Maxillofacial Exam MCQs PDF

1. Which types of dental implants is most commonly used today: a) Transdental b) Subperiosteal c) Endosseous d) Intramucosal 2. What is the basic precondition that implants must fulfill to be able to be incorporated into living tissues? - T...

1. Which types of dental implants is most commonly used today: a) Transdental b) Subperiosteal c) Endosseous d) Intramucosal 2. What is the basic precondition that implants must fulfill to be able to be incorporated into living tissues? - To be biocompatible 3. Which anatomical structures are located in the vestibule of the oral cavity: (2 correct) a) Stenon’s ducts b) Warthon’s ducts c) Frenulum linguae d) Frenulum labii oirs sup. Et inf. e) Plica sublingualis 4. Whose contures follow the proper cavum dentis? - Crown of the tooth (?) 5. Attached gingiva is firmly inserted over the periodontal ligament (dezmodont) for: a) The enamel b) The enamel of the tooth root c) Dentin of the root d) Dentin e) Cement of the root f) Cement 6. How can periapical “process” manifest radiologically periapical – the most precise answer? a) Radiolucency at the apex b) Roundish radiolucency at the apex c) Radiopaque zone at the apex of the tooth d) Roundish radiopaque zone at the apex of the tooth 7. What is the most common reason for the formation of periodontal abscesses: a) Inflamed cyst b) Inflamed tooth decay c) Pulpitis d) Inflamed periodontal pocket 8. The basic pathophysiological mechanism in acute sinusitis is: a) The presence of septal sinus b) Roots of molar teeth that protrude into the sinus c) Sinus mucosal edema that impedes drainage d) Chronic sinusitis 9. In which dislocation of the jaw patient can reduce the jaw by himself? - Acute TMJ unilateral / bilateral dislocation // Subluxation 10. Which deformity has a patient with bilateral ankylosis formed in early childhood ? - Micrognathia – bird face 11. The most common type of dislocation of the mandible fragment is: a) Ad axim b) Ad latus c) Ad longitudinem (sagitallis) 12. How long patients usually have intermaxillary fixation? - 4-6 weeks 13. Antimongoloid position of the palpebral fissure is seen in: a) Break-away of the medial canthal ligament from its substrate b) “blow-out” fracture c) Fracture of the body of the cheekbones d) Fractures of the zygomatic process of frontal bone 14. Fracture of the mandible is open when: a) Fracture cracks is including periodontal fissure b) Fracture cracks reaches the mucous membranes, although it was not interrupted c) Fracture cracks includes the entire thickness of the bone d) Fracture cracks involves the unerupted impacted tooth 15. What is happening with the n.facialisa in radical parotidectomy? - Faccial nerve excised 16. Which malignant tumor of the salivary glands gives hematogenous metastases? - Adenoid cystic carcinoma (cylindroma) 17. Which cysts contain in its lumen products of the skin adnexa? - Dermoid cysts 18. Which type of leukoplakia usually gives malignant alternates? a) Erosiva b) Simplex c) Verrucosa d) Erythroplakia 19. The 2 most common odontogenic cysts are: - Follicular cysts, radicular cysts 20. Surgical treatment for progeny is performed when a) The growth and development of a person is finished b) When the lower incisors orthodontic enough lingual incline c) When the lower wisdom teeth complete growth d) When the upper incisors orthodontic enough labially inclined 21. Plastic of the secondary palate is performed a) At the 6 months of life b) At the 12 months of life c) After 2 years d) At the of 6 22. The process of removing necrotic avascular wound edges is called: - Debridement 23. What is the maximum physiological size (in most diameter) of jugulodigastric lymph nodes? - Until 15 mm 24. In phlegmon incision is made in order to: (2 correct) a) Evacuation of the content b) Decompression c) Detoxification d) Aeration 25. Which is selective X ray for a fracture of the upper jaw? a) Waters b) Toma c) Orthopantomograph d) Klemenchic e) Gilis 26. In Le Fort III fractures bony step is palpated in: a) The infrazygomatic crest b) The lateroorbital edge c) The infraorbital edge d) The supraorbital edge e) Apertura piriformis 27. Which precancers always malignantly altered: (3 correct) a) Morbus bowen b) Lentigo maligna c) Leukoplakia d) Lichen planus e) Erythroplakia 28. Local skin flaps with indefinite vascularization are: a) Deltopectoral flap b) Rotatory flap c) Fibular flap d) Sliding flap e) Temporal flap 29. The most common neuralgia