MDSP ELEMENTS 1 PDF

MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 1 1. In pure torsion, the maximum torsional occurs at the center B. 4 of the C. 3 A. Center D. 5 B. Long sides...

MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 1 1. In pure torsion, the maximum torsional occurs at the center B. 4 of the C. 3 A. Center D. 5 B. Long sides ANSWER: D C. Medium sides 11. Is the permissible variation of the size of a dimension D. Short sides A. tolerance ANSWER: B B. fits 2. The modulus of elasticity for ordinary steel usually falls C. limits between____ millions pounds per square inch. D. none of these A. 28 to 31 ANSWER: A B. 20 to 45 12. If there is no fit, a liberal tolerance of the order of ____in C. 26 to 28 the machining work could be permitted. D. 50 to 30 A. ±0.020 ANSWER: A B. ±0.010 3. The modulus of elasticity is a measure of C. ±0.09 A. accuracy D. ±0.05 B. quality ANSWER: B C. stiffness 13. A tolerance where the size of a part is permitted to be D. rigidity either larger or smaller than the given dimension ANSWER: C A. bilateral 4. The modulus of elasticity for most metals in compression is B. unilateral usually taken as that in C. lateral A. tension D. none of these B. bearing ANSWER: A C. torsion 14. A tolerance where the size of a part may be larger only, or D. yield smaller only, than the given dimension. ANSWER: A A. bilateral 5. The ratio of Moment and stress B. unilateral A. strain C. lateral B. contraction D. none of these C. proportional constant ANSWER: B D. section modulus 15. ____ are generally used on those dimensions involved in a ANSWER: D fit such as a pin in a hole. 6. For a symmetrical cross-section beam, the flexural stress is A. bilateral ____ when the vertical shear is maximum. B. unilateral A. infinity C. lateral B. maximum D. none of these C. zero ANSWER: B D. minimum 16. The ASA fits are based on the_____. ANSWER: C A. basic number system 7. When tested in compression, ductile materials usually B. basic hole system exhibit characteristics up to the yield strength as they when C. basic size system tested in tension. D. unit system the same ANSWER: B less than 17. When the hole is smaller than the shaft, it will take force or more than pressure to put the cold parts together. The allowance is approximately the same said to be negative and is termed as the ANSWER: D negative fits of metal 8. As one example, the ASME Code for riveted joints permits positive fits the design surface compressive stress to be about ____ intergeable higher than the design tensile stress. interference of metal 50% ANSWER: D 40% 18. Is the relatively finely spaced irregularities of the surface. 60% A. smoothness 70% B. lay ANSWER: C C. waviness 9. In a pressure vessel, the ratio of minimum strength of joint D. roughness to the strength of solid joint is known as ANSWER: D A. efficiency 19. Is the irregularities or departures from nominal surface of B. Performance factor grater spacing than roughness. C. joint efficiency A. smoothness D. relative strength B. lay ANSWER: D C. waviness 10. In pressure vessel, the usual factor of safety may be taken D. roughness as ANSWER: C A. 2  MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 1 20. Is the direction of the predominant surface pattern C. autofrettage A. smoothness D. countersinking B. lay ANSWER: C C. waviness 30. When two touching surfaces have a high contact pressure D. roughness and when these surfaces have minute relative motion, a ANSWER: B phenomenon called 21. The surface finish the micrometer anvils in rms A. prestressing A. 1 B. friction B. 3 C. carving C. 2 D. fretting D. 4 ANSWER: B ANSWER: A 31. Is the process that cold works a limited amount of material, 22. The surface of finish heavy cuts and coarse feed thus giving a higher strength, and it leaves a surface A. 200 rms compressive stress. B. 80 rms A. surface finishing C. 400 rms B. smoothing D. 500 or greater rms C. surfacing ANSWER: D D. surface rolling 23. It has been said that 80% of the failures of machine parts ANSWER: D have been 32. When a hot part is cooled suddenly by quenching, there is A. negligence momentarily a high temperature gradient that induces a B. compression stress gradient. Some metal parts under certain conditions C. torsion crack as a result; this phenomenon is called D. fatigue failures A. Thermal-shock failure ANSWER: D B. Thermal fatigue 24. For wrought steel in its commonly met commercial forms, C. Honing it is often assumed that the average endurance limit for an D. Quenching average Su(50% survival), the Brinell Hardness is limited to ANSWER: A ____. 33. Fatigue strength is increased by repeated loads just below A. 350 the normal fatigue limit, followed by a small step by step B. 450 increases of the loading, a process is called C. 400 A. mixing D. 500 B. coaxing ANSWER: C C. axing 25. Cazaud quotes values for steel showing Sn/ Su ratios, often D. relieving called endurance ratio, ____. ANSWER: B A. 0.23 to 0.65 34. Is the diameter of the imaginary cylinder that bounds the B. 0.63 to 0.93 crest of an external thread and the roots of an internal C. 0.34 to 0.87 thread. D. 0.34 to 0.45 A. mean diameter ANSWER: A B. stress diameter 26. Is the discontinuity or change of section, such as scratches, C. minor diameter holes, bends, or grooves, is a D. major diameter A. stress relieving ANSWER: D B. stress functioning 35. Is the distance in inches a screw thread (a helix) advances C. Stress concentration axially in one turn. D. stress raiser A. lead ANSWER: D B. circular pitch 27. The degree of stress concentration is usually indicated by a C. pitch A. power factor D. mean pitch B. stress factor ANSWER: A C. service factor 36. Is recommended for general use. D. stress concentration factor A. UNC ANSWER: D B. UNEF 28. In a part at uniform temperature and not acted upon by an C. UNF external load, any internal stresses that exist are called D. NC A. residual stress ANSWER: A B. superposed stress 37. If frequently used