Industrial & Power Plant Design Elements Problems & Solutions PDF
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This document presents problems and solutions related to industrial and power plant design elements, covering various topics like refrigeration cycles (evaporators, chillers, etc.), Brayton and Otto cycles, and geothermal power plants.
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INDUSTRIAL & POWER PLANT DESIGN ELEMENTS PROBLEMS & ELEMENTS (With Answer and Solution) 1. In Refrigeration, how do you call a heat exchanger in which low-pressure refrigerant boils or vaporizes, thus absorbing heat that was removed from the refrigerated area by the cooling medium (water)?...
INDUSTRIAL & POWER PLANT DESIGN ELEMENTS PROBLEMS & ELEMENTS (With Answer and Solution) 1. In Refrigeration, how do you call a heat exchanger in which low-pressure refrigerant boils or vaporizes, thus absorbing heat that was removed from the refrigerated area by the cooling medium (water)? a) Evaporator b) Chiller c) Cooler d) Flooded Evaporator Answer: b) Chiller. In refrigeration application, the appropriate term used for evaporator is chiller. 2. In an ideal standard Brayton cycle, 1.5 kg/s of air at 101 kPaa and 27 oC is compressed isentropically to a certain pressure and temperature after which the is added until the temperature becomes 1027 oC. Isentropic expansion occurs in the turbine. Determine the net power produced by the cycle. a) 629.56 kW b) 592.65 kW c) 529.76 kW d) 579.26 kW Answer: c) 529.76 kW 1300 oK 3 T Solution: T2 T4 T1T4 3001300 624.5 o K 4 Wnet mc p T3 2T2 T1 1.51.00621300 2624.5 300 529.76 kW 2 300 oK 1 s 3. In an air standard Otto cycle, the clearance volume is 12 % of the displacement volume. What is the thermal efficiency? a) 57 % b) 59 % c) 58 % d) 60 % Answer: b) Thermal efficiency = 59 % Solution: V1 V2 VD 0.12VD VD 1.12 V2 0.12VD rk 9.33 V2 V2 0.12VD 0.12 1 100 % 1 100 % 59.08 % 1 e th 1 rk 9.33 k 1 0.4 4. It is a type of refrigeration system where only part of the circulated refrigerant is evaporated, with the remainder being separated from the vapor and then recirculated. How do you call this system? a) Absorption refrigeration system b) Vacuum refrigeration system c) Vapor-compression refrigeration system d) Flooded refrigeration system Answer: d) Flooded refrigeration system 5. In an air-standard Brayton cycle, air enters compressor at 1 bar and 15 oC. The pressure leaving the compressor is 0.6 MPaa and maximum temperature of the cycle is 1000 oC. What is the maximum net work, in kJ/kg? a) 319.52 b) 392.51 c) 315.29 d) 352.19 Answer: d) Max Wnet = 352.19 kJ/kg Solution: T2 T1 T3 15 2731000 273 605.49 o K Max w net c p T3 2T2 T1 1.00621273 2605.49 288 352.19 kJ / kg 1 6. How do you call the ice formation on a refrigeration system at the expansion device, making the device inoperative? a) Ice formation b) Freeze-up c) Freezing d) Pump-down Answer: b) Freeze-up 7. What is the clearance volumetric efficiency of an ammonia compressor designed with 4 % clearance and operating between condenser temperature of 30 oC (psat = 1.1672 MPaa) and evaporator temperature of 4 oC (psat = 497.48 kPaa)? a) 93.61 % b) 93.68 % c) 96.31 % d) 96.83 % Answer: c) Volumetric Efficiency = 96.31 % 1 1 p k 1167.2 1.304 100 % 1.04 0.04 Solution: v 1 c c d 497.48 100 % 96.31 % ps Note: k = 1.304, for ammonia (R-717) k = 1.30, for R-134a 8. In a lithium bromide solution absorption refrigeration system, which of the following is the function of water? a) Refrigerant b) Absorbent c) Coolant d) Analyzer Answer: a) Refrigerant. Water serves as refrigerant while the lithium bromide serves as the absorbent. In ammonia solution absorption refrigeration system, water serves as the absorbent while ammonia serves as the refrigerant. 9. The percent rating of water tube boiler is 200 %, factor of evaporation is 1.10, and heating surface is 400 ft 2. Determine the rate of evaporation, in kg/hr. a) 1831 b) 1831 c) 1138 d) 1813 Answer: c) Rate of evaporation = 1138 kg/hr Dev. Bo. Hp PercentRatingRated Bo. Hp 2 40 80 H.S. 400 Solution: Rated Bo. Hp 40 10 10 Dev. Bo. Hp 80 35 314 Dev. Bo. Hp m s h1 h B m s 2257 F.E. ms 1138 kg / hr 2257 FE 22571.1 10. In the absorption refrigeration system, is a pressure vessel mounted above the generator through which the vapor leaving the generator pass. How do you call this component? a) Absorber b) Analyzer c) Rectifier d) Reflux Answer: b) Analyzer or bubble column 11. A Carnot cycle is represented by a rectangle in a Ts diagram that operates between temperature limits of 300 oK and 650 oK. Inscribed within a rectangle is a ellipse of maximum major and minor axes, represents a cycle and operating at the same temperature limits. Considering that the major axis of the ellipse is two times that of its minor axis. Determine the thermal efficiency of the cycle represented by an ellipse. a) 44.88 % b) 48.48 % c) 43.66 % d) 46.36 % Answer: a) 44.88 % TH = 650 K Solution: b a Tm = 475 K TL = 300 K 2 b 350 a = 2b = 650 – 300 = 350 oK b 175 o K 2 2 A ab 350 175 61 250 Wnet S = 2a = 700 Wnet 61250 QA Tm S 475 700 428711.275 kJ 2 2 Wnet 61250 e x 100% 100 % 44.88 % QA 428711.275 12. Determine the critical radius in cm for an asbestos-cement covered pipe [kasb = 0.208 W/m-oK]. The external heat- transfer coefficient is 1.5 Btu/h-ft2-oF. a. 2.44 cm b. 2.55 cm c. 2.66 cm d. 2.22 cm Solution: a) Critical radius = 2.44 cm W 0.208 Solution: rc k m o K 0.0244 m 2.44 cm hc 5.675 Btu 1.5 hr ft 2 o F Btu W Note: 1 5.675 hr ft F 2 o m F 2 o 13. A hiker carried an Aneroid barometer from the foot of Mount Banahaw to the camp of the NPA leader Ka Roger. On the foot of the mountain, the barometer reads 30.150 inches of Hg, and on the camp, which is nearly at the top of the mountain it reads 28.607 inches of Hg. Assume that the average air density (atmospheric) was 0.075 pcf, estimate the height of the mountain, in ft. a) 1455.54 b) 1545.54 c) 1554.54 d) 1455.55 Answer: a) 1455.54 ft 14.7 psi 30.150 28.607" Hg 144 p p2 29.92" Hg Solution: h 1 1455.54 ft g 0.075 14. In the absorption refrigeration system, it is the inlet part of the condenser, cooled by a separate circuit of cooling water or strong aqua. It condenses a small part of the vapor leaving the bubble column and returns it as a liquid to the top of baffle plate. This ensures that the vapor going to the condenser is lowered in temperature and enriched in ammonia. What is this component? a) Reflux b) Analyzer c) Rectifier d) Absorber Answer: c) Rectifier. Reflux does about the same thing by providing a small flow of condensed ammonia liquid to the top plate of the bubble column, but does not require a separate cooling circuit. 