KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 PDF

12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 Due No due date Points 65 Questions 65 Time Limit None Allowed Attempts Unlimited Take the Quiz Again...

12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 Due No due date Points 65 Questions 65 Time Limit None Allowed Attempts Unlimited Take the Quiz Again Attempt History Attempt Time Score LATEST Attempt 1 37 minutes 38 out of 65 Score for this attempt: 38 out of 65 Submitted Nov 12 at 17:59 This attempt took 37 minutes.  The 2020 Student Charter (https://www.sydney.edu.au/policies/showdoc.aspx? recnum=PDOC2011/215&RendNum=0) lays out the core principles of the partnership between the University and its students. Under the Charter, students must act honestly and ethically in all academic matters and commit to a culture of academic integrity. Among the University's core values is 'respect and integrity', which is to say that our dealings must be honest and that we must treat each other as equal participants in the University community. In this situation, acting with respect and integrity involves a commitment to our performance on this test being honest, ethical, and a true reflection of our learning. In beginning your test, you confirm that you have acted in line with your responsibilities as outlined in the Student Charter and acknowledge the following: Reproduction of any part of this Examination in any form is expressly forbidden. Failure to comply with this direction will be dealt with under the latest Academic Honesty in Coursework Policy and the Academic Dishonesty and Plagiarism in Coursework Procedures of the University of Sydney.  Table of Standard Abbreviations Abbreviation Meaning ABG Arterial blood gases https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 1/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 ACE Angiotensin converting enzyme BMI Body mass index CFTR Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator COPD Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease CT Computed tomography CXR Chest X-ray DNA Deoxyribonucleic acid ECG Electrocardiogram EEG Electroencephalogram FBC Full blood count hCG human chorionic gonadotropin FEV1 Forced expiratory volume in one second FSH Follicle stimulating hormone FVC Forced vital capacity Hb Haemoglobin HIV Human immunodeficiency virus IL Interleukin https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 2/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 IV Intravenous LH Luteinising hormone MCV Mean corpuscular volume NK Natural killer PO2 Partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood PCO2 Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood RI Reference interval RNA Ribonucleic acid TNF Tumour necrosis factor VC Vital capacity  Question 1 1 / 1 pts Which of the following features are present in the normal jejunum? Brunners glands D (somatostatin) cells Correct! Goblet cells Parietal cells Teniae coli Brunners glands are submucosal and only occur in the duodenum. Parietal cells and D cells are in the stomach. Taenia coli are part of the colon.  Question 2 1 / 1 pts https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 3/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 Which cell type is found in the base of intestinal glands and functions to regulate the normal bacterial flora of the intestine? Chief cell Enteroendocrine cell Lymphocyte Correct! Paneth cell Parietal cell  Question 3 0 / 1 pts Where are bile canaliculi located? Correct Answer Between the lateral plasma membranes of adjacent hepatocytes You Answered Within the portal triad of the liver Within the columnar epithelial cells of the gallbladder Running through the mucosa of the duodenum  Question 4 0 / 1 pts Microorganisms and damaged erythrocytes in the blood need to be phagocytosed. Where, precisely, are these phagocytic cells located? You Answered Between the plates of hepatocytes Lodged between the endothelial cells Protruding into the space of Disse Correct Answer Suspended in the sinusoidal lumen  Question 5 1 / 1 pts Which structures of the inner ear do only high frequency sound waves vibrate? Perilymph Correct! Proximal cochlear duct Scala tymphani The malleaus https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 4/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 Tympanic membrane Correct: Proximal cochlear duct Outer/middle ear: Sound waves vibrating the tympanic membrane Transmission vibrations through the ossicles Inner ear: Creating pressure waves in the perilymph of the scala vestibuli Displacement of the basilar membrane of the cochlear duct Bending the hair cells of the spiral organ Stimulating and conveying action potentials by the cochlear nerve to the brain. Transferring vibrations across the cochlear duct to the perilymph of the scala tympani Damping pressure waves in the perilymph by the secondary tympanic membrane at the round window into the air of the tympanic cavity.  Question 6 0 / 1 pts What is the final destination of lacrimal fluid? Correct Answer Inferior nasal meatus Lacrimal canaliculi You Answered Nasolacrimal duct Lacrimal lake Lacrimal sac Lacrimal fluid finally drains into the inferior nasal meatus through the nasolacrimal duct.  