in automotive and aircraft work C. form stress A. UNC D. control stress B. UNEF ANSWER: A C. UNF 29. Is a process of prestressing or over-stressing a hollow D. NC cylindrical member beyond the elastic range by hydraulic ANSWER: C pressure 38. Is particularly useful in aeronautical equipment. A. pressttage A. UNC B. stress relieving B. UNEF  MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 1 C. UNF A. stud bolt D. NC B. carriage bolt ANSWER: B C. stove bolt 39. Is used on bolts for high-pressure pipe flanges, cylinder D. mini bolt head studs etc. ANSWER: C A. UNC 49. A large wood screw, is used to fasten machinery and B. UNEF equipment to a wooden base. C. UNF A. lag screw D. 8 UN B. wood screw ANSWER: D C. log screw 40. Then stress or load induced by the tightening operation D. None of these initial stress ANSWER: A residual stress 50. The length of contact in a tapped hole should be a initial tension minimum of about ___ for cast iron. none of these A. D ANSWER: A B. 1.5D 41. For non-metallic gaskets, it has been found that they C. 1.2D should have a certain minimum amount of compression as D. 2D ____ for a certain cork gasket. ANSWER: B A. 62% 51. When the location of bolt is such that it would normally be B. 68% shear, it is better practice to use C. 86% A. dammy bolts D. 76% B. mid-pin ANSWER: A C. crank pin 42. Is a screw fastening with a nut on it D. dowel pins A. bolt ANSWER: D B. rivet 52. Is a locking device used to maintain pressure between the C. fastener threads of the bolt and nut. D. None of these A. lock nuts ANSWER: A B. gasket 43. Is one that has no nut and turns into a threaded hole. C. lock washers A. stud bolt D. lokut B. rivet ANSWER: C C. U-bolt 53. Provides excellent locking properties for light assemblies. D. screw A. speed nut ANSWER: D B. an-cor-lox-nut 44. An old name for an unfinished through bolt, comes with a C. lock nut square. D. Flexloc nut A. coupling bolt ANSWER: A B. machine bolt 54. Which of the following is not the use of spring? C. stud bolt A. absorbs energy D. automobile bolt B. measure weight ANSWER: B C. source of energy in locks 45. Is a type of bolt finished all over, usually having coarse D. measure the thickness threads. ANSWER: D A. coupling bolt 55. It is the ratio of mean diameter of coil over the coil B. machine bolt diameter. C. stud bolt A. Waahl factor D. automobile bolt B. diameter ratio ANSWER: A C. spring index 46. Is a type of bolt distinguished by a short portion of the D. lead angle shank underneath the head being square or finned or ANSWER: C ribbed. 56. Is the overall length of the spring when it is compressed A. coupling bolt until all adjacent coils touched B. machine bolt A. compressed length C. stud bolt B. none of these D. carriage bolt C. free length ANSWER: D D. solid height 47. Is a type of bolt threaded on both ends and can be used ANSWER: D where a through bolt is impossible. 57. Is the length of coil spring under no load. A. coupling bolt A. compressed length B. machine bolt B. none of these C. stud bolt C. free length D. carriage bolt D. solid height ANSWER: C ANSWER: C 48. Is a cheap variety of bolt made in small sizes.  MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 1 58. In general, steel springs are made of relatively high-carbon C. constant ratio steel usually D. slenderness ratio A. more than 0.5% ANSWER: D B. 5% 68. Formula that applies to a very slender column. C. less than 0.5% A. Column formula D. 10% B. moment formula ANSWER: A C. slender formula 59. When heat-treated wire is coiled cold, it should be stress D. Eueler’s formula relieved for bending stresses after cooling by being heated ANSWER: D at some ____. 69. If two principal stress is zero, the sate of stress is A. 400% A. biaxial B. 700% B. uniaxial C. 600% C. mono-axial D. 500% D. triaxial ANSWER: D ANSWER: B 60. Is a low cost spring material, suitable where service is not 70. If one principal stress is zero, the state of stress is severe and dimensional precision is not needed. A. biaxial hard drawn wire spring B. uniaxial helical spring wire C. mono-axial stainless steel D. triaxial helical tension spring wire ANSWER: A ANSWER: A 71. If all the principal stresses have finite values, the system is 61. Is a hard drawn also (80%reduction), but it is made of high A. biaxial grade steel. B. uniaxial A. music wire C. mono-axial B. oil tempered wire D. triaxial C. song wire ANSWER: D D. chromiun-silicon wire 72. Under theories of failure, for static loading of ductile ANSWER: A material, the design stress is 62. Is a spring wire with good quality for impact loads and A. Yield stress/factor of safety moderately high temperatures. B. Ultimate stress/factor of safety A. hard drawn wire spring C. Factor of safety/yield stress B. helical spring wire D. Endurance strength/factor of safety C. chromium-silicon ANSWER: A D. helical tension spring wire 73. Under theories of failure, the value of shear stress is ____ ANSWER: C that of tensile stress. 63. Is a type of coil where the helical coil is wrapped into a circle A. equal forming an annual ring B. double A. volute spring C. half B. motor spring D. 3 times C. hair spring ANSWER: C D. garter spring 74. The theory of mechanics of materials shows that the results ANSWER: D from the octahedral shear stress theory and those from the 64. A type of spring where thin flat strip wound up on itself a maximum distortion-energy theory are plane spiral, usually anchored at the inside end. A. relevant A. volute spring B. less than B. motor spring C. the same C. hair spring D. more than D. garter spring ANSWER: C ANSWER: B 75. Is the distance measured axially, from a point on one 65. A type of spring made in then form of a dished washer. thread to the corresponding point in an adjacent thread. A. volute spring A. axial pitch B. motor spring B. lead C. hair spring C. z-pitch D. belleville spring D. lead angle ANSWER: D ANSWER: A 66. A type of failure due to unstability. 