Molecular Biology PDF

Which of the following is When conditions are set too low, When measuring the considered a "high stringency" probe will bind its target efficiently concentration of RNA by condition for DNA probe spectrophotometry...

Which of the following is When conditions are set too low, When measuring the considered a "high stringency" probe will bind its target efficiently concentration of RNA by condition for DNA probe spectrophotometry at 260 nm, the This type of RNA carries the newly protocols? absorbance reading is multiplied transcribed genetic information to by the dilution and a conversion High Temperature ribosomes. factor of Which molecular technique uses mRNA 40 fluorescent probes that bind to In isopycnic centrifugation, the only particular parts of a nucleic Which type of RNA polymerase is nucleic acids are separated based acid sequence with a high degree inhibited by a high concentration on. of sequence complementarity? of a-amanitin? Differences in density Fluorescence in situ hybridization Type II (FISH) What is the basis of the first Which technique is used to detect molecular-based human Which of the following is DNA containing a specific base identification and mapping characteristic of DNA microarrays? sequence by applying a labeled methods? probe to DNA Bands immobilized Thousands of oligonucleotide Restriction fragment length onto nitrocellulose paper following probes are labelled and placed on polymorphisms (RFLPs) electrophoresis? glass or silicon surfaces Which step in the polymerase Southern blot The ratio of absorption at 260nm to chain reaction consists of heating absorption at Which blotting technique can be the reaction chamber to a used to determine the size of 280nm is commonly used to assess: temperature of 94–96 °C and then isolated proteins, as well as to held for 1–10 minutes? The purity of DNA and RNA with quantify their expression? respect to protein. Initialization Western blotting Restriction digestion is used to Phenol/chloroform in an aqueous All of the following are steps in prepare genomic DNA for analysis solution will form what type of DNA replication, EXCEPT; by Southern blotting and mixture? hybridization. Copying of DNA sequence into an Emulsion RNA molecule True Which of the following is FALSE This process involves the decoding In organic DNA extraction about Plasmids? of the mRNAencrypted message methods, the DNA is found in Transfers of genes in and the assembly of the intended which fraction? transduction. polypeptide (protein) that will Upper aqueous serve a biologic function. UAA is historically named as ____: In inorganic DNA isolation, or Translation Ochre "salting out" procedures, in the Which of the following is the first presence of low-pH and high-salt This theory of DNA replication is step in DNA isolation from cells in a concentrations, which intracellular the most acceptable: clinical sample? component precipitates out of solution? Semi-Conservative Lysis of cells Protein RNA polymerase will form the pre- What molecular technique is used mRNA from the to isolate and then transfer a DNA All of the following are true for Template strand sequence of interest into a plasmid Hybridization Conditions, EXCEPT: vector?  Expression Cloning What is the optical density at How many triplet codons can be 260nm and 280nm when translated into amino acids? How many base pairs of DNA does evaluating the purity of extracted the human genome consists of? 61 RNA? 3.2billion Molecular typing of bacterial RNA 260/280 should be 1.6-2.0 strains is based on ________ Which of the following triplet The difference between DNA and produced by digesting bacterial codes is possible to be found in an RNA is: chromosomal DNA with restriction E-site? endonucleases. Presence of oxygen in carbon UAA number 2 Restriction fragment length Amino acid classification of polymorphisms (RFLPs) Dot Blots, cells are lysed and the Histidine: RNA is denatured and added to a Lactase- Catalyzes the breakdown Positively-charged membrane. of lactose Which of the following is False Myosin – Involved in muscle commonly used as a radioactive contraction The Human Genome Project began label in molecular tests? in 1990 which aimed to sequence Collagen – Found in skin connective Thirty-two P the whole human genome. When tissue and cartilage was this project completed? Northern Blot – RNA Hemoglobin – Transport protein in 2003 red blood cells that carries oxygen Eastern Blot – Protein Which is most likely a positive Insulin - Regulates the metabolism Southern blot – DNA Western Blot result for infection of carbohydrates Western blot – nucleic acid with HIV? Who made the initial finding that Far-Eastern blot – Lipids Bands at p24 and gp120 deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) was the transmittable genetic material? The newest addition in the pool of What reagent is a highly branched amino acids is the ___: sucrose polymer that does not Frederick Griffith penetrate biological membranes? Pyrrolysine What is/are differences of gene Ficoll transcription between eukaryotes Palindrome sequences are the and prokaryotes? target of which enzyme? Fluorometry is more sensitive than spectrophotometric absorbance. Location, There is no