IPA 1 State Mock Exam PDF

IPA 1 STATE MOCK EXAM 1. If an officer is found guilty of sexual abuse against a minor, what would happen to the officer’s certification? A. Suspension of up to two years B. Revocation of certification C. Probation of up to two years D. Written reprimand 2. _...

IPA 1 STATE MOCK EXAM 1. If an officer is found guilty of sexual abuse against a minor, what would happen to the officer’s certification? A. Suspension of up to two years B. Revocation of certification C. Probation of up to two years D. Written reprimand 2. __________ to uphold the law through the investigation of violations of criminal law; to protect the United States from foreign intelligence and terrorist activities. A. CBP B. ICE C. FBI D. DOT 3. Which statement is most accurate about case law? A. The body of law is formed by the decisions of the court system B. Court-imposed decisions are based on the cases interpretation of cases provisions, and they clarify the meaning of the cases, rules, and statues C. Pertains to a legal action a person takes to resolve a private dispute with another person. D. Defines the form of government we as Americans have established for ourselves. 4. These rights, such as freedom of speech, protection against unreasonable searches and seizures, and prohibition of cruel and unusual punishment, are described in the first then amendments to the Constitution, which are known as the ___________________? A. First Amendment B. Second Amendment C. Fourth Amendment D. Bill of Rights 5. The ________ guarantees the right to a speedy and public trial, and counsel, an impartial jury, to be informed of the nature of charges, and to confront witnesses. A. Fifth Amendment B. Second Amendment C. Fourth Amendment D. Sixth Amendment 6. 15 years imprisonment with a fine of $10,000 or both applies to which classification of offenses? A. Life Felony  st B. Felony 1 Degree nd C. Felony 2 Degree rd D. Felony 3 Degree 7. At 3:00 AM Officer Dennis was patrolling the streets when he came encountered with a male wearing a university hoody over his head with an object in his hands walking towards the dorms, when Officer Dennis approached the male he began to walk faster and not look back, based on what legal concept can Officer Dennis detain the male? A. Mere suspicion B. Stop C. Probable Cause Stop D. Reasonable suspicion 8. Under the Stop and Frisk law, an _______________ may be made only if the officer has reasonable suspicion that the person stopped was committing, is committing, or is about to commit a law violation. A. Reasonable Suspicion B. Investigative Stop C. Terry Stop D. Mere Suspicion 9. __________________ is the standard of justification needed to support a legal Terry stop or investigative detention. Simply means that an officer can articulate, or pThe ut into words, facts that support a suspicion that the person stopped was involved in a law violation. A. Mere Suspicion B. Probable Cause C. Investigative Stop D. Reasonable Suspicion 10. Which statement is most accurate about pretext stops? A. An officer can stop the vehicle due to equipment violation but really wants to investigate other, more serious criminal activity. B. An officer can stop a car without having probable cause or reasonable suspicion since the officer knows that inside the car there is drugs C. An officer can conduct a pretext stop due to mere suspicion D. Pretext stops violate the Fourth Amendment 11. During the court hearing of Jason Jones, the officer admitted to illegally obtaining evidence against Mr. Jones, due to the violation of the constitution which rule did the officer violate? A. The Good Faith Doctrine B. Search Warrant C. Affidavit  D. Exclusionary rule 12. Which of the following can an officer make an arrest which did not occur in his or her presence? A. Jumping into a park after hours B. Act of Domestic Violence C. Digging up fossils from an archaeological site D. Stealing from a construction site 13. Which negligence reaches the level of criminal responsibility. A. Transferred Intent B. General Intent C. Specific Intent D. Culpable Negligence 14. The state must prove the following elements to convict a suspect of _____________? 1. The offender knowingly and unlawfully obtained or used or endeavored to obtain or use the property of another. 2. The offender did so with intent, either temporarily or permanently, to deprive victim of his or her rights to the property or any benefit from it with the intent to deprive the victim of it use, or appropriate the property of the victim to his or her own use of the use of any person not entitle to it. A. Retail Theft B. Trespassing C. Burglary D. Theft 15. The state must prove the following elements to convict a suspect of ___________? 1. The offender entered and/or remained in a structure or conveyance owned by or in the possession of the victim. 2. The offender did not have the permission or consent of the victim, or anyone authorized to act for the victim, to enter and/or remain in the structure or conveyance at the time. 3. At the time of entering and/or remaining in the structure or conveyance, the offender had a fully formed, conscious intent to commit the crime that is listed in the charge. A. Elements of Trespass –In Structure or conveyance B. Elements of Trespass-On Property Other than a structure of conveyance C. Elements of Burglary D. Elements of Theft 16. The state must prove the following elements to convict a suspect of ________________? 1. The offender willfully entered or remained in structure or conveyance alleged, or having been authorized, licensed, or invited to enter or remain in structure or conveyance alleged, willfully refused to depart after having been warned by owner or lessee or person authorized by the owner or lessee alleged to depart.  2. The structure or conveyance alleged was in the lawful possession of person alleged. 