76. Is the angle between a tangent to the pitch helix and a A. slenderness ratio plane normal to the axis of the screw. B. buching hum A. helix angle C. buckling B. tangent angle D. stability C. lead angle ANSWER: C D. vertical angle 67. Is the ratio of the length of the column and the radius of ANSWER: C gyration of the cross-sectional area about a centroidal axis. 77. For ACME thread the pressure angle normal to the thread A. power factor is B. contact ratio A. 12.5°  MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 1 B. 14.5° 87. Criteria for the limiting torsional deflection vary from 0.08° C. 13.5° per foot of length for machinery shafts _____ per foot. D. 34° A. 1 degree ANSWER: B B. 3 degrees 78. If the thread surfaces are smooth and well lubricated, the C. 2 degrees coefficient of friction may be as low as D. 4 degrees A. 0.12 ANSWER: A B. 0.16 88. For transmission shafts the allowable deflection is 1 degree C. 0.14 in a length of ___ diameters. D. 0.10 A. 10 ANSWER: D B. 20 79. For doughtful workmanship, the recommended coefficient C. 15 of friction of thread is D. 25 A. 0.120 ANSWER: B B. 0.102 89. An old rule of thumb for transmission shafting is that the C. 0.125 deflection should not exceed ____ of length between D. 0.234 supports. ANSWER: C A. 0.01 in per foot 80. A screw that requires a positive torque to lower the load, B. 0.03 in per foot or to loosen the screw if it has been turned tight against a C. 0.02 in per foot resistance. D. 0.04 in per foot A. power screw ANSWER: A B. self screw 90. In general, for machinery shafts, the permissible deflection C. lock screw may be closer to D. self locking screw A. 0.02 in/ft ANSWER: D B. 0.01 in/ft 81. Is a rotating member transmitting power C. 0.002 in/ft A. axle D. 0.03 in/ft B. line shaft ANSWER: C C. shaft 91. Gleason states that at bevel gears, sizes 5 in to 15 in, the D. countershaft gears should not be lift or depress more than ANSWER: C A. 0.01 in 82. Is a stationary member carrying rotating member B. 0.004 in transmitting power. C. 0.002 in A. axle D. 0.003 in B. line shaft ANSWER: D C. shaft 92. The speed at which the center of mass will be equal the D. countershaft deflecting forces on the shaft; the shaft with its attached ANSWER: A bodies will then vibrate violently, since the centrifugal force 83. A line shaft is also changes its direction as the shaft turns is A. countershaft A. mean speed B. line shaft B. critical speed C. main shaft C. geometric speed D. head shaft D. unit speed ANSWER: C ANSWER: B 84. Is the shaft intermediate between a line shaft and a driven 93. For shaft, the minimum value of numerical combined shock shaft and fatigue factor to be applied in every case to the A. countershafts computed bending moment is B. jackshafts A. 1.0 C. headshafts B. 1.5 D. all of these C. 1.3 ANSWER: D D. 1.8 85. Short shafts on machines are often called ANSWER: B A. medium shafts 94. Most keys are B. core shafts A. flat keys C. spindles B. square keys D. head shafts C. saddle keys ANSWER: C D. A & B 86. For shafts, the shear due to bending is maximum at the ANSWER: D neutral plane where the normal stress is 95. It is suggested that the design factor on yield strength be A. maximum about 1.5 for the smooth load, about 2 to 2.5 for minor B. zero shock loading, and up to ___ severe shock loads, especially C. minimum when the loading reverses during operation. D. constant A. 3.0 ANSWER: B B. 4.0 C. 3.5  MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 1 D. 4.5 ANSWER: D 96. Typical hub lengths fall between ____ A. 1.25D to 2.4D B. 1.25D to 5D C. 1.3D to 3.4D D. D to 7D ANSWER: A 97. A key that is square or flat and tapered with head. A. pin key B. saddle keys C. gib-head keys D. none of these ANSWER: C 98. A key may either straight or tapered. It is usually a drive fit. A. pin key B. saddle keys C. gib-head keys D. none of these ANSWER: A 99. A key with one several patented methods of keying, is driven or pressed into a hole that is small enough to close the slit, assembled in radial direction. A. fit key B. saddle key C. rollpin D. pin key ANSWER: C 100. Kennedy keys is also known as A. tangential keys B. normal keys C. saddle keys D. rollpin ANSWER: A  MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 10 1. Is any substance that occupies space. D. Spherical pendulum A. Inertia ANSWER: B B. Air 11. Are produced by the action of gravity, by accelerations and C. Substance impacts of moving parts. D. Matter A. Forces ANSWER: D B. Resultant 2. Is a unit of power that has been adopted for engineering C. Component work D. Impulse A. Kilowatts ANSWER: A B. Horsepower 12. Modulus of elasticity of aluminum is C. Ft-lb/min A. 7 x 106 D. Watts B. 8 x 106 ANSWER: B C. 9 x 105 3. Is a measure of a tendency of the force to rotate the body D. 10 x 106 upon which acts about an axis. ANSWER: C A. Torque 13. As a rule of thumb, materials having an elongation of less B. Couple than ____ in a tensile test may be regarded as brittle. C. Momentum A. 5% D. Inertia B. 6% ANSWER: A C. 7% 4. Quantities such as time volume and density are called D. 8% A. Vector quantities ANSWER: A B. Scalar quantities 14. Factor of safety for machine columns is 2 to _____ for C. Dot quantities steady loads. D. Magnitude A. 1.5 ANSWER: B B. 2.5 5. Quantities such as force, velocity, acceleration, moment C. 3.5 and displacement are called D. 4.5 A. Resultant quantities ANSWER: B B. Resultant 15. The apparent fiber stress under which the different tubes C. Vector quantities failed varied from about 7000 psi for the relatively thinnest D. Quality to ______ for the relatively thickest walls. ANSWER: C A. 20,000 psi 6. Is the distance between the center of oscillation and the B. 25,000 psi point of suspension. C. 30.000 psi A. Radius of gyration D. 35,000 psi B. Radius of percussion ANSWER: D C. Oscillation 16. The allowable stresses that are generally used in practice D. Radius of oscillation are:_____ for main transmitting shafts ANSWER: B A. 4000 psi 7. Is the rate at which the velocity of a body changes in a unit B. 4100 psi of time. C.4200 psi A. Velocity D. 4300 psi B. Gravitational acceleration ANSWER: A C. Reverse effective force 17. Another rule that has been generally used in mill practice D. Acceleration limits the deflection to ________ in a length equal to 20 ANSWER: D times the shaft diameter. 