Applied Human Physiology Sample Exam Paper 2024 (PDF)

UNIVERSITY OF PORTSMOUTH SCHOOL OF PHARMACY AND BIOMEDICAL SCIENCES BSc (HONOURS) BIOMEDICAL SCIENCE LEVEL 5, SAMPLE EXAM PAPER 2024 M23375, APPLIED HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY M31119, APPLIED HUMAN...

UNIVERSITY OF PORTSMOUTH SCHOOL OF PHARMACY AND BIOMEDICAL SCIENCES BSc (HONOURS) BIOMEDICAL SCIENCE LEVEL 5, SAMPLE EXAM PAPER 2024 M23375, APPLIED HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY M31119, APPLIED HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY (DA) DATE: XX TIME: XX Calculators with text storage facilities may not be used. Bringing such a calculator into an assessment venue will constitute an assessment offence. INSTRUCTIONS – PLEASE READ CAREFULLY This examination consists of two sections, A and B. Please answer all questions in Section A on the MCQ answer sheet provided. Please answer three questions from Section B in the answer booklet provided, You are recommended to spend 45 minutes on Section A and 45 minutes on Section B. The exam will be marked out of 100. Please do not remove from the exam  SECTION A SINGLE BEST ANSWER QUESTIONS (Recommended time, 45 minutes) Attempt ALL questions and provide your answers on the MCQ answer sheet, choosing the single most suitable answer. Please note, one mark will be awarded for a correct answer. No marks will be deducted for any incorrect or unanswered questions. 1) A patient has a dead space of 150 ml, functional residual capacity of 4 L, tidal volume of 500 ml, expiratory reserve volume of 2 L, total lung capacity of 7 L, and a respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min. What is the residual volume? (A) 500 ml (B) 1000 ml (C) 1500 ml (D) 2000 ml (E) 3500 ml 2) Carbon dioxide is transported in the blood in the dissolved state, in the form of bicarbonate ions, and in combination with haemoglobin (carbaminohaemoglobin). Which of the following best described the proportional relationship, as a % of the total, of these three mechanisms for transporting carbon dioxide in the venous blood under normal conditions? Dissolved state (%) Bicarbonate ion (%) Carbaminohaemoglobin (%) (A) 7 70 23 (B) 70 23 7 (C) 23 70 7 (D) 7 23 70 (E) 70 7 23 3) A 17-year-old male places a paper bag over his mouth and breathes in and out of the bag. As he continues to breathe into the paper bag, his rate of breathing continues to increase. Which of the following is responsible for the increased ventilation? (A) Increased alveolar Po2 (B) Increased alveolar Pco2 (C) Decreased arterial Pco2 (D) Increased pH (E) Increased arterial Po2 4) Place the steps for normal inhalation in order. (1) Increase in the size of the thoracic cavity (2) Flow of air from higher to lower pressure (3) Stimulation of primary breathing muscles by phrenic and intercostal nerves (4) Decrease in alveolar pressure to 758 mm Hg (5) Contraction of the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles (A) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 (B) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2 (C) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2 (D) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2 (E) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 5) Which of the following statements are CORRECT? (1) Normal exhalation during quiet breathing is an active process involving intensive muscle contraction. (2) Passive exhalation results from elastic recoil of the chest wall and lungs. (3) Air flow during breathing is due to a pressure gradient between the lungs and the atmospheric air. (4) During normal breathing, the pressure between the two pleural layers (intrapleural pressure) is always sub-atmospheric. (5) Surface tension of alveolar fluid facilitates inhalation. (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 3, 4 and 5 (D) 1, 3 and 5 (E) 2, 3 and 5 6) What pathological state occurs when the respiratory system is unable to adequately provide oxygen to the body and is characterised by hypoxia without hypercapnia? (A) Asthma (B) Type I respiratory failure (C) Chronic bronchitis (D) Type II respiratory failure (E) Restrictive lung disease 7) With regards to pulmonary ventilation, what law describes the volume- pressure relationship? (A) Dalton’s (B) Boyle’s (C) Pacini’s (D) Bohr’s (E) Starling’s 8) A 45-year-old woman has an ejection fraction of 0.5 and an end systolic volume of 100 ml. What is her end diastolic volume? (A) 50 ml (B) 100 ml (C) 125 ml (D) 200 ml (E) 250 ml 9) Parasympathetic stimulation of the heart (A) releases acetylcholine at the parasympathetic nerve endings. (B) increases sinus nodal discharge rate. (C) increases excitability of the heart. (D) releases noradrenaline at the parasympathetic nerve endings. (E) increases cardiac contractility. 