Module 11 Practice Questions PDF

Module 11 + 12 : 1\. What is the recommended dosage of Acyclovir for a first symptomatic episode of genital herpes in adults? a\) 200 mg TID for 5 days b\) 400 mg TID for 5 to 10 days c\) 800 mg BID for 2 days d\) 1000 mg daily Answer: b) 400 mg TID for 5 to 10 days 2\. For chronic suppressiv...

Module 11 + 12 : 1\. What is the recommended dosage of Acyclovir for a first symptomatic episode of genital herpes in adults? a\) 200 mg TID for 5 days b\) 400 mg TID for 5 to 10 days c\) 800 mg BID for 2 days d\) 1000 mg daily Answer: b) 400 mg TID for 5 to 10 days 2\. For chronic suppressive therapy of genital herpes, what is the correct dosage of Valacyclovir? a\) 250 mg BID b\) 500 mg daily c\) 250 mg BID or 500 mg daily d\) 1000 mg daily if \> 9 episodes per year Answer: c) 250 mg BID or 500 mg daily, 1000 mg daily if \> 9 episodes per year 4\. For external genital warts, what is the recommended application schedule for Imiquimod 3.75% cream? a\) Once daily for up to 8 weeks b\) Twice daily for 4 weeks c\) Three times per week for 16 weeks d\) Every other day for 12 weeks Answer: a) Once daily for up to 8 weeks 5\. What is the correct dosage of Acyclovir for children with first symptomatic herpes episode? a\) 40 mg/kg/day divided QID b\) 80 mg/kg/day divided QID for 5 to 7 days c\) 200 mg 5 times daily d\) 400 mg TID Answer: b) 80 mg/kg/day divided QID for 5 to 7 days 6\. In pregnancy, what is the recommended dosage of Acyclovir for first symptomatic herpes episode? a\) 200 mg 5 times daily b\) 400 mg TID for 5 to 10 days c\) Both a and b are correct d\) 500 mg BID Answer: c) Both a and b are correct 7\. What is the duration of treatment for Podofilox 0.5% solution in treating external genital warts? a\) 3 days on, 4 days off b\) 7 days continuous c\) 5 days on, 2 days off d\) 2 days on, 5 days off Answer: a) 3 days on, 4 days off 8\. For acute recurrent genital herpes, what is the correct Valacyclovir dosage? a\) 500 mg BID for 3 days b\) 1000 mg daily for 5 days c\) Either a or b d\) 250 mg daily Answer: c) Either a or b 9\. What is the recommended duration for Sinecatechins 10% ointment treatment? a\) Up to 8 weeks b\) Up to 12 weeks c\) Up to 16 weeks d\) Up to 4 weeks Answer: c) Up to 16 weeks 10\. For immunocompromised hosts with herpes, what is the primary recommendation? a\) Standard dosing b\) Double standard dosing c\) More aggressive therapies and specialist consultation d\) No treatment Answer: c) More aggressive therapies and specialist consultation 12\. For prior infection within previous year of herpes during pregnancy, what is the prophylaxis dosage of Acyclovir? a\) 200 mg QID b\) 400 mg TID c\) Either a or b d\) 800 mg daily Answer: c) Either a or b 13\. What is the recommended duration for Imiquimod 5% cream treatment? a\) Up to 8 weeks b\) Up to 12 weeks c\) Up to 16 weeks d\) Up to 4 weeks Answer: c) Up to 16 weeks 14\. For acute recurrent herpes in children, what is the correct Acyclovir dosage? a\) 200 mg 5 times daily b\) 400 mg TID for 5 days c\) Either a or b d\) 100 mg daily Answer: c) Either a or b 15\. What is the maximum number of Podofilox treatment cycles recommended? a\) 2 cycles b\) 3 cycles c\) 4 cycles d\) 6 cycles Answer: c) 4 cycles 17\. What is the recommended concentration for TCA treatment of genital warts? a\) 50-70% in ethyl alcohol b\) 60-80% in ethyl alcohol c\) 70-90% in ethyl alcohol d\) 80-90% in ethyl alcohol Answer: d) 80-90% in ethyl alcohol 18\. What is the duration of Valacyclovir treatment for acute recurrent herpes episodes? a\) 3 days b\) 5 days c\) 7 days d\) 10 days Answer: a) 3 days 19\. For chronic suppressive therapy, what is the correct Famciclovir dosage? a\) 125 mg BID b\) 250 mg BID c\) 500 mg daily d\) 1000 mg daily Answer: b) 250 mg BID 20\. What is the recommended duration for cryotherapy treatment of genital warts? a\) Maximum 4 weeks b\) Maximum 6 weeks c\) Maximum 8 weeks d\) Maximum 12 weeks Answer: c) Maximum 8 weeks 1\. What is the recommended timing for initiating herpes therapy for maximum benefit? a\) Within 24 hours b\) Within 48 hours c\) Within 72 hours d\) Within 96 hours Answer: c) Within 72 hours 2\. What is the maximum wart area that can be safely treated without direct medical supervision? a\) 2 cm² b\) 3 cm² c\) 4 cm² d\) 5 cm² Answer: c) 4 cm² 3\. What percentage of patients experience spontaneous resolution of genital warts within 6 months? a\) 10-20% b\) 20-30% c\) 30-40% d\) 40-50% Answer: b) 20-30% 4\. For children with acute recurrent herpes, what is the correct Acyclovir dosage? a\) 200 mg 5 times daily b\) 400 mg TID for 5 days c\) Either a or b d\) 800 mg daily Answer: c) Either a or b 5\. What is the recommended volume limit per day for Podofilox application? a\) ≤ 0.3 mL/day b\) ≤ 0.5 mL/day c\) ≤ 0.7 mL/day d\) ≤ 1.0 mL/day Answer: b) ≤ 0.5 mL/day 6\. What is the typical wart area in most patients? a\) 0.3-0.8 cm² b\) 0.5-1.0 cm² c\) 1.0-1.5 cm² d\) 1.5-2.0 cm² Answer: b) 0.5-1.0 cm² 7\. When using TCA, what should be applied around warts to prevent burning discomfort? a\) 3% EMLA cream b\) 5% EMLA cream c\) Petroleum jelly d\) Talc powder Answer: b) 5% EMLA cream 8\. What is the freezing margin recommended beyond the wart diameter in cryotherapy? a\) 0.5-1 mm b\) 1-2 mm c\) 2-3 mm d\) 3-4 mm Answer: b) 1-2 mm 9\. What is the risk of vertical transmission when primary herpes outbreak occurs at delivery? a\) 20-30% b\) 30-40% c\) 40-50% d\) 50-60% Answer: b) 30-40% 10\. How long should Imiquimod 5% cream be washed off after application? a\) 4-8 hours b\) 6-10 hours c\) 8-12 hours d\) 10-14 hours Answer: b) 6-10 hours 11\. What is the duration of treatment for neonatal herpes affecting only skin, eye, and mucous membranes? a\) 7 days b\) 14 days c\) 21 days d\) 28 days Answer: b) 14 days 12\. What is the maximum treatment area recommended for provider-administered therapies? a\) ≤ 5 cm² b\) ≤ 8 cm² c\) ≤ 10 cm² d\) ≤ 12 cm² Answer: c) ≤ 10 cm² 13\. By what percentage is recurrent genital herpes reduced with suppressive therapy? a\) 50-60% b\) 60-70% c\) 70-80% d\) 80-90% Answer: c) 70-80% 14\. What is the recommended timing for podophyllin resin removal after application? a\) 1-2 hours b\) 2-3 hours c\) 3-4 hours d\) 4-5 hours Answer: c) 3-4 hours 15\. How often should chronic suppressive therapy be reassessed? a\) Every 6 months b\) Every 12 months c\) Every 18 months d\) Every 24 months Answer: b) Every 12 months 16\. What is the dosage of Acyclovir for neonatal herpes? a\) 40 mg/kg/day b\) 50 mg/kg/day c\) 60 mg/kg/day d\) 70 mg/kg/day Answer: c) 60 mg/kg/day 17\. When using Sinecatechins ointment, how much should be applied? a\) 0.3 cm b\) 0.4 cm c\) 0.5 cm d\) 0.6 cm Answer: c) 0.5 cm 18\. What is the recommended interval for cryotherapy applications? a\) Every 1-2 weeks b\) Every 2-3 weeks c\) Every 3-4 weeks d\) Every 4-5 weeks Answer: a) Every 1-2 weeks 19\. For how long should EMLA cream be applied before TCA treatment? a\) 5-10 minutes b\) 10-20 minutes c\) 20-30 minutes d\) 30-40 minutes Answer: b) 10-20 minutes 20\. What is the maximum number of episodes per year that indicates need for higher dose valacyclovir? a\) \> 6 episodes b\) \> 7 episodes c\) \> 8 episodes d\) \> 9 episodes Answer: d) \> 9 episodes \#\# Vaginitis (Trichomoniasis) 1\. What is the first-line antibiotic choice for treating vaginitis caused by T. vaginalis? a\) Ciprofloxacin b\) Metronidazole