15. In a geothermal power plant, the mass flow rate of ground water is 4000 kg/s and the quality after throttling is 20%. If the turbine power is 80 MW, what is the change in enthalpy of steam at the inlet and outlet of the turbine? a) 120 kJ/kg b) 100 kJ/kg c) 200 kJ/kg d) 150 kJ/kg Answer: b) Change of enthalpy = 100 kJ/kg Solution: m s x 3 m c 0.204000 800 kg / s Wt 80 000 h 100 kJ / kg ms 800 3 16. Determine the partial pressure of CO2 for the following analysis of gas mixture by weight at 101 kPaa and 25 oC: CO2 = 35 % and N2 = 65 %. a) 25.75 kPaa b) 27.55 kPaa c) 52.75 kPaa d) 52.57 kPaa Answer: a) partial pressure of CO2 = 25.75 kPaa Solution: For 100 kg of the mixture, total number of moles, CO 2 N 2 35 65 nT 0.7955 2.3214 3.12 kgmoles 44 28 44 28 RT pCO2 P From the equation, pv nRT T v n CO2 nT n CO2 p CO2 p T 0.7955 101 25.75 kPaa n 3.12 T 17. Which of the following is a scale of temperature in which the melting point of ice is taken as 0 o and the boiling point of water is 80o? a) Reaumur Scale b) Carrene Scale c) Genetron Scale d) Frigorie Scale Answer: a) Reaumur Temperature Scale 18. A certain coal has the following ultimate analysis by weight. C = 67 %, Ash = 5 %, Moisture = 8 %, N = 6 %, H = 3 %, Sulfur = 7 %, O = 4 %. Calculate the higher heating value in Btu/lb. a) 15 179 b) 11 579 c) 17 519 d) 19 517 Answer: b) 11 579 Btu/lb O 0.04 Solution: HHV 14 544 C 62 028 H 2 2 4 050 S 145440.67 62028 0.03 40500.07 8 8 HHV = 11 578.68 Btu/lb 19. What is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit. It is 1/180 of the heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water from 32 to 212 oF at constant atmospheric pressure of 14,696 psi absolute. a) Specific heat b) British thermal unit c) Calorie d) Sensible heat Answer: b) British thermal unit or Btu 20. Determine the heating value of a certain fuel with a SG = 0.997. a) 42 975 kJ/kg b) 42 597 kJ/kg c) 42 795 kJ/kg d) 42 579 kJ/kg Answer: a) 42 975 kJ/kg Solution: HHV 51716 8 793.8 SG 2 51716 8 793.8 0.9972 42 975 kJ / kg 21. How do you call the mixtures or substances that are used in laboratory methods of producing a drop in temperature? The most common example is the mixture of ice and salt. a) Calorific mixture b) Water-ammonia mixture c) Frigorific mixture d) Hygroscopic mixture Answer: c) Frigorific mixture Note: Adding of 10 % salt (NaCl), by weight, to water lowers its freezing point from 32 oF to 18.7 oF. 22. If an airplane is flying at an altitude of 5 800 ft, what is the approximate atmospheric pressure at the said altitude? a) 12.34 psi b) 14.7 psi c) 13.24 psi d) 14.32 psi Answer: a) 12.34 psi 4 1" Hg Solution: p 29.92 in Hg 4 800 ft 25.12 in Hg 12.34 psia 1 000 ft Note: Barometric pressure reduces by 1 inch Hg per 1000 ft rise in elevation or 83.312 mm Hg per 1000 m rise in elevation. Barometric temperature reduces by 3.566 oF per 1000 ft rise in elevation, or 6.5 oC per 1000 m rise in elevation. 23. It the maximum temperature of any gas or vapor at which it may be condensed into a liquid; above this temperature, it is impossible to condense regardless of the pressure applied. How do you call this temperature? a) Saturation temperature b) Superheated temperature c) Critical temperature d) Dew point temperature Answer: Critical temperature 24. Calculate the energy transfer rate across 6” wall of firebrick with a temperature difference across of 50 oC. the thermal conductivity of the firebrick is 0.65 Btu/hr-ft-oF. a) 369 W/m2 b) 369 Btu/hr-Ft2 c) 639 W/m2 d) 639 Btu/hr-Ft2 Answer: a) Heat Transfer = 369 W/m2 T 0.65 Btu / hr ft o F 9 5 50 117 Btu / Hr ft q k 2 Solution: A L 6 ft 12 2 qk 1 Hr 3.28 ft 117 Btu / Hr ft 2 1055 J / Btu W 368.88 A 3600 s 1 m m2 25. Any refrigerant that exists as a liquid under normal atmospheric pressure and temperature must be vaporized in an evaporator under a pressure below atmospheric. This is sometimes referred to as: a) Halogenated refrigerant b) Freon refrigerant c) Vacuum refrigerant d) Halocarbon refrigerant Answer: c) Vacuum refrigerant 26. What is the specific gravity of a fuel at 28o Baume? a) 0.868 0.688 c) 0.886 d) 0.986 Answer: c) SG = 0.886 140 140 Solution: SG @15.6 o C 0.886 o Baume 130 28 130 27. Air at 1 MPaa and 310 oC is expanded to 250 kPaa in accordance with the relation pV 1.25 = C. Determine the work done. a) + 162.11 kJ/kg b) – 162.11 kJ/kg c) + 126.11 kJ/kg d) – 126.11 kJ/kg Answer: a) Work done, W = + 162.11 kJ/kg n 1 0.25 p 250 1.25 310 273 n Solution: T2 T1 2 441.83 o K p1 1000 p 2 v 2 p1v1 R 0.28708 W T2 T1 441.83 583 162.11 kJ / kg 1 n 1 n 0.25 Note: Work is positive (+), if work is done by the system; and work is negative (-) if work is done to the system. 5 28. It is any one of a group of refrigerants that have been developed since about 1925 to overcome the irritating or toxic effects of refrigerants, such as ammonia and sulfur dioxide and the high condensing pressures required with carbon dioxide. How do you call these refrigerants? a) Halogenated refrigerants b) Freon refrigerants c) Vacuum refrigerants d) Halocarbon refrigerants Answer: a) Halogenated refrigerants 29. A Rankine cycle operates with a thermal efficiency of 40 % and the factor of evaporation of the boiler is 1.15. Determine the mass flow rate of steam if the cycle power output is 5.5 MW. a) 5.3 kg/s b) 4.3 kg/s c) 3.5 kg/s d) 6.3 kg/s Answer: a) Steam mass flow rate, ms = 5.3 kg/s Wnet 5500 QA QA 13 750 Solution: Q A 13 750 kW ms 5.3 kg / s e th 0.40 h 1 h B 2257 FE 2257 1.15 30. This refrigeration system component combines the functions of a cooling tower and a condenser. It consists of a casing enclosing a fan or blower section, water eliminators, refrigerant condensing coil, water pan, float valve, and spray pump outside the casing. How do you call this component? a) Water-cooled condenser b) Evaporative condenser c) Atmospheric condenser d) Chiller Answer: b) Evaporative condenser 31. A boiler operates at 82 % efficiency while the mass of steam generated is 490 200 kg in 6 hours. The enthalpy of steam is 3187 kJ/kg and feed is 604.83 kJ/kg while the fuel used for boiler has a heating value of 32 567.85 kJ/kg. Find the mass of fuel needed per day in metric tons. a) 179.6 b) 189.6 c) 198.6 d) 169.8 Answer: b) Fuel consumption per day = 189.6 metric tons 490 200 Solution: m s 81 700 kg / hr 6 m h h 1 81 700 3187 604.83 QF s 2 257 272 303.7 kg / hr EB 0.82 Q F 257 272 303.7 mF 7 899.58 kg / hr 189 589.8958 kg / day 189.6 Metric tons / day qh 32 567.85 32. It refers to a factor used in calculating the over-all heat transfer through the tube walls of a condenser tube or other heating surface. It includes the sum of the heat-transfer rate of the layer of dirt and foreign material that builds up on the water side of the tube. What is this factor? a) Cooling factor b) Contact factor c) By-pass factor d) Fouling factor Answer: d) Fouling Factor 33. A 10 kg/s of air enters the theater at 16 oC. The theater is to be maintained at 27 oC DB and 20 oC WB. If the sensible heat ratio is 0.71, what is the latent heat load of the theater? a) 45.21 kW b) 54.21 kW c) 110.682 kW d) 42.51 kW Answer: a) atent heat load, qL = 45.21 kW Solution: qs 1.0062mt r ts 1.00621027 16 110.682 kW qs 110.682 qL qs 110.682 45.21 kW SHR 0.71 34. It is a refrigeration system evaporator which is arranged with a tank or a single drum (accumulator) located above the coil so that the inside of the evaporator is full of refrigerant. How do you call this type of evaporator? 