IR All Question PDF

IR ALL QUESTION 1. PANS-OPS means: A – Procedures for Air Navigation Systems – Airfield operations B – Procedures for Air Navigation Services – Aircraft operations C – Pilots Alternate Navigational Systems and Operational Procedures D – Prima...

IR ALL QUESTION 1. PANS-OPS means: A – Procedures for Air Navigation Systems – Airfield operations B – Procedures for Air Navigation Services – Aircraft operations C – Pilots Alternate Navigational Systems and Operational Procedures D – Primary and Alternate Navigation Systems and Operations Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 2. What is the meaning of DER: A – dead end of runway B – departure end of runway C – dead reckoning D – displaced end of runway Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 3. What is DER? A – Direct entry routing B – Descent rate C – Departure end of runway D – Dead end of runway Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 4. The minimum height to which an aircraft may safely continue a precision approach, without visual reference is known as the: A – minimum break-off altitude B – minimum descent altitude C – decision altitude D – decision height Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 5. What is a STAR? A – Standard arrival B – Standard instrument arrival C – Special terminal arrival D – Supplementary terminal arrival Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 6. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called: A – Final approach segment B – Initial approach segment C – Intermediate approach segment D – Arrival segment Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 7. What is the meaning of OCA? A – Oceanic control area B – Obstacle clearance altitude C – Oceanic control area or obstacle clearance altitude D – Occasional Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 8. OCH for a precision approach is defined as: A – The lowest altitude above the aerodrome elevation used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements B – The lowest height above mean sea level of the relevant runway used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements C – The lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold, at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria D – The lowest altitude at which an aircraft can perform a safe flight Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 9. What does the abbreviation OIS mean? A – Obstruction in surface B – Obstacle in surface C – Obstacle identification slope D – Obstacle identification surface Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 10. What is the meaning of MEHT? A – Mean height over threshold B – Maximum eye height C – Minimum elevation height D – Minimum eye height Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 11. What does the abbreviation DER mean? A – Departure end of runway B – Distance end of route C – Departure end of route D – Distance end of runway  Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 12. A “precision approach” is a direct instrument approach… A – using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance information B – using bearing, elevation and distance information C – using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director or an autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft D – carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 13. What does AAL mean? A – Above aerodrome level B – Angle of attack limitation C – Acknowledge D – Aerodrome altitude level Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 14. A visual approach is: A – An instrument approach where the pilot has the option to continue the approach visually, providing that he has the necessary visual criteria B – an approach made under VFR using height and track guidance C – Any part of an instrument approach that is carried out in VMC D – The circling part of a precision approach to a runway other than the runway on which the landing is to be made Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 15. What does the abbreviation DER mean? A – Dead reckoning B – Departure end routing C – Departure end of runway D – Distance error rectification Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 16. Runway visual range is reported when it falls below: A – 1500m B – 1000m C – 800m D – 1200m Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 17. Based on operational considerations, a margin may be added to the OCA of a non-precision approach. The result is then called: A – DH B – MDA C – MDH D – DA Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 18. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach is: A – Contact approach B – Visual approach C – Visual manoeuvring (circling) D – Aerodrome traffic pattern Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 19. A radial is:  A – a magnetic bearing to a VOR station B – a magnetic bearing extending from a VOR station C – a magnetic bearing to or from a VOR station, depending on whether the aircraft is inbound or outbound to or from the VOR D – a QDM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 20. The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is called… A – the Air Pilot B – PANS OPS Doc 8168 C – the Air Navigation bulletin D – the Convention of Chicago Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 21. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a: A – Procedure turn B – Base turn C – Race track D – Reversal track Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 22. Which of the following defines transition altitude? A – The altitude above which the vertical position of an aircraft is determined by reference to local QHN B – The flight level below which the vertical position of an aircraft is determined by reference to 1013 mb C – The altitude below which the vertical position of an aircraft is determined by reference to QFE D – The altitude at which 1013 mb is set and vertical position then reported as a flight level Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir  Ans: D 23. The Transition Level: A – shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude B – shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established C – is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP D – is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in-command Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 24. A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called: A – Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) B – Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC) C – AIRAC D – NOTAM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 25. The approach categories of aircraft are based upon: A – 1.3 times the stalling speed in clean configuration at maximum certified landing mass B – 1.3 times the stalling speed in clean configuration at minimum certified landing mass C – 1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at maximum certified landing mass D – 1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at minimum certified landing mass Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 26. NOZ is: A – Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS glide path course and/or MLS initial approach track centre line B – Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS localiser course and/or MLS initial approach track centre line C – Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS glide  path course and/or MLS final approach track centre line D – Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS localiser course and/or MLS final approach track centre line Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 27. A circling approach is: A – A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring B – A contact flight manoeuvre C – A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight D – A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 28. The “estimated total time” in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time: A – of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day B – required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport C – required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time) D – required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 29. VORTAC is: A – A combined VOR and TACAN combination where the bearing is from the VOR element and the range from the TACAN element B – A combined VOR and TACAN combination where the bearing is from the TACAN and the range from the VOR C – Range and bearing are supplied from the TACAN element and the VOR is a switch on device D – TACAN refined for missed approach positioning Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 30. A racetrack is: A – a right hand circuit pattern B – taking off and landing traffic the same runway  C – traffic landing and taking-off again within 1 hour and returning to the same airport of the original departure D – a procedure used for descent; resembling a holding pattern (including the entry) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 31. A precision Approach Procedure is defined as: A – An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information B – An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such operations C – An instrument approach procedure utilising azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR D – An approach using bearing, elevation and, optionally, distance information Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C  010-06-03 Departure Procedures 1. What is a low visibility take-off? A – A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 400m B – A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 200m C – A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 125m D – A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 50m Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 2. In the event of a delay of 30 minutes in excess of the estimated EOBT for a controlled flight, which of the following actions is required? A – The flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan should be submitted and the old flight plan cancelled, whichever is applicable B – No action required because the air traffic system accommodates delays of up to 60 minutes C – None, because ATC will automatically amend the current flight plan D – A new flight plan must be submitted if required by ATC Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 3. If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected: A – To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace B – To request from ATC different heading for wind correction C – To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the track D – To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 4. A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions are prevailing. The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away. The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are: A – VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing, and ceiling greater or equal to ceiling required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure B – VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing on the runway to be used C – ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged with one engine out D – ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 5. Turning departures provide track guidance within: A – 20 km B – 5 km C – 15 km D – 10 km Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 6. Which of the following factors is least likely to be considered in the design of an Instrument Departure Procedure? A – Terrain B – The transition altitude C – ATC requirements D – Airspace restrictions Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 7. Which of the following standard instrument departures is not a straight departure? A – A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 20o from the runway alignment B – a departure where the initial departure track differs more than 15o from the runway alignment C – A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 10o from the runway alignment D – A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 5o from the runway alignment Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 8. In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals: A – 0 ft B – 394 ft C – 35 ft D – 50 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 9. when can the required noise abatement procedure be disregarded? A – At PIC’s discretion where safety is an issue B – If there is work in progress on the aerodrome C – If the RVR isles than 1500m D – Never, it must always be complied with Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 10. 