pre-mRNA Type II restriction enzyme formation in bacterial cells, Poly-a True This step is the first regular cycling tail modification only happens in event and consists of heating the What is the expected yield of DNA eukaryotes, Type of promoter reaction chamber to 94–98 °C without DNA amplification from genes. (201– 208 °F) for 20–30 seconds. bone marrow? Technique that employs single- Denaturation 20-250mcg stranded, complementary nucleic acid probes for detection of HIV in Isolation of RNA is difficult due to DNA, deoxyribonucleic acid, can be the blood of seronegative its ability to degrade quickly. What isolated from other cellular individuals. is the main reason for RNA being components using different especially labile, or unstable? techniques. Which of the following Dot Blot is NOT a technique used to isolate Presence of RNAse What is the difference between a DNA? microarray and a microarray DNA Semi-Conductive assay?  The amount of each target is Classified under non-polar, The primary structure is composed larger on a macroarray aliphatic group & Classified under of: positively uncharged group. What is the smallest component in Polypeptide chains the DNA Quaternary structure? Who observed that the quantity of Which of the following is NOT true guanine equals the quantity of Nucleosome about helicase? cytosine, and the quantity of When evaluating the purity of adenine is similar to the amount of Important in the transcription extracted DNA, deoxyribonucleic thymine? process acid, what is the optical density at Erwin Chargaff Which of the following is 260nm and 280nm? commonly used as a Who was the first scientist to Between 1.6 and 2.0 nonradioactive label in molecular isolate DNA? tests? All of the following have a right Miescher helix-handedness, EXCEPT: Biotin Separation of charged molecules Z-form Which of the following is true? are separated based on varying Which of the following naturally rates of migration through a solid Codons are the amino acids occurring RNA is most abundant in matrix when subjected to an found in the mRNA. cellular or total RNA? electric field. It is an analytical technique that is rRNA Electrophoresis used to measure the mass-to- charge ratio of ions. Which step in the polymerase It is a molecular technique that chain reaction requires an allows detection of single base Mass Spectrometry optimum activity temperature for mutations without the need for PCR or gel electrophoresis. Bead Array Technology analyze the thermostable DNA polymerase multiple targets in a single at 75–80 °C? Allele Specific Oligonucleotide specimen. Extension/Elongation (ASO) True It is the the process by which the This group of enzymes is used by bacterial cells to break down any In microarray and microarray double-stranded DNA molecule is invading foreign DNA. analysis, which molecules are copied to produce two identical labeled? DNA molecule. Restriction enzymes Both target and sample DNA Replication Which condition has the highest molecules The most abundant form of RNA in stringency for DNA Probe hybridization? Which of the following is all cells is considered a "high stringency" Ribosomal Low salt concentration, High condition for DNA probe temperature protocols? If the optical density ratio is 2.3 for DNA it indicates: This molecular technique uses a Washing the transfer membrane solid-phase type of enzyme at high temperature Contamination with protein immunoassay (EIA) to detect the presence of a ligand (commonly a Who discovered the patterns of A mixture of three isomers of protein) in a liquid sample using inheritance in 1866? dimethylbenzene. antibodies directed against the Gregor Mendel Xylene protein to be measured. What is the first step in Which of the following is true Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent transcription? about Lysine? Assay  Initiation Tissue samples stored at 2-8c – 24 Which of the following is a product hours of DNA replication? After Hybridization, blot is washed to remove unbound probe, the Microorganisms in Culture stored Amplicon solid support is allowed to dry and at 2-8c – 72 hours Identify the PCR step shown in the the signals produced by bound Cell lysates in GITC stored at 22-25c picture probe target hybrid sequences are – 1-2weeks measured. Annealing Whole blood stored at -70c – More True After the precipitation step of gene than 1 year expression, the next step is: Which of the following processes It is the study of all the genes in a protects the mRNA from Washing cell or organism and includes degradation? genetic tests that focus on DNA and Chloroform is required in which Pre-mRNA processing RNA sequences and how they are step of gene expression? related to disease. Which blotting technique is used to Phase separation study the presence of specific RNA Genomics molecules as relative comparison This is a picture of a biological What is the additive used in the indicator. How often do we use it among a set of different samples of Lavender tube? to verify effective sterilization of an RNA? autoclave? Tripotassium EDTA Northern Blotting Weekly DNA quantification is done with all Which among the following is of the following methods, EXCEPT: What test is being performed using generated