6 a) Flooded evaporator b) Dry evaporator c) Cooing coil evaporator d) Headered coil evaporator Answer: a) Flooded evaporator 35. A 80 MW power plant has an average load of 34 500 kW and a load factor of 0.75. Find the reserve power over a peak load power. a) 14 000 kW b) 34 000 kW c) 24 000 kW d) 4 000 kW Answer: b) Reserve Power = 34 000 kW Average Load Average Load 34 500 Solution: Load Factor Peak Load 46 000 kW Peak Load Load Factor 0.75 Re serve Power Plant Capacity Peak Load 80000 46000 34 000 kW 36. What is the standardized term used by the industry to describe any device that meters or regulates the flow of liquid refrigerant to an evaporator? a) Refrigerant control b) Expansion valve c) Throttling valve d) Capillary tube Answer: b) Expansion Valve 37. A steam generator burns fuel oil with 25 % excess air. Fuel may be represented by C 14H30. Calculate the actual-air fuel ratio. a) 17.63 b) 18.63 c) 16.63 d) 15.63 Answer: b) Actual A/F ratio = 18.63 kg air per kg fuel 137.28n 0.25m1 e 137.2814 0.2530 Solution: A : F 1.25 18.63 12n m 1214 30 Note: Equation above is used for hydro-carbon fuels, CnHm. 38. Define a “control valve”. a) The value set on the scale of the control system in order to obtain the required condition b) The quantity or condition of the controlled medium c) The flow or pressure of the steam (or fluid) being manipulated d) The valve of the controlled condition actually maintained under steady state conditions Answer: d) The valve of the controlled condition actually under steady state conditions 39. A container filled with helium is dropped 3000 m above the ground, find the change of temperature? a) 12.43 oC b) 9.43 oC c) 15.43 oC d) 8.43 oC Answer: b) The change of temperature, T = 9.43 oC mg z R mc v T m k 1g z Solution: P KE U T T k = 1.666 1000 k 1 1000R R 8.3143 0.6669.80663000 R 2.078575kJ / kg o K T 9.43 o C M 4 1000 2.078575 Note: For Helium, k = 1.666 and M = 4 kg/kgmole 40. A pneumatic temperature control is used on the steam supply to a non-storage heat exchanger that heats water serving an office heating system. What is referred to as “manipulated variable”? a) The water being heated b) The air signal from the controller to the valve actuator 7 c) The steam supply d) The temperature of the air being heated Answer: c) Manipulated variable is referred to as the steam supply 41. Which of the following valves is the one designed to allow a fluid to pass through in one direction? a) Globe valve b) Gate valve c) Float valve d) Check valve Answer: d) Check valve 42. A 3153-lb car is accelerated from 32 fps to 55 fps in 10 seconds. Determine the work done, in Btu. a) 125.92 b) 192.52 c) 152.92 d) 129.52 Answer: a) Work done, W = 125.92 Btu m Solution: W K V22 V12 3153 552 322 125.92 Btu 2 232.2778 Note: 1 Btu = 778 ft-lb & 1 lbf = 32.2 lbm-fps2 Work = Kinetic energy 43. How do you classify a solenoid valve? a) A thermal valve b) A magnetic stop valve c) A bellows valve d) A bi-metallic valve Answer: b) A solenoid valve is classified as magnetic stop valve 44. What is a thermostat? a) A temperature-operated switch b) A pressure-operated switch c) A superheat-operated switch d) A back pressure-operated switch Answer: a) A temperature –operated switch 45. A turbine has a peripheral coefficient of 0.6. Find the runner diameter of the turbine if it operates at 450 rpm and a head of 60 m. a) 0.874 m b) 0.784 m c) 0.478 m d) 0.748 m Answer: a) Water runner diameter, Dr = 0.874 m Periperal velocity Dr N Solution: Peripheral Coefficient, Velocity of jet 60 2 g Heff Dr 60 2g H eff 0.6060 29.806660 0.874 m N 450 46. Which of the following is the one of the main purposes of refractory in a boiler furnace? a) Help preheat the air for the furnace b) Help preheat the feed water c) Protect economizer from excessive heat d) Prevent excessive furnace heat losses Answer: d) Prevent excessive furnace heat losses 47. Heat is transferred from hot water to an oil in a double-pipe counter-flow heat exchanger. Water enters the outer pipe at 120 oC and exits at 55 oC while the oil enters the inner pipe at 26 oC and exits at 65 oC. What is the log-mean temperature difference (LMTD)? a) 42.60 oC b) 40.62 oC c) 46.20 oC d) 42.06 oC Answer: b) Log Mean Temperature Difference, LMTD = 40.62 oC 8 Solution: A t 1 t 4 120 65 55 o C max 1 t1 = 120 oC B t 2 t 3 55 26 29 o C min 4 2 t4 = 65 oC A t2 = 55 oC max min 55 29 B LMTD 40.62 o C 55 t3 = 26 oC ln max ln 3 min 29 A B 48. Balance pressure traps are what type of steam trap? a) Thermodynamic b) Mechanical c) Thermostatic d) They do not belong to any specific type of trap family Answer: c) Thermostatic 49. In a Rankine cycle, steam enters the turbine at 2.5MPa and a condenser pressure of 50KPa. What is the quality of steam at the turbine exhaust? Steam Properties: @ 2.5Mpaa, h = 2803.1 kJ/kg & s = 6.2575 kJ/kg-OK; @ 50kPaa, hf = 340.49 kJ/kg, hfg = 2305.4 kJ/kg, vf = 0.00103 m3/kg, sf = 1.0910 kJ/kg-OK, sfg = 6.5029 kJ/kg-OK. a) 79.45 % b) 97.45 % c) 59.75 % d) 95.55 % Answer: a) Steam Quality, x2 = 79.45 % s s Solution: x 2 f 2 100% 6.2575 1.0910 100 % 79.45 % 2 sfg 6.5029 50. An adiabatic turbine steam generating plant receives steam at a pressure of 7.0 MPa and 550 OC (h = 3531 kJ/kg) and exhausts at a condenser pressure of 20kPa (h = 2290 kJ/kg). The turbine inlet is 3 meters higher than the turbine exit, inlet steam velocity is 15m/s and the exit is 300m/s. Calculate the turbine work in kJ/kg. a) 1296.14 b) 1196.24 c) 1619.42 d) 1294.16 Answer: b) The turbine work, Wt = 1196.24 kJ/kg Solution: Wt h k P h 1 h 2 V 1 2 V22 gz 2 z1 2000 1000 Wt 3531 2290 152 3002 9.80663 1196.24 kJ / kg 2000 1000 51. Determine the indicated power of a four-cylinder, 4-stroke, Diesel engine with 20-cm bore and 30-cm stroke running at 1000 rpm and has a reading of 450 kPa mean effective pressure in the indicator diagram. a) 159.83 Hp b) 189.53 Hp c) 158.93 Hp d) 198.53 Hp Answer: b) Indicated power, IP = 189.53 Hp Solution: Volume displacement, n 1000 4 VD D 2 L N n c D 2 L n c / 60 0.202 0.30 0.3142 m / s 3 4 4 2 4 2 60 Indicated Power, WI pI VD 4500.3142 141.4 kW 189.53 Hp 52. What is a characteristic feature of thermodynamic steam traps? a) They pass condensate at steam temperature b) They operate by holding back condensate until it has cooled c) They cannot be fitted outside d) They can only be fitted on low pressure steam systems 9 Answer: b) they operate by holding back condensate until it has cooled 53. The approach and efficiency of cooling tower are 10 oC and 65 %, respectively. If the temperature of water leaving the tower is 27 oC, determine the temperature of water entering the tower. a) 54.57 oC b) 55.47 oC c) 45.57 oC d) 54.75 oC Answer: c) Temperature of water entering the tower, t3 = 45.57 oC Solution: t wb1 t 4 CA 27 10 17 C o ACR t t Tower Efficiency, e t 3 4 TCR t 3 t wb1 t 4 et wb1 27 0.65 17 t3 45.57 o C 1 e 1 0.65 54. What are the main considerations for steam trap selection? a) Price b) Air venting, plant performance, flow capacity and reliability c) Connections d) The trap must be the same size as the condensate drain line Answer: b) Air venting, plant performance, flow capacity and reliability 55. An air-vapor mixture has a dry bulb temperature of 30 oC and a humidity ratio of 0.015 kg/kg d.a., calculate the enthalpy of the moist air. a) 68.527 kJ/kg d.a b) 86.527 kJ/kg d.a c) 65.827 kJ/kg d.a. d) 67.528 kJ/kg d.a Answer: a) Enthalpy, h = 68.527 kJ/kg d.a. Solution: Using the IHVE formula, h = 1.007t – 0.026 + W(2501 + 1.84t) h 1.00730 0.026 0.0152501 1.8430 68.527 kJ / kg da 56. Determine the equivalence ratio of the following mixture: 4 grams of butane, C 4H10, and 75 grams of air. a) 0.72 b) 0.92 c) 0.62 d) 0.82 Answer: d) Equivalence ratio = 0.82 137.28n 0.25m 137.284 0.2510 Solution: Theoretical air-fuel ratio, Wa 15.385 kg / kg 12n m 124 10 75 Actual Air-fuel ratio, Waa 18.75 kg / kg 4 Wa 1 15.385 Equivalence ratio 0.82 Waa 1 e 18.75 57. Can temperature controlled applications be trapped? a) Traps should not be fitted under any circumstances b) Only if there is no lift after the trap c) If the pressure on the trap is always higher than backpressure d) Pumps should always be fitted to remove condensate Answer: c) If the pressure on the trap is always higher than back pressure 58. Find the air Hp of an industrial fan that delivers 25 m3/s of air through a 900 mm by 1200 mm outlet. Static pressure is 127 mm of water gage and air density is 1.18 kg/m3. 