10) Which of the following events is associated with the second heart sound? (A) Closing of the aortic and pulmonary valves (B) Rushing of blood into the ventricles during diastole (C) Beginning of diastole (D) Opening of the A-V valves (E) Closing of the A-V valves 11) Which of the following conditions at the S-A node will cause heart rate to decrease? (A) Increased noradrenaline levels (B) Increased sodium permeability (C) Increased calcium permeability (D) Increased potassium permeability (E) Decreased acetylcholine levels 12) Which of the following blood vessels has the greatest total cross-sectional area in the circulatory system? (A) Aorta (B) Small arteries (C) Capillaries (D) Venules (E) Veins 13) Which of the following components of the circulatory system contains the largest percentage of the total blood volume? (A) Arteries (B) Capillaries (C) Veins (D) Pulmonary circulation (E) Heart 14) The disease caused by insufficient pumping of blood by the left ventricle is called (A) atherosclerosis (B) cardiomyopathy (C) coronary artery disease (D) congestive heart failure (E) myocardial infarction 15) A football player is found to have a resting cardiac output of 6 L/min and a heart rate of 60 beats/min. What is their stroke volume? (A) 60 ml (B) 100 ml (C) 200 ml (D) 300 ml (E) 600 ml 16) Which of the following parts of the circulation has the highest compliance? (A) Capillaries (B) Large arteries (C) Veins (D) Aorta (E) Small arteries 17) What electrical signal measured on the ECG is generated by repolarisation of the ventricular contractile fibres? (A) P wave (B) QRS complex (C) Ventricular systole (D) T wave (E) Atrial systole 18) Which of the following segments of the circulatory system has the highest velocity of blood flow? (A) Aorta (B) Arteries (C) Capillaries (D) Venules (E) Veins 19) Which of the following are widely distributed free nerve endings receptors for detecting pain? (A) Nociceptors (B) Pacinian corpuscles (C) Joint kinaesthetic receptors (D) Merkel discs (E) Ruffini corpuscle 20) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? (A) The graded potentials produced by receptors that serve the senses of touch, pressure, stretching, vibration, pain, proprioception, and smell are termed “generator potentials”. (B) The graded potentials produced by receptors that serve the special senses of vision, hearing, equilibrium, and taste are termed “receptor potentials”. (C) When a generator potential is large enough to reach threshold, it generates one or more impulses in its first-order sensory neuron. (D) A receptor potential generates nerve impulse in a second-order neuron. (E) The amplitude of both generator and receptor potentials varies with the intensity of the stimulus. 21) When viewing an object close to your eyes, which of the following are required for proper image formation on the retina? (1) Increased curvature of the lens (2) Contraction of the ciliary muscle (3) Divergence of the eyeballs (4) Refraction of the light at the anterior and posterior surfaces of the cornea (5) Constriction of the pupil by contraction of the extrinsic eye muscles (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (B) 1, 2 and 4 (C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 4 and 5 (E) 2, 3 and 4 22) When parallel light rays pass through a concave lens, which of the following occur? (A) Rays converge toward each other (B) Rays diverge away from each other (C) They maintain a parallel relationship (D) They reflect back in the direction they came from (E) Rays refract to one focal point 23) The space between the upper and lower eyelids that exposes the eyeball is called the (A) Caruncle (B) Palpebral fissure (C) Palpebra (D) Commissure (E) Sclera 24) Accommodation for far vision (focussing on an object at a distance) requires which one of the following processes? (A) Constriction of the pupil of the eye (B) Dilation of the pupil of the eye (C) An increase in the formation of rhodopsin (D) The lens of the eye to have more curvature (making it fatter) (E) The lens of the eye to have less curvature (making it thinner) 25) Which of the following events occurs in photoreceptors during phototransduction in response to light? (A) Phosphodiesterase activity decreases (B) Transducin activity decreases (C) Hydrolysis of cGMP increases (D) Neurotransmitter release increases (E) The number of open voltage-gated calcium channels increases 26) Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence for the auditory pathway? (A) External auditory canal, tympanic membrane, auditory ossicles, oval window, cochlea and spiral organ (B) Tympanic membrane, external auditory canal, auditory ossicles, cochlea and spiral organ, round window (C) Auditory ossicles, tympanic membrane, cochlea and spiral organ, round window, oval window, external auditory canal (D) Auricle, tympanic membrane, round window, cochlea and spiral organ, oval window (E) External auditory canal, tympanic membrane, auditory ossicles, internal auditory canal, spiral organ, oval window 27) The primary auditory cortex lies primarily in which lobe of the cerebral cortex? (A) Frontal lobe (B) Limbic lobe (C) Occipital lobe (D) Parietal lobe (E) Temporal lobe 28) Which of the following statements about the tympanic cavity are INCORRECT? (A) It is separated from the internal ear by the vestibular and cochlear windows. (B) Contains the auditory ossicles. (C) Contains an opening that leads to the auditory tube. (D) Contains the auricle. (E) The stapes connects to the vestibular window. 