking oil is best recommended for health? A. Canola oil B. Coconut oil C. Soybeans Answer: Between coconut and carola….. Shud be best cooking oil: with high UNSATURATED fats (because saturated can lead to cholesterol) shouldnt it be corolla oil ? 101. The tonsil is the muscular structure that hangs from the posterior edge of the soft palate. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: B Explanation: This structure would be correct for uvula instead. Plus, tonsil is a lymph node, not made of muscular fibers. 102. IgM is the principal antigen receptor in B cells and is found principally in the blood. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: A Explanation: IgM is used in the primary immune response. Both IgM and IgD are antigen receptors in B cells. (ada Maktab Duli di Brunei) 103. What happens during a NAD-NADH reaction? A. NAD gains electrons and becomes NADH. B. NAD and NADH are converted into ATP. C. NADH loses electrons and becomes NAD. D. NAD is phosphorylated to form NADP. Answer: A Explanation: As electrons are negatively charged, the combination of the positively charged NAD+ and H+, coupled with two electrons, effectively cancel each other out and neutralize the resulting NADH molecule. 104. The bioavailability of a drug is determined by the following aspect(s) A. The drug is administered in a fed or fasted state B. The drug formulation such as immediate release and delayed release C. Physical properties of the drug such as hydrophobicity and hydrophilicity D. All of the above Answer: D Note: Plus interactions with other drugs, age, gender and disease state. 105. Bioavailability is a theoretical value representing the apparent space in the body available for the drug to distribute in, relative to its concentration in the plasma A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: B Explanation: This definition would be correct for Apparent Volume of Distribution (Vd). Bioavailability means the fraction of administered dose of drug that reaches the bloodstream. (has more to do with absorption, NOT distribution) 106. The isotonic fluid of choice for a patient with severe dehydration due to several series of diarrhea accompanied with low blood pressure & rapid breathing A. 5% dextrose in normal saline B. 045% sodium chloride C. 0.9% sodium chloride D. All of the above Answer: C (goooooogle answer). Dextrose - hypoglycemic 107. Programmed cell death is called A. Anaplasia B. Heteroplasia C. Necrosis D. None of the above Answer: D Explanation: This is the definition for apoptosis. Anaplasia - dedifferentiation of cells “to form backward” Heteroplasia - a formation of abnormal tissue or of normal tissue in an abnormal locality Necrosis - death of body TISSUE. It is not programmed!!!!! 108. The Michaelis-Menten equation relates the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction to product concentration. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: B Explanation: I think it should be substrate concentration instead of product concentration based on the equation and the graph in which the equation is derived from. 109. The phenomenon in which some people experience benefits after the administration of an inactive look alike substance or treatment is called the placebo effect. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: A 110. Metaplasia can be defined as "Marked increase in the number of cells". A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: B Explanation: This definition would be for hyperplasia. Metaplasia means mature tissue replacing another type of mature tissue not indigenous to that organ. 111. Which of the following is/are clinical presentations of acute tonsillitis other than sore throat? A. Headache B. Odynophagia (painful swallowing) C. Cough D. Malaise (uneasiness) E. Otalgia (ear pain) 112. A 42-year-old asymptomatic male was found to have 2 gallstones measuring 1.5 cm size each. The best management for his condition is A. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography B. Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy C. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy D. None of the above Answer: A - NOT SURE Explanation: ERCP is the only one in the “imaging studies for hepatobiliary system” slide among the 3 I think 1.5cm = 15mm ERCP max 12mm, extracorporeal … max 10mm and laparoscopic