from human’s protein pool? this setup? Immunoassay Threonine Gel Electrophoresis The RNA is collected in which phase of phase separation? What is the concentration of RNA Molecular Hematology focuses on ALL of the following molecular whereby a 1:10 dilution has an Aqueous phase analysis, EXCEPT; absorbance reading of 0.675 at 260 What is the recommended nm? Molecular analysis of sputum certification frequency for this samples for the detection of 270 μg/mL instrument? Mycobacterium tuberculosis Enzyme deactivation during cDNA Anually Which of the following is synthesis should be done at what considered as the “Gene After xylene treatment of the temperature? proofreader”? paraffinized embedded tissue, it is 70 degrees Celsius rehydrated by soaking it in DNA polymerase decreasing concentrations of To isolate DNA from a cell pellet, a decreasing concentrations of: student is performing an If the OD260nm / OD280nm ratio is 1.2 for DNA it indicates: extraction using phenol and Ethanol chloroform. The cells were lysed Contamination with protein What is the test performed? with 0.5mL of lysis buffer. 0.5mL extraction solution, consisting of In rate-zonal centrifugation, the SKI phenol:chloroform:isoamyl alcohol nucleic acids are separated based Precipitation step of gene (25:24:1), was added to the lysate. on expression is done by mixing an The sample was centrifuged at On size differences equal amount of ____: high speed for five minutes. The liquid in the tube was separated Isopropanol into three phases after The lower phase of phase with DNA-specific fluorescent centrifugation (see diagram). separation is also called as: dyes? What is the nature of each phase? Organic phase Fluorometry 1: Aqueous 2: Interphase 3: Primer annealing during cDNA How many cycles are achieved Organic synthesis should be done at what after 2-4 hours of PCR testing? Which of the following factors may temperature? 25-30 cycles affect primer hybridization? 65 degrees Celsius DNA amplification via qPCR is done Salt concentration How is the polymerase chain by: Which of the following factors may reaction visualized in the given Denaturation, then annealing, affect primer hybridization? picture? then elongation. True Gel electrophoresis What is used for DNA precipitation In which layer will proteins be The Master Mix used in qPCR of inorganic isolation? found? contains all of the following, Isopropanol EXCEPT: 2 What is the frequency of Taq RNA polymerase What enzyme is used in this PCR calibration of the instrument step? In the visualization of PCR through shown? gel electrophoresis, what is Taq Polymerase Semi-Annually another term used for “M”? What is the frequency of The presence of this protein is This also determines the fragment calibration of the instrument considered a main marker in the size in a PCR sample. shown? prevention of continuous cell mRNA Band proliferation. Annually What time range is required in this p53 What is the expected yield of DNA PCR step? without DNA amplification from Human T-cell leukemia virus-I blood? 20-60 seconds (HTLV-1) is a DNA viral carcinogen which may cause leukemia. 20-50 mcg What is the first step in DNA isolation from cells in a clinical False What is the recommended sample? cleaning solution for the Which of the following equipment shown? Breaking open the tissues and antimicrobial agents inhibits nuclei cells acid synthesis? 70% alcohol Which of the following reagent can Ciprofloxacin What temperature range is be used for bacterial cell wall lysis required in this PCR step? What type of tumor suppressor to allow the release of nucleic acid? gene defects have the tendency to 90-96°C Lysozyme develop malignancy at an earlier What is the concentration of DNA age? What is the test performed? whereby a 1:100 dilution has an Heritable Cancer Syndrome absorbance reading of 0.015 at 260 FISH nm? Which of the following is Which of the following methods responsible for the accurate 75 μg/mL measures fluorescence related to segregation of the replicated DNA concentration in association chromosome during mitosis?  Centromeres It ensures the accurate detection DNA Fragmentation of the targeted gene from a Which of the following favors the Humans are diploid organisms that microorganism continuous proliferation of tumor inherit a haploid set of genes. cells? This method characterizes True bacterial isolates by using BCL-2 sequences of internal fragments of What gene mutation detection What chromosomal abnormality housekeeping genes. technique uses RTPCR and arises when telomeres are lost, fluorogenic probes to detect Multilocus Sequence Typing leaving sticky ends that close and mutation and polymorphism? form a ring? Which of the following respiratory Allelic Discrimination with tract pathogens is a major cause of Ring Chromosomes Fluorogenic Probes community-acquired pneumonia Which of the following mobile and is also a common cause of Which of the following is the gene elements are highly repeated bacteremia, sepsis, otitis media, conferring resistance to Oxacillin in sequences with a size of 6-8kbp? and meningitis? Staphylococcus aureus? Long interspersed nucleotide Streptococcus pneumoniae mecA sequences What is/are the following cytologic What gene