10 a) 52.3 Hp b) 35.2 Hp c) 42.3 Hp d) 34.2 Hp Answer: a) Fan power, WF = 52.3 Hp Q 25 w 1000 Solution: V 23.15 m / s hs hw 0.127 107.63 m air A 0.91.2 a 1.18 hv V2 23.152 27.32 m air h t h s h v 107.63 27.32 134.95 m air 2g 2 9.8066 gQh t 1.189.806625134.95 WF 39.04 kW 52.3 Hp 1000 1000 59. Determine the indicated mean effective pressure of an engine, in psi, having a brake mean effective pressure of 750 kPa and 80 % mechanical efficiency. a) 138 b) 137 c) 136 d) 135 Answer: c) Indicated mean effective pressure, pI = 136.01 psi WB p pB Solution: m 100 % B 100 % pI 750 937.5 kPa 136.01 psi WI pI m 0.80 60. Unless they are designed to flood, what is the important when removing condensate from heat exchangers? a) Condensate is allowed to sub-cool before reaching the trap b) Condensate is removed at steam temperature c) Condensate should back-up into the steam pipe d) That the trap is fitted level with or above the heater outlet Answer: b) Condensate is removed at steam temperature 61. The indicator card (actual p-V diagram) of an engine in a Diesel power plant indicates an area of 0.06 m2 and length of 300 mm, and with a spring scale of 2500 kPa/m. The engine was tested using Prony brake with lever arm of 3 m and tare weight of 8 kN. Determine the mechanical efficiency if the engine is running at 600 rpm. The engine is 2- stroke and has 12 cylinders, 300 mm bore, and 450 mm stroke. a) 78.01 % b) 79.01 % c) 82.01 % d) 76.01 % Answer: b) Engine mechanical Efficiency = 79.01 % n T 6008 kN 3 m A 0.06 m 2 Solution: WB 1507.96 kW h 0.2 m 30 30 b 0.3 m p I k s h 2500 kPa / m0.2 m 500 kPa 2 VD D Lnn c / 60 0.32 0.4560012 / 60 3.817 m 3 / s 4 4 WI p I VD 5003.817 1908.5 kW 100 % 1507.96 100 % 79.01 % WB m WI 1908.5 62. How is flash steam produced? a) From condensate passing from high to low pressure systems b) From saturated steam c) From superheated steam d) From steam mixed with high temperature air Answer: a) From condensate passing from high to low pressure systems 11 63. A 2-kg steam at 2.5 MPaa and 260 oC undergoes a constant pressure until the quality becomes 70 %. Determine the heat rejected, in Btu. At 2.5 MPaa and 260oC: h = 2907.4 kJ/kg; and at 2.5 MPaa and 70 % quality: hf = 962.11 kJ/kg and hg = 2803.1 kJ/kg. a) 1244.7 Btu b) 1424.7 Btu c) 1442.7 Btu d) 1274.4 Btu Answer: a) Heat rejected = 1244.73 Btu Solution: h 2 h f x 2 h g h f 962.11 0.702803.1 962.11 2250.803 kJ / kg Q mh m h 2 h1 2 2250.803 2907.4 1313.19 kJ 1244.73 Btu 64. Are steam traps required to pass air? a) Steam traps should not pass air under any circumstances b) Only when the trap has passed all the condensate c) Air should be removed as soon as it reaches the trap d) Only on high pressure steam system Answer: c) Air should be removed as soon as it reaches the trap 65. A 145 000-kW turbo-generator requires 690 000 kg/hr of steam at rated load and 23 000 kg/hr of steam at zero load. Determine the steam rate, in kg/kW-hr, at 75 % of its rated load. a) 4.81 kg/kW-hr b) 3.81 kg/kW-hr c) 5.81 kg/kW-hr d) 2.81 kg/kW-hr Answer: a) Rated load = 4.811 kg/kW-Hr m 23 000 690 000 23 000 690 000 kg/hr Solution: 108 750 145 000 m m = 523 250 kg/hr 523 250 23 000 kg/hr 75 4.811 kg / kW hr 108 750 108 750 kW 145 000 kW 66. How do you call a system employing open sprinklers attached to a piping system connected to a water supply through which is opened by the operation of a fire detection system installed in the same areas as the sprinklers? a) Mechanical sprinkler b) Automatic system c) Wet pipe system d) Deluge system Answer: d) Deluge system 67. What is probably the first consideration when selecting a control system? a) What degree of accuracy is required? b) Is the control for heating or cooling? c) Is a two or three port valve required? d) In the event of power failure, must the valve fail-open or fail-closed? Answer: d) In the even of power failure, must the valve fail-open or fail-closed? 68. The combustion gases of a furnace are separated from its surrounding or ambient air which is 29 oC. The brick wall is 130 mm and has a thermal conductivity of 1.23 W/m-oC with a surface emissivity of 0.81. The outer surface temperature of the wall is 130 oC and with surface air conductance of 15 W/m2-oC. For steady state conditions, what is the total heat transmitted for a surface area of 30 m2? a) 70.33 kW b) 73.30 kW c) 33.07 kW d) 37.30 kW Answer: a) 70.33 kW 12 Solution: q k Ah c T A Ts T 4 4 q k 3015130 29 0.81 5.669 x 10 8 30130 2734 29 2734 qk = 70326.81 W = 70.33 kW 69. Which of the following ranges of humidity ratio is used for comfort air conditioning? a) 50 to 55 % b) 55 to 60 % c) 60 to 65 % d) 45 to 50 % Answer: b) RH = 55 % to 60 % 70. When adding the refrigerant in a refrigeration system, it shall be charge into which of the following parts of the system? a) High pressure side b) Low pressure side c) Low and high pressure side d) Compressor discharge line Answer: b) Low pressure side 71. A 1.5 MW Diesel power generating unit has a generator efficiency of 85 %. Determine the volume flow rate, in lps, of cooling water required for the engine at 18 oC temperature rise. a) 21 lps b) 19 lps c) 22 lps d) 23 lps Answer: a) Volume flow = 21 lps Wk 1500 Solution: BP 1764.71 kW g 0.85 Heat Balance for a Typical Diesel Engine at Full Load Brake Power 34 % Cooling System Losses 30 % Exhaust Losses 26 % Friction, Radiation, etc 10 % 0.30 1500 0.30 1557.1 kW BP Q cw 1557.1 Q cw m cw 20.66 kg / s 0.34 0.850.34 c p T 4.187 18 20.66 kg / s Vcw 20.66 lps 1 kg / li 72. Why is a boiler feed tank heated to approximately 85 oC? a) To reduce the energy required to raise steam b) To reduce the content of total dissolved solids in the water supplied to the boiler c) To reduce the gas content of the water d) To reduce the content of suspended solids in the water Answer: c) To reduce the gas content of the water 73. What is used to dry air? a) A separator b) A strainer c) A steam trap d) A tee piece Answer: a) A separator 74. What causes water hammer in the boiler? a) Suspended water droplets b) An air/water mixture c) Strainers fitted on their sides d) Slugs of water in the steam Answer: d) Slugs of water in the steam 13 75. A Carnot refrigerator is to remove heat from a cooled space at a rate of 18 000 kJ/hr to maintain the temperature at – 8 oC. If the air surrounding the refrigerator is 25 oC, determine the minimum power required for the refrigerator. a) 0.723 kW b) 0.523 kW c) 0.623 kW d) 0.423 kW Answer: c) 0.623 kW Q L TH TL 1800025 8 Solution: W 2241.51 kJ / hr 0.623 kW TL 273 8 76. How does air enter a steam system? a) Through joints, on shut down of the steam system b) With make-up water to the boiler feedtank c) With condensate