c\) Azithromycin d\) Doxycycline Answer: b) Metronidazole 2\. What is the usual dosage of metronidazole for treating trichomoniasis? a\) 250 mg BID for 7 days b\) 500 mg BID for 7 days c\) 2 g orally single dose d\) 1 g daily for 5 days Answer: c) 2 g orally single dose \#\# Bacterial Vaginosis 4\. What is the first-line antibiotic choice for symptomatic bacterial vaginosis? a\) Metronidazole b\) Clindamycin c\) Ciprofloxacin d\) Azithromycin Answer: a) Metronidazole 5\. What is the usual dosage of oral metronidazole for bacterial vaginosis? a\) 250 mg BID for 7 days b\) 500 mg BID for 7 days c\) 2 g single dose d\) 1 g daily for 5 days Answer: b) 500 mg BID for 7 days \#\# Urethritis - Gonococcal (Adults) 7\. What is the first-line antibiotic choice for gonococcal urethritis in adults? a\) Cefixime b\) Ceftriaxone c\) Azithromycin d\) Doxycycline Answer: a) Cefixime 8\. What is the usual dosage of cefixime for gonococcal urethritis in adults? a\) 200 mg single dose b\) 400 mg single dose c\) 250 mg IM single dose d\) 500 mg BID for 7 days Answer: b) 400 mg single dose \#\# Urethritis - Gonococcal (Children) 10\. What is the usual dosage of ceftriaxone IM for gonococcal urethritis in children \ 12 years? a\) Amoxicillin b\) Ciprofloxacin c\) TMP/SMX d\) Nitrofurantoin Answer: c) TMP/SMX 2\. What is the usual dosage of TMP/SMX for uncomplicated UTI in females? a\) 1 DS tab BID b\) 2 tabs BID c\) 875/125 mg BID d\) 500 mg BID Answer: b) 2 tabs BID 3\. Which antibiotic is recommended as a single-dose treatment for uncomplicated UTI in females? a\) Nitrofurantoin b\) Fosfomycin c\) Ciprofloxacin d\) Cephalexin Answer: b) Fosfomycin 4\. What is the usual dosage of Trimethoprim for uncomplicated UTI in females? a\) 100 mg BID b\) 200 mg once daily c\) 500 mg BID d\) 3 g single dose Answer: b) 200 mg once daily 5\. Which organism is the most probable cause of acute cystitis in females (80-90%)? a\) Klebsiella pneumoniae b\) Proteus mirabilis c\) E. coli d\) Enterococcus Answer: c) E. coli \#\# Acute Urinary Tract Infection - Children 6\. What is the first-line antibiotic choice for UTI in children? a\) Amoxicillin b\) TMP/SMX c\) Cefixime d\) Ciprofloxacin Answer: b) TMP/SMX 7\. What is the usual dosage of TMP/SMX for children with UTI? a\) 2 tabs BID b\) 5-10 mg/kg/day trimethoprim divided q12h c\) 500 mg BID d\) 100 mg once daily Answer: b) 5-10 mg/kg/day trimethoprim divided q12h 8\. Which antibiotic is recommended as a second-line treatment for UTI in children? a\) Amoxicillin b\) Cephalexin c\) Ciprofloxacin d\) Nitrofurantoin Answer: a) Amoxicillin 9\. What is the usual dosage of Cephalexin for UTI in children? a\) 25-50 mg/kg/day divided q6h b\) 500 mg BID c\) 100 mg once daily d\) 3 g single dose Answer: a) 25-50 mg/kg/day divided q6h 10\. Which of the following is a third-line antibiotic choice for UTI in children? a\) Amoxicillin/Clavulanate b\) Cefixime c\) Fosfomycin d\) Levofloxacin Answer: b) Cefixime \#\# Urinary Tract Infections: Nursing Home/Long Term Care 11\. What is the first-line antibiotic choice for symptomatic UTI in nursing home residents? a\) Ciprofloxacin b\) Amoxicillin c\) TMP/SMX d\) Cephalexin Answer: c) TMP/SMX 12\. What is the usual dosage of Trimethoprim for UTI in nursing home residents? a\) 100 mg BID b\) 200 mg once daily c\) 500 mg BID d\) 3 g single dose Answer: a) 100 mg BID or b) 200 mg once daily 13\. Which antibiotic is recommended as a second-line treatment for UTI in nursing home residents? a\) Ciprofloxacin b\) Nitrofurantoin c\) Fosfomycin d\) Cefadroxil Answer: a) Ciprofloxacin 14\. What is the usual dosage of Ciprofloxacin for UTI in nursing home residents? a\) 250 mg BID b\) 500 mg (extended release) once daily c\) 100 mg BID d\) 3 g single dose Answer: a) 250 mg BID or b) 500 mg (extended release) once daily 15\. In nursing home residents, which organism is listed as a probable cause of symptomatic UTI? a\) E. coli b\) Klebsiella pneumoniae c\) Proteus mirabilis d\) Group B Strep Answer: a) E. coli \#\# Recurrent Cystitis - Female 16\. What is the first-line antibiotic choice for early relapse of cystitis in females? a\) Ciprofloxacin b\) Amoxicillin c\) TMP/SMX d\) Cephalexin Answer: c) TMP/SMX 17\. What is the usual dosage of Nitrofurantoin for recurrent cystitis in females? a\) 50-100 mg QID b\) 100 mg BID c\) 500 mg BID d\) 3 g single dose Answer: a) 50-100 mg QID or Macrobid 100 mg BID 18\. Which antibiotic is recommended as a second-line treatment for recurrent cystitis in females? a\) Norfloxacin b\) Fosfomycin c\) Cefadroxil d\) Amoxicillin Answer: a) Norfloxacin 19\. What is the usual dosage of Fosfomycin for recurrent cystitis in females? a\) 100 mg BID b\) 3 g dissolved in 1/2 cup of cold water once c\) 500 mg BID d\) 250 mg once daily Answer: b) 3 g dissolved in 1/2 cup of cold water once 20\. For prophylaxis of frequent recurrence in females, what is the usual dosage of TMP/SMX? a\) 1 tab or ½ DS tab qhs b\) 2 tabs BID c\) 500 mg BID d\) 3 g single dose Answer: a) 1 tab or ½ DS tab qhs \#\# Asymptomatic Bacteriuria 21\. In which circumstances should asymptomatic bacteriuria be screened and treated? a\) All elderly patients b\) During pregnancy and/or pre-operative genitourinary procedures c\) All diabetic patients d\) All patients with a history of UTI Answer: b) During pregnancy and/or pre-operative genitourinary procedures 22\. What is the first-line antibiotic choice for asymptomatic bacteriuria when treatment is indicated? a\) Ciprofloxacin b\) Amoxicillin c\) Nitrofurantoin d\) Cephalexin Answer: c) Nitrofurantoin 23\. What is the usual dosage of TMP/SMX for asymptomatic bacteriuria when treatment is indicated? a\) 2 tabs BID b\) 1 DS tab BID c\) 500 mg BID d\) 3 g single dose Answer: a) 2 tabs BID or b) 1 DS tab BID 24\. Which organism is listed as the most probable cause (60-70%) of asymptomatic bacteriuria? a\) Klebsiella pneumoniae b\) Proteus mirabilis c\) E. coli d\) Enterococcus Answer: c) E. coli 25\. What is the usual dosage of Fosfomycin for asymptomatic bacteriuria when treatment is indicated? a\) 100 mg BID b\) 3 g dissolved in 1/2 cup of cold water once c\) 500 mg BID d\) 250 mg once daily Answer: b) 3 g dissolved in 1/2 cup of cold water once \#\# Acute Cystitis in Pregnant Women 26\. What is the first-line antibiotic choice for acute cystitis in pregnant women? a\) Ciprofloxacin b\) Amoxicillin c\) Cephalexin d\) Trimethoprim Answer: c) Cephalexin 27\. What is the usual dosage of Nitrofurantoin for acute cystitis in pregnant women? a\) 50-100 mg QID b\) 100 mg BID c\) 500 mg BID d\) 3 g single dose Answer: a) 50-100 mg QID or Macrobid 100 mg BID 28\. Which antibiotic is recommended as a second-line treatment for acute cystitis in pregnant women? a\) Amoxicillin b\) Ciprofloxacin c\) Levofloxacin d\) Cefadroxil Answer: a) Amoxicillin 29\. What is the usual dosage of TMP/SMX for acute cystitis in pregnant women? a\) 2 tabs BID b\) 1 DS tab BID c\) 500 mg BID d\) 3 g single dose Answer: a) 2 tabs BID or b) 1 DS tab BID 30\. Which organisms are listed as probable causes of acute cystitis in pregnant women? a\) E. coli, Klebsiella, Proteus, Enterococci b\) Pseudomonas, Staphylococcus, Streptococcus c\) Chlamydia, Mycoplasma, Ureaplasma d\) Candida, Trichomonas, Gardnerella Answer: a) E. coli, Klebsiella, Proteus, Enterococci Continuing with questions 31-40 focused on UTI treatment and special populations: 31\. What is the recommended