3. The offender’s entering or remaining in the property was without the permission, expressed or implied, of the person alleged or any other person authorized to give that permission. A. Elements of Trespass -On Property Other than a structure or Conveyance B. Elements of Burglary C. Elements of Theft D. Elements of Trespass- In Structure or Conveyance 17. The state must prove the following elements to convict a suspect of ______________? 1. The offender intentionally and unlawfully threatened, either by word or act, to do violence to the victim. 2. At the time, the offender appeared to have the ability to carry out the threat. 3. The act of the offender created in the mind of the victim a well-founded fear that the violence was about to take place. A. Elements of Aggravated Assault B. Elements of Battery C. Elements of Assault D. Elements of Aggravated Assault 18. The state must prove the following elements to convict a suspect of _______________? 1. The offender intentionally and unlawfully threatened, either by word or act, to do violence to the victim. 2. At the time, the offender appeared to have the ability to carry out the threat. 3. The act of the offender created in the mind of the victim a well-founded fear that the violence was about to take place. 4. The victim was at the time a law enforcement officer, firefighter, emergency medical care provider, law enforcement explorer, public transit employee or agent, or other specified officer. 5. The offender knew the victim was a law enforcement officer, firefighter, employee or agent, or other specified officer. 6. At the time of the assault, the victim was engaged in the lawful performance of his duties. A. Elements of Assault B. Elements of Assault on Law Enforcement Officer or Firefighter C. Elements of Aggravated Battery D. Elements of Battery on a Law Enforcement Officer or Firefighter 19. The state must prove the following elements to convict a suspect of ___________________? 1. The offender actually and intentionally touched or struck the victim against the victim’s will. 2. The offender intentionally caused bodily harm to the victim. A. Elements of Assault  B. Elements of Burglary C. Elements of Battery D. Elements of Aggravated Battery 20. Who does domestic violence pertain to? A. Family or Household members B. Coworkers C. Neighbors D. Friends 21. On February 17, 2012 Alex and his friends planned to stage a burglary at Alex’s house. Alex told his friends that he would take his parents out to dinner while they would burglarize his parents home and take their TV and expensive jewelry. Once the burglary would take place Alex and his friends promised to share the money. What is Alex’s role in this staged crime? A. Accessory after the fact B. Principal in the first degree C. Accessory D. Suspect 22. A woman picked up someone else’s luggage at the airport that was identical to hers. She has no criminal intent to steal it, it was a mistake. What legal defense applies to the woman? A. Alibi B. Duress or Coercion C. Mistake or Ignorance of fact D. Entrapment 23. Examples such as drugs, a gun, clothing, or money would be considered what type of evidence? A. Testimonial Evidence B. Documentary Evidence C. Physical Evidence D. Fruits of a crime 24. Law enforcement officers are also authorized to use reasonable and necessary force to effect an ___________________? A. Stop B. Probable Cause Stop C. Suspicious Stop D. Investigative Stop 25. Which statement does not apply to ethical decision making? A. Is there a less harmful alternative? B. Will I be able to justify my action if my decision is made public?  C. Will what I plan to do actually work? D. Can I get away with what I am about to do? 26. During a traffic stop, the officer has probable cause to believe that the driver is under the influence, therefore the officer is placing the suspect under arrest for DUI, the officer places the handcuffs on the suspect and tells the suspect to walk to the back of the car. Once the suspect began to walk the suspect fell and hurt himself since he could not break his fall. Under what tort can the suspect try to sue the officer? A. False Imprisonment B. Negligence C. Conversion D. False Arrest 27. Which is most accurate about FCIC? A. Provides Wanted and missing persons information B. Located in Phoenix, Arizona C. Is limited to statewide information D. Is maintained by the FBI 28. Officer Dennis ran the suspects information through FCIC/NCIC, the search came back with a hit, the suspect has a warrant. What must the officer first do? A. Place the suspect in his patrol car B. Place the suspect in handcuffs C. Confirm the warrant D. Release the suspect 29. Which statement is most accurate? A. The officer must remember that FCIC/NCIC does not forbid showing citizens any information on MDT. B. One of the biggest problems with the MDT is the distraction it cases while an officer is driving and trying to read or input information in the MDT. C. Officers should move to the slowest lane when responding to MDT. D. MDT stands for Mobile Data Transfer 30. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) prohibits person using police radios, including communications center personnel and law enforcement officers, from committing the following acts: A. Transmitting nonessential or excessive signals, messages, or communication B. Accidentally damaging the radio apparatuses C. Using it for emergencies D. Taking it to an agency-authorized technician for repairs 31. The ___________ of the interview is the warm-up. During this stage, the officer will establish rapport and build understanding with the interviewee and him or herself.  A. Primary Stage B. First Stage C. Second Stage D. Initial Stage 32. _______________ is a technique in which the interviewer acts as if he or she is looking in a mirror and seeing him-or herself as the interviewee. Thus, the interviewer should assume the interviewee’s posture and repeat what the person is saying, using a questioning tone to obtain clarification or a more detailed response. A. Minimal encouragers B. Mirroring C. Brief Statements D. Mirror Interview 33. Which statement is most accurate? A. A person may object to taking an oath beach of a religious matters. B. Affirmation does not replace an oath. C. An oath may no be invoked. D. Sworn statements are admissible in court if the witness is also in court. 