entering the boiler feedtank d) Both a, b, & c Answer: d) All of the items stated from a to c 77. A Pelton wheel has a capacity of 25 000 kW with head of 290 m. What is the number of jet needed for this turbine if the jet if the nozzle jet diameter is 200 mm. a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 1 Answer: b) Number of Jets or Nozzles = 4 Solution: Q 1000 Wt 25 0001000 8.79 m 3 / s gH T 10009.8066290 A D 2 0.202 0.03142 m 2 4 4 29.8066290 75.42 m / s Q 8.79 V 2gH AT 0.1165 m 2 V 75.42 0.1165 m 2 No. of jets: N j 3.71 jets Use 4 jets 0.03142 m 2 / jet 78. Why should strainers installed on steam lines be fitted on their sides? a) To prevent the build-up of water in the strainer body b) To trap more dirt c) To reduce the frequency of cleaning d) To provide maximum screening area for the steam Answer: a) To prevent the build-up of water in the strainer body 79. The water turbine of a 5-MW hydro-power plant has a specific speed of 40 rpm and a discharge of 2020 lps. What is the approximate diameter of the jet. a) 191 mm b) 171 mm c) 181 mm d) 161 mm Answer: a) Nozzle diameter = 191 mm 1000 Wt 1000 5 000 Solution: H T 252.4 m V 2gH T 29.8066252.4 70.36 m / s gQ 1000 9.80662.02 Q 2.02 4Q 42.02 A 0.0287 m 2 D 0.191 m 191 mm V 70.36 V 70.36 80. What is the result of using a heat exchanger rating to calculate its steam consumption? a) The true connected heat load may be different from the rated figure. b) The rating does not take account of the temperature of the secondary medium 14 c) The rating is based on a steam pressure of 1.0 bar d) The rating does not allow for condensate forming in the heat exchanger Answer: a) The true connected heat load may be different from the rated figure 81. A heat exchanger has a design rating based on a working pressure of 7 bar g. What would be the effect of supplying the exchanger with steam at 3 bar g? a) The heat output would be greater because the enthalpy of evaporation at 3 bar g is higher than at 7 bar g. b) The heat output would be greater because steam at 3 bar g has a greater volume than steam at 7 bar g. c) Less weight of steam would be required because steam at 3 bar g has a higher enthalpy of evaporation than 7 bar g. d) The output would be reduced because the difference in temperature between the steam and product is reduced. Answer: d) 82. A standard 25-mm outside diameter steel tube (with wall thickness of 1.65 mm) is carrying 0.34 lps of oil. Determine the velocity of flow of oil inside the tube. a) 191 fpm b) 181 fpm c) 171 fpm d) 161 fpm Answer: b) Fluid Velocity = 181 fpm Solution: D i D o 2t 25 21.65 21.7 mm 4Q 40.00034 V 0.9193 m / s =180.92 fpm D o2 0.0217 2 83. For any particular tank temperature how does the heat loss from the lid of a closed tank compare with that of bottom? a) They are approximately double those from the bottom b) Losses from the top are approximately double those from the bottom c) Losses from the bottom are approximately double those from the top d) Losses from the top are approximately 4 times those from the bottom Answer: b) Losses from the top are approximately double those from the bottom 84. Helium is used in a Carnot engine where the volumes beginning with the constant temperature heat addition are V 1 = 0.3565 m3, V2 = 0.5130 m3, V3 = 8.0 m3, and V4 = 5.57 m3. Determine the thermal efficiency if k = 1.666. a) 83.95 % b) 89.35 % c) 85.93 % d) 85.39 % Answer: a) Thermal Efficiency = 83.95 % T V k 1 0.666 100 % 1 0.5130 Solution: e th 1 L 100 % 1 2 100 % 83.95 % TH V3 8 85. What is the disadvantage of heating a tank by direct steam injection? a) It agitates the solution b) Some of the enthalpy of water is used c) Steam traps are not required d) It dilutes the tank content Answer: d) It dilutes the tank content 86. The existing 2000 TR chiller at a large hospital, where you are assigned as Engineer, must be replaced. Which of the following types most likely to be installed? a) Screw chiller b) Scroll Chiller c) Reciprocating chiller d) Centrifugal chiller Answer: d) Centrifugal chiller 15 Note: Centrifugal chillers are generally selected for their high coefficient of performance, good part-load performance, and cooling capacity. The economics of large-scale applications (such as hospital) generally favor more efficient machines such centrifugal chillers. In this case, a centrifugal chiller is also the only one of the types listed that can provide the needed capacity. 87. The temperature inside a furnace is 320 oC and temperature of the outside is – 10 oC. What is the temperature difference in oR. a) 495 b) 945 c) 594 d) 596 Answer: c) Temperature change, 594 oR Solution: TR 9 TK 9 t c 9 320 10 594 o R 5 5 5 88. Refrigeration condensers are rated based upon their ability to reject the total heat that comes from which of the following? a) Compressor work and net refrigeration effect b) Superheating c) Subcooling d) Compressor work Answer: a) Compressor Work and net refrigeration effect Note: All the heat removed by a refrigeration system, including the heat it introduces due to the work of the compressor, must ultimately be rejected to the outdoor environment by the condenser. So refrigeration effect and compressor work must be considered. 89. The forced convective heat transfer coefficient for a hot fluid flowing over a cold surface is 225 W/m2.0C for a particular problem. The fluid temperature upstream of the cold surface is 120 0C, and the surface is held at 10 0C. Determine the heat transfer rate per unit surface from the fluid to the surface. a. 24 570 W/m2 b. 52.470 W/m2 c. 24 700 W/m2 d. 24 750 W/m2 Answer: d) 24 750 W/m2 qc Solution: h c T 225120 10 24 750 W / m 2 A 90. A published „U‟ value from a steam coil to a water based solution is given as 550 – 1300 W/m2-oC. When would be figure near the lower end of the range be used? a) When the steam is known to be of good quality b) For short coils c) For small diameter coils d) When scaling or fouling of the coil takes place Answer: d) When scaling or fouling of the coil takes place 91. Steam coils should enter and leave the top of a tank when: a) The tank contains a corrosive solution b) When agitation of the tank solution is required c) When steam locking the trap draining a base coil could occur d) When good heat distribution is required Answer: a) The tank contains a corrosive solution 92. What range of „U‟ values would you apply for mild steel jacket around a stainless steel tank containing a water and detergent solution? a) 285 – 480 b) 450 – 1140 c) 850 – 1700 d) 285 – 850 Answer: b) 450 to 1140 kJ/kg-oK 93. A 5 m x 4 m x 4 m room has an air temperature of 32 oC (psat = 4.559 kPaa, hg = 2559.9 kJ/kg) and the pressure is 101 kPaa. The mass of water vapor in air is 2.5 kg with R v = 0.45 kJ/kg-oK. What is the relative humidity of the air? a) 94.08 % b) 74.08 % c) 84.08 % d) 64.08 % Answer: a) 94.08 % 16 mv R vTv 2.50.4532 273 p 4.289 Solution: p v 4.289 kPaa RH v 100 % 100 % 94.08 % Vv 544 d p 4.559 94. A tank is to be heated by direct steam injection. How will the quantity of heat required compare with steam coil heating? a) It depends on the temperature of the water being heated b) More heat will be required c) The same amount of heat will be required d) Less heat will be required Answer: c) The same amount of heat will be reuired 95. If the velocity of discharge from a fire hose is 15 m/s and the hose is oriented 45 o from the horizontal. Disregarding air friction, determine the maximum range of the discharge. a) 14 m b) 33 m c) 24 m d) 23 m Answer: d) Maximum range, R = 23 m 2Vo2 sin cos Vo2 sin 2 152 sin90o Solution: R 22.94 m 23 m g g 9.8066 96. Which of the following parameters has the greatest limiting effect on the thermal performance of an open, evaporative cooling tower? a) Wet-Bulb temperature b) Dry-Bulb temperature c) Range c) Approach Answer: a) Wet-bulb temperature Note: It is not possible to cool the water below the air‟s wet-bulb temperature. Thus, the WB temperature, more than any other parameter, sets the absolute limit on the cooling tower‟s capacity. 