duration of therapy for pyelonephritis in pregnancy? a\) 5-7 days b\) 7-14 days c\) 1-2 days q24h d\) 21 days Answer: c) 1-2 days q24h 32\. Which antibiotic is contraindicated in both pregnancy at term and renal failure? a\) Cephalexin b\) Nitrofurantoin c\) Amoxicillin d\) Fosfomycin Answer: b) Nitrofurantoin 33\. What is the appropriate treatment for asymptomatic bacteriuria in nursing home residents? a\) TMP/SMX b\) Nitrofurantoin c\) No antibiotic indicated d\) Ciprofloxacin Answer: c) No antibiotic indicated 34\. For pediatric UTI, what is the correct Cephalexin dosing? a\) 25-50 mg/kg/day divided q6h b\) 40 mg/kg/day divided q8h c\) 8 mg/kg/day divided q12-24h d\) 4 mg/kg/day divided q12h Answer: a) 25-50 mg/kg/day divided q6h 35\. When should fluoroquinolones be considered in UTI treatment? a\) As first-line therapy b\) When resistance is \>20% c\) In all pediatric cases d\) In all pregnant women Answer: b) When resistance is \>20% 36\. What defines frequent recurrence requiring prophylaxis? a\) Two episodes in 6 months b\) Three or more episodes in 12 months c\) Four episodes in 6 months d\) One episode in 3 months Answer: b) Three or more episodes in 12 months 37\. What is the recommended prophylactic dose of Nitrofurantoin? a\) 50 mg or Macrobid 100 mg qhs b\) 100 mg BID c\) 200 mg daily d\) 500 mg weekly Answer: a) 50 mg or Macrobid 100 mg qhs 38\. When is TMP/SMX contraindicated in pregnancy? a\) First trimester b\) Second trimester c\) Last six weeks of pregnancy d\) Throughout pregnancy Answer: c) Last six weeks of pregnancy 39\. What is the correct follow-up protocol for pregnant women after UTI treatment? a\) No follow-up needed b\) Monthly urine cultures c\) Weekly urine cultures d\) Only if symptoms recur Answer: b) Monthly urine cultures 40\. Which condition requires screening and treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria? a\) Diabetes b\) Elderly patients c\) Pre-operative genitourinary procedures d\) Chronic kidney disease Answer: c) Pre-operative genitourinary procedures Here are 80 multiple choice questions based on the provided resource, focusing on the requested topics: 1\. What percentage of HIV acquisition can PrEP reduce in MSM/TGW if adherent? a\) 70% b\) 80% c\) 90% d\) 99% Answer: d) 99% 2\. Which medication is usually prescribed for daily PrEP? a\) DESCOVY b\) TRUVADA c\) Lenacapravir d\) SUNLENCA Answer: b) TRUVADA 3\. How often should PrEP be prescribed initially? a\) 1 month b\) 2 months c\) 3 months d\) 6 months Answer: a) 1 month 4\. After initial follow-up, how long can PrEP be prescribed for? a\) 1 month b\) 2 months c\) 3 months d\) 6 months Answer: c) 3 months 5\. Which population has an increased incidence of HIV diagnoses in Canada? a\) Elderly b\) Children c\) Indigenous peoples d\) Pregnant women Answer: c) Indigenous peoples 6\. What percentage of HIV cases in Saskatchewan are attributed to people who inject drugs? a\) 30% b\) 40% c\) 50% d\) 60% Answer: c) 50% 7\. What is the HIRI-MSM score that indicates a 2% per year risk of incident HIV? a\) ≥5 b\) ≥10 c\) ≥15 d\) ≥20 Answer: b) ≥10 8\. Which of the following is NOT a baseline investigation for PrEP? a\) HIV test b\) Hepatitis B serology c\) Chest X-ray d\) STI screening Answer: c) Chest X-ray 9\. How often should HIV testing be performed after starting PrEP? a\) Monthly b\) Every 3 months c\) Every 6 months d\) Annually Answer: b) Every 3 months 10\. Which vaccine should be offered to non-immune individuals starting PrEP? a\) MMR b\) Hepatitis A c\) Tetanus d\) Pneumococcal Answer: b) Hepatitis A 11\. What is the recommended daily dosing for TRUVADA as PrEP? a\) 1 tablet twice daily b\) 1 tablet once daily c\) 2 tablets once daily d\) 2 tablets twice daily Answer: b) 1 tablet once daily 12\. In the on-demand \"2-1-1\" method, how many tablets are taken 2-24 hours before sexual activity? a\) 1 tablet b\) 2 tablets c\) 3 tablets d\) 4 tablets Answer: b) 2 tablets 13\. Which population is the on-demand \"2-1-1\" method recommended for? a\) MSM/TGW only b\) Heterosexual individuals c\) People who inject drugs d\) All of the above Answer: a) MSM/TGW only 14\. What is a common side effect of PrEP that is usually transient? a\) Rash b\) Headache c\) Dizziness d\) Insomnia Answer: b) Headache 15\. How long do common side effects of PrEP typically last? a\) 1-2 days b\) 1-2 weeks c\) 1-2 months d\) 1-2 years Answer: b) 1-2 weeks 16\. Which medication may be preferred for individuals with a history of fractures or osteoporosis? a\) TRUVADA b\) DESCOVY c\) Lenacapravir d\) SUNLENCA Answer: b) DESCOVY 17\. What is the potential risk of discontinuing PrEP in patients with Hepatitis B? a\) Liver failure b\) Hepatitis B flare c\) Jaundice d\) Cirrhosis Answer: b) Hepatitis B flare 18\. How many doses per week are required for PrEP to be effective in MSM/TGW? a\) ≥2 doses/week b\) ≥3 doses/week c\) ≥4 doses/week d\) ≥5 doses/week Answer: c) ≥4 doses/week 19\. Which of the following is a contraindication for PrEP? a\) Positive HIV test b\) Hepatitis C c\) Diabetes d\) Hypertension Answer: a) Positive HIV test 20\. What is the recommended frequency for STI screening while on PrEP? a\) Monthly b\) Every 3 months c\) Every 6 months d\) Annually Answer: b) Every 3 months 21\. Which test should be performed to monitor kidney function in patients on PrEP? a\) Liver function tests b\) Complete blood count c\) Serum creatinine and eGFR d\) Urinalysis Answer: c) Serum creatinine and eGFR 22\. How often should pregnancy testing be performed in appropriate individuals on PrEP? a\) Monthly b\) Every 3 months c\) Every 6 months d\) Annually Answer: b) Every 3 months 23\. What is the recommended action if a patient on PrEP reports symptoms of acute HIV infection? a\) Continue PrEP as usual b\) Increase the dose of PrEP c\) Defer PrEP and repeat HIV test in 1-3 weeks d\) Immediately stop PrEP Answer: c) Defer PrEP and repeat HIV test in 1-3 weeks 24\. Which drug interaction should be monitored when prescribing TRUVADA for PrEP? a\) Antibiotics b\) Antidepressants c\) NSAIDs d\) Antihistamines Answer: c) NSAIDs 25\. What is the potential effect of TRUVADA on bone mineral density? a\) Increase b\) Decrease c\) No effect d\) Variable effect Answer: b) Decrease 26\. How long after the last potential HIV exposure should PrEP be continued in heterosexual individuals? a\) 2 days b\) 7 days c\) 14 days d\) 28 days Answer: d) 28 days 27\. What is the recommended action if a patient has a recent (≤72 hr) high-risk exposure? a\) Start PrEP immediately b\) Refer for nPEP c\) Wait and retest for HIV d\) No action needed Answer: b) Refer for nPEP 28\. Which population is DESCOVY FDA-approved for as PrEP? a\) MSM/TGW only b\) Heterosexual individuals only c\) People who inject drugs only d\) All of the above Answer: a) MSM/TGW only 29\. What is the recommended frequency for lipid panel monitoring with FTC/TAF (DESCOVY)? a\) Every 3 months b\) Every 6 months c\) Every 12 months d\) Every 24 months Answer: c) Every 12 months 30\. Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of PrEP? a\) Headache b\) Abdominal pain c\) Fatigue d\) Skin rash Answer: d) Skin rash 31\. What is the recommended duration of PrEP use before it provides protection against HIV acquisition in MSM? a\) 1 day b\) 3 days c\) 7 days d\) 14 days Answer: c) 7 days 32\. Which of the following is a potential drug interaction with DESCOVY? a\) P-gp inducers b\) Calcium channel blockers c\) Beta-blockers d\) ACE inhibitors Answer: a) P-gp inducers 33\. What is the recommended action if a patient on PrEP has a positive HIV test? a\) Continue PrEP b\) Increase PrEP dose c\) Immediately discontinue PrEP d\) Switch to a different PrEP medication Answer: c) Immediately discontinue PrEP 34\. Which of the following is NOT a population with increased HIV incidence in Canada? a\) Male-to-male sexual contact b\) People who inject drugs c\) Sex workers d\) Elderly individuals Answer: d) Elderly individuals 35\. What is the recommended frequency for hepatitis C screening in individuals on PrEP? a\) Every 3 months b\) Every 6 months c\) Every 12 months d\) Every 24 months Answer: c) Every 12 months 36\. Which of the following is a contraindication for TRUVADA as PrEP? a\) eGFR \25 2\. Which of the following is NOT considered a high-risk population for HIV in Canada? a\) Men who have sex with men b\) Indigenous peoples c\) Sex workers d\) Elderly individuals Answer: d) Elderly individuals 3\. What percentage of HIV cases in Saskatchewan are attributed to heterosexual sex? a\) 10% b\) 20% c\) 30% d\) 40% Answer: c) 30% 4\. How often should hepatitis C screening be performed for individuals on PrEP? a\) Every 3 months b\) Every 6 months c\) Every 12 months d\) Every 24 months Answer: c) Every 12 months 5\. Which of the following is a baseline investigation for PrEP? a\) HIV test b\) Hepatitis B serology c\) STI screening d\) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above 6\. How often should creatinine clearance be monitored after the initial 1-month follow-up? a\) Monthly b\) Every 3 months c\) Every 6 months d\) Every 6-12 months, based on expert opinion Answer: d) Every 6-12 months, based on expert opinion 7\. When should PrEP indication be reassessed? a\) Every visit b\) Every 3 months c\) Every 6 months d\) Annually Answer: a) Every visit 8\. Which vaccine should be offered to non-immune individuals starting PrEP? a\) Influenza b\) HPV c\) Hepatitis A and B d\) Tetanus Answer: c) Hepatitis A and B 9\. How often should STI screening be performed for individuals on PrEP? a\) Monthly b\) Every 3 months c\) Every 6 months d\) Annually Answer: b) Every 3 months 10\. What is the recommended frequency for HIV testing after starting PrEP? a\) Monthly b\) Every 3 months c\) Every 6 months d\) Annually Answer: b) Every 3 months 11\. Which of the following is NOT a typical baseline investigation for PrEP? a\) HIV test b\) Hepatitis B serology c\) Creatinine clearance d\) CD4 count Answer: d) CD4 count 12\. How often should pregnancy testing be performed in appropriate individuals on PrEP? a\) Monthly b\) Every 3 months c\) Every 6 months d\) Annually Answer: b) Every 3 months 13\. When should lipid panel monitoring be performed for individuals on FTC/TAF (DESCOVY)? a\) Every 3 months b\) Every 6 months c\) Every 12 months d\) Not routinely recommended Answer: c) Every 12 months 14\. Which of the following is NOT a typical follow-up investigation for PrEP at 1 month? a\) HIV test b\) Creatinine clearance c\) STI screening d\) Adherence assessment Answer: c) STI screening 15\. How often should urinalysis be performed for individuals on PrEP? a\) Every visit b\) Every 3 months c\) Every 6 months d\) Optional/expert opinion Answer: d) Optional/expert opinion 16\. What is the recommended action if a patient on PrEP reports symptoms of acute HIV infection? a\) Continue PrEP as usual b\) Increase the dose of PrEP c\) Defer PrEP and repeat HIV test in 1-3 weeks d\) Immediately stop PrEP and start antiretroviral therapy Answer: c) Defer PrEP and repeat HIV test in 1-3 weeks 17\. Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom that may indicate acute HIV infection? a\) Fever b\) Myalgia c\) Pharyngitis d\) Chronic cough Answer: d) Chronic cough 18\. How long after the last potential HIV exposure should PrEP be continued in heterosexual individuals? a\) 7 days b\) 14 days c\) 21 days d\) 28 days Answer: d) 28 days 19\. What is the recommended duration of PrEP use before it provides protection against HIV acquisition in people who inject drugs? a\) 7 days b\) 14 days c\) 20 days d\) 28 days Answer: c) 20 days 20\. Which of the following is NOT a typical education topic for patients starting PrEP? a\) Adherence importance b\) Potential side effects c\) Ongoing HIV risk reduction strategies d\) Requirement to disclose PrEP use to partners Answer: d) Requirement to disclose PrEP use to partners Here are 30 multiple choice questions based on the provided resource: 1\. What is the first-line treatment for stress urinary incontinence in adults? a\) Anticholinergics b\) Pelvic floor muscle training (PFMT) c\) Duloxetine d\) Vaginal estrogen therapy Answer: b) Pelvic floor muscle training (PFMT) 2\. Which of the following is a first-line non-pharmacological intervention for urgency urinary incontinence? a\) Bladder training b\) Mirabegron c\) Oxybutynin d\) Botulinum toxin injections Answer: a) Bladder training 3\. In children with nocturnal enuresis, what is an effective non-pharmacological intervention? a\) Oxybutynin b\) Desmopressin c\) Enuresis alarms d\) Tricyclic antidepressants Answer: c) Enuresis alarms 4\. Which lifestyle modification is recommended for patients with problematic nocturia due to BPH? a\) Increase fluid intake before bedtime b\) Avoid caffeine-containing beverages in the evening c\) Start using decongestants d\) Decrease leg elevation before retiring Answer: b) Avoid caffeine-containing beverages in the evening *5*. What is the most common type of urinary incontinence during pregnancy? a\) Urgency incontinence b\) Stress incontinence c\) Overflow incontinence d\) Functional incontinence Answer: b) Stress incontinence 6\. Which medication class is considered first-line pharmacological treatment for urgency urinary incontinence in adults? a\) Alpha-blockers b\) 5-alpha reductase inhibitors c\) Antimuscarinics d\) Beta3-adrenergic agonists Answer: c) Antimuscarinics 7\. What is a potential adverse effect of antimuscarinic medications used for urgency incontinence? a\) Increased risk of dementia b\) Hypotension c\) Hyperglycemia d\) Hyponatremia Answer: a) Increased risk of dementia 8\. Which non-pharmacological intervention is recommended for both stress and urgency urinary incontinence? a\) Weighted vaginal cones b\) Pelvic floor muscle exercises (PFME) c\) Pessaries d\) Electrical stimulation therapy Answer: b) Pelvic floor muscle exercises (PFME) 9\. What is the recommended first-line approach for overflow incontinence due to benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)? a\) Alpha-blockers b\) 5-alpha reductase inhibitors c\) Addressing reversible causes such as medications d\) Surgical interventions Answer: c) Addressing reversible causes such as medications 10\. Which laboratory test is controversial but suggested as a baseline for asymptomatic patients aged 40-54 years in BPH investigations? a\) Urinalysis b\) Serum creatinine c\) Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) d\) Urine cytology Answer: c) Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) 11\. What is the recommended duration to determine the benefit of antimuscarinic medications for urgency incontinence? a\) 1-2 weeks b\) 2-4 weeks c\) 4-8 weeks d\) 12-16 weeks Answer: c) 4-8 weeks 12\. Which of the following is a contraindication for desmopressin in children with