34. The _______________ prepares the offense-incident report. A. Supervisor B. Secondary Officer C. Cover Officer D. Primary Officer 35. Operational reports are generally linked to three major categories: offense-incident reports, arrest affidavits, and ___________________ or follow-up reports. A. Witness testimonies B. Statements from suspects C. Statements from victims D. Supplemental 36. Organizing _________________ means sorting information by date and time from the first event to the last. A. Categorically B. In order C. Narrative D. Chronologically 37. Which statement is most accurate? A. Officer should be patient because it may take extra time for a person with a disability to say,  do or show something. B. Individuals with disabilities have more rights than everyone else. C. The officer should physically assist an individual with a disability without talking to him or her first. D. Officers should not be able to recognize people with disabilities and know how to interact appropriately. 38. A female keeps claiming to a police officer that she is hearing voices and sees pink elephants. What thought disorder is the female suffering from? A. Hallucination B. Personality disorder C. Major Depression D. Bipolar disorder 39. Which statement is most accurate? A. Baker Act and Marchman Act only applies to adults. B. Baker Act and Marchman Act applies to juveniles as well. C. The subject must be examined for 48 hours of arrival upon admission. D. There are three types of mental retardation. 40. Factors that place the elderly at risk for suicide include debilitating physical illnesses, often accompanied by severe pain, the death of a loved one, the loss of independence, and ___________________? A. Afraid B. Fear C. Embarrassed D. Financial inadequacy 41. Who do you report elder abuse too? A. Florida Abuse Registry Hotline B. Florida Elder Help Line C. DCF D. Florida Elder Abuse 42. Herbal, Resin, and Hash oil are three forms of _________________? A. Alcohol B. Cocaine C. HGN D. Cannabis 43. The following apply to which type of substance: razor blades, dilated pupils? A. Cocaine/Crack  B. Heroin C. Cannabis D. Alcohol 44. The following apply to which type of substance: hypodermic needles, bottle caps, razors? A. Cocaine/Crack B. Heroin C. Cannabis D. Alcohol 45. Community Oriented Policing has two core components? A. Community partnerships & governmental representatives B. Law enforcement & communities C. Community partnerships & problem solving D. Problem solving & LEOS 46. The first A in SARA model means____________? A. Analysis B. Assessment C. Asphalt D. Academic 47. An officer must gather and analyze information to understand a situation before proceeding. A. Safety B. Understanding C. Ethics D. Evaluation 48. True survival readiness involves _____________? A. Firearms, hazards, first aid B. Practical preparedness, firearm proficiency, and first aid skills C. Firearms, practical, defensive tactics D. Defensive Tactics, Vehicle Operation, Firearms proficiency 49. Factors that depend on an individual’s likes or dislikes. A. Self-induced stressors B. Personal Stressors C. Stressors D. Work-related stressors 50. Which statement is most accurate?  A. While patrolling on foot during the day, officers should use sidewalks in order to be high visible and observe surrounding more efficiently. At night officers should keep close to buildings, which allows them to inspect interiors while concealed in shawdows. B. Usually the least effective patrolling combination is vehicle and foot patrol. C. Patrolling the communities is better than foot patrol. D. Disadvantages of foot patrol are high visibility and observing activity in specific areas. 51. Usually the primary officer on the call is the ____________ ? A. Cover Officer B. Contact Officer C. Backup Officer D. Supervisor Officer 52. Before transport begins, the officer should call dispatch and provide? A. The beginning and ending mileage B. The starting point C. The ending point D. Every street name they pass 53. Where is the safest place to stand when an officer is directing traffic at an intersection? A. Center of an intersection B. Shoulder C. Side D. Behind his patrol car 54. Why should officers wait for backup in order to conduct a building search? A. Because it is an unknown area and its better to have a thorough and methodical serach. B. An officer should not wait for backup and always enter a building alone C. An officer should not usek-9 if available. D. An officer can gain access to the property for the owner and clear the building with the owner. 55. Why is an inventory conducted? A. To protect the vehicle and contents, safeguard the agency and others from danger, and protect officers and custodians against false claims of loss or damage. B. To collect evidence C. To protect the owners fruit of crime D. To collect burglary tools 56. Which statement is most accurate? A. Assessing the crowd should be done immediately. B. Never assess the crowd with backup.  C. The size and organization of a crowd influences whether an officer confronts it. D. The crowds mood does not play a significant role. 57. Which statement is most accurate? A. Many MS-13 members sport numerous tattoos on their bodies and faces wear blue and white, the colors of the El Salvadoran Flag. B. MS-13 are all located in El Salvador C. MS-13 gang is not violent, however are aggressive and place threats towards law enforcement officers. D. MS-13 is not the most feared in the United States. 