97. A full cylindrical tank 12 m high has a constant diameter of 6 m. The tank has a 100 mm diameter hole in its bottom. The coefficient of discharge for the hole is 0.98. How long will it take for the water level to drop from 12 m to 6 m? a) 16 minutes b) 20 minutes c) 24 minutes d) 28 minutes Answer: c) the time to lower the level = 24 minutes 2 Solution: Vo Cv 2gH 0.98 29.806612 15.035 m / s VT D h 62 12 6 169.65 m3 4 4 Q AVo d 2Vo 0.102 15.035 0.1181m3 / s 4 4 VT 169.65 t 23.94 min utes Q 0.118160 98. Air enters a cooling tower at 10 oC DB and 9.5 oC WB temperature. It leaves the tower saturated at 21 oC. Which condition is a likely outcome of this? a) Sublimation b) Condensation c) Adsorption d) Fog Answer: d) Fog Note: The process has the potential to create fog, which consists of liquid droplets suspended in the atmosphere. Adsorption is a process in which molecules of gas or liquid are extracted from an atmosphere. But it does not indicate suspended moisture droplets such as those that characterize fog. 99. A gaseous mixture of propane (C3H8), methane (CH4), and ethane (C2H6) have partial pressure 50 kPa, 95 kPa, and 115 kPa respectively. Determine the mass percentage of propane. a) 30.68 % b) 28.68 % c) 21.68 % d) 32.68 % 17 Answer: a) 30.68 % Solution: Total pressure = p1 + p2 + p3 = 50 + 95 + 115 = 260 kPa Mole Fraction: n 1 p1 50 n 2 p2 95 n 3 p 3 115 y1 0.1923 y2 0.3654 y3 0.4423 n T p t 260 n T p t 260 n T p t 260 Molecular Mass of Mixture: M y1M propane y 2 M methane y 3 M ethane 0.192344 0.365416 0.442330 27.5766 100 % 0.192344 100 % 30.68 % y1 M propane Mass percentage of propane: x 1 M 27.5766 100. It is a space, or several rooms, or units of space having some sort of coincident loads or similar operating characteristics. It may or may not be an enclosed space, or it may consist of many partitioned rooms. How do you call this? a) Zone b) Room c) Space d) Plenum Answer: a) Zone 101. A pump delivering 230 lps of water whose absolute viscosity is 0.0114 poise has a 300 mm diameter suction pipe and 254 mm diameter discharge pipe. Determine the friction factor in the suction line if the pipe material is a cast iron. a) 0.02068 b) 0.0199 c) 0.2013 d) 0.0299 Answer: b) the friction factor, f = 0.0199 4Q 40.23 DV 10000.303.254 Solution: V 3.254 m / s Re 8.6 x 105 D2 0.302 0.00114 0.25 Relative roughness of the pipe material, e 0.00083 D 300 Absolute roughness of CI = 0.25 mm Using Moody‟s Equation: 1 1 6 3 10 0.25 106 3 f 0.00551 20000 0.0055 0.005520000 0.0199 D Re 300 8.6 x 10 5 102. In air conditioning, it indicates either a volume or a site without a partition or a partitioned room or group of rooms. How do you call this? a) Zone b) Room c) Space d) Plenum Answer: c) Space 103. A boiler installed where the atmospheric pressure is 752 mm Hg has a pressure of 12 kg/cm 2. Find the absolute pressure, in MPa. a) 1277.05 kPaa b) 1727.05 kPaa c) 1772.05 kPaa d) 1572.07 kPaa Answer: a) Absolute Pressure = 1277.05 kPaa 101.325 kPa Solution: Atmospheric pressure, p atm 752 mm Hg 100.258 kPa 760 mm Hg 9.18066 2 N 100 cm 1 kN Gage Pressure, p g 12 kg / cm 2 1 m 1000 N 1176.792 kPag kg f 18 Then, p abs p atm p g 100.258 1176.792 1277.05 kPaa 104. It is an enclosed or partitioned space that is usually treated as a single load. If conditioned, it often has an individual control system. What is this? a) Zone b) Room c) Space d) Plenum Answer: b) Room 105. Indicator test that shows that the area of card is 33 mm2, length of card is 50 mm. If spring scale is 1.72 MPa per mm, determine the MEP: a) 1.781 Mpa b) 33 Mpa c) 1.135 Mpa d) 50 Mpa Answer: c) Mean Effective Pressure, MEP = 1.135 MPa 33 mm2 Solution: Height of the Indicator card, h 0.66 mm 50 mm Mean Effective Pressure, MEP 1.72 MPa / mm0.66 mm 1.135 MPa 106. Calculate the thermal efficiency of an air standard diesel cycle engine operating at a volumetric compression ratio of 23:1 with a cut-off ratio of 2.25. a) 62.6% b) 60.6% c) 65.6% d) 67.6% Answer: c) 65.6 % rck 1 1 2.251.4 1 Solution: e 1 1 100 % 1 0.4 100 % 65.57 % rk k 1 c k r 1 23 1.4 1.25 107. It represents the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat enters a conditioned space from an external source or is released to the space from an internal source during a given time interval. a) Space heat gain b) Space cooling load c) Space heating load d) Space heat extraction rate Answer: a) Space heat gain 108. It is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat must be removed from a conditioned space so as to maintain a constant temperature and acceptable relative humidity. Its sensible load component is equal to the sum of the convective heat transfer from the surfaces of the building envelope, furnishings, occupants, appliances, and equipment. How do you call this? a) Space heat gain b) Space cooling load c) Space heating load d) Space heat extraction rate Answer: b) Space cooling load 109. An Engineer claims to have created a heat engine that produces 15 kW of power for a 20 kW input while operating between energy reservoirs at 37 oC and 400 oC. Is the Engineer‟s claim valid? a) Valid b) Not valid c) Probably d) May be valid Answer: b) The claim is not valid Solution: Engine Efficiency, e i W 100 % 15 100 % 75 % QA 20 T 37 273 Carnot Engine Efficiency, e 1 L 100 % 1 100 % 53.94 % T H 400 273 Note: The Engineer‟s claim is not valid because no engine will exceed the efficiency of a Carnot Engine operating at the temperature levels. 19 110. There are 20 kg of exhaust gas formed per kg of fuel oil burned in the combustion of diesoline C 16H32. What is the excess air percent? a) 30.1 % b) 29.16 % c) 21.5 % d) 30.6 % Answer: b) 29.16 % 137.28n 0.25m 137.2816 0.2532 Solution: Wa 14.74 kg / kg fuel 12n m 1216 32 Waa 20 kg / kg Fuel 1 kg fuel 19 kg / kg W Wa 19 14.74 Percent Excess Air: e aa 100 % 100 % 29.16 % 14.74 Wa 111. A process that the body uses to convert energy in food into heat and work, or it is the process that determines the rate at which energy is converted from chemical to thermal form within the body. a) Metabolism b) Eating c) Body food processing d) Blood circulation Answer: a) Metabolism 112. A Diesel power plant uses fuel with heating value of 45 038.8 kJ/kg. What is the density of fuel at 30 oC? a) 0.7882 kg/li b) 0.8782 kg/li c) 0.9887 kg/li d) 0.8878 kg/li Answer: b) 0.8782 kg/li Solution: HHV 41130 139.6 o API kJ / kg HHV 41130 45 038.8 41130 141.5 141.5 o API 28 SG o 0.8871 139.6 139.6 API 131.5 28 131.5 SG o 0.8871 SG t 0.8782 1 0.0007t t o 1 0.000730 15.56 t 0.8782 kg / li 113. What is a body insulation that is usually described as a