mutation detection Which of the following is the stain/s used to visualize technique produces ions by firing a method of choice for engraftment chromosomes? laser pulse into the sample coated monitoring? with a matrix? Feulgen, wright, hematoxylin DNA typing Matrix-Assisted Laser Desorption All of the following are causes of What stage of mitosis is false-negative test results, EXCEPT; Which of the following is correct chromosome best determined? about short Interspersed Presence of dead nucleotide sequences? Metaphase microorganisms in the sample of a patient taking antimicrobial agents Highly repeated sequences This type of carcinogen follows the mechanism of increasing the free The restriction fragments All of the following are genotypic radical activity in the body due to produced during DNA typing methods, EXCEPT; electromagnetic ray exposure. fragmentation are analyzed using Plasmid analysis Ionizing radiation Gel electrophoresis It is estimated that genome The definitive diagnosis of cancer is If the linkage is close enough to the sequences differ by one nucleotide through clinical manifestations of gene, the short tandem repeats every every 1000-1500 bases. SNP its signs and symptoms. (STR) may serve as a convenient may occur in gene coding regions target for disease testing.Close as well as intergenic sequences. False linkage to specific Both statements are correct. All of the following are specimen STR alleles supports the genetic sources for Molecular proximity of the disease gene with What is an alteration in the identification of Mycobacterium the STR. nucleotide sequence that results in tuberculosis, EXCEPT; the substitution of an amino acid Both statements are correct. with one of different properties? Nasal swab Which of the following steps in Non-Conservative Why is choosing the right sequence RFLP pertains to the digestion of target critical for the specificity of a purified DNA using restriction What chromosome detection molecular test? endonucleases? technique highlights the major features of chromosomes, such as SNP: Single Nucleotide Cancer cells will have the ability to bands and centromere? polymorphism grow even without the presence of growth signals and stimulators. – Karyotyping Which type of control shows that an assay system is functioning AUTONOMY Different species of bacteria properly? contain their own sets of Identifying the cancer cell’s degree restriction endonucleases and Positive controls of severity in the system of the corresponding methylases. individual. – METASTASIS Which of the following provides True accurate sizing of repeat expansion Two tumors coming from the regions (short sequences that are same progenitor cell which Sequence polymorphisms(alleles) repeated many times in functional previously underwent malignant in the HLA locus are compared with parts of the genome? transformation – CLONALITY those of the recipient to determine which donor would be most STR: Short tandem repeat testing Which phase is the best time to kill tolerated by the recipient immune cancer cells? Which among the molecular system. Engraftment of donor cells methods has the most difficult to Lag Phase in the recipient must be monitored interpret results? in the first 60 days. Which of the following checks and Interspersed Repetitive Elements corrects the mismatched DNA First statement is correct, second pairs? statement is incorrect. Which of the following is the gene conferring resistance to Rifampin P53 Which among the molecular in Mycobacterium tuberculosis? methods have a poor Which of the following is designed reproducibility? rpoB to detect sequence alterations in DNA through differences in Arbitrarily primed PCR Which of the following type of secondary structure? transplant procedures aim to It refers to the presence of two or suppress the patient's immune Single-strand Conformation more variant forms of a specific system sufficiently to allow Polymorphism DNA sequence that can occur engraftment of the donor cells? among different individuals or Restriction mapping of the genome populations. Allogeneic transplant is useful only for smaller genomes such as viruses and bacteria. POLYMORPHISM These are amplification controls that monitor particular steps of an True Which of the following is used in amplification method. visualizing chromosomes by its What is an alteration in the Region-specific staining using silver Internal controls nucleotide sequence that does not nitrate? change the amino acid sequence? Cells lose their ability to function Nucleolar Organizing Region normally because they are poorly Silent Stain differentiated The restriction fragments Restriction mapping involves the  ANAPLASIA produced during DNA positioning of relative locations of fragmentation are analyzed using restriction sites on a DNA Seen in tissues whose proliferation fragment. is hormone dependent, such as Gel electrophoresis those in prostate cancer. True All of the following are target genes AUTONOMY for the molecular identification of Which type of polymorphism Streptococcus pneumoniae, occurs in gene coding regions as EXCEPT; well as intergenic sequences?  