is: a) N. Lingvalisa b) N. Glosofaringeusa c) N. Supraorbitalisa d) N. Infraorbitalisa 30. The survival of people with oral cancer is best at following localizations: a) The root of the tongue b) Tonsillar region c) Lip d) Tongue 31. What of these tumors are mesenchymal origin: (3 correct) a) Fibroma b) Lipoma c) Leukoplakia d) Squamous cell carcinoma e) Melanoma 32. Mucocoela is: a) Cyst of accesorial submucous salivar glands which develop as a result of retention of saliva b) Cyst which develops from thyreoglossal duct c) Lateral cyst of neck which develops from 2nd visceral arch 33. Characteristics of malignant tumors are: (3 correct) a) Slow and expansive growth b) Spreading by metastasis c) Infiltration of surrounding tissue d) High differentiation and maturation of tissue cells e) During terminal stadium losing of body weight 34. What are the 2 most frequent odontogenic cysts? a) Radicular b) Lateral  c) Globulomaxillar d) Epstain’s pearls e) Follicular f) Odontogenic keratocysts 35. What are the characteristics of sarcoma? (3) a) Malignant b) Most often spreading by blood c) Epithelial origin d) Benign e) Mesenchymal origin f) Most often spreading by lymph duct 36. Disorders of temporomandibular joint are most often causes by: a) Trauma b) Malocclusion c) Inflammation d) Syndrome which includes mental retardarion 37. What kind of luxation of temporomandibular joint is characterised by returning of caput of mandible to mandibular fossa spontaneously? a) Subluxation b) Recidivant luxation c) Habitual luxation d) Total luxation 38. Characteristics of baseocellular carcinoma are: (3) a) Spreading by metastasis very often b) Infiltrative growth c) Local recurrence d) Slow growth 39. Prophylactic treatment for prevention malocclusions should be started: a) When decidous teeth erupt b) Before birth c) At the children with family inheritage of malocclusions d) When permanent teeth erupt 40. The most often inflammation of gingival mucosa is: a) Gingivitis ulcero-necroticans b) Gingivitis catarrhalis c) Gingivitis hypertrophicans inflammata d) Gingivitis fibrinoso-purulenta 41. The most frequent localisation of mandibular fractures is: a) Angle of mandible b) Mandibular body c) Kondylar process d) Ramus 42. What of these is NOT the selective radiographic projections for diagnostic of mandibular fractures? a) Oblique projection by Eissler b) Ortopantomography c) Craniography d) Posterioanterior projection by Klemencic  e) Tomography of temporomandibular joints 43. What are the 2 certain signs of mandibular fractures? (2) a) Deformity of jaws b) Crepitations c) Pathological movements d) Laceration of mucosa 44. Transversal (horizontal) fractures of upper jaw are classified by (name of author) a) Le Fort b) Pare c) Champy d) Caldwell 45. What is the most frequent type of mandibular fractures at childhood? a) “green-stick” b) Dislocation “ad latus” c) Dislocation “ad axim” d) Dislocation “ad longitudem” 46. The period of intermaxillary immobilization or suspensions most frequently is: a) 2 weeks b) 4 weeks c) 6 weeks d) 8 weeks 47. What are the symptoms which show for sure the fracture of mandible? (2) a) Deformity b) Swell c) Pain d) Functional disorders e) Crepitation f) Pathological movements g) Laceration of gingiva 48. What of these radiological projections are specific for lower jaw? (2) a) Town b) Klemencic c) Pantomography d) Water e) Rowe 49. The most important procedure for treatment of abscess is: a) Administration of antibiotics b) Incision and drainage c) Cooling d) Waiting for spontaneous rupture of abscess 50. Nowadays the most common operation of progenia is: a) Dal-Pont osteotomy b) Obwegeser osteotomy c) Digman osteotomy d) Shuchart osteotomy 51. Which deep spaces of neck during ludwig’s angina are involved? - Submandibular , sublingual, submental tissues 52. Clinical forms of parodontopathies are: (3)  a) Parodontosis b) Parodontitis apicalis c) Parodontitis d) Parodontopathia mixta e) Parodontosis mixta f) Parodontopathia terminalis 53. The 2 most important procedures for prevention and curing parodontopathies are: a) Treating caries b) Correction of occlusion c) Removing of dental plaque d) Treating infection 54. The most important symptoms of caries are: (3) a) Large destruction of tissue b) Discoloration c) Permanent pain d) Pain provoked by irritations e) Changing of dental tissue quality f) Swelling of soft tissue 55. Procedures for treating chronic apical parodontitis are: (2) a) Extraction