58. Anything that hold two or more classes of hazardous materials must display he ___________ placard. A. HAZARD B. DANGEROUS C. TOXIC D. FLAMMABILITY 59. Facility markings have four segments in each area a number indicates the 0 has __________ and 4 indicates the ____________. A. No hazard, Highest hazard B. Highest Hazard, No Hazard C. Worst Hazard, Least Hazard D. Least Hazard, Worst Hazard 60. If an officer sees a bomb the officer should____________? A. Approach the bomb and denote it. B. Leave the premises right way and not setup a perimeter. C. Place the bomb in a safe place and contact the bomb squad. D. The occupants should be evacuated, and the officer should leave the premises immediately. 61. A common policy or rule is to be out of a building at least __________ during a bomb threat? A. 1 Hour B. 15 Minutes C. 30 Minutes D. 50 minutes 62. If an officer finds a device he should also_____________________? A. Observe any names, labels, placards, chemical symbols, or signs indicating the type of explosive. B. Identify it, move it to a safe place, and then immediately evacuate C. Set up a perimeter and evacuate for 1 hour and then call bomb squad  D. Call bomb squad and leave the scene and let them handle it 63. A general safe distance for the initial perimeter is ___________ feet with protective cover. A. 600 feet B. 30 feet C. 300 feet D. 200 feet 64. Which statement is most accurate about a biological attack? A. Scheduled spraying distribution B. Diseases that do not cause a non-pulmonary syndrome C. An unscheduled or unusual distribution of sprayed material D. People with symptoms of stomach pain and coughing up blood 65. The officer posted at the crime scene access point must document what in the crime scene log? A. Agency’s name, LEOs name, Rank, Time B. Name, Rank, Agency of each person entering or leaving the scene, date and time of the person’s entry or exit, and the reason the person was at the scene C. Evidence collected, name, time, date, rank, agency D. Agency, Name, Rank, Time, Department, Evidence 66. Tire tracks are what type of evidence? A. Trace Evidence B. Impression Evidence C. Firearms Evidence D. Street Evidence 67. Usually used outside by several people. The search area is divided into lanes that are searched by one or more people in both directions until the entire area has been examined. A. Spiral search pattern B. Strip/line search pattern C. Grid search pattern D. Zone/quadrant search pattern 68. What side of the fingerprint card should the date, case number, location within the crime scene where you retrieved the fingerprint and any other information should be written? A. Front B. Back C. Side D. Top Front 69. _____________ is the most common method of surveying.  A. Bird’s eye-view B. Triangulation C. Sketching D. Legend of symbols 70. It may be necessary for an officer to return in _______ to take additional pictures of the victim to fully document any bruising. A. 24-36 B. 24-48 C. 12-24 D. 36-48 71. An officer arrives at a scene and a mother has a child custody court order from Florida and the father has a child custody court order from California, what should the officer do? A. Obey the mother’s court order B. Obey the father’s court order C. Maintain status quo, contact a supervisor, and follow agency policy and procedure D. Tell the parents that you cannot help them 72. Injunction for Protection Against Domestic Violence is for persons who meet the statutory definition of __________________? A. Friends and family B. Family or household member C. Neighbors D. Coworkers 73. _________________ is the intentional act resulting in or the intentional infliction of physical or mental injury upon a child. A. Child Abuse B. Aggravated child abuse C. Child and Services violation D. Child neglect 74. Which of the following is a behavior that can indicate child abuse? A. Child shows affection and love B. Child wants to go home C. Acts violently or aggressively D. Smiles consistently and cannot stop laughing 75. ____________________transpires when someone knowingly, by deception or intimidation, obtains or uses a disabled adult’s or elderly person’s funds, assets or property. A. Elderly person  B. Exploitation of a disabled adult or elderly person C. Disabled person D. Adult protective services acts 76. Abused or neglected disabled adults or elderly person have which of the following reactions? A. Uncertainty B. Reassurance C. Fear D. Content 77. In most cases of SIDS, the infants’ skin is altered (_______________________) which may give the appearance of bruising. A. Mottled, blue, or gray B. Blue, gray, bruised C. Contusion and swelling D. Bruising and swelling 78. The officer should scan the area surrounding the possible dead body for potential hazards or evidence by performing a _______ visual sweep within the perimeter. A. 120 B. 180 C. 390 D. 360 79. Lividity is noticeable within 30 minutes and fixed ______ hours after death. A. 8 B. 10 C. 12 D. 24 80. Which of the following is where an officer can find trafficked victims? A. Dressing Parlor B. Nail Salons C. Supermarkets D. Cruise Ships 81. An officer arrives at a scene and the grandmother that was taking care of her grandchild is missing. She went inside the house to get her phone and when she came out of the house the child was no longer in the front yard. Where should the officer begin his search for the child? A. Inside the house B. Inside the child’s room C. In the front yard  D. Around the neighborhood 82. Which of the following questions should an officer ask the victim of sexual battery act? A. Did you climax? B. Will you take a polygraph? C. Did you enjoy it? D. Where did the sexual battery occur? 83. Crimes motivated by or evidencing prejudice or discrimination impose _______________? A. Tougher penalties B. Stiffer penalties C. Harsher penalties D. Penalties 84. Which statement is most accurate? A. Officers should never ask the victim if he or she knows why he or she was victimized. B. At all times, the officer should perform his or her duties professionally and never belittle or make light of a situation. C. Hate crimes have 3 different types of charges. D. Statements and physical evidence are not very significant to hate crimes. 