DNA polymerase gene Which of the following is copied Presence of dead and spread by recombination and microorganisms in the sample of a Which quality assurance measures reverse transcription and may be patient taking antimicrobial agents ensures that the personnel responsible for formation of assigned in the molecular Chromosomes are classified pseudogenes throughout the laboratory is well trained in depending on the placement of the human genome? performing molecular diagnostic centromere. procedures? Transposable elements True Competency Assessment What is the 2nd most common What part of a chromosome carcinogenic substance which can Which of the following determines the chances of a cell to potentially result in liver cancer? antimicrobial agents inhibits develop mutation through the protein synthesis? Alcohol number of times it replicates? Gentamicin Restriction fragment length Telomere polymorphism typing can be used Sudden and unintended weight In which phase is the net growth of in the following: loss is a common warning sign cancer cells usually flat or zero and possibility leading to cancer. Gene mapping, Parentage is chemotherapy-resistant? testing, Human identification True Plateau Phase The molecular determination of Which of the following is the The more anaplastic a tumor is, the the individual’s genetics is not an method of choice for engraftment more aggressive it tends to be. example to evaluate cancer monitoring? True False DNA Typing Fluorescence in situ hybridization Feulgen stains chromosomes to Which of the following is the (FISH) is a more precise and detect mycoplasma contamination diagram that shows the targeted procedure than any other in cell cultures. chromosome pairs in size order? conventional technique in False Chromosome Karyotypes Which of the following Visualization. Which of the following mobile chromosomal inversion in which elements are scattered over the True the inverted part includes the genome with a size of 0.3kbp in centromere? Which of the following type of size? transplant procedures aim to Pericentric Inversion Short Interspersed Nucleotide suppress the patient's immune Sequences What is the resistance mechanism system sufficiently to allow of Beta-lactamase that inactivates engraftment of the donor cells? Which of the following steps in aminoglycosides? RFLP pertains to the digestion of Myeloablative transplant purified DNA using restriction Destruction/modification of procedure endonucleases? agent What gene mutation detection DNA fragmentation Chromosome observation is in technique uses RTPCR and metaphase when using fluorogenic probes to detect This is known as the formation of karyotyping detection technique. mutation and polymorphism? new blood vessels, clinically important in the proliferation of True Allelic Discrimination with malignant cells. Fluorogenic Probes All of the following are causes of Angiogenesis false-positive test results, EXCEPT; Which of the following mobile What is the resistance mechanism system sufficiently to allow elements are scattered over the of Betalactamase that inactivates engraftment of the donor cells? genome with a size of 0.3kbp in aminoglycosides? Non-myeloablative transplant size? Destruction/modification of procedure Short intersped nucleotide agent What gene mutation detection sequences Chromosome observation is in technique uses RT-PCR and This is known as the formation of metaphase when using fluorogenic probes to detect new blood vessels, clinically karyotyping detection technique. mutation and polymorphism? important in the proliferation of True Allelic Discrimination with malignant cells. Fluorogenic Probes All of the following are causes of Angiogenesis false-positive test results, EXCEPT; What is the significance of a Which of the following is copied structural abnormality in a Degraded nucleic acid in the and spread by recombination and karyotype? sample due to improper specimen reverse transcription and may be handling It can affect the functioning of responsible for formation of multiple genes pseudogenes throughout the Chromosomes are classified human genome? depending on the placement of the Which of the following step is centromere. done by placing the isolated Transposable elements chromosome in agarose solution True What is the 2nd most common on a microscopic slide and carcinogenic substance which can What part of a chromosome allowing a gel to form? potentially result in liver cancer? determines the chances of a cell to Restriction digestion of DNA develop mutation through the Alcohol number of times it replicates? Which of the following is a Restriction fragment length common application of FISH? Telomere polymorphism typing can be used Chromosome painting in the following: In which phase is the net growth of cancer cells usually flat or zero and Which of the following type of I, II, III is chemotherapyresistant? restriction enzymes are used in The molecular determination of restriction mapping? Plateau Phase the individual’s genetics is not an Type 2 example to evaluate cancer. The more anaplastic a tumor is, the more aggressive it tends to be. What is the primary function of False PCR? True Feulgen stains chromosomes to To amplify DNA detect mycoplasma contamination Fluorescence in situ hybridization in cell cultures. (FISH) is a more precise and Which of the following is NOT a targeted procedure than any other step in the FISH procedure? False conventional technique in Amplification Which of the following Chromosome Visualization. chromosomal inversion in which In FISH, what are the fluorescent True the inverted part includes the probes used for? centromere? Which of the following type of To label specific DNA sequences transplant procedures aim to Pericentric Inversion suppress the patient's immune Which of the following produces restriction enzymes?  