MAS 115 Final Exam 12:21 PDF.pdf

Student name: _________________________ EKG MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) What is evaluated and classified when determining dysrhythmias? A) Rate, artifact, and complexes on the ECG tracing B) Artifact, complexe...

Student name: _________________________ EKG MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) What is evaluated and classified when determining dysrhythmias? A) Rate, artifact, and complexes on the ECG tracing B) Artifact, complexes, and patient symptoms C) Waves, segments, and intervals on the ECG tracing D) Patient condition and symptoms 2) QRS duration measurement is essential to determine the time it takes for: A) atrial depolarization. B) ventricular depolarization. C) ventricular relaxation. D) atrial relaxation. 3) The shape of the P wave is analyzed to determine whether: A) the atrial impulses caused the ventricular contraction. B) atrial depolarization occurred. C) all of the atrial current is moving in the same pathway. D) the atria and ventricles are contracting together. 4) The normal PR interval measurement is: A) 0.06 to 0.12 second. B) 0.20 to 0.24 second. C) 0.12 to 0.20 second. D) 0.10 to 0.16 second. 5) The normal range for the QRS complex duration is: A) 0.12 to 0.20 second. B) greater than 0.12 second. C) 0.06 to 0.10 second. D) less than 0.06 second. 6) What is the rate of a normal sinus rhythm? A) 60 to 100 bpm B) 40 to 60 bpm C) 100 to 150 bpm D) Greater than 150 bpm Version 1 1 7) Which sinus rhythm has a rate of less than 60 beats per minute? A) Sinus tachycardia B) Sinus bradycardia C) Sinus dysrhythmia D) Normal sinus rhythm 8) Identify the following rhythm: A) Sinus bradycardia B) Sinus tachycardia C) Sinus dysrhythmia D) Normal sinus rhythm 9) A patient with sinus bradycardia may require what type of treatment? A) Medication or a pacemaker B) Physical therapy and a stress test C) IV fluids and oxygen D) Open-heart surgery 10) The Einthoven triangle is formed by the following three limb leads: A) right arm, left arm, right leg. B) right leg, left arm, left leg. C) right arm, left arm, left leg. D) right leg, left leg, right arm. 11) The V1 lead should be placed at the: A) fourth intercostal space, left sternal border. B) fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line. C) fifth intercostal space, midaxillary line. D) fourth intercostal space, right sternal border. Version 1 2 12) For the proper placement of V3, you must have placed which other two leads on the patient's chest? A) V2 and V4 B) V2 and V5 C) V5 and V4 D) V4 and V6 13) The V2 lead should be placed at the: A) fourth intercostal space, left sternal border. B) fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line. C) fifth intercostal space, midaxillary line. D) fourth intercostal space, right sternal border. 14) Which method is the only one to be used for irregular rhythms? A) R-R method B) 6-second method C) 1500 method D) 1-minute method 15) Which method of calculating the heart rate is shown below? A) 1500 method B) R-R method C) 6-second method D) 1-minute method Version 1 3 16) Use the 6-second method to estimate the heart rate.Note: This strip represents exactly six seconds. A) 80 bpm B) 100 bpm C) 140 bpm D) 160 bpm 17) Use the 6-second method to estimate the heart rate.Note: This strip represents exactly six seconds. A) 140 B) 84 C) 120 D) 70 18) A pattern in which every third complex is a premature beat is referred to as: A) bigeminy. B) quadgeminy. C) trigeminy. D) triphasic. Version 1 4 19) WAP is a normal finding in children, older adults, and well-conditioned athletes. It may also be found in patients with: A) congestive heart failure and hypertension. B) cardiovascular disease and metabolic disorder. C) neurological disorders and renal insufficiency. D) organic heart disease and drug toxicity. 20) Identify the following rhythm: Click here to enlarge. A) Atrial fibrillation B) Atrial flutter C) Wandering atrial pacemaker D) Multifocal atrial tachycardia 21) Identify the following rhythm: A) Atrial fibrillation B) Atrial flutter C) Multifocal atrial tachycardia D) Wandering atrial pacemaker Version 1 5 22) What is the normal, inherent rate of the AV node? A) 20 to 40 bpm B) 40 to 60 bpm C) 80 to 100 bpm D) 100 to 150 bpm 23) In junctional rhythms, where does the electrical current initiate? A) AV junction B) Bundle of His C) Atria D) Ventricles 24) What causes the inverted P wave morphology found with junctional rhythms? A) Electrical impulses are coming from the SA node, causing repolarization. B) Electrical impulses are coming from areas of multiple ectopic foci. C) Electrical impulses are coming from the AV node, causing atrial depolarization to flow retrogradely. D) Rapid impulses originate in the atrial tissue 25) What does the term "retrograde" mean? A) Immediately B) Backward C) Horizontal D) Flattened 26) What is the term for a fast, "fluttering" heartbeat sensation felt by a patient? A) Palpation B) Paresthesia C) Palpitation D) Pacemaker 27) What causes a heart block dysrhythmia? A) The ectopic focus originates above the ventricles. B) The electrical current has difficulty traveling down the normal conduction pathway. C) The rhythm originates at the AV junctional tissue, producing retrograde depolarization. D) An ectopic beat originates in the right or left atrium, resulting in abnormal conduction. Version 1 6 28) Which heart blocks are the only blocks with an irregular ventricular response? A) First-degree heart blocks B) Second-degree heart blocks C) Third-degree heart blocks D) Bundle branch blocks 29) When applying chest leads, you will place the V4 lead: A) midway between V3 and V5. B) at the fourth ICS, right sternal border. C) at the fifth ICS, left midclavicular line. D) at the fourth ICS, left sternal border. 