85. Urinating in public is ___________? A. Exposure of sexual organs B. Disorderly intoxication C. Disorderly conduct D. Loitering 86. ________________ is a willful, malicious crime where the offender injures or damages property belonging to another. A. Criminal Mischief B. Property destruction C. Damaged property D. Vandalism 87. Which of the following is a vice crime? A. Selling magazines B. Selling movies C. Selling medication D. Alcohol and tobacco violations 88. A male goes into a grocery store and walks out with 24 beer cans without paying what would you charge the male with?  A. Grand theft B. Theft C. Petit Theft D. Burglary 89. A ____________ is an official court proceeding in which sworn testimony regarding the facts of the case is provided to one of the attorneys (defense or prosecutor) prior to trial. A. Deposition B. Disposition C. Sworn statements D. Statements 90. When the ___________ ends, the attorney will ask if the officer wishes to read the transcribed or types deposition or waive the review. A. Deposition B. Disposition C. Sworn statements D. Statements 91. A defense counsel may use _____________ to try to give the impression that an officer is inept, unreliable, or lacking confidence. A. Harsh comment B. Condescension C. Improper language D. The wrong name 92. During a traffic stop when does the officer-driver interaction begins? A. When he pulls them over B. When the officer gets down from his vehicle and walks over to the car C. Signals the driver to stop D. When dispatch is notified 93. If an officer is using a radar or watching an intersection for traffic light violators, where should the officer position his vehicle? A. Where it does not obstruct traffic flow but can enter the roadway quickly and safely to make a necessary stop B. On the shoulder of the intersection C. In a park D. In the center of the intersection 94. An officer just observed a vehicle take a red light, the officer is going to conduct a traffic stop what should he first do?  A. Pull over the vehicle B. Contact dispatch C. Maneuver the vehicle through traffic and follow the vehicle D. Let the vehicle go since the camera took a picture of his tag 95. Which of the following is a major consideration when selecting the safest proper location to make a stop? A. The darkness B. The size of the road C. Lighting D. Snow 96. An officer pulls over a vehicle to conduct a traffic stop the officer realizes that there is a pop ignition, what should the officer do? A. Go back to the vehicle and notify dispatch B. Call for backup and assess the situation C. Continue the traffic stop D. Immediately place the driver under arrest 97. An officer gave a citation to a driver however the driver is refusing to sign, what should the officer do? A. Stress that signing is not an admission of guilt and that if he refuses again it might result in an arrest B. Arrest the driver immediately C. Read the driver his rights and tell him to sign D. Read the driver his Miranda rights and take him to jail 98. Throughout the traffic stop, the officer should maintain a___________ and ____________ manner with the driver and passengers. A. Professional and courteous B. Rude and Patient C. Patient & courteous D. Professional and patient 99. The number one crime resulting in death in the United states is _________________? A. Drunk driving B. Impaired driving C. Traffic crashes D. Drugs and alcohol 100. An officer conducted a breathalyzer and gave the driver a Uniform Traffic Citation, which of the  following would be the appropriate level since the officer cited the driver with a UTC? A. 0.08 B. 0.09 C..10 D. 0.06 ​ 101. Which of the following is a visual cue of a drunk driver? A. Making proper signals to turn B. Straddling a lane line C. Driving straight D. Making proper turns on every corner 102. Which of the following is a clue of the walk and turn test? A. Steps off line B. Walks straight on the line C. Person keeps front foot on the line while turning D. Person does not uses arms 103. If Vertical Gaze Nystagmus is present and Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus is not, it could be a _________________? A. Medical Illness B. Brain Correction C. Medical Condition D. Mental Condition 104. Is the point at which the vehicles or other objects are crushed together to the greatest extent is defined as______________? A. Disengagement B. Final Rest C. Maximum Engagement D. Point of no escape 105. Which of the following is an example of short-lived evidence? A. Tire prints B. Sight distances C. Grade or slope D. Roadway dimensions 106. __________________ is damage to a vehicle other than contact damage, often occurring as bending, breaking, crumpling, and distortion of the vehicle. A. Pre-existing damage  B. Induced Damage C. Vehicle dynamics D. Concluded damage 107. A ________________ is the black marks left by a tire that is sliding and not free to rotate. A. Intermittent skid B. Skip skid C. Scuff D. Skid mark 108. A ____________ is a mark left by a tire that is rolling over a soft material such as sand, dirt, or a liquid such as oil on a hard surface and leaves an identifiable pattern matching the tread of the tire. A. Acceleration scuff mark B. Furrow mark C. Abs scuff mark D. Tire print 109. If an officer determines that the driver needs to be retested what should the officer do? A. Provide a short narrative explaining the reason for the retest, and confirm their contact information B. Conduct the retest on sight C. Send her to the doctor D. Send her to DHSMV 110. Officer Dennis is driving his vehicle down a street and his vehicle is pulling to the right and he is experience vibration in the steering wheel, which tire is most likely the problem? A. Back right B. Front Right C. Left Front D. Back Left 111. Which car has most stability? A. Van B. Truck C. Sport SUV D. Passenger Car 112. An officer is driving down a road on a sunny day with very little traffic congestion