of tooth b) Apicoectomia c) Endodontical treatment d) Antibiotic therapy 56. Dental bridges are supposed : a) Not to be removable b) To be removable c) To be removable by dentist who can place it back 57. Which tooth is marked with number 25? - Lower right incisor // upper left 2nd premolar 58. How many types of caries we have in relation to the pulp a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 6 59. Elective neck dissection is done: a) When the regional lymph nodes are of up to 3cm b) When the regional lymph nodes are greater than 3cm in c) With non palpable lymph nodes d) Is not done 60. Disadvantages of avascular bone grafts are a) The impossibility of taking larger grafts b) Resorption c) The complexity of the surgical intervention d) Inability to be combined with allografts and heterografts 61. What is the tooth 64? - Upper left deciduous 1st molar 62. What is the color of teeth in dentinogenesis imperfecta?  a) White freckles b) Brown c) Blue-brown d) Dark yellow 63. Which is the most common complication appeared around the dead tooth? - The color of the tooth becomes gray and periapical lesion is formed - periapical abscess 64. What is the main functional advantage of the skeletal partial prosthesis over the classical platelet partial prosthesis? a) Metal stronger compresses soft gingiva and palate tissue b) Dental load c) Dental-gingival loading d) Combination of fixed (crown or bridge) and mobile part 65. Which cells participate in the formative function of periodontium: (2 accurate) a) Osteoblasts b) Osteocytes c) Fibroblasts d) Fibrocytes e) Cementocytes 66. The protective function of the tooth pulp is characterized by: a) Creation of antibodies b) Creation of secondary dentin c) Creation of granulation tissue in the periapical region d) Anti-inflammatory role 67. Caries media is localised in: a) Enamel b) Dentin c) Pulp d) Enamel and dentin 68. Which alloy was used to fill the defect after carries removing? - Dental amalgam 69. By which author are the transversal fractures of the upper jaw? - Le Fort 70. The T3 of oral cancer has dimensions (in cm) - Tumor more than 4cm in greatest dimension 71. In the fracture with an unfavorable fracture line, the fracture extends from the cranial in the caudal direction: a) Approximately vertical b) Forward c) Spiral d) Back 72. As a result of poor immobilization of the lower jaw fracture: (2) a) Contracture b) Ankylosis c) Pseudoarthrosis d) Fractura male sanata (poorly healed fracture) 73. Which structure is found in the follicular cyst? - Cyst sac (clear liquid with a slightly yellow crystal with cholesterol)  - reduced enamel epithelium 74. Which bone cyst as a precursor has formed of periapical granuloma? a) Residual b) Radicular c) Aneurysmal d) Follicular 75. Sebil’s sign appears in the case of: a) Hemartrosis b) Osteomyelitis c) Tongue cancer d) Supraclavicular fosses tumor 76. What includes radical maxillectomy? a) Resection of maxillary and one of the surrounding structures b) Resection of all the upper jaw levels together with the orbit floor c) Total maxillectomy with the removal of the complete orbital cavity content d) Partial maxillectomy with orbiting 77. When suddenly, usually during meals or immediately after the meal, swelling appears, in front of the ear? - Sialothiasis 78. What is the name of the most usable of free skin graft? - split-thickness skin graft (STSG). 79. Write on the latin the term of mutual alveolar and palate cleft - Alveolare reciproca/palatoschisi 80. What is the most useful X-ray image (projection) for the diagnosis of zygomatic fractures? a) Klemencic b) Town c) Ortpantomography (OPT) d) Watter’s 81. What is the disease of the salivary glands characterises by the appearance cycles of remissions and exacerbations? - Sialoadenitis - Sjögren's syndrome. 