nocturnal enuresis? a\) Normal bladder capacity b\) Large urine output c\) Fluid or electrolyte imbalance d\) Detrusor overactivity Answer: c) Fluid or electrolyte imbalance 13\. What lifestyle modification is recommended for patients with urinary incontinence who are overweight or obese? a\) Increased fluid intake b\) Weight loss c\) High-protein diet d\) Increased caffeine consumption Answer: b) Weight loss 14\. Which medication class should be used with caution in elderly patients due to its potential to potentiate other antihypertensive medications? a\) Antimuscarinics b\) 5-alpha reductase inhibitors c\) Alpha-blockers d\) Beta3-adrenergic agonists Answer: c) Alpha-blockers 15\. What is the recommended frequency of pelvic floor muscle exercises (PFME) for stress urinary incontinence? a\) 5-10 contractions once daily b\) 12-20 contractions 1-2 times daily c\) 12-20 contractions 3-5 times daily d\) 30-40 contractions twice daily Answer: c) 12-20 contractions 3-5 times daily 16\. Which of the following is not a common adverse effect of alpha-blockers used for BPH? a\) Dizziness b\) Headaches c\) Nasal congestion d\) Constipation Answer: d) Constipation 17\. What is the recommended first-line treatment for children with daytime urinary incontinence? a\) Oxybutynin b\) Desmopressin c\) Bladder training exercises d\) Tricyclic antidepressants Answer: c) Bladder training exercises 18\. Which intervention has been found to be more effective than antimuscarinic therapy for urgency urinary incontinence? a\) Pelvic floor muscle exercises b\) Bladder training c\) Biofeedback d\) Electrical stimulation Answer: b) Bladder training 19\. What is the recommended approach for mixed urinary incontinence? a\) Treat both stress and urgency symptoms equally b\) Focus only on stress incontinence symptoms c\) Focus only on urgency incontinence symptoms d\) Treat the predominant symptom Answer: d) Treat the predominant symptom 20\. Which medication is a beta3-adrenergic agonist used for urgency incontinence? a\) Oxybutynin b\) Mirabegron c\) Tolterodine d\) Solifenacin Answer: b) Mirabegron 21\. What is the recommended duration of treatment before assessing the effectiveness of pelvic floor muscle exercises? a\) 1-2 weeks b\) 2-4 weeks c\) 6-8 weeks d\) 12-16 weeks Answer: c) 6-8 weeks 22\. Which of the following is not a recommended lifestyle modification for urgency urinary incontinence? a\) Caffeine reduction b\) Smoking cessation c\) Fluid restriction d\) Increased alcohol consumption Answer: d) Increased alcohol consumption 23\. What is the primary goal of bladder training for urgency incontinence? a\) Strengthen pelvic floor muscles b\) Increase bladder capacity c\) Reduce urinary frequency d\) Improve urinary flow rate Answer: b) Increase bladder capacity 24\. Which medication class is associated with an increased risk of new cardiac failure in patients \>66 years with BPH? a\) Antimuscarinics b\) Alpha-blockers c\) 5-alpha reductase inhibitors d\) Both b and c Answer: d) Both b and c 25\. What is the recommended first-line approach for stress urinary incontinence during pregnancy? a\) Pharmacological interventions b\) Pelvic floor muscle training c\) Pessaries d\) Surgical interventions Answer: b) Pelvic floor muscle training 26\. Which of the following is not a typical component of the physical examination for urinary incontinence in adults? a\) Abdominal examination b\) Digital rectal examination c\) Neurological examination d\) Chest X-ray Answer: d) Chest X-ray 27\. What is the recommended duration of treatment with alpha-blockers before assessing their effectiveness in BPH? a\) 1-2 weeks b\) 2-4 weeks c\) 4-8 weeks d\) 12-16 weeks Answer: c) 4-8 weeks 28\. Which of the following is a potential complication of long-term bladder outlet obstruction in BPH? a\) Urinary tract infections b\) Bladder stones c\) Hydronephrosis d\) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above 29\. What is the recommended approach for patients with minimal BPH symptoms? a\) Immediate pharmacological intervention b\) Surgical intervention c\) Reassurance and active surveillance d\) Aggressive lifestyle modifications Answer: c) Reassurance and active surveillance 30\. Which of the following is not typically included in the initial laboratory tests for BPH evaluation? a\) Urinalysis b\) PSA test c\) Urine culture (if bacteriuria/pyuria present) d\) Serum testosterone Answer: d) Serum testosterone Here are 25 additional multiple choice questions based on the provided resource: 31\. Which of the following is not a common type of urinary incontinence in adults? a\) Stress incontinence b\) Urgency incontinence c\) Overflow incontinence d\) Conductive incontinence Answer: d) Conductive incontinence 32\. What percentage of older females are affected by urinary incontinence? a\) 5% b\) 15% c\) 29% d\) 55% Answer: c) 29% 33\. Which type of urinary incontinence is most common in adults? a\) Stress incontinence b\) Urgency incontinence c\) Mixed incontinence d\) Functional incontinence Answer: a) Stress incontinence 34\. What is the recommended duration for pelvic floor muscle exercises (PFME) to see results? a\) 1-2 weeks b\) 3-4 weeks c\) 6-8 weeks d\) 12-16 weeks Answer: c) 6-8 weeks 35\. Which of the following is not a first-line non-pharmacological intervention for urgency urinary incontinence? a\) Bladder training b\) Pelvic floor muscle exercises c\) Weight loss d\) Botulinum toxin injections Answer: d) Botulinum toxin injections 36\. What is the recommended first-line pharmacological treatment for urgency urinary incontinence? a\) Alpha-blockers b\) 5-alpha reductase inhibitors c\) Antimuscarinics d\) Beta3-adrenergic agonists Answer: c) Antimuscarinics 37\. Which medication class should be used with caution in elderly patients due to its potential increased risk of dementia? a\) Alpha-blockers b\) Antimuscarinics c\) 5-alpha reductase inhibitors d\) Beta3-adrenergic agonists Answer: b) Antimuscarinics 38\. What is the most common type of urinary incontinence during pregnancy? a\) Urgency incontinence b\) Stress incontinence c\) Overflow incontinence d\) Functional incontinence Answer: b) Stress incontinence 39\. Which of the following is not a recommended lifestyle modification for urinary incontinence? a\) Weight loss b\) Smoking cessation c\) Increased alcohol consumption d\) Caffeine reduction Answer: c) Increased alcohol consumption 40\. What is the recommended duration to determine the benefit of antimuscarinic medications for urgency incontinence? a\) 1-2 weeks b\) 2-4 weeks c\) 4-8 weeks d\) 12-16 weeks Answer: c) 4-8 weeks 41\. Which of the following is a beta3-adrenergic agonist used for urgency incontinence? a\) Oxybutynin b\) Mirabegron c\) Tolterodine d\) Solifenacin Answer: b) Mirabegron 42\. What is the primary goal of bladder training for urgency incontinence? a\) Strengthen pelvic floor muscles b\) Increase bladder capacity c\) Reduce urinary frequency d\) Improve urinary flow rate Answer: b) Increase bladder capacity 43\. Which of the following is not typically included in the initial laboratory tests for BPH evaluation? a\) Urinalysis b\) PSA test c\) Urine culture (if bacteriuria/pyuria present) d\) Serum testosterone Answer: d) Serum testosterone 44\. What is the recommended approach for patients with minimal BPH symptoms? a\) Immediate pharmacological intervention b\) Surgical intervention c\) Reassurance and