Question 7 0 / 1 pts A 52 year old male presents to the outpatient clinic with complaints of difficulty swallowing solids and liquids. He reported episodes of food getting stuck in his throat and frequent difficulty swallowing when trying to move food from his mouth into his throat. He has a past history of chronic alcohol use and has had recent head and neck cancer treatment (radiation). Which of the following muscles plays an important role in assisting the effective movement of food from the mouth into the pharynx during the oral stage of swallowing? Geniohyoid You Answered Inferior constrictor Masseter Correct Answer Palatoglossus https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 5/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1  Question 8 1 / 1 pts Which of the following describes the normal control of gastrointestinal motility when a bolus of food or chyme reaches a segment of the intestine? Acetylcholine causes relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle Mucosal stimulation induces release of acetylcholine from enterochromaffin cells Correct! Mucosal stimulation induces release of serotonin from enterochromaffin cells Nitric oxide causes contraction of intestinal smooth muscle Vasoactive intestinal peptide causes contraction of intestinal smooth muscle Nitric oxide, VIP and ACh do the opposite to what is listed, and serotonin is in the enterochromaffin cells (not ACh).  Question 9 1 / 1 pts In terms of the physiology of the gastrointestinal tract, which of the following is NOT subjected to feed-forward control at the thought, sight, or taste of food? Amylase release Gastric motility HCl release Insulin release Correct! Somatostatin release Somatostatin (Op 1) is released as part of the negative feedback loop controlling HCl release, and so is the correct answer here. The thought, sight, or taste of food does lead to feed forward activation of salivation (Op 2), stomach preparation (Ops 3/5) and preparation for a glucose load (Op 4).  Question 10 0 / 1 pts Which of the following mechanisms best characterises absorption of proteins in the small intestine? You Answered Co-transport of polypeptides and Na+ ions across the luminal membrane Active transport of proteins from lumen to blood Transfer of small peptides across the basolateral membrane Correct Answer Co-transport of amino acids and Na+ ions across the luminal membrane Active transport of amino acids and oligopeptides across tight junctions https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 6/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 Absorbtion of amino acids and short peptides (2 or 3 amino acids) occurs via co-transport with Na ions across the luminal membrane.  Question 11 1 / 1 pts Digested fats enter the circulation via which of the following structures? Capillaries Pancreatic duct Correct! Thoracic duct Venules  Question 12 1 / 1 pts Which hormone plays a central role in the regulation of systemic iron balance? Angiotensinogen Erythropoietin Correct! Hepcidin Somatomedins Thrombopoietin  Question 13 1 / 1 pts Where in the body is vitamin B12 absorbed? Stomach Duodenum Correct! Ileum Colon Vitamin B12 in humans is predominantly from animal products in the diet. B12 is bound to proteins that are cleaved by pancreatic enzyme to produce hydroxocobalamin, which subsequently binds to intrinsic factor (IF) produced by gastric parietal cells. The B12-IF complex travels to the ileum and is absorbed here and taken into the bloodstream  Question 14 1 / 1 pts https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 7/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 Which one of the following options best represents the process that generates the granules present within hepatocytes after a large pasta meal? Beta-oxidation Correct! Glycogenesis Gluconeogenesis Ketogenesis Transamination The granules present within the hepatocytes consist of glycogen. Glycogen is formed via the process of glycogenesis and functions to store glucose.  Question 15 0 / 1 pts Drawing from your understanding of bile salts, which of the following is NOT correct? Bile salts are made from bile acids, which is a cholesterol degradation product Bile salts are reabsorbed from the intestine and secreted into the bile repeatedly Bile salts help in the absorption of fat and lipid-soluble substances in the intestine Correct Answer Bile salts, which are made from cholesterol, help in triglyceride metabolism in the liver You Answered Blood cholesterol levels are raised alongside conjugated bilirubin in obstructive jaundice Bile acids are made from cholesterol, but they have no role in triglyceride metabolism in the liver.   