82. What is modern gold standard for taking maxilla fracture diagnosis? a) Watter’s b) OPT c) CT d) MRI 83. Which muscles are most often involved in orbital floor fractures? - Oblique inferior and rectus inferior 84. What is the T1 stage of maxillary sinus carcinoma? - Tumor limited to the antral mucosa with no erosion or destruction of bone 85. Disadvantage of avascular bone transplants is: a) Inability to take larger transplants b) Resorption c) Complexity of surgical intervention d) Inability to combine with hetero and allograft 86. For what reason is extra oral incision of the dentogenic abscess is 2-3 cm below the lower edge of the mandible  a) Aesthetic reason b) Blood vessels preservation c) Preserving facial nerve d) Easy approach 87. What kind of dissection is carried out with no status a) Elective b) Radical c) Therapeutic 88. The antimongoloid position of palpebral fissure is consequence of: a) Removal of the medial cantal ligament from its base b) “blow-out” fracture c) Fracture of the body of the zygomatic d) Nose fracture 89. What is open fracture: a) Fracture crack (gap) involves the periodontal cracks b) Fracture crack reaching the mucous membrane even though not interrupted c) Fracture cavity involves whole bone thickness d) Fracture crack involves no erupted impacted tooth 90. What is a possible complication of pericoronitis (dentitio difficilis) 2 correct a) Periodontitis of the neighbouring tooth b) Development of the eruptive cysts c) Periodontal pocket with bone desteuction d) Soft tissue abscess 91. What is the treatment of the eruptive hematoma? -drainage/surgical excision (if needed) 92. Which tooth in which jaws first grows in milk dentition? - Lower central incisors 93. What is the bookmarks for the upper left 1st deciduous molar according to binary numbering system of classification of the teeth? -64 94. Which tooth is marked with number 47? - Lower right 2st molar 95. Demineralization of tooth tissue, as a result of caries, manifests itself as? -tooth cavitation/erosion 96. Which functional disorders leads to periodontal disease? -poor oral hygiene 97. What is the function of the gingival pockets curettage? -to clean the periodontal pocket/remove inflamed tissue 98. What is the most common operation for smaller (up to a 3rd of the size of the lips) carcinoma of the lower lip? -V excision (wedged) / Dieffenbach vermilionectomy 99. Which 2 levels of the neck are most often involved in spreading of squamocellular carcinoma of the floor of the mouth? - 1 and 2 100. Carcinoma of maxillary sinus is classified in how many levels according to Sebilo? - 3 (upper, middle, lower levels) 101. Racoon eyes are characteristic for:  a) Le Fort I fracture b) Frontoethmoidal fracture c) Le Fort III fractures d) Fracture of the orbit 102. The most common neuralgia is: a) N. Lingvalisa b) N. Glosofaringeus c) N. Supraorbitalis d) N. Infraorbitalis 103. Cheiloplastic is done: a) In the 2nd year of life b) At the age of 12 months c) Immediately after birth d) At the age of 4 months 104. Which method of temporary immobilization can be definitive: a) Gilmer b) Dingman c) Risdon d) Stout 105. What is the T1 stage maxillary sinus cancer? - Tumor is in the inner most tissue lining of the sinus with no spread to the bone 106. What is the name of interventions of the maxillary sinus revision? 107. Which is most useful X-ray (projection) for the diagnosis of fracture of the cheek bone? - Axial projection 108. Pink portion of the lips is called in latin? -vermilion (vermiculus) 109. For what reasons extraoral incision of odontogenic abscess is done 2-3cm below the lower edge of the mandible? - Preservation of facial nerves 110. In which period of time you can make a primary surgical treatment of wounds on the face? - 6 hours 111. Open neck injuries require: a) Sutures of the wound with the monitoring of vital parameters b) Sutures of the wounds c) Exploration of the wound if the vital parameters are disturbed d) Exploration of the wound 112. Which is characteristic symptom of tongue cancer? -Sebil’s sign (turns the tongue towards the affected side) 113. What does the term marsupialisation mean? -Cutting a cyst/abscess and suturing the margins in a way that the interior content can drain freely 114. What is the basis of the growth of cysts? a) The lack of resistance in the pericystic area b) The presence of inflammation associated with the biochemical processes c) Increasing of hydrostatic pressure to d) Overproduction of the products of epithelium 115. What is the most common odontogenic cyst?  a) Radicular b) Follicular c) Haemorrhagic d) Globulomaksilarna e) Cyst of the incisal channel 116. Prosthetic mucosal hyperplasia usually occurs in the following cases: a) The upper and lower denture b) Maxillary denture teeth on the lower front c) Presence of teeth in the upper jaw and lower denture d) The presence of teeth in the upper jaw and lower partial prosthesis in bilateral lateral loss of teeth e) Presence of teeth in the upper jaw and prosthesis inserted in the saddle of the lower jaw 117. Differential diagnosis in prosthetic mucosal hyperplasia what 1st