Bacteria What is the role of primers in PCR? Which of the following steps in restriction mapping follows What does the term "in situ" refer To mark the beginning and end of restriction digestion of DNA? to in FISH? the target sequence Separation of restricted DNA In the same location as the What is the volume of Biotinylated sample Detection Antibody added to each Which of the following is used to well in ELISA? map an unknown segment of DNA What is the role of the Taq by breaking it into pieces and then polymerase enzyme in PCR? 100uL identifying the locations of the It adds nucleotides to the What temperature is typically used breakpoints? growing DNA strand for the annealing step in PCR? Restriction Mapping What is the primary advantage of 60°C In ELISA, what is the color of the FISH over conventional cytogenetic What is the purpose of the final solution in the wells after adding techniques? elongation step in PCR? the STOP solution? Higher resolution imaging To increase the efficiency of Yellow What is the purpose of the amplification Which of the following method is extension step in PCR? What is the first step in restriction used to separate fragments in To elongate DNA strands mapping? restriction mapping? Which enzyme is used in PCR to Preparation of DNA for restriction Gel electrophoresis amplify DNA? analysis In human karyotyping, how many DNA polymerase Which of the following recognize chromosomes are typically specific sequences on DNA and visualized? What is the purpose of the melting make specific cuts? curve analysis in real-time PCR? 23 pairs Restriction enzymes To detect nonspecific Which of the following is the amplification What is the pH level of the stacking microbial source of EcoRII? gel used in SDS-PAGE? What is the purpose of the Escherichia coli denaturation step in PCR? 6.8 What is the pH level of the To separate DNA strands What is the primary advantage of separating gel used in SDS-PAGE? using fluorescence in situ What is the next step after 8.8 hybridization (FISH) in incubation of the plate used in karyotyping? What does a karyotype reveal ELISA? about an individual? It allows visualization of specific Washing with wash buffer DNA sequences Their genetic disorders Which DNA template can be used What is the main purpose of Which of the following statements in PCR? performing a karyotype analysis? about realtime PCR is true? All of the above To diagnose chromosomal It measures DNA amplification What is the minimum number of abnormalities during each cycle cycles typically performed in a PCR What is the role of the detection What is the dilution ratio of the reaction? step in FISH? standard used in performing 30 cycles ELISA? To visualize the hybridized probes under a microscope 1:2 What does a "normal" karyotype Which of the following is NOT a DNA microarrays refer to? component of a PCR reaction Which molecular marker is mixture? An individual without any genetic commonly used to determine disorders Fluorescent dye paternity? Which of the following techniques Restriction mapping of the genome STRs is NOT used in karyotyping? is useful only for smaller genomes Isolated DNA is amplified using sets such as viruses and bacteria. Western Blotting of primers designed to amplify a True panel of alleles Which of the following statements about quantitative PCR (qPCR) is In ELISA, what is the next step after Sequence-Specific PCR true? adding the standard dilution and What does the HER2 gene encode? samples to each well? It measures DNA amplification A tyrosine kinase receptor quantitatively Incubate at room temperature for 2 hours Which cellular process is In SDS-PAGE, which of the commonly evaded by cancer cells following is not a component of the Which of the following utilizes to allow for continuous growth? loading buffer? alloreactive T cell characterization and quantitation? Apoptosis NaOH III and IV All the following are categories of What is the volume of standard micronutrients, EXCEPT: dilution or samples added to each Patients in this group metabolize well in ELISA? medications too quickly to Proteins experience relief from symptoms 50uL The HLA genotype is determined by of depression or other disorders. assessing which probes were Which imaging technique is Ultra-rapid metabolizer hybridized. commonly used to capture images of chromosomes during What are the factors that affect the Sequence-Specific karyotyping? interindividual variability in drug Oligonucleotide Probe metabolism? Hybridization Fluorescence microscopy I, II, III, IV Which type of DNA is used in What does FISH stand for? HLA-D can be found in the forensic analysis to trace maternal Fluorescence In Situ lineage? following, EXCEPT Hybridization Plasma