30) When applying chest leads, you will place the V2 lead: A) midway between V3 and V5. B) at the fourth ICS, right sternal border. C) at the fifth ICS, left midclavicular line. D) at the fourth ICS, left sternal border. PHLEBOTOMY MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 31) What is the anticoagulant additive in a lavender-stoppered evacuated blood collection tube? A) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid B) Sodium, lithium, or ammonium heparin C) Sodium fluoride and potassium oxalate D) There are no additives. 32) A patient comes into the lab to have a platelet function test done. What evacuated blood collection tube would you use for this test? A) Sodium citrate B) Sodium fluoride C) Sodium heparin D) No additives 33) If a discard tube is required by your facility, what is an appropriate discard tube to collect prior to filling tubes for coagulation testing? A) Red/black B) Green/black C) Red/gray D) Red non-additive Version 1 7 34) The anticoagulant in a gray-stoppered blood collection tube is: A) sodium fluoride. B) lithium heparin. C) potassium heparin. D) potassium oxalate. 35) The antiglycolytic agent in a gray-stoppered blood collection tube is: A) EDTA. B) sodium fluoride. C) heparin. D) potassium oxalate. 36) A light-green-stoppered evacuated blood collection tube contains: A) ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid. B) lithium heparin and a thixotropic gel C) sodium fluoride and potassium oxalate. D) no additives. 37) You are assisting another phlebotomist, who asks that you hand her a plasma separator tube (PST). Which tube will you hand her? A) Gold B) Green C) Light green D) Royal blue 38) Alcohol pads contain what percent isopropyl alcohol? A) 50% B) 60% C) 70% D) 65% 39) A STAT prothrombin time has been ordered for your next patient. What color tube will you collect? A) Lavender B) Light blue C) Gray D) Green Version 1 8 40) What would be the 5th tube collected in the order of draw for a routine venipuncture if all types of tubes are needed? A) Lavender B) Red C) PST D) SST 41) When applying a tourniquet on a patient’s arm, it is best to apply it how high above the puncture site? A) 2 inches B) 4-5 inches C) 2-3 inches D) 3-4 inches 42) You have a lab order to collect the following: CBC, complete metabolic panel, PT, and CK- total. Into which color tube would you collect the CMP? A) Light blue B) Gold C) Yellow D) Lavender 43) What type of blood collection container and additive are appropriate for collecting blood from an infant's heel for a bilirubin test? A) Capillary collection container, EDTA B) Microcollection container, SST C) Microhematocrit container, EDTA D) Microcollection container, Amber SST 44) When a tube containing a thixotropic separator gel and blood is centrifuged, the gel moves to the A) top. B) middle. C) bottom. D) top and middle. 45) Discard tubes contain A) a clot activator. B) a separation barrier. C) an anticoagulant. D) nothing. Version 1 9 46) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) A) prevents coagulation by binding calcium. B) maintains red blood cell shape and size. C) does not interfere with staining of blood cells. D) does all of these. 47) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) is commonly used for tests performed in A) chemistry. B) hematology. C) immunology. D) microbiology. 48) Where in the order of draw is a sterile draw tube, such as for blood culture, placed? A) First B) After anticoagulant tubes C) After serum separator tubes D) Last 49) A patient needs to have a CBC, HIV, lipid panel, CMP, random glucose, and TSH collected. Which of the tests above need to be collected as a fasting specimen? A) CBC, CMP B) Lipid panel C) Random glucose D) HIV, TSH, random glucose 50) When collecting specimens from a child, what would be the best way to put him at ease? A) Insist that his parents cannot be present during the procedure. B) Ignore him during the procedure. C) Talk to him directly and briefly explain the procedure. D) Tell him that the procedure will not hurt at all. 51) If the action of a phlebotomist repeatedly probing for a vein is linked to pain or inability to use the arm, it is a(n): A) damage or injury. B) breach of duty. C) direct cause of patient injury. D) indirect cause of patient injury. Version 1 10 52) To be in compliance with HIPAA, phlebotomists should: A) allow patient's family members access to the laboratory's computer. B) close the door to the patient's room after entering. C) discuss interesting patient situations with coworkers. D) stay logged onto the computer so that they don't waste time logging in and out. Version 1 11