which rule should he follow? A. Four second rule B. Two second rule  C. One car and a half of space D. One car space in between 113. When does weight transfer and distribution occur? A. When the vehicle brakes B. When the vehicle starts speeding C. When the vehicle’s speed changes and influences the vehicle’s handling ability D. When the car is on four six inch squares 114. An incipient skid happens just before the tires and lose traction during____________? A. Acceleration B. Braking C. Driving D. A turn 115. When recovering from a slide in order to avoid a secondary slide what should the officer do? A. Remove the foot from the gas pedal to stop accelerating B. Brake immediately C. Brake then accelerate D. Accelerate and turn in the direction you want to go 116. Driving in ____________ requires less steering input to produce a larger change in direction. A. Straight B. Reverse C. Forward D. Backwards 117. _________________ turns the vehicle’s front tires in the direction you want to go. A. Vehicle cornering B. Counter steering C. Slide D. Trade Marks 118. Which statement is most accurate? A. The most common night driving error is to under drive the distance the vehicle’s headlights project. B. At night, peripheral vision decreases. Less light narrows the field of vision. C. The high intensity of the emergency lights does not easily reflect off objects. D. Use your high beams in order to prevent oncoming traffic crashes. 119. An officer should always offset his or her vehicle to the ________ of the available roadway but within his or her lane.  A. Side B. Left C. Right D. Diagonal 120. A _______________ is the use of vehicle’s, barricades, cones, or other objects to block traffic flow completely. A. Tire-deflation devices B. Pursuit Immobilization Technique C. Pursuit reporting D. Roadblock 121. Consent that is clearly and unmistakably stated, such as verbal or physical assertion of the affirmative is considered what type of consent? A. Implied consent B. Informed consent C. Expressed consent D. Consent 122. How should an officer removes his gloves? A. Pull each finger out of the glove B. Grab by the rim and then use your dirty glove to take the other one off C. Get new gloves and put them over the dirty ones D. Remove by inserting your ungloved fingers inside the cuff on the palm side without touching the outside of the glove and pushing or rolling the glove off the fingers 123. If you have an unconscious patient where should you check their pulse? A. Carotid B. Femoral C. Radial D. Brachial 124. I you have a conscious patient where should you check their pulse? A. Carotid B. Femoral C. Radial D. Brachial 125. The size up consists of what four components? A. Scene safety, mechanism of injury or nature of illness, the number of victims, and the need for additional rescuers and special equipment B. Equipment, firearms, first aid, evidence  C. First aid, cpr, number of victims, mechanism of inury D. Nature of illness, cpr, number of victims, safety 126. An officer arrives at a scene and sees a person laying on the ground what are some good signs of the patients efforts? A. Blue skin, unequal breathing B. Chest falls, purple, wet skin C. Good skin color and effortless breathing characterize adequate breathing D. Adequate breathing, unequal chest rises 127. Application of physical restraints can contribute when a subject is placed face down, with his or her chest on a hard surface, arms restrained behind his or her back, and let in this position for a significant period of time. This could result in an in-custody death. Which of the following words defines this statement? A. shock B. Heart attack C. Positional asphyxia D. Recovery position 128. During a START an officer comes across a person that has his respiratory rate at 43/min what should you classify the patient as? A. Red B. Yellow C. Green D. Black 129. Open wound caused by scarping, shearing away, or rubbing the outermost skin layer is best defined as? A. Laceration B. Avulsion C. Abrasion D. Amputation 130. Bright red blood spurs from a wound, indicating a severed or damaged artery is best defined as? A. Venous bleeding B. Capillary bleeding C. Arterial bleeding D. Internal bleeding 131. A ______________ is a type of closed chest injury. It occurs when two or more adjacent ribs are fractured in two or more places and become free floating. A. Open chest wound B. Close chest wound  C. Flail Chest D. Sucking chest wound 132. An officer arrived at a scene and a male’s genital area has been injured hat should the officer have the male do? A. Use a trauma dressing to apply direct pressure and a cold pack to the area B. Place a bandage C. Press down on it with a towel D. Use a tourniquet 133. Damage to all skin layers is what degree? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth 134. An officer arrived at a scene and a female has severe burns what should the officer do until paramedics have arrived? A. Leave the clothing stuck to the burn and cover it with dry sterile dressing B. Apply pressure C. Remove the clothing D. Apply ice 135. A person is suffering from heatstroke, what should the officer do? A. Have the patient stand up B. Sit the patient down C. Place patient on his or her back with legs elevated D. Wet the patient head to toe 136. Which statement is most accurate? A. A safe direction is generally muzzle pointed down at a 45 degree angle B. Memory should be relied on when it comes to whether a gun is loaded or not C. Only physically check your firearm. D. Safety is the most common cause of firearms accidents. 137. Revolvers should be carried by the __________? A. Handle B. Top of their frames C. Muzzle D. Trigger 138. Where can markings be found that indicate caliber or gauge and identify manufacturer?  