comes to mind? -malignant tumor 118. How do you prove fistulous channel in chronic pyogenic infections: a) Inspection b) Palpation c) Ultrasonic d) X ray 119. In which the operating methods is the lowest mucosal incision: a) Profundacja fornix with covering sore area free skin graft b) Deepening fornix with secondary epithelialization sore are c) Deepening lingual sulcus d) Submucosal vestibuloplastika 120. Operation progenia by Dingman is: a) Segment – vertical ostectomy the body of the mandible b) Segment – vertical osteotomy of the mandibular c) Sagittal osteotomy of the mandibular d) Sagittal ostectomy the body of the mandible 121. What are the signs of thrombosis of the cavernous sinus(3) a) The occurrence of islands of the upper and lower eyelids b) Opthalmoplegia c) Inability to raise the upper eyelid d) Exophthalmos e) Retinal hemorrhages 122. The appearance of infiltrates in the temporal area is a sign of infection (2) a) Fossa pterigopalatine b) Retromaxillarnog space c) Orbit d) Fossa infratemporalis 123. Which anatomical structures containing pterigomandibuarni space? -inferior alveolar artery & vein, lingual nerve Maxillary artery and inferior alveolar nerve. 124. What is the name Kruzonov syndrome? -craniosynostosis (genetic disorder) 125. Between which teeth are most commonly cleft ridge? -lateral incisor and canine 126. Velopharyngeal valve consists of: (3) a) Hard and soft palate b) Soft palate c) Palatal arches d) Says the tensor palatini and m. Levator says palatini e) M. Constrictor pharyngis superior 127. Epithelium, which are coated with a pseudocyst? -there is no epithelium lining the pseudocyst 128. From which the gill arch formed branchiogene cysts? - I & II (1st & 2nd) 129. What muscle contributes most to the dislocation (in the anteromedial direction) of the proximal fragment in fractures of the lower jaw neck? -lateral pterygoid muscle 130. Which has a fracture line direction in relation to the trajectory? -upright transverse (unfavourable) 131. In condylar fractures the patient cannot perform lateral movement of the lower jaw on the __opposite/healthy__ side. 132. The syndrome, which leads to damage of optical nerve are? (2) a) Fissure syndrome orbitalis superior b) Fissure syndrome orbitalis inferior c) Orbital apex syndrome d) “compartment” syndrome 133. What is the most malignant histological type of melanoma? -nodular melanoma 134. The author who has divided the maxillary sinus tumors to the superoposterior and inferoanterior part is: a) Ongren b) Sebilo c) Le Fort d) Akhausen 135. Modified radical neck dissection includes a) The evacuation of all limfonusa and lymph I, II and III regions doors b) Evacuation of all limfonusa and lymph all 5 regions doors c) Evacuation of the majority of limfonusa and lymph I, II, III and IV regions doors d) Evacuation of all limfonusa and lymph I,II,III and IV regions doors e) Evacuation of the majority of limfonusa and lymph I,II, and III regions doors f) Evacuation of the majority of limfonusa and lymph all 5 regions doors 136. Sturge Weber syndrome is characterized by (2) a) Berries nevus b) Angiomatosis of skin face c) Central osseous hemangioma d) Angiomatosis of leptomeningas 137. Palatal salivary glands are: a) Serous b) Mucous c) Seromucous 138. Deepening (profundation) of mouth fornix with secondary epithelialisation of scarred area is performed by:  a) Clark b) Obwegesezer c) Kazanijan d) Trauner 139. Dental buttress extends from ___apex___ and ends with __ramus__. 140. Thanks to the powerful muscles in the localization of the fracture there is no significant dislocation? a) Condyl b) Ramus c) Angulus d) Body e) Symphysis f) Alveolar ridge 141. Provide a liquid antiseptic agent – based detergent. -octenisept / asepsol 142. Intrusion dislocation of the tooth is called: a) Subluxation b) Central dislocation c) Medial dislocation d) Axial subluxation 143. In odontogenic sinusitis secretion usually is: a) Serous b) Mucous c) Seromucous d) Purulent e) Mucopurulent 144. What is the treatment of parenchymal fistula: a) Converting extraoral to the intraoral fistula b) “end-to-end” anastomosis by placing the tubes c) Conservative – by reducing the production of saliva d) Fistuloplastic of buccal mucosa 145. In “low-grade” mucoepidermoid cancer is indicated following surgical interventions: a) Extirpation of the tumor b) Parotidectomy with preservation facial nerve c) Parotidectomy with the sacrifice of the facial nerve d) Radical parotidectomy