8. Determines the effect of forces on the motion of a body it A. 1 deg is necessary to resort. B. 2deg A. Free body diagram C. 3deg B. Moment center D. 4 deg C. x and y plane ANSWER: A D. None of these 18. In maximum theories of failure the elastic limit of a ductile ANSWER: A ferrous material in shear is practically _____ its elastic limit 9. Includes kinetic energy and potential energy. in tension A. Electrical energy A. One-half B. Internal energy B. Three-halves C. Kinetic energy C. Three-fourth D. Mechanical energy D. Four-thirds ANSWER: D ANSWER: A 10. A _____ is similar to a compound pendulum except that the 19. Recommended that shafts with keyways be designed on weight suspended by the cord moves at a uniform speed the basis of circular shaft using not more than ______ of around the circumference of a circle the working stress recommended for the shaft. A. Elliptical pendulum A. 60% B. Conical pendulum B. 65% C. Parabolic pendulum C.70%  MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 10 D. 75% 29. The torsional modulus of elasticity for steel may be ANSWER: D 11,200,000 psi at room temperature but will drop to 20. A material may be considered to be brittle if its elongation 10,600,000 at ______. in a 2 inches gauge is less than ______. A. 300 °F A. 2% B. 350 °F B. 3% C. 450 °F C. 4% D. 400 °F D. 5% ANSWER: D ANSWER: D 30. The spring index has the best proportion of 7 through 21. A shaft may be safely operated either above or below its _______. critical speed, good practice indicating that the operating A. 8 speed be at least _____ above or below the critical. B. 9 A. 10% C. 10 B. 20% D. 11 C. 30% ANSWER: B D. 40% 31. Wire rope materials are/is: ANSWER: B A. Iron 22. ls the most widely used of all spring materials for small B. Phosphor bronze spring materials operating at temperature s up to about C. Traction steel 250°F. D. All of these A. Tempered wire ANSWER: D B. Hard drawn wire 32. Is largely used for low strength applications such as C. Music wire elevator ropes not used for hoisting, and for stationary guy D. Core wire ropes. ANSWER: C A. Steel rope 23. Is used for many types of coil springs. B. Cast steel rope A. Chrome wire C. Nylon rope B. Vanadium wire D. Iron wire rope C. Chrome vanadium wire ANSWER: D D. Oil-tempered spring 33. Is used primarily as a hoist rope for passenger and freight ANSWER: D elevators. 24. Is used for general purpose springs. A. Traction steel wire rope A. Steel wire B. Stainless rope B. Copper wire C. Cloth rope C. Nicrome wire D. None of these D. Hard-drawn wire ANSWER: A ANSWER: D 34. Is used when the loads are not too great. 25. Is a spring used under conditions involving higher stresses A. Rope A. Chrome vanadium wire B. Fiber B. Reflex wire C. Silk C. Steel wire D. Rubber D. Stainless wire ANSWER: B ANSWER: A 35. ls used for small ropes. 26. Is used for temperatures up to 550 °F. A. Cotton A. Oil-tempered spring B. Nylon B. Stainless spring C. Abacca C. Cast spring D. None of these D. None of these ANSWER: A ANSWER: B 36. Class of rope used where resistance to wear, as in dragging 27. Is the least expensive of nickel-base alloy spring. over the ground. A. Alloy spring A. 6 x 7 B. Tipped spring B. 6 x 8 C. old drawn spring C. 6 x 9 D. Monel D. 6 x 19 ANSWER: D ANSWER: A 28. Includes springs subjected to static loads or small 37. Wire rope used because of flexibility, for high speed deflections and seldom-sued springs such as those in bomb operation with reverse bends. fuses, projectiles, and safety devices. This service is for A. 7 x 9 1,000 to 10,000 deflections. B. 8 x 19 A. Light service C. 7 x 11 B. Medium service D. 8 x 16 C. Moderate service ANSWER: B D. Heavy service 38. Factor of safety for standing rope usually range from ANSWER: A ______ ; for operating rope, from 5 to 12. A. 3 to 4 B. 4 to 5  MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 10 C. 5 to 6 C. 18 to 45 D. 6 to 7 D. 15 to 35 ANSWER: A ANSWER: A 39. The main precaution to be taken in removing and installing 48. Joint efficiency of flywheel is_____ for split rim bolted joint wire ropes is ____ avoid which ______ greatly lessens its at arms strength. A. 0.60 A. Coiled B. 0.65 B. Damage C. 0.70 C. Kinking 0. 0.75 D. None of these ANSWER: D ANSWER: C 49. Flywheel arms are usually of _____ cross- section. 40. Wire rope in use should be inspected for evidence of wear A. Spherical and damage by corrosion. At normal temperature, some B. Conical wire rope lubricants may be practically solid and will C. Elliptical require thinning before application. D. Segmental A. Every month ANSWER: C B. Every week 50. Cast iron wheels having solid rims burst at a rim speed of C. Every year ______ corresponding to a centrifugal tension of about D. Periodically 15,600 psi. ANSWER: D A. 385 ft/s 41. Thinning may be done by heating to 160 to ______ or by B. 390 ft/s diluting with gasoline. C. 395 ft/s A. 170°F D. 400 ft/s B. 180°F ANSWER: C C. 190°F 51. For wheel with tie-rods, it burst at a speed of 225 ft/s D. 200°F showing an increase of strength of from 20 to _______over ANSWER: D similar wheels without the tie-rods. 42. ______ to equalize the energy exerted and the work done A. 40% and thereby prevent excessive or sudden changes in speed. B.45% A. Flywheel C. 50% B. Vibration D. 55% C. Momentum ANSWER: A D. Impulse 52. The conventional limit of flywheel operations 12,000 fpm ANSWER: A for ______. 