single equivalent uniform layer over the whole body? a) Skin b) Blood c) Clothing d) Water Answer: c) Clothing 114. What is the insulating value of clothing? a) Btu unit b) Clo units c) Calorie unit d) Frigorie Unit Answer: b) Clo units 115. Which of the following is the value of clo units? o F ft 2 Hr o F m2 a) 1 clo 0.880 b) 1 clo 100 Btu kW o F m2 o F m2 c) 1 clo 0.275 d) 1 clo 190 W kW o F ft 2 Hr Answer: a) 1 clo 0.880 Btu 116. Determine the friction power of an engine if the frictional torque developed is 0.30 kN-m running 1200 rpm. 20 a) 47.7 kW b) 37.7 kW c) 43.3 kw d) 33.3 kW Answer: b) 37.7 kW nTf 12000.30 Solution: FP 37.7 kW 30 30 117. A 500 kW Diesel engine operates at 101.3 kPaa and 27 oC in Calamba City. If the engine will operates in Baguio City having 93 kPaa and 23 oC, what new brake power will be developed if mechanical efficiency is 85 %. a) 455.96 kW b) 549.10 kW c) 954.1 kW d) 495.1 kW Answer: a) 455.96 kW B T 83.312 6.5 Solution: BPe BPs B 760 h T 288.56 h 760 288.56 1000 1000 Where, Ps = power at sea level, kW Pe = power at a given elevation, kW T = temperature at a given elevation, oK h = elevation, m T = temperature at a given elevation, oK. B = atmospheric pressure at a given elevation, mm Hg, 93 23 273 BPe 500 455.96 kW 101.3 27 273 118. What is the basic index used to describe the radiant conditions in a space, it is the mean temperature of individual; exposed surfaces in the environment? a) Index temperature b) Mean radiant temperature c) Space temperature d) Dry bulb temperature Answer: b) Mean Radiant Temperature 119. Fish weighing 11 000 kg with a temperature of 20 oC is brought to a cold storage and which shall be cooled to – 10 o C in 11 hours. Find the required plant refrigerating capacity in TR if the specific heat of fish is 0.7 kCal/kg-oC above freezing and 0.30 kCal/kg-oC below freezing point that is – 3 oC. The latent heat of freezing is 55.5 kCal/kg. a) 25.26 b) 14.38 c) 15.26 d) 24.38 Answer: d) 24.38 TR Solution: Q m c p12 t 1 t 2 h 23 c p34 t 3 t 4 11000 4.187 0.720 3 55.5 0.30 3 10 Q 24.37 TR 113600 3.517 1 20 oC 3 2 - 3 oC 4 - 10 oC 120. In order to avoid cavitation in a centrifugal pump, which of the following is true? 21 a) Installation NPSH pump NPSH b) Installation NPSH pump NPSH c) Installation NPSH < pump NPSH d) Installation NPSH should be negative Answer: a) Installation NPSH pump NPSH 121. A refrigeration system operates on the reversed Carnot cycle. The minimum and maximum temperatures are – 25 C and 72 C, respectively. If the heat rejected at the condenser is 6000 kJ/min, find the tons of refrigeration required. a) 20.44 TR b) 24.40 TR c) 42.20 TR d) 44.20 TR Answer: a) 20.44 TR QL STL 17.39248 Solution: TR 20.44 tons 3.517 3.517 603.517 122. What always accompanies an isentropic expansion of steam? a) An increase in entropy b) An increase in enthalpy c) A decrease in entropy d) A decrease in enthalpy Answer: d) A decrease in enthalpy 123. Those substance that are particularly variable in the moisture content that they can possess at different times. a) Wet materials b) Hygroscopic materials c) Gross materials d) Bone-dry-weight material Answer: b) Hygroscopic material 124. The hygroscopic moisture content of a substance expressed as a percentage of the bone-dry-weight of the material. a) Moisture content b) Regain c) Bone-dry-weight d) Gross weight 125. What is the advantage of a pressurized deaerator over an atmospheric deaerator? a) A boiler feed tank is no longer required b) Less over all energy will be required to produce the steam c) It can be fitted at ground level d) It removes more oxygen Answer: d) It removes more oxygen 126. In proximate analysis, the coal analysis is consisting of moisture content, fixed carbon, ash, and which of the following? a) Sulfur b) Hydrogen c) Nitrogen d) Volatile matter Answer: d) Volatile matter 127. How do you call the heating value of the fuel if the water in the products of combustion is in the liquid state? a) Higher heating value b) Lower heating value c) Proximate heating value d) Gravimetric heating value Answer: a) Higher heating value 128. What is the rate, in Btu/h or W, at which heat must be added to the conditioned space to maintain a constant temperature and sometimes a specified relative humidity? a) Space heat gain b) Space cooling load c) Space heating load d) Space heat extraction rate Answer: c) Space heating load 129. Space heat extraction rate Qex, Btu /h (W), is the rate at which heat is actually removed from the conditioned space by the air system. Its sensible heat rate component is equal to the sensible cooling load only when the space air temperature remains constant. a) Space heat gain b) Space cooling load c) Space heating load d) Space heat extraction rate Answer: d) Space heat extraction rate 130. It is the rate, in Btu/h or W, of heat transfer at the coil. Its cooling load component is the rate at which heat is removed by the chilled water flowing through the coil or is absorbed by the refrigerant inside the coil. What do you call this? a) Coil load b) Heating coil load c) Refrigerating load d) Cooling load 22 Answer: a) Coil load 131. It is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat is added to the conditioned air from the hot water, steam, or electric heating elements inside the coil. a) Coil load b) Heating coil load c) Refrigerating load d) Cooling load Answer: b) Heating Coil Load 132. What is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat is absorbed by the refrigerant at the evaporator. For central hydronic systems, it is the sum of the coil load plus the chilled water piping heat gain, pump power heat gain, and storage tank heat gain. For most water systems in commercial buildings, the water piping and pump power heat gain is only about 5 to 10 percent of the coil load. In an air conditioning system using DX coil(s), it is equal to the DX coil load. a) Coil load b) Heating coil load c) Refrigerating load d) Cooling load Answer: c) Refrigerating load 133. It is a humidity sensor used to measure relative humidity, dew point, or absolute humidity of ambient or moving air. This device could be mechanical or electronic. How do you call this? a) Hydrometer b) Hygrometer c) Psychrometer d) Barometer Answer: b) Hygrometer 134. It is a device designed to control the flow of steam, water, gas, or other fluids. It can be considered a variable orifice positioned by an actuator in response to impulses or signals from the controller. It may be equipped with either a throttling plug, V-port, or rotating ball specially designed to provide a desired flow characteristic. How do you call this device. a) Automatic Valve b) Automatic flow meter c) Thermostat d) Pyrometer Answer: a) Automatic Valve 135. Assume that you are checking the water level in a boiler which is on the line in a power plant. Upon opening the gage cocks, you determine that the water level was above the top gage cock. Of the following actions, the best one to take first in this situation would be to: a) Shut-off the fuel and air supply b) Surface-blow the boiler c) Close the steam outlet valve from the boiler d) Increase the speed of the feed water Answer: c) Close the steam outlet valve from the boiler 136. It is a component in a hydro plant that absorbs water hammer during load fluctuations and