A. Shot B. Primer C. Case D. Headstamp 139. Dimple or depression in the case; the case looks like someone struck it with a hard object, crushing part of it inward. A. Scrape B. Dent C. Corrosion D. Puncture 140. The prone position is steadier than standing and kneeling positions, easier to assume, and presents a lower profile. Which firearm does this statement apply to? A. Glock B. Revolver C. Shotgun D. Semiautomatic Rifle/ Carbine 141. When loading a semiautomatic pistol how should the officer load the magazine? A. Push the magazine into the magazine well with enough force to lock the magazine into place. B. Shove it hard so it stays C. Place your finger on the side and push it up D. Push it up and make sure it clicks 142. Choose cover that gives you the most options, such as cover that positions you to use your shooting hand rather than your support hand or cover that enables you to change heights or shooting stances. A. Size B. Density C. Location D. Versatility 143. _____________ is discontinuing a command or physical use of force, for example, by breaking away from a subject. A. Disengagement B. De-escalation C. Escalation D. Compliance 144. The subject refuses to move at the officer’s direction is what type of subject resistance level? A. Passive  B. Active C. Aggressive D. Deadly force 145. ________________ is achieving compliance or custody through the use of empty-hand or leverage-enhanced techniques, such as pain compliance, transporters, restraint devices, takedowns, and striking techniques. A. Physical control B. Nonlethal Weapon C. Deadly force D. Aggressive control 146. After a healthy night’s sleep, there is usually a memory recovery which will results in remembering the majority of what occurred. This memory is probably the most pure. Within 72 hours, the final and most complete form of memory recovery will occur, but it will be at least partially reconstructed. A. Positional Asphyxia B. Balance C. Balance displacement D. Critical incident amnesia 147. A full transfer of kinetic energy that increases the power of he strike best defines? A. Joint manipulation B. Pain compliance C. Fluid Shock Principle D. Mechanical compliance 148. If the officer has visual control of the subjects hands what distance should be kept? A. 25 feet B. 10-12 feet C. 6-9 feet D. 8-12 fet 149. Usually the first step in controlling the subjects actions is ____________? A. Physical control B. Verbal direction C. Touch D. Passive resistance 150. The two pain components of pressure point techniques are as follows: A. Touch pressure & compliance  B. Pain & compliance C. Touch pressure & stabilization D. Compliance & stabilization 151. ____________ are techniques used to bring a resisting subject from a standing position to the ground making it easier to control person. A. Takedown B. Shin Scrape C. Fallout D. Handcuff 152. _______ properly reduces the potential for injury and minimizes the stunning effect associated with falling, so you can assume an effective defensive position. A. Falling B. Shoulder Roll C. Front fall D. Rear Fall 153. Which of the following is a possible effects from a dart firing stun gun? A. Tingling sensation B. Voluntary muscle contractions C. Burning sensation D. Feeling cold 154. If a flammable chemical spray has been deployed on a subject, the dart firing stun gun might cause the subject to suffer from what? A. Burns and fire B. Ice cold feeling C. Heat D. Death 155. A suspect has been shot with a dart firing stun gun, but shows no signs of injuries; the suspect can sustain injuries if he or she were to _________? A. Fall B. Jump C. Stand still D. Run 156. Normally used for bird hunting or practice; this shell has a load of small diameter lead or steel shot pellets; used for training purposes is best defined as? A. Rifled slug B. Double-aught buckshot  C. Birdshot D. Blank round 157. The failure of an officer to act or failure to act is best defined as? A. Breach of duty B. Breach of peace C. Bruising D. Neglect 158. Located in the brain and spinal cord; components are the body’s mainframe computer where all communication and control originate is best defined as ? A. Circulatory system B. Closed chest injury C. Caster effect D. Central nervous system 159. A turn that gets tighter during the turn much like a circle getting smaller is best defined as? A. Increasing radius B. Constant radius C. Decreasing radius D. Depth perception 160. Caused by oxygen deprivation to part of the heart, typically from a blocked blood vessel is best defined as? A. Shock B. Heart attack C. Hematoma D. Flail Chest 161. Used when preparing to engage or disengage from a subject in close proximity is best defined as ? A. Rear step B. Slide Step C. Side Step D. Front Step 162. Connects the fetus and the mother; provide nourishment best defines? A. Umbilical cord B. Uterus C. Sack D. Placenta 163. Results when the trigger finger pulls the trigger straight back with increasing yet constant and steady pressure until the firearm discharges is best defined as? A. Trigger control B. Follow-through C. Stance D. Touch 164. To give, offer, or promise a benefit or gift to a person in order to influence that person to a certain course of action is best defined as? A. Bribery B. Values C. Perjury D. Ethical values 165. A type of stress that continues for a long period is best defined as? A. Long term stress B. Chronic stress C. Short term stress D. Acute Stress 166. The legal action a person takes to resolve a dispute with another person is best defined as? A. Criminal Law B. Civil Law C. Civil Liability D. Criminal Liability 167. The standards of conduct based on moral duties and virtues that are derived from the principles of right and wrong is best defined as? A. Ethical principles B. Ethical Values C. Values D. Ethics 168. Principled, value-based decision making is best defined as? A. Ethical behavior B. Ethics C. Values D. Principles 169. The types of cases in which the court can make decisions is best defined as? A. Jurisdiction  B. Borderlines C. Jargon D. Gouge 170. A failure to follow orders from superiors in the chain of command is best defined as? A. Intent B. Intoxication C. Insubordination D. Versatility 