43. The allowable speed change varies considerably from 1 to A. Cast iron 2 percent in steam engines while punching and shearing B. Cast steel machinery varies_____. C. Alloy steel A. 10% D. None of these B. 13% ANSWER: B C. 17% 53. Application of rivets D. 20% A. Pressure vessel ANSWER: D B. Structural 44. Flywheels in diameters up to about are usually cast solid. C. Machine member A. 6 ft D. All of these B. 7 ft ANSWER: D C. 8 ft 54. _____the plates being joined are the same plane. D. 9 ft A. Knuckle joint ANSWER: C B. Bull joint 45. When the rim sections of heavy balance wheels are held C. Butt-joint together by steel links shrunk into place, an efficiency of D. None of these ______ may be obtained. ANSWER: C A. 50% 55. The spacing between rivet centers is called pitch and B. 60% between row center lines are called: C. 70% A. Front pitch D. 80% B. Back pitch ANSWER: B C. Half pitch 46. By using a rim of box or l-section, a link type of Joint D. Forward pitch connection may have an efficiency of____. ANSWER: B A. 90% 56. Rivet holes are usually made of____ larger in diameter than B. 92% the nominal diameter of the rivet. C. 98% A. 1/8 inch D. 100% B. 1/32 inch ANSWER: D C. 1/64 inch 47. Factor of safety for flywheels is. D. 1/16 inch A. 10 to 13 ANSWER: D B. 12 to 26  MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 10 57. When holes are punched In heavy plate the diameter of 66. Are used either to retain parts in a fixed position or to punched will increase from 1/16 to____. preserve alignment. A. 1/2 in A. Dammy pins B. 3/4 in B. High pins C. 4/3 in C. Low pins D. 1/8 in D. Dowil pins ANSWER: D ANSWER: D 58. Materials of rivets are usually made of wrought iron 67. Effective length of dowil must not be less than _____ of the or_____. overall length of the pin. A. Hard steel A. 60% B. Soft steel B. 65% C. Malleable steel C. 70% D. Wrought steel D. 75% ANSWER: B ANSWER: D 59. For boiler construction, 55,000 psi in tensile, 44,000 psi in 68. The pins must have a single shear strength of 102,000 psi shearing, and ______ in bearing stress. minimum. A. 95,000 psi A. 102,000 psi B. 90,000 psi B. 104,000 psi C. 85,000 psi C. 106,000 psi D. 80,000 psi D. 108,000 psi ANSWER: A ANSWER: A 60. A ______ is an externally threaded fastener designed for 69. These standard pins are sufficiently ductile to withstand insertion through holes in assembled parts and is normally being pressed into holes 0.0005 inch smaller than the intended to be tightened or released by torquing a nut. nominal pin diameter in hardened without cracking. A. Bolt A. 0.0005 in B. Nut B. 0.0007 in C. Screw C. 0.0008 in D. None of these D. 0.0009 in ANSWER: A ANSWER: A 61. Covers general specifications. and dimensions of flat, round 70. The side of sharp V thread form an angle of ______ with hole washers, intended for use in general-purpose each other. applications. A. 30 deg A. Gasket B. 50 deg B. Groove washer C. 60 deg C. Lock nut D. 70 deg D. Plain washer ANSWER: A ANSWER: D 71. Is the prescribed difference between the design size and 62. The ends of the bolts and screws may be finished with the basic size. either a 45-degree chamfer to a depth slightly exceeding A. Shrinkage the depth of thread or a radius approximately equal to 1 B. Allowance 1/4. times the ______ of the shank. C. Fits A. Pitch diameter D. Variance B. Major diameter ANSWER: B C. Minor diameter 72. Is that thread whose profile lies within the size limits. D. Nominal diameter A. Exact thread ANSWER: D B. Complete thread 63. Standard threaded lengths of bolts are _____ for a nominal C. Full thread length over 125 mm up to 200 mm. D. None of these A. 2d + 6mm ANSWER: B B. 2d + 7mm 73. Is the surface of a thread which joins the flanks of the C. 2d + 8mm thread and is farther from the cylinder or cone from which D. 2d + 9mm the thread projects. ANSWER: A A. Nose 64. Bolts and screw heads have a chamfer of Approximately B. Crest _____ on their upper faces. C. Flanks A. 27 deg D. Side cutting B. 45 deg ANSWER: B C. 35 deg 74. Is either surface connecting the surface of the crest with D. 30 deg the root. ANSWER: D A. Flank 65. Nuts are countershank at an included angle of ______. B. Top A. 90 deg C. Land B. 120 deg D. None of these C. 150 deg ANSWER: A D. 180 deg 75. Are the angles between the individual flanks and the ANSWER: B perpendicular axis of the thread.  MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 10 A. Approach angle C. Force fit B. Rake angle D. None of these C. Flank angle ANSWER: A D. None of these 85. A _____ series is the standard metric screw thread series ANSWER: C for general purpose equipment's thread components 76. Is the axial distance between the two consecutive points of design and mechanical fasteners. intersection of a helix. A. ACME thread A. Lead B. Buttress thread B. Pitch C. square thread C. Crest D. coarse thread D. None of these ANSWER: D ANSWER: A 86. Lubrication for driving in ferrous material is a non- 77. Is the angle made by the helix of the thread at the pitch carbonizing type of lubricant such as a _____ dispersion is line. suggested. A. Lead angle A. Rubber B. Back rake angle B. Water C. Dot angle. C. Oil D. None of these D. Rubber-in-water ANSWER: A ANSWER: D 78. Is the cone that would bound the crest of an external taper 87. Surface roughness of thread between 63 and ______ micro thread and the roots of an internal taper thread. inch Ra is recommended. A. Minor cone A. 115 B. Outside cone B. 120 C. Nominal cone C. 125 D. Major cone D. 130 ANSWER: D ANSWER: C 79. Is an imaginary cone of such apex angle and location of its 88. General purpose ACME threads may have crest corner vertex and axis of its surface. chamfered at an angle of _____ angle with the axis. A. Shank cone A. 30 deg B. Pitch cone B. 35 deg C. Center cone C. 40 deg D. Outside cone D. 45 deg ANSWER: B ANSWER: D 80. The surface of the thread which joins the flanks of adjacent 89. Method of taping is. thread forms and is immediately adjacent to the cylinder. A. By hand A. Crest B. By machine. B. Flank C. By hand or by machine C. Roots D. None of these D. Top ANSWER: C ANSWER: C 90. Have a chamfer angle that reduces the height about 8 to 10 81. Refers to circular runout of major and minor cylinders with teeth. respect to the pitch cylinder. A. Plain taps A. Run-in B. Side taps B. Runout C. Comer taps C. Contrast D. Taper taps D. None of these ANSWER: D ANSWER:B 91. Plug taps have a chamfer angle with reduced in height. 