Mock Exam 1 Draft PDF

Mock exam #1 Q1: Stall warning systems provide the crew with a clear and distinctive warning: (a) before the stall is reached (b) after the stall is reached (c) at all angles of attack. Q2: When an ultrasonic ice detector probe accumulates ice, it vibrates at a: (a) higher frequency (b) lower freq...

Mock exam #1 Q1: Stall warning systems provide the crew with a clear and distinctive warning: (a) before the stall is reached (b) after the stall is reached (c) at all angles of attack. Q2: When an ultrasonic ice detector probe accumulates ice, it vibrates at a: (a) higher frequency (b) lower frequency (c) constant frequency. Q3: The stall identification system contains an actuator that: (a) maintains the angle of attack (b) pulls the control column rearward (c) pushes the control column forward. Q4: When not in use, pneumatic de-icing boots are: (a) inflated and kept flush with the airframe (b) deflated and kept flush with the airframe (c) cycled on a periodic basis. Q5: Weeping wing de-icing systems rely on: (a) spraying hot water onto the wing leading edge to prevent ice build-up (b) gravity to ensure that repellent fluid flows back from the reservoir to the surface (c) pumping repellent fluid from the reservoir onto the surface. Q6: De-icing fluids contain: (a) ethylene glycol and additives (b) propylene glycol (c) distilled water. Q7: Windscreen ice protection: (a) relies on an electrical heating element embedded within the glass layers to prevent ice from forming (b) relies on an electrical heating element embedded within the glass layers to remove ice after it has formed (c) directs the repellent spray onto the windscreens. Q8: De-icing: (a) allows ice to form, and then be removed on a periodic basis (b) prevents ice from forming at any time (c) directs the repellent spray onto the windscreens. Q9: An angle of attack (AoA) sensor vane aligns itself with the: (a) boundary layer (b) prevailing airstream (c) stagnation point. Q10: When airflow passes over the wing without breaking up, it is said to have a: (a) boundary layer (b) streamline airflow (c) stalled airflow. Q11: How is a serrated rod ice detector bench tested? (A) Screwdriver torque test. (B) By a motor load test. (C) Motor test and go/no-go gap measurement. Q12: Windshield heating provides: (A) thermal expansion for a tighter fit. (B) impact resistance enhancement. (C) increases strength to resist cabin pressure. Q13: At what pressure and temperature is anti-ice fluid applied? (A) 7°F at 100 PSI. (B) 70°C at 100 PSI. (C) 70°F at 10 PSI. Q14: The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is: (A) less of a fire hazard. (B) aerodynamic shape is not disturbed. (C) more efficient. Q15: On large transport aircraft, the windshield wiper system is: (A) one system for both sides but with the same power source. (B) independent on each side but with the same power source. (C) independent on each side with different power sources. Q16: Prior to securing a leading-edge de-icing boot, you must: (A) remove all paint. (B) paint the surface. (C) shave rivet to prevent further abrasion. Q17: On a 'hot rod' type of ice detector, it is switched on: (A) all the time. (B) when selected by the crew. (C) when in the air. Q18: Ice formation on wings is due to: (A) suspended ice crystals melting on contact with the wing and instantly re-freezing. (B) ice crystals forming layers on contact with the wing. (C) supercooled water changing state on contact with the wing. Q19: When a vibrating rod ice detector has de-iced, the warning lamp on the flight deck: (A) goes out immediately. (B) goes out after one more cycle. (C) goes out after a set period of time. Q20: De-misting of passenger windows is provided by: (A) sealed window. (B) an electrical heating element. (C) air from the cabin. Q21: A deicer boot is completely bonded to the leading edge to: (A) provide smoother airflow over the leading edge. (B) prevent electrical static build-up. (C) provide more efficient deicer cycles. Q22: In a cockpit window heater system, the autotransformer: (A) supplies DC power for heating. (B) supplies AC Power for heating. (C) steps up output for severe weather conditions. Q23: Windshield rain repellent is applied: (A) when rain is on windows and spread by wipers. (B) before rain and spread on the window surface by wipers. (C) when in heavy rain, so vision is