cells Mitochondrial DNA What is the significance of reverse Which of the following assays A patient with newly diagnosed transcription PCR (RT-PCR)? measures growth of lymphocytes atrial fibrillation will be starting It amplifies RNA molecules activated by cross reactivity as an warfarin. A rapid SNP test is done indication of donor and recipient and reveals the CYP2C92/3 and In ELISA, what is the color VKORC1 AA genotypes. Which of developed after adding the incompatibility? the following responses to chromogenic substrate, the Mixed Leukocyte Culture warfarin would be predicted based intensity of which is proportional on this genotype? to the amount of protein in the These are microscope slides that sample? are printed with thousands of tiny Decreased metabolism and spots in defined positions, with increased sensitivity; use lower Blue each spot containing a known DNA dose sequence or gene. Which of the following is produced by cells, allowing Loss-of-function mutations associated with ß-2 microglobulin? scientists to monitor differences in These are also called opioid pain gene expression patterns between Class I antigens relievers. cells, is called: Which technique allows for the Narcotic analgesics Transcriptomics detection of gene expression It refers to a medication count of levels in thousands of genes Which drug is a monoclonal five or more medications. simultaneously? antibody targeting the HER2 receptor in breast cancer? Polypharmacy Microarray analysis Trastuzumab Patients in this group are likely to Which gene mutation is most metabolize medication normally commonly associated with Genetic variations in drug targets and medication is likely to work as melanoma? may contribute to which drug intended. property: BRAF Extensive metabolizer Ethnic differences in response What pharmacogenomic method Which of the following gene is used to reveal the genetic code Patients in this group experience a products are expressed in plasma of a section of DNA? very slow breakdown of proteins? medications, making side effects Pyrosequencing more pronounced. II, III, and IV (TNF-alpha, TNF- What are the four main processes beta, Complement C4) Poor metabolizer of pharmacokinetics? Which assay is commonly used to Sample amplicons are mixed with Absorption, distribution, detect DNA methylation changes fluorescently labeled reference metabolism, excretion in cancer? DNA of known allele sequence Which type of mutation is typically before denaturation and Bisulfite sequencing found in oncogenes? renaturation to form heteroduplexes It is the molecular action of a drug Gain-of-function mutations on its target, whether this is a cell Heteroduplex (HD) analysis surface target, an ion channel, or What is the role of angiogenesis in an intracellular target. tumor growth? Cytokine genes can be found in: Pharmacodynamics Facilitates tumor growth by Activated endothelial cells supplying nutrients and oxygen Which molecular technique is It has been applied to HLA-A, DR, often used to analyze ancient DNA Which of the following DNA based DQ, and DP typing and subtyping samples? tissue typing is carried out using Sequence-Specific Sanger dideoxy chain terminator Mitochondrial DNA sequencing Oligonucleotide Probe sequencing? Hybridization The following are intrinsic factors Sequence-based typing influencing drug response, How many percent of dyed cells EXCEPT: Screening for which of the are interpreted as weak positive in following polymorphisms is a Complement-dependent Drug-drug interactions indicated prior to carbamazepine cytotoxicity test? Which of the following are used use in a person? 21-50 % for crossmatching? HLA-B*1502 Which type of mutation is typically I and III (Flow cytometry and The science of studying the entire found in tumor suppressor genes Mixed Leukocyte Culture) collection of mRNA molecules in cancer? All of the following are the The Philadelphia chromosome is Which genetic marker is typically purposes of HLA typing, EXCEPT? associated with which type of used in forensic studies of human cancer? populations? Selection of treatment after transplantation Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) Microsatellites Which type of cancer is most The major metabolic pathway of A CYP3A5 non-expressor will not commonly associated with codeine is ______ to norcodeine. metabolize which drug? mutations in the BRCA1 and CYP2D6 Tacrolimus BRCA2 genes? Which drug is recommended to Which molecular technique is used Breast cancer reduce tumor progression in a to detect HER2 amplification in What is the role of tumor patient with breast cancer who breast cancer? suppressor genes? overexpresses the HER2 gene? FISH (Fluorescence in situ Both B and C Trastuzumab hybridization) (Inhibit cell cycle progression and Which gene is most commonly Which protein is often Repair damaged DNA) Molecular mutated in human cancers? overexpressed in cancers and acts typing methods reveal HLA as a marker for cell proliferation? p53 polymorphisms as base changes in Ki-67 the DNA sequence. What pharmacogenomic test is Polymorphisms arise mostly as a used for Imatinib? Which technique is used to result of gene conversion events measure gene expression levels in and rare chromosomal BCR-ABL 1 tumors? recombination. What is the significance of PCR (Polymerase Chain Both statements are correct microRNAs in cancer? Reaction) Which of the following laboratory They regulate gene expression Which of the following %PRA of methods is for detection of anti- posttranscriptionally activity is considered to be highly human antibodies in serum that What is the drug classification of sensitized? match known HLA alleles? Irinotecan? 