82. Is the apex formed by the intersection of the flanks of a A. 3 to 5 threads thread when extended. B. 4 to 6 threads A. Standoff C. 5 to 7 threads B. Sharp crest D. 6 to 8 threads C. Runout ANSWER: A D. Fixed-out 92. Plug taps is used to tap for most whole tapping applications ANSWER: B which is also most suitable for blind holes where the tap 83. The axial distance between specified reference on the drill hole is deeper than the required ______. internal and external taper thread members. A. Thread A. Pitch B. Diameter B. Lead C. Height C. Standoff D. Radius D. Helix distance ANSWER: A ANSWER: C 93. Taper taps are used on materials where the chip load per 84. A fit having limits of size so prescribed that either a tooth must be kept to a ______. clearance or an interference may result when mating parts A. Maximum are assembled. B. Acceptable value. A. Transition fit C. Attainable value B. Shrink fit D. Minimum  MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 10 ANSWER: D B. 18 to 24 94. Surface treatment of high speed steel is by ______. C. 16 to 32 A. Carbon coating D. 14 to 28 B. Second coating ANSWER: B C. Zinc coating 104. Consider a maximum safe center distance of sprockets D. Oxide coating should be _____ pitches. Very long center distance caused ANSWER: D catenaries tension in the chain. 95. Nitriding provides a very hard and wear resistant case on A. 70 ____. B. 80 A. Low speed steel C. 90 B. High speed steel D. 100 C. Moderate speed steel ANSWER: B D. None of these 105. The recommended lubricant for the chain drive operation ANSWER: B is 96. Rake angle for ferrous and nonferrous materials is A. SAE 4140 approximately _______. B. Petroleum oil A. 3 to 5 deg C. Moly slip B. 4 to 8 deg D. Heavy grease C. 2 to 5 deg ANSWER: B D. 5 to 7 deg 106. Type of leather belt being applied with waterproof cement ANSWER: D is called 97. The rake angle of the tap should not exceed _______ and A. Combination of oak/mineral tanned for the harder materials a concentric top is recommended. B. Oak tanned A. 2 deg C. Mineral tanned B. 3 deg D. All of the above C. 4deg ANSWER: B D. 5deg 107. What type of leather belting should be used at an ambient ANSWER: D temperature above 140 °F and possible acid liquid coming 98. To reduce the rubbing of the lands, an eccentric or con- in contact with the belt? centric relieved land should be used and a 10 _____ degree A. Mineral tanned rake angle. B. Combination of oak A. 12 deg C. Oak tanned B. 13 deg D. None of these C. 14 deg ANSWER: D D. 15 deg 108. It is recommended not to have a direct drive and drive ANSWER: D sprockets if the ratio of their teeth exceeds ______ use two 99. Titanium has a rake angle of 6-10 degrees and cutting or more step combination. speed of ______. A. 10 times A. 10-20 fpm B. 8 times B. 20-30 fpm C. 5 times C. 10-40 fpm D. 6 times D. 30-50 fpm ANSWER: B ANSWER: C 109. Flat leather belting not recommended for use in a speed in 100. Foundation bolts length should be at least ______ times excess of _____ fpm. the diameter of the anchor bolt. A. 3600 A. 12 B. 4800 B. 14 C. 6000 C. 16 D. All of these D. 18 ANSWER: C ANSWER: D 110. V-belts operate efficiently at speed of about 101. No foundation bolts shall be less than _____mm diameter A. 4500 fpm A. 10 B. 4400 fpm B. 12 C. 4200 fpm C. 14 D. 3600 fpm D. 16 ANSWER: A ANSWER: B 111. It is advised that in rubber belts application mounting, it 102. It is ideal for maximum quietness in sprocket drive should have an initial tension of _____ inch/ply. operation to choose _____ or more teeth. A. 18 to 24 A. 25 B. 15 to 20 B. 26 C. 12 to 15 C. 27 D. 10 D. 28 ANSWER: B ANSWER: C 112. In shear pin or breaking pin design, we may use the data 103. It is recommended for high speed application that the experienced by Link-belt for 1/8 inch pins and the breaking minimum number of teeth in small sprocket should be stress is ___________ ksi. A. 12 to 20 A. 40  MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 10 B. 55 B. 4000 to 5000 fpm C. 50 C. 6000 to 7500 fpm D. 48 D. 7000 to 8000 fpm ANSWER: C ANSWER: D 113. A type of V-belts to use in driving pulley with speed of 360 123. For the fabric belts, recommended speed is rpm and transmitting 5 hp. A. 2000 to 3000 fpm A. Type C belts B. 2000 and more fpm B. Type B belts C. 3000 to 4000 fpm C. Type A belts D. 4000 to 4500 fpm D. Type D belts ANSWER: B ANSWER: B 124. On high speed centrifugal blowers, it has been observed 114. Belt slip may take place because of that the arc of contact reduced from 180 deg at rest to A. Loose load ____________ in motion. B. Heavy load A. 90 deg C. Driving pulley too small B. 95 deg D. All of the above C. 100 deg ANSWER: D D. 110 deg 115. A single ply leather belt running at a belt velocity of 360 ANSWER: D ft/min is likely to transmit _________ per inch of width. 125. The recommended initial tension of belt is A. 2.5 hp A. 75 lb/in of width B. 3.0 hp B. 71 lb/in of width C. 4.0 hp C. 73 lb/in of width D. 5.0 hp D. 80 lb/in of width ANSWER: C ANSWER: B 116. What is the density of the leather belt? 126. The recommended net belt pull for rubber belt is A. 0.035 lb/in3 A. 11.34 lb/ply per inch of width B. 0.0253lb/in3 B. 13.75 lb/ply per inch of width C. 0. 046 lb/in3 C. 16.35 lb/ply per inch of width D. 0. 074 lb in3 D. 0.34 lb/ply per inch of width ANSWER: A ANSWER: B 117. What is the density of flat rubber belt material? 127. If two interesting shafts are to be belt connected, how A. 0. 