active surveillance d\) Aggressive lifestyle modifications Answer: c) Reassurance and active surveillance 45\. Which medication class is associated with an increased risk of new cardiac failure in patients \>66 years with BPH? a\) Antimuscarinics b\) Alpha-blockers c\) 5-alpha reductase inhibitors d\) Both b and c Answer: d) Both b and c 46\. What is the recommended first-line approach for stress urinary incontinence during pregnancy? a\) Pharmacological interventions b\) Pelvic floor muscle training c\) Pessaries d\) Surgical interventions Answer: b) Pelvic floor muscle training 47\. Which of the following is not a typical component of the physical examination for urinary incontinence in adults? a\) Abdominal examination b\) Digital rectal examination c\) Neurological examination d\) Chest X-ray Answer: d) Chest X-ray 48\. What is the recommended duration of treatment with alpha-blockers before assessing their effectiveness in BPH? a\) 1-2 weeks b\) 2-4 weeks c\) 4-8 weeks d\) 12-16 weeks Answer: c) 4-8 weeks 49\. Which of the following is a potential complication of long-term bladder outlet obstruction in BPH? a\) Urinary tract infections b\) Bladder stones c\) Hydronephrosis d\) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above 50\. What is the primary goal of pelvic floor muscle exercises (PFME) in stress urinary incontinence? a\) Increase bladder capacity b\) Strengthen pelvic floor muscles c\) Reduce urinary frequency d\) Improve urinary flow rate Answer: b) Strengthen pelvic floor muscles 51\. Which of the following is not a common adverse effect of alpha-blockers used for BPH? a\) Dizziness b\) Headaches c\) Nasal congestion d\) Constipation Answer: d) Constipation 52\. What is the recommended first-line treatment for children with daytime urinary incontinence? a\) Oxybutynin b\) Desmopressin c\) Bladder training exercises d\) Tricyclic antidepressants Answer: c) Bladder training exercises 53\. Which intervention has been found to be more effective than antimuscarinic therapy for urgency urinary incontinence? a\) Pelvic floor muscle exercises b\) Bladder training c\) Biofeedback d\) Electrical stimulation Answer: b) Bladder training 54\. What is the recommended approach for mixed urinary incontinence? a\) Treat both stress and urgency symptoms equally b\) Focus only on stress incontinence symptoms c\) Focus only on urgency incontinence symptoms d\) Treat the predominant symptom Answer: d) Treat the predominant symptom 55\. Which of the following is not a typical cause of functional incontinence? a\) Restricted mobility b\) Depression c\) Environmental barriers d\) Detrusor overactivity 1\. What is the first-line drug therapy for erectile dysfunction? a\) Penile injections b\) Urethral suppositories c\) PDE5 inhibitors d\) Vacuum pumps Answer: c) PDE5 inhibitors\[1\] 2\. Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of PDE5 inhibitors? a\) Flushing b\) Headache c\) Dyspepsia d\) Weight gain Answer: d) Weight gain\[1\] 3\. What is the recommended initial dose of sildenafil for most patients? a\) 25-50mg b\) 50-100mg c\) 100-200mg d\) 10-25mg Answer: a) 25-50mg\[1\] 4\. Which PDE5 inhibitor has the longest duration of action? a\) Sildenafil b\) Vardenafil c\) Tadalafil d\) Avanafil Answer: c) Tadalafil\[1\] 5\. What is a contraindication for PDE5 inhibitors? a\) Hypertension b\) Diabetes c\) Concurrent use of nitrates d\) Hyperlipidemia Answer: c) Concurrent use of nitrates\[1\] 6\. Which lifestyle modification has been shown to be effective for erectile dysfunction? a\) Increased alcohol consumption b\) Weight loss c\) Increased caffeine intake d\) Decreased water intake Answer: b) Weight loss\[1\] 7\. What is the NNT (Number Needed to Treat) for PDE5 inhibitors in erectile dysfunction? a\) 1 to 2 b\) 2 to 3 c\) 5 to 6 d\) 8 to 10 Answer: b) 2 to 3\[1\] 8\. Which of the following is a second-line therapy for erectile dysfunction? a\) PDE5 inhibitors b\) Penile injections c\) Counseling d\) Testosterone replacement Answer: b) Penile injections\[1\] 9\. What is a potential serious adverse effect of PDE5 inhibitors? a\) Constipation b\) Priapism c\) Hair loss d\) Weight gain Answer: b) Priapism\[1\] 10\. Which drug class should be avoided within 24-48 hours of taking PDE5 inhibitors? a\) ACE inhibitors b\) Beta-blockers c\) Nitrates d\) Calcium channel blockers Answer: c) Nitrates\[1\] 11\. What is the first-line treatment for female sexual dysfunction? a\) Flibanserin b\) Bremelanotide c\) Estradiol d\) Non-pharmacological approaches (e.g., counseling, lifestyle modifications) Answer: d) Non-pharmacological approaches (e.g., counseling, lifestyle modifications)\[2\] 12\. Which medication is FDA-approved for hypoactive sexual desire disorder in premenopausal women? a\) Sildenafil b\) Flibanserin c\) Estradiol d\) Testosterone Answer: b) Flibanserin\[2\] 13\. What is a common side effect of flibanserin? a\) Headache b\) Nausea c\) Dizziness d\) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above\[2\] 14\. Which of the following is NOT a drug treatment for female sexual dysfunction? a\) Ospemifene b\) Prasterone c\) Alprostadil d\) Finasteride Answer: d) Finasteride\[2\] 15\. What is the recommended administration route for prasterone in treating dyspareunia due to menopause? a\) Oral tablet b\) Transdermal patch c\) Daily vaginal insert d\) Intramuscular injection Answer: c) Daily vaginal insert\[2\] 16\. Which of the following is a potential drug cause of sexual dysfunction in both males and females? a\) Antidepressants (SSRIs) b\) Antihistamines c\) Beta-blockers d\) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above\[2\] 17\. What is a recommended strategy for managing PDE5 inhibitor failure? a\) Immediately switch to penile injections b\) Double the dose without consultation c\) Check administration (e.g., empty stomach, timing pre-sex) d\) Discontinue all treatments Answer: c) Check administration (e.g., empty stomach, timing pre-sex)\[1\] 18\. Which of the following may increase response in patients who fail PDE5 inhibitor therapy? a\) Trying daily tadalafil dosing instead of prn b\) Trying a higher dose c\) Trying an alternate PDE5 inhibitor d\) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above\[1\] 19\. What percentage of patients may respond to a higher dose of PDE5 inhibitors after initial failure? a\) 5% b\) 10% c\) 20% d\) 50% Answer: c) 20%\[1\] 20\. How many attempts are generally recommended before considering a PDE5 inhibitor trial inadequate? a\) At least 2 attempts b\) At least 4 attempts c\) At least 6 attempts d\) At least 8 attempts Answer: b) At least 4 attempts\[1\] 21\. Which of the following is NOT a potential drug cause of erectile dysfunction? a\) Opioids b\) Antipsychotics c\) Anticonvulsants d\) Antibiotics Answer: d) Antibiotics\[2\] 22\. What is a potential non-pharmacological intervention for premature ejaculation? a\) Start-stop technique b\) Kegel exercises c\) Cognitive behavioral therapy d\) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above\[2\] 23\. Which medication may improve sexual function in patients with epilepsy? a\) Carbamazepine b\) Phenytoin c\) Lamotrigine d\) Valproate Answer: c) Lamotrigine\[2\] 24\. What is a recommended laboratory test for monitoring patients on long-term PDE5 inhibitor therapy? a\) Complete blood count b\) Liver function tests c\) Renal function tests d\) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above\[1\] 25\. Which of the following is a potential cause of sexual dysfunction in older adults? a\) Cardiovascular disease b\) Diabetes c\) Hormonal changes d\) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above\[2\] 26\. What is a recommended first-line intervention for vaginal dryness in postmenopausal women? a\) Systemic hormone therapy b\) Local estrogen therapy c\) Flibanserin d\) Testosterone therapy Answer: b) Local estrogen therapy\[2\] 27\. Which lifestyle modification may improve erectile function? a\) Smoking cessation b\) Regular physical activity c\) Limiting alcohol consumption d\) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above\[1\] 28\. What is the recommended initial approach for children with inappropriate sexual behaviors? a\) Immediate pharmacological intervention b\) Psychoeducation and behavioral interventions c\) Hormonal therapy d\) Surgical intervention Answer: b) Psychoeducation and behavioral interventions\[2\] 29\. Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of alprostadil injections? a\) Penile pain b\) Priapism c\) Penile fibrosis d\) Nausea Answer: d) Nausea\[1\] 30\. What is a potential risk of using PDE5 inhibitors in patients with cardiovascular disease? a\) Increased risk of myocardial infarction b\) Worsening of heart failure c\) Interaction with nitrates leading to severe hypotension d\) All of the above Answer: c) Interaction with nitrates leading to severe hypotension\[1\] Here are 25 multiple choice questions focused on pharmacological options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH): 1\. Which class of medications is commonly used as first-line treatment for BPH? a\) Antimuscarinics b\) Alpha1-adrenergic receptor antagonists c\) 5-alpha reductase inhibitors d\) Beta3-adrenergic agonists Answer: b) Alpha1-adrenergic receptor antagonists 2\. What is the primary mechanism of action for alpha1-adrenergic receptor antagonists in treating BPH? a\) Reducing prostate size b\) Blocking smooth muscle activity in the bladder neck c\) Increasing bladder capacity d\) Enhancing urine production Answer: b) Blocking smooth muscle activity in the bladder neck 3\. Which of the following is a common adverse effect associated with alpha1-adrenergic blockers? a\) Constipation b\) Dizziness c\) Dry mouth d\) Urinary retention Answer: b) Dizziness 4\. What is a potential risk of using nonselective alpha1-adrenergic blockers in elderly patients? a\) Increased urinary frequency b\) New cardiac failure c\) Decreased libido d\) Severe headaches Answer: b) New cardiac failure 5\. Which medication is a selective alpha1-adrenergic antagonist used for BPH? a\) Doxazosin b\) Tamsulosin c\) Terazosin d\) Alfuzosin Answer: b) Tamsulosin 6\. What is the primary benefit of using 5-alpha reductase inhibitors in BPH treatment? a\) Immediate relief of urinary symptoms b\) Reduction of prostate size over time c\) Increased bladder capacity d\) Decreased risk of urinary tract infections Answer: b) Reduction of prostate size over time 7\. Which of the following medications is a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor? a\) Tamsulosin b\) Finasteride c\) Doxazosin d\) Mirabegron Answer: b) Finasteride 8\. What is a common side effect associated with 5-alpha reductase inhibitors? a\) Hypotension b\) Sexual dysfunction c\) Nausea d\) Dry mouth Answer: b) Sexual dysfunction 9\. How long does it typically take to see the full effects of 5-alpha reductase inhibitors in BPH treatment? a\) 1 week b\) 4 weeks c\) 6 months d\) 12 months Answer: c) 6 months 10\. Which combination therapy may be considered for patients with moderate to severe BPH symptoms? a\) Alpha-blocker and antimuscarinic b\) Alpha-blocker and 5-alpha reductase inhibitor c\) 5-alpha reductase inhibitor and beta3-agonist d\) Anticholinergic and diuretic Answer: b) Alpha-blocker and 5-alpha reductase inhibitor 11\. What is the role of mirabegron in the treatment of BPH? a\) It reduces prostate size. b\) It blocks alpha receptors. c\) It acts as a beta3-adrenergic agonist to relax the bladder. d\) It increases urine output. Answer: c) It acts as a beta3-adrenergic agonist to relax the bladder. 12\. Which medication should be avoided in patients with a history of urinary retention due to BPH? a\) Alpha-blockers b\) Anticholinergics c\) 5-alpha reductase inhibitors d\) Beta3-agonists Answer: b) Anticholinergics 13\. What is an important consideration when prescribing alpha-blockers to older adults? a\) They should be given at higher doses. b\) They may interact with antihypertensive medications. c\) They have no significant side effects. d\) They are contraindicated in this age group. Answer: b) They may interact with antihypertensive medications. 14\. Which medication can cause retrograde ejaculation as a side effect? a\) Finasteride b\) Tamsulosin c\) Terazosin d\) Mirabegron Answer: b) Tamsulosin 15\. In which scenario would combination therapy with an alpha-blocker and a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor be most appropriate? a\) Mild symptoms without complications b\) Severe symptoms with bladder outlet obstruction c\) Patients who prefer non-pharmacological treatment d\) Patients with only urinary frequency issues Answer: b) Severe symptoms with bladder outlet obstruction 16\. What laboratory test is often monitored when initiating treatment with a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor? a\) Serum creatinine b\) Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) c\) Complete blood count (CBC) d\) Liver function tests Answer: b) Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) 17\. Which of the following medications has been shown to improve quality of life in patients with BPH? a\) Oxybutynin b\) Doxazosin c\) Desmopressin d ) Propiverine Answer: b ) Doxazosin 18\. What should be done if a patient experiences intolerable side effects from an alpha-blocker after 8 weeks of therapy? a ) Increase the dose b ) Switch to a different class of medication c ) Continue the same medication d ) Discontinue all medications Answer: b ) Switch to a different class of medication 19\. Which non-pharmacological intervention can complement pharmacotherapy for BPH management? a ) Dietary changes b ) Increased fluid intake before bed c ) Avoiding pelvic floor exercises d ) Ignoring urinary symptoms Answer: a ) Dietary changes 20\. What is the primary goal of pharmacological therapy for BPH? a ) Cure the condition completely b ) Relieve urinary symptoms and improve quality of life c ) Prevent any surgical interventions d ) Increase urine production Answer: b ) Relieve urinary symptoms and improve quality of life 21\. Which patient population should be closely monitored when prescribed alpha-blockers due to potential cardiovascular risks? a ) Young adults under 30 years old b ) Middle-aged men with no comorbidities c ) Elderly patients or those with pre-existing heart conditions d ) Patients with only mild urinary symptoms Answer: c ) Elderly patients or those with pre-existing heart conditions 22\. How do antimuscarinic medications assist in managing urgency associated with BPH? a ) By reducing prostate size b ) By increasing bladder capacity and reducing detrusor overactivity c ) By blocking alpha receptors in the prostate d ) By stimulating bladder contractions Answer: b ) By increasing bladder capacity and reducing detrusor overactivity 23\. Which