unobscured. Q24: Pneumatic rain removal systems: (A) use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water droplets from the windscreen. (B) are not permitted on large transport aircraft. (C) use a pneumatic motor to drive windscreen wipers. Q25: Windshield wiper torque tests are carried out at: (A) blade attachment end. (B) center point of the blade. (C) the shaft end. Q26: Windscreen autotransformers: (A) step down voltage. (B) step up voltage. (C) are used to supply extra current under difficult conditions. Q27: An ice deposit formed when liquid water flows over the airframe before freezing, and which is dense, tough, and sticks closely to the surface is called: (A) glaze Ice. (B) rime Ice. (C) hoar Frost. Q28: When testing pitot head heaters: (A) they can only be checked by noting the temperature rise of the probe. (B) they must only be switched on for the minimum time required to check serviceability. (C) they should be switched on for five minutes to allow to stabilize before taking ammeter readings. Q29: A rotary knife edge ice detector provides warning of ice by: (A) increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. (B) decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. (C) ice formation stopping the rotation of a rotary knife edge and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. Q30: Windscreen heating is supplied from: (A) frequency wild generator, direct to the windscreen. (B) DC generator, via a transformer. (C) frequency wild generator, via a rectifier. Q31: A wing thermal anti-ice annunciator is illuminated permanently in the flight deck without selection being made. The most probable cause would be: (A) a short circuit. (B) an open circuit. (C) normal. Q32: Air for anti-icing of the wings is obtained from: (A) air conditioning ducting. (B) engine compressors. (C) a combustion heater. Q33: The usual material for pipelines in a fluid deice system: (A) stainless steel. (B) Monel. (C) nylon. Q34: When operating a windscreen wiper on the ground, make sure to: (A) use slow wiper only. (B) use water as lubricant when operating. (C) place a soft cloth between the blade and window. Q35: What is run-back ice? (A) Glaze ice. (B) Rime ice. (C) Glime ice. Batteries Q36: In a simple cell, electrons are: (a) removed from the (positive) cathode and deposited on the (negative) anode (b) removed from the (negative) cathode and deposited on the (positive) anode (c) removed from the (negative) anode and deposited on the (positive) cathode. Q37: The energy storage capacity of a cell is determined by the: (a) terminal voltage (b) electrolyte specific gravity (c) amount of material available for chemical reaction. Q38: When mixing electrolyte: (a) acid is always added to the water (b) water is always added to the acid (c) it is not important how water and acid are mixed. Q39: Servicing equipment used for lead-acid batteries: (a) can also be used for nickel-cadmium batteries (b) must not be used for nickel-cadmium batteries (c) must be disposed of after use. Q40: Battery capacity is measured in: (a) volts (b) amperes (c) ampere-hours. Q41: Lead-acid batteries are recharged by constant: (a) voltage (b) current (c) ampere-hours. Q42: The only accurate and practical way to determine the condition of a nickel-cadmium battery is with a: (a) specific gravity check of the electrolyte (b) measured discharge in the workshop (c) check of the terminal voltage. Q43: A cell that can only be charged once is called a: (a) secondary cell (b) metal-hydride cell (c) primary cell. Q44: The only time that water should be added to a Ni-Cd battery is: (a) when fully charged, and the volume of electrolyte is high (b) when fully discharged, and the volume of electrolyte is high (c) when fully charged, and the volume of electrolyte is low. Q45: The only accurate and practical way to determine the condition of the lead-acid battery is with a: (a) specific gravity check of the electrolyte (b) measured discharge in the workshop (c) check of the terminal voltage. Q46: Referring to Fig. 5.12 (page 126), the reason for having an even number of positive plates in a lead-acid battery is because: (a) positive plates distort when chemical reactions take place on both sides (b) a negative plate is required at each end to complete the circuit (c) this increases the terminal voltage. Q47: Nickel-cadmium batteries are