serves as an auxiliary reservoir during high load demands. What is this component? a) Spillway b) Dam c) Surge tank d) penstock Answer: c) Surge Tank 137. It is a bituminous coal that contains plenty of hydrocarbons, forming lumped masses when burned. This coal is ideal for forming carbonaceous gases for reduction of ore. What do you call this coal? a) Coking or coking coal b) Free burning coal c) Peat coal d) Lignite coal Answer: a) Coking or coking coal 138. It is the temperature at which the oil vapors will continue to burn when ignited. a) Fire point b) Flash point c) Ignition temperature d) Creep temperature Answer: a) Fire point 139. It is the temperature to which oil has to be heated until sufficient flammable vapor is driven off to flash when brought into momentary contact with a flame. How do you call this temperature? a) Fire point b) Flash point c) Ignition temperature d) Creep temperature Answer: b) Flash point 140. The color of a lubricating oil is obtained by reference to transmitted light; the color by reflected light is referred to as: a) Bloom b) Reflection c) Deflection d) Residue 23 Answer: a) Bloom 141. How do you call the material left after heating an oil under specified conditions at high temperature, and is useful as a quality control tool in the refining of viscous oils, particularly residual oils? a) Ash b) Color c) Carbon residue d) Coke Answer: c) Carbon residue 142. Petroleum oils, when cooled, may become plastic solids, either from wax formation or from the fluid congealing. With some oils, the initial wax crystal formation becomes visible at temperatures slightly above the solidification point. When that temperature is reached at specific test conditions, it is known as the a) Cloud point b) Pour point c) Creep point d) Flash point Answer: a) Cloud point 143. It is the temperature at which cooled oil will just flow under specific test conditions; and it indicates the lowest temperature at which a lubricant can readily flow from its container. How do you call this temperature? a) Cloud point b) Pour point c) Creep point d) Flash point Answer: b) Pour point 144. It is a term indicating the measure of acidic components in oils; and was original intent to indicate the degree of refining in new oils, and to follow the development of oxidation in service, with its effects on deposit formation and corrosion. What is this? a) Neutralization number b) Total base number c) Total acid number d) Neutralization number and total acid number Answer: d) Neutralization number and total acid number 145. How do you call a measure of alkaline components in oils, especially those additives used in engine oils to neutralize acids formed during fuel combustion? a) Neutralization number b) Total base number c) Total acid number d) Neutralization number and total acid number Answer: b) Total base number 146. These are materials with low coefficients of friction compared to metals, and they are used to reduce friction and wear in a variety of applications. There are a large number of such materials, and they include graphite, molybdenum disulfide, polytetrafluoroethylene, talc, graphite fluoride, polymers, and certain metal salts. How do you call these materials? a) Greases b) Liquid lubricants c) Solid lubricants d) Powder lubricants Answer: c) Solid lubricants 147. These are engine oil additives used to help keep the engine clean by solubilizing and dispersing sludge, soot, and deposit precursors. How do you call these oil additives? a) Detergents b) Dispersants c) Oxidation inhibitors d) Corrosion inhibitors Answer: b) Dispersants 148. How do you call these engine oil additives used to prevent attack on sensitive bearing metals? a) Detergents b) Dispersants c) Oxidation inhibitors d) Corrosion inhibitors Answer: d) Corrosion inhibitors 149. These are engine oil additives used to prevent or reduce deposits and corrosion by neutralizing combustion by- product acids. What are these additives? a) Detergents b) Dispersants c) Oxidation inhibitors d) Corrosion inhibitors 24 Answer: a) Detergents 150. What is the molecular attraction of layers of an unlike matters? a) Adhesion b) Cohesion c) Advection d) Convection Answer: a) Adhesion 151. How do you call these engine oil additives used to prevent attack on iron and steel surfaces by condensed moisture and acidic corrosion products, aggravated by low-temperature stop-and-go operation? a) Detergents b) Dispersants c) Oxidation inhibitors d) Rust inhibitors Answer: d) Rust inhibitors 152. How do you call these engine oil additives used to help enable adequate low-temperature flow, along with sufficient viscosity at high temperatures? a) Viscosity-index improvers b) Pour point dispersants c) Oxidation inhibitors d) Rust inhibitors Answer: a) Viscosity-index improvers 153. These oil additives are used to minimize wear under boundary lubrication conditions, such as cam and lifter, and cylinder-wall and piston-ring surfaces. a) Anti-wear additives b) Pour point dispersants c) Oxidation inhibitors d) Rust inhibitors Answer: a) Anti-wear additives 154. These are engine oil additives used to allow air to break away easily from the oil. a) Anti-wear additives b) Defoamants c) Oxidation inhibitors d) Rust inhibitors Answer: b) Defoamants 155. These engine oil additives are used to improve fuel efficiency by reducing friction at rubbing surfaces. How do you call these oil additives? a) Anti-wear additives b) Friction modifiers c) Oxidation inhibitors d) Rust inhibitors Answer: b) Friction modifiers 156. How do you call an opening where hot source of energy from the earth is harnessed? a) Crater b) Hot water source c) Fumarole d) Volcano opening Answer: c) Fumarole 157. At standard atmospheric conditions, what is the approximate speed of sound? a) 336 m/s b) 363 m/s c) 633 m/s d) 346 m/s Answer: a) 336 m/s 158. The speed of sound is also called as: a) Sound velocity b) Acoustic velocity c) Subsonic velocity d) Critical velocity Answer: b) Acoustic velocity 159. This is the velocity at which a small pressure wave moves through a fluid. How do you call this velocity? a) Sonic velocity b) Subsonic velocity c) Supersonic velocity d) Hypersonic velocity Answer: a) Sonic Velocity 160. Which of the following is the speed of light? 25 a) 2.998 x 108 m/s b) 2.998 x 109 c) 2.998 x 1010 m/s d) 2.998 x 107 m/s Answer: a) 2.998 x 108 m/s 161. What can you say about entropy in the universe? a) Entropy is always increasing b) Entropy is decreasing c) Entropy will zero at the end of time d) Entropy is stagnating Answer: a) Entropy is always increasing 162. Which of the following is the chemical formula of butane? a) C2H5 b) C10H16 c) C4H10 d) C3H6 Answer: c) C4H10 163. If the sensible heat ratio is 0.75, what does it mean? a) 75 % latent heat and 25 % sensible heat b) 75 % sensible heat and 25 % latent heat c) 25 % latent and sensible heat and 75 % latent heat d) 75 % sensible and latent heat and 25 % sensible heat Answer: b) 75 % sensible heat and 25 % latent heat 164. The hardness of ground water required as feed water for a boiler is 0 – 10 ppm (part per million), which of the following is the range of alkalinity requirement? a) pH 9 to pH 10 b) pH 6 to pH 10 c) pH 10 to pH 11 d) pH 8 to pH 10 Answer: c) pH 10 to pH 11 165. As used in the Revised PSME Code for Boilers and Pres