Question 16 1 / 1 pts Which of the following is correct regarding liver metabolism? Activated chymotrypsin helps activate other proteolytic enzymes in the pancreas Pancreatic bicarbonate neutralises stomach acid and raises pH in duodenum to 10 Correct! The conversion of ammonia to less toxic substance(s) can be described by the urea cycle The conversion of lipids to glucose can be described by a flowchart showing processes that connect to the Kreb’s cycle Lipids do not get converted to CHOs Chymotrypsin activates other proteolytic enzymes in duodenum, not pancreas; and this also has nothing to do with liver metabolism https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 8/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 Neutralises stomach acid yes; raises it to 8, not 10; and this statement has nothing to do with liver metabolism Gilbert syndrome is characterised by jaundice during times of stress, due to a limited ability to conjugate, not due to obstruction  Question 17 1 / 1 pts Glycogen is an important mechanism for storing energy. The primary storage location of glycogen is in which one of the following organs or tissues? Brain Kidneys Correct! Liver Skeletal muscles Small intestine  Question 18 0 / 1 pts Which of the following is an important cytokine against hepatic viruses? Correct Answer IFN-α IL-4 IL-22 You Answered TGF-β  Question 19 1 / 1 pts What innate immune cell takes up luminal antigens and transports them across the epithelium to underlying lymphoid structures? Goblet cell Correct! Microfold (M) cell Paneth cell Tuft cell  Question 20 1 / 1 pts https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 9/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) studies generate images by sampling the magnetic characteristics of tissues within the body. The atom of which element acts as a tiny bar magnet? Calcium Carbon Correct! Hydrogen Nitrogen Oxygen  Question 21 1 / 1 pts Human hosts possess several innate immunity mechanisms acting as natural barriers for exogenous bacteria and viruses capable of causing gastrointestinal infections. Disease- or drug-induced reduction of this barriers may increase the host susceptibility to enteropathogens. Which of the following physiological processes does NOT protect the susceptible host from enteropathogens? Intestinal microflora Correct! Reduced acidity in stomach Lysozyme in saliva Shedding and replacement of epithelium Intestinal microflora, salivary lysozyme, and turnover of gastrointestinal mucosa all protect against gastrointestinal infections Gastric acid is also protective. When the acidity of gastric acid is low (as in reduced level of acidity - higher pH rather than low pH), the protective effect is reduced.  Question 22 1 / 1 pts Select the option that correctly identifies the structure 7 as numbered on the following CT scan image: https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 10/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 Aorta Colon Gallbladder Hepatic artery Inferior vena cava Kidney Correct! Left lobe of liver Pancreas Portal vein Right lobe of liver Spinal cord Spleen Stomach Vertebral body  Question 23 0 / 1 pts https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 11/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 A patient undergoes a multi-phase CT of the abdomen for investigation of severe abdominal pain. What contrast phase is demonstrated on this image? Correct Answer Arterial or angiographic Delayed venous Non-contrast You Answered Portal venous  Question 24 0 / 1 pts A 36 year old woman who works as a nurse undergoes testing for viral hepatitis before embarking on IVF. She is found to be HBsAb positive. Which of the following is correct with regards to this scenario? It is most likely she has cleared hepatitis B infection Correct Answer If she has a pregnancy, her baby should receive a birth dose of hepatitis B vaccine https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 12/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 If she has a pregnancy, her baby will require hepatitis B immunoglobulin within 12 hours of birth She has chronic hepatitis B You Answered She is at risk of hepatitis D The correct answer is If she has a pregnancy, her baby should receive a birth dose of hepatitis B vaccine.  She has immunity to hepatitis B either through vaccination (most likely as she is a nurse) or native infection. All Australian babies receive a birth dose of hepatitis B vaccination regardless of maternal status.  Question 25 1 / 1 pts A 45 year old man is diagnosed with recurrent Helicobacter gastritis. Which of the following may he develop at an increased risk? Barrett's mucosa Coeliac disease Correct! Gastric carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma of oesophagus Helicobacter pylori infection increases the risk of developing intestinal metaplasia, peptic ulcer, gastric cancer and mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma.  Question 26 1 / 1 pts Long standing cholecystitis can cause which of the following in the gall bladder? Acute inflammation in the wall of the gallbladder Dysplasia of the gallbladder epithelium Fragments of calcification within the wall Correct! Muscular thickening of the gallbladder wall  Question 27 1 / 1 pts Small bowel biopsies from patients with coeliac disease commonly display which of the following pathological changes? Florid active inflammation and ulceration Identifiable organisms within surface epithelium https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 13/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 Intestinal metaplasia Mucosal granulomas Correct! Reduction in villous length  Question 28 1 / 1 pts The image below is of a colonic polyp at endoscopsy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Juvenile polyp Serrated adenoma Sessile serrated polyp Correct! Tubular adenoma  Question 29 0 / 1 pts https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 14/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 Which of the following is the most common oesophageal malignancy associated with