1658. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway centre line within: A – 45o B – 30o C – 15o  D – 12.5o Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 11. As a standard rule, while establishing the instrument departure procedures, the procedure assumes that the aeroplane has a climb gradient of: A – 3.3% with all engines operating B – 5% with all engines operating and a climb gradient margin respectively of 0.8%, 0.9%, 1% with two, three and four engines, taking into account one engine inoperative C – 2.4% with all engines operating and 1.5% with one engine inoperative D – 2.4% with two engines, 2.7% with three engines, 3% with four engines Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 12. Who is responsible for the development of the contingency procedures required to cover the case of engine failure during an instrument departure, which occurs after V1? A – The designer of the procedure (normally the State) B – ATC will provide radar vector for obstacle clearance C – The operator of the aircraft D – The pilot in close co-operation with ATC Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 13. The procedure design gradient (PDG) consists of: A – 2.3% OIS and 1% increasing obstacle clearance margin B – 3.3% OIS C – 2.5% OIS and 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance margin D – 2.7% OIS and 0.6% increasing obstacle clearance margin Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 14. For an instrument departure (SID) what is the procedure design gradient (PDG)?  A – 2.5% B – 5% C – 3.5% D – 3.3% Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 15. In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals: A – 35 ft B – 3.3% gradient C – 0 ft D – 0.8% gradient Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 16. During an omni-directional departure, what height are you required to climb to before turning onto the desired track? A – 1000 ft B – Transition altitude C – 150 m D – 120m (394 ft) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 17. Who is responsible for establishing contingency procedures for engine failure after take off? A – The PIC B – The Operator C – The Authority D – ATC Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir  Ans: B 18. The main factor that dictates in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is: A – the terrain surrounding the aerodrome B – ATC availability and requirements C – availability of navigation aids D – airspace restrictions applicable and in force Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 19. A turning departure is constructed if a departure route requires a turn of more than: A – 10o B – 15o C – 20o D – 25o Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 20. Departure routes are based upon track guidance acquired within: A – 20 km after completion of turns on departures requiring turns B – 20 nm after completion of turns on departures requiring turns C – 10 km after completion of turns on departures requiring turns D – 10 nm after completion of turns on departures requiring turns Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 21. For a turning departure turns may be specified at: A – An altitude or height B – At a fix  C – At a facility D – All of the above Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 22. For an omni-directional departure the procedure ensures that: A – At least 90m of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than 30o can be specified B – At least 90 ft of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than 30o can be specified C – At least 90m of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than 15o can be specified D – At least 90 ft of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than 15o can be specified Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 23. When constructing a turning area departure the temperature used is: A – ISA + 15oC corresponding to the altitude B – JSA + 15oC corresponding to the altitude C – ISA – 15oC corresponding to the altitude D – JSA – 15oC corresponding to the altitude Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 24. We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within: A – 5o of the alignment of the runway centre-line B – 10o of the alignment of the runway centre-line C – 15o of the alignment of the runway centre-line D – 25o of the alignment of the runway centre-line Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 25. The PDG is made up of: A – 2.5% gradient of obstacle identification B – 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance C – 2.5% gradient of obstacle identification plus 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance D – 2.5% gradient of obstacle identification minus 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 26. A straight departure is one in which the initial departure track does not deviate from the alignment of the extended runway centre line by more than: A – 15o B – 30o C – 45o D – 12.5o Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 27. The maximum distance from the DER that track guidance for a turning departure must be acquired is: A – 5 km after the completion of the turn B – 10 km after the completion of the turn C – 15 km before the initiation of the turn D – 20 km before the initiation of the turn Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 28. When taking off in IMC an aircraft should report to Departure Control: A – when advised to do so by the Tower B – before entering cloud C – immediately after the aircraft is airborne D – when established on the first heading and clear of the aerodrome Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C  010-06-04 Approach Procedures 1. Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure? A – At least 300m (984 ft) B – 150m (492 ft) C – 300m (984 ft) D – At least 150m (492 ft) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 2. What action should be taken if contact is lost with the aerodrome on the downwind leg? A – Request an amended clearance B – descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude C – Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome D – Initiate a missed approach Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3. Which of the following approach speed ranges (Vat) is applicable for Category B aircraft? A – 224 km/h to 261 km/h B – 121 kts to 141 kts C – 261 km/h to 307 km/h D – 91 kts to 120 kts Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 4. During circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight track), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection  envelope is: A – 125 kt B – 120 kt C – 135 kt D – 150 kt Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 5. The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of: A – 30 NM B – 10 NM C – 15 NM D – 25 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 6. How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure? A–3 B – Up to 5 C–4 D – Up to 4 Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 7. The ILS glide path is normally intercepted between: A – 5 and 10 NM B – 3 and 7 NM C – 4 and 8 NM D – 3 and 10 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir  Ans: D 8. The optimum descent gradient in the final approach should not exceed: A – 6.5 percent B – 3 percent C – 5 percent D – 7.5 percent Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 9. If you lose the necessary visual references while “circling visual”, you should: A – turn towards the airport maintaining the visual circling altitude/height B – start the missed approach procedure C – make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and when overhead the airport climb on the missed approach track D – climb straight ahead to MSA Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 10. In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from: A – 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft) B – 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft) C – 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft) D – 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 11. For a circling approach, the minimum OCH above aerodrome level is: A – 200 ft B – depends on aircraft category C – 394 ft D – 591 ft  Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 12. On a non-precision approach a so-called “straight-in-approach is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centre line is: A – 40 degrees or less B – 30 degrees or less C – 20 degrees or less D – 10 degrees or less Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 13. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is: A – 90m (295 ft) B – 50 m (164 ft) C – 30 m (98 ft) D – 120m (384 ft) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 14. A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a: A – Procedure turn B – Base turn C – Reversal procedure D – Race track Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 15. Minimum sector altitudes are determine by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of: A – 5 NM B – 20 NM C – 10 NM D – 25 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 16. During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to: A – 150m (492 ft) B – 210m (690 ft) C – 300m (984 ft) D – 120m (394 ft) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 17. The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is: A – ±12.5 NM B – ±10 NM C – ±5 NM D – ±2.5 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 18. You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until: 1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made The combination regrouping all the correct answers is: A – 2, 3 B – 1, 2 C – 1, 2, 3 D – 1, 3 Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 19. The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of: A – 25o or the bank angle giving a 3o/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, 25o for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15o for missed approach procedures B – 25o or the bank angle giving a 3o/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15o for missed approach procedures C – The bank angle giving a 3o/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to aeroplane categories D – 25o or the bank angle giving a 3o/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 20. Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure? A – Arrival, intermediate and final B – Arrival, initial, intermediate and final C – Initial, intermediate and final D – Initial and final Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 21. Which is the minimum obstacle clearance within the primary area of an intermediate approach segment? A – 150 m B – 150 ft C – 300 m D – 300 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 22. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it  is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the: A – Landing runway B – MAP C – FAF D – Final missed approach track Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 23. Who is establishing the aerodrome operational minima for instrument approaches? A – The appropriate authority of the State of the aerodrome B – The State of Registry of the aircraft C – The operator D – The appropriate authority of the State of the aircraft operator Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 24. An instrument approach procedure consists of: A – 5 segments B – 4 segments C – 6 segments D – 3 segments Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 25. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is: A – 120m (384 ft) B – 30m (98 ft) C – 90m (295 ft) D – 50m (164 ft) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir  Ans: D 26. What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure? A – 3o B – 2.5% C – 3.3% D – 2.5o Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 27. In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at least: A – decreasing from 984 to 492 ft B – 1476 ft C – 492 ft D – 984 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 28. The primary area of an instrument approach segment is: A – the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully B – a defined area symmetrically disposed about the normal flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided C – the first part of the segment D – the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from 0 ft to the appropriate minimum Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 29. Under what circumstances would an ILS glide path in excess of 3o be used? A – Where other means of obstacle clearance are impracticable B – For aircraft with STOL capabilities  C – Where noise abatement restrictions make a less steep approach impracticable D – Parallel runway operations Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 30. Where does the initial section of a missed approach procedure end? A – When a height of 50 m has been achieved and maintained B – When established in the climb C – At the missed approach point D – When en-route either to hold or departure Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 31. Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence? A – At the IF B – At the IAF C – At the FAF D – At the final en-route fix Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 32. Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localiser. The DR track will: A – Intersect the localiser at 30o and will not be more than 10 NM in length B – Intersect the localiser at 30o and will not be more than 5 NM in length C – Intersect the localiser at 45o and will not be more than 5 NM in length D – Intersect the localiser at 45o and will not be more than 10 NM in length Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 33. In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to: A – Aerodrome elevation B – Aerodrome reference point C – Relevant runway threshold D – Mean sea level Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 34. In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the: A – FAF B – MAP C – FAP D – IF Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 35. Descend below MDA/H is only allowed when… A – the cross-wind component is less than 25 kts B – the published time from the outer marker to the MAP has elapsed C – visual reference with the runway is established and can be maintained D – the pilot is familiar with the published procedure Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 36. In a procedure turn (45o/180o), a 45o turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for: A – 1 minute B – 1 minute 15 seconds C – 1 minute 30 seconds D – 2 minutes Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 37. The factors considered in the calculations of DA/DH are: A – The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the approach or missed approach paths including an allowance for aircraft speed and height loss on any go around, plus a margin for operational factors B – The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the final approach path only, plus a margin for height loss on any go around C – The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the final approach path including an allowance for aircraft speed plus a margin D – The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the missed approach path only plus an allowance for height loss on any go around Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 38. Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure? A – the “flight operations” of the company B – the operator  C – the pilot-in-command D – the state Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 39. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end? A – at the point where the climb is established B – at the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated C – at the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained D – at the missed approach point Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 40. When determining the OCA/OCH for a precision approach, obstacle height is referenced to: A – MSL B – aerodrome reference point C – threshold D – highest obstacle within 25 nm of aerodrome Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 41. When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined: A – Only for categories A and B aircraft B – For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them C – Only for categories C, D and E aircraft D – For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 42. What is the most important factor when designing an instrument departure procedure? A – navigation aids B – terrain C – ATC requirements D – weather Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 43. The NTZ extends from ___ to ___ A – the nearer runway threshold, the point at which both aircraft are established on the centre line of the runways B – the threshold of the nearer runway, the point at which 1000 ft vertical separation is reduced between aircraft C – the final approach fix, the end of the nearest runway D – the start of the approach, the touchdown point of the first runway Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 44. Which of the following is not shown on an approach plate? A – OCA/OCH B – DME frequency C – NDB location D – field elevation Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 45. What is the normal minimum missed approach gradient? A – 2.5% B – 0.9% C – 3.3% D – 4.2%  Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 46. For a category 1 precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than: A – 150 ft B – 250 ft C – 200 ft D – 100 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 47. In a precision approach (ILS) obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centre line, after being established on track, more than: A – One and a half of scale deflection B – One scale deflection C – A quarter of scale deflection D – Half a scale deflection Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 48. Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of: A – 0.8% B – 2.5% C – 3.3% D – 5% Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 49. If, during a visual circling, visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the pilot shall: A – Make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and follow the  missed approach procedures B – Require immediate assistance from ATC which is obliged to provide radar vectors in order to maintain obstacle clearance C – Descend further in order to reach an altitude where visual reference can be maintained D – Climb straight ahead to the minimum sector altitude Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 50. When performing a circling approach, descent below MDA/H should not be made until: A – the pilot has visual reference and the required obstacles clearance can be maintained B – required obstacle clearance can be maintained and the aircraft is in a position to execute a safe landing C – Visual reference is established and can be maintained, the landing threshold is in sight, the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be executed D – You are clear of clouds Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 51. Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is: A – 8% B – 5% C – 7% D – 6.5% Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 52. During a visual circling, descent below MDA/H shall not be made until: A) Visual reference has been established and can be maintained B) The pilot has the landing threshold in sight  C) The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and the aircraft is in a position to carry out a landing D) A landing clearance has been received by ATC A – A, B and D B – A and B C– D – A, B and C Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 53. Where does the missed approach procedures start: A – At DH/MDH B – At any point that the criteria to continue the approach is lost C – At the missed approach point D – Over the threshold of the instrument runway Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 54. If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken? A – Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling altitude B – Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual contact C – If you have other visual cues, continues with ground contact D – Initiate a missed approach Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 55. How many aircraft approach categories are applicable to the new ICAO instrument approach procedures: A–3 B–4 C–5 D–6 Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 56. For the construction of precision approaches, which is the operationally preferred glide path angle? A – 3o B – 3.8o C – 3% D – 6.5% Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 57. Minimum sector altitudes published on approach charts provide at least the following obstacle clearance: A – 300m within 25 km of the homing facility associated with the approach procedure for that aerodrome B – 300m within 25 nm of the homing facility associated with the approach procedure for that aerodrome  C – 300m within 25 km of the FAF or FAP D – 300m within 25 nm of the initial approach fix Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 58. Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centre line more than: A – half scale deflection of the glide path indicator and horizontal 35o off the centre line B – full scale deflection of the localiser indicator C – half scale deflection of the localiser indicator D – full scale deflection of the localiser indicator and half scale deflection of the glide path indication Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 59. The initial approach segment starts at the ___ and the obstacle clearance (MOC) provided in the primary area is ___ A – initial approach fix, 300m B – initial approach fix, 600m C – intermediate fix, 150m D – final approach fix, 150m Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 60. For precision approaches, the Final Approach Point (FAP) is set at a specified distance from the threshold of the instrument runway. What is the maximum this distance can be? A – 9 km (5 nm) B – 19 km (10 nm) C – 28 km (15 nm) D – 38 km (20 nm) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 61. Where 2 aircraft are established on adjacent parallel ILS localisers, what is the minimum radar separation permitted under mode 2 operations? A – 2 NM B – 3 NM C – 4 NM D – 5 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 62. Where does the intermediate missed approach segment end? A – At the point where the climb is established B – Where the turn towards the IAF is made C – Where 50m obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained D – At 394 ft AGL Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 63. What obstacle clearance is guaranteed in the initial segment? A – 150m (492 ft) B – 300m (984 ft) C – 200m (656 ft) D – Reducing from 300m to 150m Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 64. Where ends the initial missed approach segment? A – At the IAF B – At the point where the climb is established C – At the point where a turn is executed D – When an obstacle clearance of 164 ft is obtained Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 65. The obstacle clearance surfaces of an ILS approach assumes a pilot localiser accuracy of: A – ¼ scale B – ½ scale C – Full scale D – On localiser centre line only Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 66. For a 45/180 procedure turn, what is the outbound leg time for a cat B aircraft? A – 45 sec B – 1 min C – 1 min 15 sec D – 1 min 30 sec Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 67. A missed approach procedure consists of: A – 2 phases B – 3 phases C – 4 phases D – 5 phases Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 68. What is the steepest descent path permitted for a non-precision approach? A – 5% B – 6.5% C – 4.5% D – 3.5% Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 69. What is the maximum gradient for the final approach segment of a non- precision approach? A – 5.0% B – 3.5% C – 3.0% D – 6.5% Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 70. In a procedure turn (45o/180o), a 45o turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for: A – 1 minute 30 seconds B – 1 minute C – 1 minute 15 seconds D – 2 minutes Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 71. What is the lowest possible MDH for a VOR/DME non-precision approach? A – 350 ft B – 250 ft