055 lb/in3 many guide pulley is used is used B. 0.045 lb/in3 A. 1 C. 0.0725 lb/in3 B. 2 D. 0.0726 lb/in3 C. 3 ANSWER: B D. 4 118. The breaking strength of oak tanned belting varies from 3 ANSWER: B or more than 128. Two shafts at right angles to each other may be connected A. 5 ksi by the ________ arrangement. B. 6 ksi A. haft turn C. 7 ksi B. three- fourth turn D. 8 ksi C. one turn ANSWER: B D. quarter turn 119. If the ends are joined by wire lacing with machine, the usual ANSWER: D efficiency of joint is 129. It offers long life, high efficiency, and low cost and low A. 75% maintenance. B. 85% A. Flat belt C. 88% B. V-belt D. 100% C. Tooth belt ANSWER: C D. All of the above 120. The tension in the belt due to centrifugal force increases ANSWER: A rapidly above 130. It is used to connect pulleys to convey materials by A. 2500 fpm transmitting motion and power. B. 3000 fpm A. Rope C. 3500 fpm B. Wires D. 4000 fpm C. Belt ANSWER: A D. Flat 121. Experience suggests that the most economical designs are ANSWER: C obtained for a belt speed of 131. A crossed belt wider than ______ inches should be avoided. A. 2000 to 3000 fpm A. 7 B. 3000 to 4000 fpm B. 8 C. 4000 to 4500 fpm C. 9 D. 4000 to 4000 fpm D. 10 ANSWER: C ANSWER: B 122. For the leader belts, recommended speed is 132. If the pulley ratio is 3:1 or more, the reduction should be A. 2000 to 3000 fpm A. 25%  MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 10 B. 50% 142. The minimum number of teeth on the smaller sprocket for C. 75% high speeds is D. 95% A. 19 ANSWER: B B. 21 133. The advantage of flat belt is that C. 23 A. it can be used in high-speed drive D. 25 B. it can be used in dusty and abrasive environments ANSWER: B C. It allows long distances between shafts 143. For maximum quietness, use sprockets with _________ or D. All of the above more teeth. ANSWER: D A. 21 134. The best leather has an ultimate strength of about B. 23 A. 3000 psi C. 25 B. 4000 psi D. 27 C. 5000 psi ANSWER: D D. 6000 psi 144. For the average application a center distance equivalent to ANSWER: B _________ pitches of chain represents good practice. 135. Initial tensions should range from _______ for leather belts A. 10 to 20 and 10 to 12 lb/ply per inch of width for rubber belts. B. 20 to 30 A. 200 to 240 psi C. 30 to 50 B. 220 to 260 psi D. 40 to 60 C. 240 to 280 psi ANSWER: C D. 260 to 300 psi 145. The tension ratio of flat belt is ANSWER: A A. 2 136. The density of a balata belt is B. 3 A. 0. 031 lb/in3 C. 4 B. 0. 042 lb/in3 D. 5 C. 0. 051 lb/in3 ANSWER: B D. 0. 061 lb/in3 146. The tension ratio of V-belt is ANSWER: B A. 2 137. In the selection of the proper belt, it is not considered good B. 3 practice to use single-ply leather belts more than C. 4 _________ wide. D. 5 A. 6 in. ANSWER: D B. 7 in. 147. Balata belt is about ________ stronger than rubber. C. 8 in. A. 10% D. 9 in. B. 15% ANSWER: C C. 20% 138. According to the Goodrich company, the permissible net D. 25% belt pull is ______________ that gives a simple means for ANSWER: D quick estimation. 148. The coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley for A. 13.75 lb/ply per inch of width leather belt running on steel pulley is B. 15.75 lb/ply per inch of width A. 0.1 C. 0.3 C. 16.75 lb/ply per inch of width B. 0.2 D. 0.5 D. 17.75 lb/ply per inch of width ANSWER: C ANSWER: A 149. The capacity of a crossed belt should be reduced to 139. Which type of chain is used in motorcycle? _______ that of an open belt. A. Bush roller A. 25% C. 60% B. Pintle B. 50% D. 75% C. Silent ANSWER: D D. None of the above 150. What is the usual factor of safety used with leather belt? ANSWER: A A. 3 C. 7 140. The minimum number of teeth on the smaller sprocket for B. 5 D. 10 low speeds is ANSWER: D A. 12 151. In practice it is found that arcs less than ______ require B. 14 high belt tensions. C. 16 A. 1550 C. 1750 D. 18 B. 1650 D. 1800 ANSWER: A ANSWER: B 141. The minimum number of teeth on the smaller sprocket for moderate speeds is A. 15 B. 17 C. 19 D. 21 ANSWER: B  MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 11 1. Device used to measure accurately speed; A. Flywheel A. Speedometer B. Balance of wheel B. Dial indicator C. All of these C. Tachometer D. Flywheel pulley D. Dial Gauge ANSWER: C ANSWER: C 11. The smallest are at the point of rupture of a tensile 2. When the hole is smaller than the shaft, it will take pressure specimen divided by the original area is called: to put the parts together. The allowance is said to be A. Percentage elongation negative and is termed: B. Izod test A. Negative tolerance C. Charpy test B. Negative allowance D. Percentage reduction of area C. Negative fits ANSWER: D D. Interference of metal 12. The product of the resultant of all forces acting on a body ANSWER: D and the time that the resultant acts: 3. When two elastic bodies collide, which of the following A. Angular impulse laws can be used to solve for the resulting velocity? B. Angular momentum A. Dalton's law C. Linear impulse B. Avogadro D. Linear momentum C. Conservation of energy ANSWER: C D. Conservation of momentum and Conservation of 13. Which of the following is not a structural class of steel? energy A. Low carbon steel ANSWER: D B. Tool and die steel 4. The ability of a metal to be deformed considerably without C. High chrome alloy steel rupture is called: D. High strength low alloy steel A. Plasticity ANSWER: B B. All of these 14. Poison's ratio is the ratio of: C. Ductility A. Shear strain to compressive strain D. Malleability B. Elastic limit to compressive strain ANSWER: A C. Lateral strain to longitudinal strain 5. Permanent deformation or strain may occur without D. Elastic limit to proportional limit fracture: ANSWER: C A. Malleability 15. All are associated with the grade of steel except: B. Elasticity A. SAE43XX C. Ductility B. SAE 13XX D. Plasticity C. SAE10XX ANSWER: C D. SAE74XX 6. It is a science of motion that can be solved in terms of scalar ANSWER: D or vector algebra: 16. A property of material which relates the lateral strain to the A. Kinematics longitudinal strain: B. Curvilinear translation A. Stress C. Projectiles B. Strain D. Acceleration C. Poison's ratio ANSWER: A D. Strength 7. A system of forces in space is in equilibrium, If