Barrett’s mucosa? Correct Answer Adenocarcinoma You Answered Adenosquamous carcinoma Leiomyosarcoma Malignant lymphoma Squamous cell carcinoma  Question 30 0 / 1 pts You receive the following pathology report from a patient who was biopsied following presentation to the Emergency Department with deranged Liver Function Tests. "A single core of liver is examined in which 14 portal tracts are identified. There is minimal portal inflammation and no interface hepatitis is identified. Interlobular bile ducts are within normal limits. The most marked abnormality is in the hepatic lobules where there is lobular disarray with a prominent mixed lobular inflammatory infiltrate with scattered necrotic hepatocytes identified. No steatosis is seen. No granulomas are identified. No iron or copper is identified on special stains and no dPAS positive cytoplasmic globules are seen. There is no increase in fibrosis seen on the trichrome stain". Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Correct Answer Acute viral hepatitis Alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency Haemochromatosis You Answered Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) Features typical of acute hepatitis with prominent lobular inflammation and disarray. PBC should have duct damage and granulomas. Absence of dPAS positive globules excludes A1AT deficiency No iron typical of haemochromatosis seen No fat present for diagnosis of NASH  Question 31 0 / 1 pts Which of the following is the most common histopathological pattern in a gallbladder in a patient with chronic cholecystitis and cholelithiasis? You Answered Thickened muscular wall and acute inflammation https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 15/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 Thickened muscular wall and dysplasia of the gallbladder epithelium Correct Answer Thickened muscular wall, presence of Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses and mild patchy chronic inflammation Thin muscular wall and cholesterolosis Tissue necrosis, acute inflammation, and presence of Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses In chronic cholecystitis and cholelithiasis there are chronic changes seen in the gallbladder wall. These include a thickened muscular wall, rokitanski-Aschoff sinuses and mild patchy inflammation. There should not be significant acute inflammation or necrosis as this suggests an acute cholecystitis in which a patient is acutely in pain and unwell. Dysplasia is a pre-neoplastic phenomenon which is uncommon in a gallbladder.  Question 32 0 / 1 pts Which of the following NSAIDs has the highest risk of causing gastrointestinal toxicity? You Answered Celecoxib Ibuprofen Naproxen Correct Answer Piroxicam  Question 33 1 / 1 pts A 50 year old female experiencing chronic epigastric pain that lessens post-meal undergoes a barium swallow test, confirming a peptic ulcer. Which mechanism of action is primarily involved in the class of pharmacologic agents most appropriate for treating this condition? Activation of prostaglandin E2 receptors in the stomach lining Blockade of dopamine receptors in the gastrointestinal tract Correct! Inhibition of gastric acid secretion by blocking the proton pump Inhibition of pepsinogen release from chief cells Stimulation of gastric acid secretion via gastrin receptors  Question 34 1 / 1 pts All of the following laxatives work by initiating peristalsis EXCEPT: Correct! https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 16/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 Docusate Lactulose Picosulphate Psyllium  Question 35 1 / 1 pts To prevent motion sickness on a cruise ship, a woman is advised to take hyoscine (scopolamine). Which adverse effect is most likely to result from taking this drug? Constipation Diarrhoea Correct! Dry mouth Flatulence Headache Hyoscine is a muscarinic anatagonist and dry mouth is a common and well established side effect of muscarinic antagonists.  Question 36 1 / 1 pts Metronidazole belongs to which of the following drug classes? Glycopeptide Guanine analogue Macrolide Correct! Nitroimidazole Tetracycline  Question 37 1 / 1 pts Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of NS5B inhibitors used in the treatment of hepatitis C infection? Inhibit attachment of the virion to the host cell Inhibit fusion and uncoating of the virion Inhibit protease activity preventing cleavage of the polypeptide Correct! Inhibit RNA synthesis  https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 17/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 Question 38 0 / 1 pts Octreotide, when used for preventing variceal bleeding, would be most likely to cause which adverse effect based on its mechanism of action? Bradycardia Faecal incontinence Gynaecomastia Correct Answer Hyperglycaemia You Answered Hyponatraemia A somatostatin analogue – generally reducing all gastrointestinal activity including pancreatic hormone production (i.e. it stops insulin production)  Question 39 1 / 1 pts Which enzyme family is most involved in phase 1 metabolism? Correct! Cytochrome P450 Glutathione S-transferase N-acetyltransferase Sulfotransferase UDP-glucuronosyltransferase Cytochrome P450 Cytochrome P450 enzymes (CYP) are the most prominent enzyme family involved in phase 1 drug metabolism. They are responsible for catalyzing the oxidation of many drugs, which is a key step in phase 1 reactions. Phase 1 metabolism often aims to introduce or unmask polar functional groups to make the drug more amenable to phase 2 conjugation reactions. The other enzymes listed are mainly involved in phase 2 metabolism, where conjugation reactions take place.  