70% Screening Antineoplastic What are the stains used in All of the following are correct Which molecular technique is used Complementdependent about Sequencespecific to separate DNA fragments by cytotoxicity test? oligonucleotide probe size? hybridization, I, II and III (Tryptan blue, Gel electrophoresis Methylene EXCEPT: Which molecular technique is used Blue, Eosin red) The HLA genotype is identified for direct sequencing of by determining which primers Potential outcomes of nucleotides in DNA? resulted in amplification. pharmacogenetic research include Sanger sequencing all the following, EXCEPT: Which gene is associated with familial adenomatous polyposis What is the purpose of using Higher health care costs (FAP) and colorectal cancer? restriction enzymes in forensic What is the role of Taq DNA analysis? APC polymerase in PCR? Cut DNA at specific sequences To synthesize new DNA strands Which technique uses fluorescent scored according to the ASHI Screening is the initial dyes to detect DNA sequences rules? identification of the HLA alleles of during PCR? a specimen through protein or 8 DNAbased methods. Typing may Real-time PCR (qPCR) Which DNA typing method uses be used both to define HLA Which of the following is referred short repetitive sequences for haplotypes and to look for specific to as the level of detail to which identification? HLA types that are linked to the allele is determined? disease states. STR (Short Tandem Repeat) Resolution analysis First incorrect, second correct Which of the following is NOT an Which protein is commonly What is the purpose of a DNA intrinsic factor influencing drug mutated in hereditary ladder in gel electrophoresis? response? nonpolyposis colorectal cancer To serve as a size reference Chemical exposure (HNPCC)? Which of the following is a What is the drug classification of MLH1 characteristic of cancer cells? Tacrolimus? Which molecular technique Evasion of apoptosis Immunosuppressant involves hybridization of DNA to a What is the primary use of STR membrane for detection? Which molecular technique is used analysis in forensic science? to visualize DNA bands in gel Southern blot DNA fingerprinting electrophoresis? What is the significance of allele Which type of cancer is associated Ethidium bromide staining frequency in forensic DNA with the overexpression of the analysis? What is the test used for MYC oncogene? assessment of compatible bone Estimates the probability of a Burkitt lymphoma marrow donors at the HLA-DR and match HLA-DP loci? A generic amplification of the HLA What is the function of the RAS gene of interest is conducted, Sequence-Specific PCR gene family in cell signaling? followed by a sequencing reaction Which of the following is a Signal transduction using dideoxy nucleotides. potential source of DNA in forensic What is the main advantage of Sequence-Based Typing samples? using mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) Minor histocompatibility antigens All of the above (Blood, Hair, in forensic analysis? (mHag) are suspected to cause Saliva) Maternal inheritance GVHD and graft rejection in What is the hallmark of a cell It uses an individual's genetic MHC-identical transplants. undergoing apoptosis? profile to guide decisions made in Evaluation of minor DNA fragmentation regard to the prevention, histocompatibility antigens (mHag) diagnosis, and treatment of in stem cell transplants can be Which therapy targets the BCR- carried out by SSP-PCR disease. ABL fusion protein in chronic myeloid leukemia? Personalized medicine Both statements are correct Imatinib Which of the following vitamins Conformation analysis, such as helps in the absorption of iron into Heteroduplex (HD) analysis, single Upon microscopic examination, strand conformation the body? 90% of cells are lysed after a CDC polymorphism (SSCP), and HPLC assay. How are these results Vitamin C are limited by the complexity of the raw data and the strict demands on reactions and electrophoresis conditions. These methods are routinely used in the clinical laboratory. First statement is correct, second statement is incorrect What CYP450 enzymes are determined by Amplichip? I, II (2D6, 2C19) Which molecular technique is commonly used to amplify DNA in forensic science? PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) What is the function of a DNA primer in PCR? To start DNA synthesis Which forensic technique allows for the comparison of two DNA samples? STR analysis A type of genetic variation in which a specific nucleotide sequence is present or absent. Indel What phase of drug product development is conducted on healthy volunteers to evaluate drug metabolism, pharmacokinetics, and biologic effects? Clinical Trial Phase 1 It is also known as an anti-egg white injury factor. Vitamin B7 (Biotin)