171. Any locally applied law; statue enacted by municipal is best defined as? A. Ordinance B. Law C. City law D. Statue 172. The accidental or intentional use of a dangerously large amount of a substance is best defined as? A. Physical abuse B. Psychological abuse C. Overdose D. Disengagement 173. The labeling of people either positively or negatively based on generalizations about their gender, race, ethnicity, religion, or other characteristic is best defined as? A. Prejudice B. Hate crime C. Stereotyping D. Harassment 174. Informal, nonstandard words often characterized by regional or specific group usage is best defined as? A. Jargon B. Slang C. Hip talk D. Self Talk 175. A person who can both receive and express information and interpret it effectively, accurately, and impartially is best defined as? A. Sign-language interpreter B. Lip reader C. Sketch  D. Translator 176. Continued substance use due to an uncontrollable physical pr psychological craving for that substance is best defined as? A. Substance abuse B. Substance dependence C. Substance use D. Stressors 177. A person harmed by a crime is best defined as? A. Subject B. Suspect C. Victim D. Witness 178. A court order to recover property that is in the wrongful possession of another is best defined as ? A. Sworn statement B. Testimonial statement C. Writ or replevin D. Deposition 179. When a person or entity is held liable for the negligent actions of another person, even thought the first person or entity was not directly responsible for the injury is best defined as? A. Vicarious liability B. Direct liability C. Voluntary liability D. Policy and procedures 180. The alternating flashes of the vehicle lights, strobe, flashers, and other lights is best defined as? A. Withdrawal B. Within the state C. Wig wags D. Vulnerable adult 181. A collision involving one or more vehicles, which causes person al injury, property damage, or death, and which is the result of an unintentional act is best defined as? A. Traffic flow B. Traffic Crash C. Traffic Stop D. Traffic detail 182. A broad area of a hard surface covered with many scratches, striations, or streak marks made  without great pressure by sliding metal part is best defined as ? A. Gouge B. Scuff C. Yaw D. Scrape 183. A common legal term that describes the justifiable use of force that is necessary to protect oneself is best defined as ? a. Self-defense b. Self-help c. Self-talk d. Self-image 184. A hand drawn picture of the crash scene as an officer perceives it upon arrival is best defined as? A. Triangulation B. Birdseye C. Sketch D. Show-up 185. The level of competency expected or required during the performance of a service or a duty is best defined as? A. Breach of duty B. Breach of peace C. Standard of care D. Operation of concern 186. A law that bars the state from processing an individual after a certain period of time has elapsed since the criminal act occurred is best defined as? A. Statue of limitations B. Statutory law C. Stop D. Suspected perpetrator 187. A situation in which major life activities are restricted in the manner, condition, or duration in which they are performed in comparison with most people is best defined as? A. Substantial limitations B. Statue of limitations C. Limitations D. Restrictions 188. An event that significantly alters or threatens to alter a person’s life or a situation, usually in a negative way; a crucial period in which a significant change seems inevitable is best defined as?  A. Crisis B. Cue C. Culpable negligence D. Custody 189. Force that is likely to cause great bodily harm or death is best defined as? A. Deadly force B. Deafness C. Passive resistance D. Aggressive control 190. A defense that requires the person committing the act to reasonably believe that the only way to avoid death or great bodily harm to self or a third party is to commit the crime is best defined as? A. Duress or coercion B. Due process clause C. Distribution D. Divided attention 191. When two objects begin to enter the same space at the same time is best defined as? A. Endorsement B. Encroachment C. Elimination D. Embezzlement 192. The documentation of who came into contact with evidence, as well as when, why, and what changes, if any, were made to the evidence is best defined as? A. Chain of custody B. Evidence chain link C. Certified D. Chain of command 193. An object or group of objects that creates a visual barrier between an officer and a threat but may not stop a projectile is best defined as? A. Cover B. Concealment C. Conspiracy D. Consent 194. Any evidence that requires an inference or presumption to establish a fact is best defined as? A. Direct Evidence B. Circumstantial or indirect evidence  C. Physical evidence D. Testimonial evidence 195. The location of the first harmful even, or the first damage-producing event in a traffic crash is best defined as? A. Area of collision B. Primary collision C. Harmful event D. Impact collision 196. The bearing of one who commands or influences others which encompasses professional appearance, demeanor, poise, and attitude best defines? A. Officer presence B. Command Presence C. Demeanor D. Physical appearance 197. The liability that occurs when a person breaches a duty to conform to a particular standard of conduct with others is best defined as ? A. Culpable negligence B. Criminal Negligence C. Negligence D. Contact damage 198. The distance that people should stay from a hazardous spill is best defined as? A. Proximate distance B. Private distance C. Safe distance D. Protective action distance 199. The length of time from when a person perceives a given situation as a hazard to when he or she reacts to his or her perception? A. Reaction gap B. Reaction time C. Distance time D. Time consuming 200. A mental condition caused by repeated use of a drug that causes the user to crave the substance is best defined as? A. Psychophysical dependence B. Psychological dependence C. Substance addiction D. Overdose