C – 200 ft D – 125 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 72. In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below: A – the OCH B – 200 ft C – 350 ft D – 400 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 73. A CAT 1 operation is a precision approach and landing using an ILS, MLS or PAR with a DH not lower than ___ ft and with a RVR not less than ___ m. A – 250, 800 B – 200, 550 C – 150, 1200 D – 75, 350 Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 74. If a step-down fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to: A – pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory B – follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path C – pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude D – leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPT Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 75. What is the obstacle clearance in the intermediate approach segment? A – 150m (492 ft) B – 300m (984 ft) C – 200m (656 ft) D – Reducing from 300m to 150m Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 76. In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than: A – 6m B – 3m C – 9m  D – 12m Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 77. The initial missed approach segment: A – Begins at the MAPT and ends where the climb is established B – Begins at the threshold and ends at the point where the climb is established C – Begins where the pilot loses the guidance criteria and ends when OCH is passed D – Begins at MDH and ends when 50m OCH is obtained and can be maintained Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 78. During the arrival and initial segments of an instrument procedure, what is the obstacle clearance provided (not in mountainous areas)? A – 300m B – Not less than 300m C – 300m reducing to 150m D – It depends upon the MSA Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 79. In a category A aircraft, what reversing turn manoeuvre takes 2 minutes in still air? A – 80/260 procedure turn B – 45/180 procedure turn C – Base turn D – Racetrack Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 80. Where does the initial sector of a missed approach procedure end?  A – When a height of 50m has been achieved and can be maintained B – When the climb is established C – At the missed approach point D – When en-route either to the hold or to the point of joining route to the alternate Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 81. The obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment is at least: A – 750 ft B – 500 ft C – 1500 ft D – 984 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 82. Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of: A – 2% B – 2.5% C – 5% D – 3.3% Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 83. Which of the following correctly defines the NOZ for parallel runway operations: A – The NOZ extends from runway threshold to the point where aircraft are normally established on the localiser B – the NOZ is the aerodrome ground area where movement of aircraft does not interfere with landing operations C – The NOZ is the airspace in the vicinity of the control tower where ILS operations are conducted D – Both A and B are correct Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 9. According to ICAO (Annex 11), the definition of an RNAV system is: A – one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids only B – one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the specified limits of self-contained on-board systems C – one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the specified lmits of self-contained on-board systems but not a combination of the two D – one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the specified limits of self-contained on-board systems or a combination of the two Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 10. Which of the following is one of the functions of the Course-Line-Computer in a basic Area Navigation (RNAV) system? A – It calculates cross track information for NDB approaches B – It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test programme C – It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the Area-Nav- Mode and continues working by memory in case one of the two necessary stations goes off the air D – It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into tracking and distance indications to any chosen Phantom Station/waypoint Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 11. What are the primary navigation inputs used by RNAV system? A – INS, Mapping Radar, FMC database B – INS, Nav Aids, TAS and Drift C – Nav Aids, INS, FMC database D – Nav Aids, Mapping Radar, FMC database Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 12. Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME- based Area Navigation System Phantom Station: A – because, under adverse conditions (relative bearing to the Phantom Station other than 180o/360o) it takes the computer more time to calculate the necessary information B – when operating at low altitudes close to the limit of reception range from the reference station C – when in the cone of silence overhead the Phantom Station D – when the Phantom Station is out of range Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 13. The required accuracy of a precision RNAV (P-RNAV) system is: A – 0.25 nm standard deviation or better B – 0.5 nm standard deviation or better C – 1 nm standard deviation or better D – 1.5 nm standard deviation or better Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 14. What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 2-dot RNAV system in the approach mode? A – 10 NM B – 0.5o C – 10o D – 0.5 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 15. Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, system? A – Magnetic heading B – Inertial Navigation System (INS) position C – Pressure altitude D – VOR/DME radial/distance Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 16. RNAV routes are: A – usually specified by waypoints co-incident with point source aids such as VOR, DME or NDB facilities B – specified by waypoints defined as a position in latitude and longitude based on the WGS 84 system C – selected according to TCAS inputs D – none of the above are correct Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 17. With regard to RNAV, what are gybrid navigation systems? A – RNAV systems which use and merge information from a selection of self- contained and externally referenced navigation system B – VOR/DME system C – Loran C system D – GNSS Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 18. What is an example of a self contained RNAV system? A – GPS B – DME/DME C – VOR/DME D – INS  Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 19. With VOR/DME basic area navigation, the displacement of the CDI needle represents: A – angular displacement from the course line (eg. 5 dots = 5o off track) B – angular displacement from the course line (eg. 5 dots = 10o off track) C – distance of track (eg. 5 dots = 5 nm off track) D – distance of track (eg. 5 dots = 10 nm off track) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 20. With regard to RNAV, what are phantom or ghost stations? A – Waypoints defined by radials and ranges from suitable VOR/DME facilities B – Spurious waypoints produced by the system when the aircraft exceeds the maximum theoretical range from the VOR facility C – Waypoints which have been lost from the command display unit memory D – Temporary waypoints which are produced when the aircraft is over the cone of confusion of a VOR facility Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 21. The range to a required waypoint presented by RNAV system is: A – plan range or slant range depending on RNAV settings B – plan range C – slant range D – neither plan range nor slant range Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 22. (Refer to figure 062-13) Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DME bsed Area Navigation Equipment when using a ‘Phantom Station’ at position ‘X’? A – 11 NM B – 14 NM C – 8 NM D – 9 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 23. (Refer to figure 062-14) Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation Equipment when using a ‘Phantom Station’? A – 12 NM B – 21 NM C – 10 NM D – 11 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 24. (Refer to figure 062-13) Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation Equipment when using a ‘Phantom Station’ at position ‘X’? A – 8 NM B – 11 NM C – 14 NM D – 9 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 25. Apart from radials and distances from VOR/DME stations, what information is required by the VOR/DME Area Navigation computer in order to calculate the wind? A – Heading from the aircraft compass system and true airspeed from the air data computer B – True airspeed from the air data computer C – Heading from the aircraft compass system D – Vertical speed from the air data computer Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 26. In an FMS, how does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system obtain DME information? A – the pilot tunes the closest VOR/DME stations within range on the VOR/DME Area navigation control panel B – The VOR/DME Area Navigation system has its own VHF NAV tuner and the system itself tunes the DME stations providing the best angular position lines C – The VOR/DME Area Navigation system uses whatever stations are tuned on the aircraft’s normal VHF NAV selector D – The VOR/DME Area Navigation System has its own VHF NAV tuner and it always tunes the DME stations closest to the aircraft position Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 27. In order to enter a phantom waypoint that is designed by a VOR/DME simple RNAV system, the VOR/DME A – has to be positively identified by one of the pilots B – does not have to be in range when entered or used C – must be in range D – does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 28. On what data is a VOR/DME Area Navigation system operating in the dead reckoning mode? A – Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs; TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass B – TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass C – Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs D – TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass; the last computed W/V Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 29. Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system switch to Dead Reckoning mode? A – VOR/DME Area Navigation Computer is not receiving information from the Air Data Computer B – VOR/DME Area Navigation Computer is receiving neither radial nor distance data information from VOR/DME stations C – VOR/DME Area Navigation Computer is not receiving information from the aircraft compass system D – When ‘DR’ is selected by the pilot Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 30. Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system switch to Dead Reckoning mode? A – The system is receiving information from only one VOR B – The system is receiving information from one VOR and one DME C – The system is receiving information from one VOR and two DMEs D – The system is receiving information from the two DMEs Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 31. Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR/DME- based Area Navigation System when tracking inbound to a phantom waypoint? A – Wind velocity B – Aircraft position in latitude and longitude C – Crosstrack distance; alongtrack distance D – True airspeed; drift angle Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 32. When operating in an RNAV mode using multiple DME, inaccuracy can be due to: A – Sky wave interference B – Mutual interference between the DMEs C – Inability to confirm the aircraft is within the DOC of the DMEs because of identification problems D – The DMEs locking onto each other’s returns Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 33. An aircraft, using 2D RNAV computer, is 12 nm from the phantom station, 25 nm from the VOR/DME designating the phantom station and thephantom station is 35 nm from the VOR/DME. The range read out in the aircraft will be: A – 12 nm B – 25 nm plan range C – 35 nm D – 25 nm slant range Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A