29) Which of the following statements regarding the two types of deafness, nerve deafness and conduction deafness, is CORRECT? (A) An audiogram of a person with conduction deafness would show much greater loss for air conduction than for bone conduction of sound. (B) An audiogram of a person with nerve deafness would show much greater loss for bone conduction than air conduction of sound. (C) Conduction deafness occurs when the cochlea or cochlear nerve is impaired. (D) Nerve deafness occurs when the physical structures that conduct the sound into the cochlea are impaired. (E) Prolonged exposure to very loud sounds is more likely to cause deafness for high-frequency sounds than low-frequency sounds. 30) Within the auditory system, the layer of dense calcium carbonate crystals which covers the otolithic membrane of the utricle and saccule is called the (A) Macula (B) Otholith (C) Kinocilium (D) Ampulla (E) Crista 31) Which of the following hormones does not affect Na+, Cl-, Ca2+, and/or water reabsorption and/or K+ secretion by the renal tubules? (A) Angiotensin II (B) Aldosterone (C) Atrial natriuretic peptide (D) Parathyroid hormone (E) Thyroid hormone 32) Which of the following statements are CORRECT? (1) Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is directly related to the pressures that determine net filtration pressure. (2) Angiotensin II and atrial natriuretic peptide help regulate GFR. (3) Mechanisms that regulate GFR work by adjusting blood flow into and out of the glomerulus and by altering the glomerular capillary surface area available for filtration. (4) GFR increases when blood flow int the glomerular capillaries decreases. (5) Normally, GFR increases very little when systemic blood pressure rises. (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 3, 4 and 5 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (E) 2, 3, 4 and 5 33) Which of the following nephron segments is best described as the primary site for renal bicarbonate reabsorption linked with sodium reabsorption, under the influence of carbonic anhydrase? (A) Proximal tubule (B) Descending limb of the loop of Henle (C) Loop of Henle (D) Distal convoluted tubule (E) Collecting duct 34) A lowered level of which of the following hormones is best associated with diuresis without disturbing electrolyte levels (aquaresis)? (A) Angiotensin II (B) Aldosterone (C) Atrial natriuretic peptide (D) Antidiuretic hormone (E) Calcitriol 35) Which of the following changes best predicts an increase in glomerular filtration rate? (A) Increased arteriolar resistance (B) Decreased arteriolar resistance (C) Increased plasma oncotic pressure (D) Altered Bowman’s Space pressure (E) Increased intraglomerular pressure 36) When a surgeon makes an incision from the abdominal cavity into the small intestine, in what order would the physician encounter these structures? (1) Epithelium (2) Submucosa (3) Serosa (4) Muscularis (5) Lamina propria (6) Muscularis mucosae (A) 3, 4, 5, 6, 2, 1 (B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 5 (C) 1, 5, 6, 2, 4, 3 (D) 5, 1, 2, 6, 4, 3 (E) 3, 4, 2, 6, 5, 1 37) Which of the following statements regarding the regulation of gastric secretion and motility are TRUE? (1) The sight, smell, taste or thought of food can initiate the cephalic phase of gastric activity. (2) The gastric phase begins when food enters the small intestine. (3) Once activated, stretch receptors and chemoreceptors in the stomach trigger the flow of gastric juice and peristalsis. (4) The intestinal phase reflexes inhibit gastric activity. (5) The enterogastric reflex stimulates gastric emptying. (A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 4 and 5 (C) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (D) 1, 2 and 5 (E) 1, 2, 3 and 4 38) Acidic chyme entering the duodenum stimulates the release of which hormone from the S cells of the small intestinal crypts of Lieberkühn? (A) Gastrin (B) Cholecystokinin (CCK) (C) Substance P (D) Secretin (E) Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) 39) Mass movements constitute an important intestinal event that leads to bowel movements (defecation reflex). Mass movements cause which of the following? (A) Contraction of internal anal sphincter (B) Duodenal peristalsis (C) Gastric retropulsion (D) Hunger sensations (E) Rectal distension 40) Which proteolytic enzyme is secreted by the chief cells of the stomach? (A) Secretin (B) Pepsin (C) Enterokinase (D) Lingual lipase (E) Somatostatin END OF SECTION A  SECTION B SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (Recommended time, 45 minutes) Attempt three questions from this section and write your answers in answer booklet provided. Please mark which questions you have answered on the front of the answer booklet. Each question is worth 20 marks. 1) Discuss what is meant by respiratory system compliance and how this is impacted in disease states. 2) Discuss the factors that affect blood pressure with particular reference to the following: (a) cardiac output (b) peripheral resistance and (c) volume changes 3) Define preload, contractility and afterload. In addition, explain how values for each may increase or decrease and describe the effect this will have on the stroke volume of the heart. 4) Describe the cellular mechanism of rhodopsin phototransduction. 5) Describe the structure of the auditory pathway and how each component is involved in the physiology of hearing. 6) Briefly discuss the importance of ADH on nephron function and urine composition. 7) Discuss the role of the liver in digestive processes.