side effect is more commonly associated with anticholinergic medications used for BPH management? a ) Insomnia b ) Dry mouth and constipation c ) Weight gain d ) Increased urination frequency Answer: b ) Dry mouth and constipation 24\. When considering treatment options, what factor should influence the choice between an alpha-blocker and a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor? a ) Patient age only b ) Severity of symptoms and presence of complications like urinary retention or obstruction c ) Patient preference for oral versus injectable medications d ) The presence of other unrelated medical conditions Answer: b ) Severity of symptoms and presence of complications like urinary retention or obstruction 25\. In patients experiencing both stress urinary incontinence and BPH, which approach is recommended for treatment? a ) Focus solely on stress urinary incontinence b ) Treat both conditions simultaneously with appropriate therapies c ) Delay treatment until one condition resolves d ) Use only surgical interventions Answer: b ) Treat both conditions simultaneously with appropriate therapies 1\. What is the primary pharmacological treatment for female sexual dysfunction? a\) Testosterone therapy b\) Flibanserin c\) PDE5 inhibitors d\) Antidepressants Answer: b) Flibanserin 2\. Which of the following is a common side effect of flibanserin? a\) Weight gain b\) Nausea c\) Increased libido d\) Insomnia Answer: b) Nausea 3\. What lifestyle modification can help improve erectile dysfunction (ED)? a\) Increased smoking b\) Regular physical activity c\) Excessive alcohol consumption d\) Sedentary lifestyle Answer: b) Regular physical activity 4\. Which drug class is commonly associated with causing erectile dysfunction? a\) ACE inhibitors b\) Statins c\) SSRIs d\) Calcium channel blockers Answer: c) SSRIs 5\. What is the recommended maximum frequency for using alprostadil injections in a week? a\) Once a week b\) Twice a week c\) Three times a week d\) Every day Answer: c) Three times a week 6\. Which of the following medications is contraindicated with PDE5 inhibitors due to the risk of severe hypotension? a\) Aspirin b\) Nitrates c\) Statins d\) Antihistamines Answer: b) Nitrates 7\. What is the primary mechanism of action for PDE5 inhibitors? a\) Increase testosterone levels b\) Enhance blood flow to the penis by inhibiting cGMP breakdown c\) Stimulate nerve endings in the penis d\) Increase libido directly Answer: b) Enhance blood flow to the penis by inhibiting cGMP breakdown 8\. Which PDE5 inhibitor is known for its longer duration of action? a\) Sildenafil b\) Vardenafil c\) Tadalafil d\) Avanafil Answer: c) Tadalafil 9\. What is an effective non-pharmacological intervention for managing erectile dysfunction? a\) Avoiding all physical activity b\) Psychosexual therapy c\) Increasing caffeine intake d\) Ignoring dietary habits Answer: b) Psychosexual therapy 10\. Which medication can be used as a second-line treatment for erectile dysfunction after PDE5 inhibitors fail? a\) Testosterone therapy b\) Penile injections c\) Oral contraceptives d\) Antidepressants Answer: b) Penile injections 11\. What is the risk associated with priapism in patients using PDE5 inhibitors? a\) Increased sexual desire b\) Permanent erectile dysfunction c\) Prolonged erection lasting more than 4 hours d\) Decreased libido Answer: c) Prolonged erection lasting more than 4 hours 12\. Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of tadalafil? a\) Flushing b\) Back pain c\) Priapism d\) Dizziness Answer: c) Priapism 13\. What lifestyle change has been shown to improve sexual function in older men with diabetes? a\) Weight loss intervention b\) Increased alcohol intake c\) Reduced physical activity d\) Smoking cessation Answer: a) Weight loss intervention 14\. In which population is erectile dysfunction most prevalent? a\) Men under 30 years old b\) Men aged 30-40 years old c\) Men aged 50-60 years old d\) Men over 60 years old Answer: d) Men over 60 years old 15\. What is the initial recommended dose of sildenafil for treating erectile dysfunction? a\) 25 mg b\) 50 mg c\) 100 mg d\) 200 mg Answer: b) 50 mg 16\. Which of the following medications can be used for treating dyspareunia in postmenopausal women? a\) Testosterone patch b\) Ospemifene c\) Sildenafil d\) Fluoxetine Answer: b) Ospemifene 17\. What should be monitored in patients taking PDE5 inhibitors long-term? a\) Blood glucose levels b\) Liver function tests c\) Renal function tests d\) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above 18\. Which herbal supplement has been suggested to potentially improve sexual function but lacks strong evidence? a\) Ginseng b\) Yohimbine c\) Fenugreek d\) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above 19\. How often should patients reassess their response to PDE5 inhibitors after starting treatment? a\) Monthly b\) Every 6 months c\) Every year d\) After every dose taken Answer: b) Every 6 months 20\. What type of sexual dysfunction may result from antidepressant use, particularly SSRIs? a\) Premature ejaculation b ) Delayed ejaculation or orgasm disorders c ) Erectile dysfunction only d ) Increased libido Answer: b ) Delayed ejaculation or orgasm disorders 21\. Which condition can contribute to erectile dysfunction in younger men? a ) Diabetes b ) Performance anxiety c ) Hypertension d ) Obesity Answer: b ) Performance anxiety 22\. What is a common psychological factor contributing to female sexual dysfunction? a ) Increased libido b ) Relationship issues c ) Hormonal imbalance d ) Physical health conditions Answer: b ) Relationship issues 23\. Which drug treatment may be effective for hypoactive sexual desire disorder in women? a ) Testosterone b ) Flibanserin c ) Sildenafil d ) Alprostadil Answer: b ) Flibanserin 24\. What type of therapy may be beneficial alongside pharmacological treatments for erectile dysfunction? a ) Isolation therapy b ) Psychotherapy or counseling c ) No additional therapy needed d ) Surgical intervention only Answer: b ) Psychotherapy or counseling 25\. Which PDE5 inhibitor should not be taken within 48 hours after using tadalafil due to interaction risks? a ) Sildenafil b ) Vardenafil c ) Avanafil d ) All of the above Answer: d ) All of the above 26\. For which condition might testosterone replacement therapy be indicated in men experiencing sexual dysfunction? a ) Hyperprolactinemia b ) Hypogonadism c ) Hypertension d ) Diabetes Answer: b ) Hypogonadism 27\. What dietary approach may help reduce symptoms of erectile dysfunction? a ) High-fat diet b ) Mediterranean diet c ) Low-carb diet d ) Vegan diet Answer: b ) Mediterranean diet 28\. In managing premature ejaculation, which technique involves pausing during intercourse to delay ejaculation? a ) Start-stop technique b ) Kegel exercises c ) Vacuum device use d ) Penile injections Answer: a ) Start-stop technique 29\. Which medication class is least likely to cause sexual side effects among antihypertensives? a ) Beta-blockers b ) ACE inhibitors c ) Diuretics d ) Alpha-blockers Answer: b ) ACE inhibitors 30\. What should be done if a patient experiences an erection lasting longer than four hours while using alprostadil injections? a ) Wait for it to resolve naturally b ) Seek immediate medical assistance c ) Reduce future doses without consultation d ) Apply ice to the area Answer: b ) Seek immediate medical assistance