Question 40 1 / 1 pts Which of the following is the mechanism of action of vedolizumab? Correct! Inhibitor of α4b7 integrins to reduce the intravasation of memory T cells Inhibitor of DNA synthesis to reduce proliferation of T cells Inhibitor of NF-KappaB transcription to reduce cytokines and prostaglandins Inhibitor of TNFα to reduce inflammatory signals to immune cells https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 18/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 Vedolizumab is an inhibitor of α4b7 integrins to reduce the intravasation of memory T cells  Question 41 1 / 1 pts Which of the following antifungal drugs is an inhibitor of 14α-demethylase? Amphotericin B Caspofungin Correct! Fluconazole Nystatin  Question 42 0 / 1 pts You are about to prescribe a drug for a person and they report that their mother died from liver toxicity from that drug. For which of the following drugs would a family history of severe liver injury be most concerning? Correct Answer Flucloxacillin Isoniazid You Answered Methotrexate Paracetamol Valproate Idiosyncratic reactions linked to rare HLA genotypes would be expected to be inherited in half the offspring and cause massive increases in risk (80 fold for flucloxacillin HLAB57*01), whereas most other increased risks are relatively small and have much more of an interaction with other factors (dose, disease, other drugs, etc..).  Question 43 1 / 1 pts A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin to maintain anticoagulation. Due to reactivation of their tuberculosis infection, the patient is also started on rifampicin. What is the most likely impact of rifampicin on the metabolism of warfarin, a CYP2C9 substrate? It will decrease the metabolism of warfarin, necessitating lower warfarin doses It will have no significant impact on warfarin metabolism and no dose changes of warfarin are required Correct! It will increase the metabolism of warfarin, potentially requiring higher warfarin doses https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 19/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 It will decrease the metabolism of warfarin, however no dose changes of warfarin are required  Question 44 1 / 1 pts Alfentanil is an opioid with a narrow therapeutic index, which increases the risk of drug-drug interactions. When alfentanil and erythromycin are co-prescribed, which of the following options describes the action of erythromycin on hepatic enzymes and potential outcome of the interaction? Option Action of The potential erythromycin outcome of this on hepatic interaction enzymes A Inducer Respiratory depression B Inducer High levels of analgesia C Inhibitor Respiratory depression D Inhibitor High levels of analgesia A B Correct! C D  Question 45 0 / 1 pts A 63 year old man presents with a long history of intermittent epigastric pain occurring during the day and sometimes at night. Six months ago, he passed black stools for three days. He does not take NSAIDs. He presents now with recurrent pain. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Correct Answer Chronic peptic ulcer disease Functional dyspepsia Gastric cancer Gastritis You Answered https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 20/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease A long history or relapsing and remitting epigastric pain and a likely history of melaena, strongly suggests chronic peptic ulcer disease. Gastritis is a pathological diagnosis, not a clinical one, reflux is not usually associated with bleeding and gastric cancer would not have a remitting course over years.  Question 46 0 / 1 pts Which of the following are features of oesophageal dysphagia? Associated with coughing or choking Correct Answer Difficulty localised to sternum Localised to neck Occurs immediately or within one second of swallowing You Answered Unable to initiate a swallow  Question 47 1 / 1 pts Which of the following medications is a treatment for abdominal pain in irritable bowel syndrome? Loperamide Low dose polyethylene glycol Correct! Peppermint oil Stimulant laxatives  Question 48 0 / 1 pts What is the advantage of using pre-albumin over other markers (albumin and C-reactive protein) in assessing nutritional status? It has a strong correlation with prognosis It is a good indicator of nutritional status in the healthy population only You Answered It is an excellent indicator of stress and nutritional risk Correct Answer It reflects changes in nutritional status more quickly  Question 49 0 / 1 pts https://canvas.sydney.edu.au/courses/55362/quizzes/284350 21/28 12/11/2024, 21:07 KAT 4 Practice Assessment 2024 - Paper 1 : 2024 SMP Year 1 A 70 year old male is in the resuscitation bay in the Emergency Department with right upper quadrant pain and a temperature of 39oC. His heart rate is 124 beats/min. His blood pressure is 96/51 despite 3 litres of bolus intravenous Hartmann's solution and SaO2 of 96% on room air. His liver function test reveals: Result Reference Interval Bilirubin 97