best recharged by: (a) constant current (b) constant power (c) constant voltage. Fire Protection Systems Q48: The action of twisting a fire handle closes micro-switches that: (a) activate the engine fire extinguisher (b) cancels the alarm (c) shuts off the fuel Q49: When eutectic salt melts, the resistance between the centre wire and outer sheath: (a) drops very rapidly and the control unit resets the warning (b) increases very rapidly and the control unit signals a warning (c) drops very rapidly and the control unit signals a warning Q50: Open area smoke detectors rely on the transfer of particulate matter from the source of fire to the detector by: (a) convection (b) radiation (c) conduction Q51: Dual-loop fire detector systems can be configured to only go into alarm if: (a) both loops sense fire, thereby reducing the probability of a false warning (b) either loop senses fire, thereby reducing the probability of a false warning (c) both loops sense fire, thereby increasing the probability of a false warning Q52: Multiple bimetallic overheat detectors are connected in parallel to provide: (a) variable alarm temperatures (b) increased detection probability (c) linear fire detection Q53: A discharge plug on the aircraft fuselage provides confirmation that the fire extinguisher: (a) is fully pressurized (b) squib is still intact (c) has been fired Q54: When a pneumatic fire detector is rapidly heated; hydrogen is liberated causing: (a) sufficient gas pressure to close the alarm switch (b) the integrity switch to open (c) the alarm switch to reset Q55: Photoelectric smoke detectors measure: (a) light attenuation and/or reflection within a chamber (b) radiated heat within a chamber (c) absorption of alpha particles within a chamber Q56: When a thermistor sensor is heated, the resistance of the insulating material: (a) decreases because of its negative temperature coefficient (b) decreases because of its positive temperature coefficient (c) increases because of its negative temperature coefficient Q57: To operate an engine fire extinguisher, the fire handle is: (a) twisted (b) twisted and then pulled (c) pulled and then twisted Lighting Systems Q58: A high-intensity white flash is produced from a: (a) strobe light (b) fluorescent tube (c) landing light Q59: A clear (white) light with a divergence of ± 70 degrees either side of aircraft centerline is the: (a) landing light (b) rear position light (c) logo light Q60: Incandescence is the radiation of light from: (a) a gas-discharge device (b) an electrical filament due to an increase in its temperature (c) a combined optical and electrical Q61: Fluorescent tubes produce light from: (a) low-pressure mercury vapor (b) high-pressure neon gas (c) an electrical filament Q62: Anticollision lights use: (a) a rotating reflector (b) a flashing white light (c) a flashing red light Q63: A red light that is visible through 360° in the horizontal plane and is directed upward and downward is the: (a) rotating beacon (b) taxi light (c) wing inspection light Q64: In a dimming circuit, a variable resistor is connected: (a) in series (b) in parallel (c) across the supply Q65: Xenon lights (strobes) can be dimmed using: (a) a variable resistor (b) pulse duration modulation (c) an automatic dimmer circuit Q66: An LED consists of a P-N junction that emits light when: (a) reverse biased (b) forward biased (c) connected to an AC supply Q67: LEDs are very efficient because they generate: (a) a high-intensity output for a given input voltage (b) a high light output for a given power input (c) little heat Q68: Referring to Fig. 12.24, this device is a: (a) strobe/xenon tube (b) fluorescent tube (c) LED Q69: Referring to Fig. 12.25, the diode is required to: (a) provide dimming (b) ensure the correct light is illuminated (c) ensure both lights are illuminated Q70: Referring to Fig. 12.26, this illustrates the angular coverage for: (a) wing illumination lights (b) rotating beacons (c) navigation (or position) lights Q71: Referring to Fig. 12.27, dimming is achieved by: (a) pulse width modulation (PWM) (b) varying a resistor (c) using an autotransformer Q72: The color of light emitted from an LED is determined by: (a) semiconductor material (b) the type of lens used (c) the biasing voltage Q73: Referring to Fig. 12.28, this light assembles comprises: (a) LEDs (b) strobes (c) incandescent elements