two equal ANSWER: C and opposite collinear forces are added, which of the 17. The maximum stress to which a material may be subjected following if any is true? before failure occurs: A. Equilibrium is destroyed A. Ultimate strength B. Equilibrium is maintained B. Ultimate stress C. None of this is true C. Endurance limit D. An unbalanced of moment exist D. Tensile stress ANSWER: B ANSWER: B 8. Metal that assists lubrication or lubricant in itself: 18. Hypoid gear is a special type of gear like: A. Zinc A. Worm gear B. Antimony B. Spur gear C. Babbitt C. Herringbone gear D. Lead D. Bevel gear ANSWER: C ANSWER: D 9. A mechanism which usually do the indexing in a machine 19. Considered a maximum safe center distance of sprockets tool: should be ______ pitches. Very long center distance cause A. Universal chuck catenary tension in the chain B. Slotter A. 70 C. Dividing head B. 80 D. Indexing C. 60 ANSWER: C D. 50 10. It equalizes the energy exerted and the work done thus ANSWER: B preventing excessive or sudden changes of speed:  MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 11 20. Cold working of steel plates make the metal: C. Brazing A. Tougher D. Gas welding B. More ductile ANSWER: B C. Harder 29. It is advised that in rubber belts application/mounting, it D. More malleable should have an initial tension of inch/ply. ANSWER: C A. 18 to 24 21. Recommended best cutting angle of drill for work on steel B. 15 to 20 or cast iron is ______ degrees. C. 12 to 15 A. 48 D. 10 B. 63 ANSWER: B C. 59 30. Normal stress relieving temperature for cast steel: D. 50 A. 200 to 350 F ANSWER: C B. 400 to 500 F 22. In shear pin or breaking pin design, we may use the data C. 300 to 400 F experienced by link belt from 1/8 inch to 1 inch pins and D. 450 to 550 F the breaking stress is _____ ksi. ANSWER: D A. 40 31. Most effective alloying element for reducing brittleness of B. 55 steel at very low temperature: C. 50 A. Manganese D. 48 B. Molybdenum ANSWER: C C. Silicon 23. Deals only with the motion of bodies without reference to D. Nickel the forces that cause the: ANSWER: D A. Dynamics 32. Statement that a given body is in static equilibrium means B. Kinetics that the body cannot: C. Static A. Have any type of motion D. Kinematics B. Be acted upon by more that one force ANSWER: D C. Undergo any displacement 24. The property that characterizes a material ability to be D. Have any acceleration drawn into a wire: ANSWER: A A. Ductility 33. Ordinary steel begins to lose strength and elasticity B. Thermal conductivity significantly at about ______ F. C. Tensile strength A. 900 - 1000 F D. Endurance limit B. 800 - 900 F ANSWER: A C. 750 - 850 F 25. One of the causes of spur gear tooth breakage is the D. 600 - 700 F unbalanced load on one end of the tooth that results in ANSWER: D higher stresses than when the load is evenly distributed. To 34. Clearance to a new boiler installation to the existing or old minimize this problem, the face width "b" should not be plant building should follow a minimum clearance of _____ greater than the thickness (or pitch) of the tooth. In the between top of the boiler proper and the ceiling as stated absence of the test values, the following can be a guide: in the PSME Code. A. 2.5 Pc < b < 4 Pc A. 2000 mm (max) B. 2.0 Pd < b < 4 Pd B. 1000 mm (max) C. 2.5 Pd < b < 4 Pd C. 2130 mm (max) D. 2.0 Pc < b < 4 Pc D. 2150 mm (max) ANSWER: A ANSWER: C 26. The three moment of equation may be used to analyze: 35. For a high corrosion resistant stainless steel, what A. Tapered column minimum chromium content is required? B. Continuous beam A. 8% C. Composite beam B. 4.3% D. Axially end loaded beam C. 1.1% ANSWER: B D. 5.8% 27. What is the common shop practice to prevent solder from ANSWER: A running away from surface to be joined? 36. Name the type of chuck commonly used for holding A. All of these workpiece in a lathe operation? Example. 3 - jaw universal B. Surround the work with clay chuck, 4 - jaw independent chuck. C. Introduce around the work rolled wet cloth A. Magnetic chuck D. Put asbestos sheeting around the work B. 2 - jaw independent chuck ANSWER: A C. 8 - jaw universal 28. Non-ferrous filler metal is melted into grooves or as fillet D. Combination on the mother metal; the base metal is not melted. This is ANSWER: D commonly used for joining iron based machine parts or in 37. V-belts operate efficiently at speed of about (fpm): repair works of some materials. It is called: A. 4500 A. Spot welding B. 4400 B. Braze welding C. 4200 D. 3600  MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 11 ANSWER: A A. All of these 38. What type of gear is used for high speed operation? B. Lube oil A. Helical C. Graphite B. Spur D. Grease C. Bevel ANSWER: D D. Worm 49. Metals are conductive because: ANSWER: A A. The electrons are loosely bound to the nuclei and 39. In a pair of gears, _____ is the plane perpendicular to the therefore mobile axial plane that tangent to the pitch surface. B. Having a characteristics mettalic luster A. Pitch C. They are on the left side for the periodic table B. Pitch plane D. They have extra electrons as exhibited by normally C. Pitch circle possible balance state D. Pitch point ANSWER: A ANSWER: B 50. It is considered semi-solod lubricant: 40. The phenomenon of continuous stretching under load even A. All of these if the stress is less than the yield point: B. Lube oil A. Elasticity C. Graphite B. Ductility D. Grease C. Plasticity ANSWER: D D. Creep 51. The yield strength of a regular yellow brass (65 to 75% Cu, ANSWER: D 30 to 35% Zn) can be increased/improved by: 41. A machinery operation whereby done with the work A. Cold working accurately fastened has a reciprocating (forward and B. Tempering backward) motion and the tool head is stationary. C. Chill casting A. Shaping D. Heat treatment B. Planing ANSWER: A C. Turning 52. Used in as cast condition steel casting with carbon content D. Reaming less than _____ % C. ANSWER: B A. 0.26 42.