HND332 MCQs PDF

**[HND332 MCQs]** **1. What is the primary purpose of outpatient care in acute care facilities?** A\) Provides specialized surgical care\ B) Provides long-term care for chronic conditions\ C) Provides preventative, primary, and secondary health care\ D) Offers only emergency care **Answer:** C) P...

**[HND332 MCQs]** **1. What is the primary purpose of outpatient care in acute care facilities?** A\) Provides specialized surgical care\ B) Provides long-term care for chronic conditions\ C) Provides preventative, primary, and secondary health care\ D) Offers only emergency care **Answer:** C) Provides preventative, primary, and secondary health care **2. What type of care is typically provided by urgent care facilities?** A\) Intensive care\ B) Outpatient surgery\ C) Primary care\ D) Hospice care **Answer:** C) Primary care **3. Skilled nursing facilities in post-acute care provide:** A\) Occasional medical supervision\ B) 24/7 care for complex medical needs\ C) Outpatient rehabilitation\ D) Palliative care services only **Answer:** B) 24/7 care for complex medical needs **4. Which facility is designed for patients who need longer hospital stays?** A\) Rehabilitation center\ B) Skilled nursing facility\ C) Long-term acute care hospital\ D) Urgent care clinic **Answer:** C) Long-term acute care hospital **5. Residential/assisted living facilities help with:** A\) Complex surgeries\ B) Daily living activities\ C) Intensive medical therapy\ D) Short-term rehabilitation **Answer:** B) Daily living activities **6. Which type of facility offers independent living, assisted care, and skilled nursing care in one location?** A\) Rehabilitation center\ B) Continuing Care Retirement Community (CCRC)\ C) Urgent care center\ D) Adult day care center **Answer:** B) Continuing Care Retirement Community (CCRC) **7. Which facility provides multidisciplinary assistance for patient recovery?** A\) Hospice facility\ B) Long-term care hospital\ C) Rehabilitation/restorative facility\ D) Adult day care center **Answer:** C) Rehabilitation/restorative facility **8. Adult day care facilities are primarily designed for:** A\) Long-term rehabilitation\ B) Emergency trauma care\ C) Supervision and activities for adults\ D) Short-term hospitalization **Answer:** C) Supervision and activities for adults **9. Hospice facilities are intended for patients who:** A\) Need intensive rehabilitation\ B) Require outpatient care\ C) Have a life expectancy of six months or less\ D) Are recovering from major surgery **Answer:** C) Have a life expectancy of six months or less **10. What is a key difference between outpatient and inpatient care?** A\) Inpatient care requires a longer wait time\ B) Outpatient care doesn't require overnight stays\ C) Outpatient care is only for emergencies\ D) Inpatient care is only for surgeries **Answer:** B) Outpatient care doesn't require overnight stays **11. Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting nutritional status?** A\) Environmental factors\ B) Genetic factors\ C) System factors\ D) Financial factors **Answer:** D) Financial factors **12. Human biological factors influencing nutritional status include:** A\) Food safety and availability\ B) Attitudes and behaviors\ C) Age, sex, physiological phases, and pathological factors\ D) System influences from healthcare and education **Answer:** C) Age, sex, physiological phases, and pathological factors **13. Lifestyle factors that affect nutritional status include:** A\) Attitudes, knowledge, and behaviors influencing food and activity\ B) Economic conditions\ C) Physiological factors\ D) Availability of nutrient-rich foods **Answer:** A) Attitudes, knowledge, and behaviors influencing food and activity **14. Food and nutrient factors affecting nutrition refer to:** A\) Exercise habits\ B) The type and amount of nutrients based on intake and quality\ C) Food safety standards\ D) Genetic predispositions **Answer:** B) The type and amount of nutrients based on intake and quality **15. Which of the following is considered an environmental factor influencing nutritional status?** A\) Age and sex\ B) Social, economic, and food availability factors\ C) Type and quantity of food consumed\ D) Physiological phases like pregnancy **Answer:** B) Social, economic, and food availability factors **16. System factors that affect nutritional status include:** A\) Food intake and nutrient quality\ B) Education, healthcare, and food supply systems\ C) Attitudes and food behaviors\ D) Genetic predispositions **Answer:** B) Education, healthcare, and food supply systems **17. What is the Nutrition Care Process?** A\) A system of dietary recommendations\ B) A method to address nutrition-related problems\ C) A meal plan for patients\ D) A process for preventing nutritional deficiencies **Answer:** B) A method to address nutrition-related problems **18. The four steps of the Nutrition Care Process include:** A\) Diagnosis, intervention, prescription, evaluation\ B) Assessment, diagnosis, intervention, monitoring/evaluation\ C) Diagnosis, evaluation, therapy, and discharge\ D) Prescription, evaluation, treatment, and follow-up **Answer:** B) Assessment, diagnosis, intervention, monitoring/evaluation **19. Standardized Nutrition Language is used for:** A\) Defining nutrient deficiencies\ B) Establishing dietary requirements\ C) Common terms for assessment, diagnosis, intervention, and evaluation\ D) Describing portion control **Answer:** C) Common terms for assessment, diagnosis, intervention, and evaluation **20. What are the components of a PES statement?** A\) Problem, etiology, signs/symptoms\ B) Prescription, examination, solutions\ C) Plan, exercise, solution\ D) Problem, energy, symptoms **Answer:** A) Problem, etiology, signs/symptoms **21. What are the key features of nutrition documentation?** A\) Subjective, standardized, timely\ B) Relevant, accurate, timely\ C) Detailed, lengthy, comprehensive\ D) Prescriptive, timely, objective **Answer:** B) Relevant, accurate, timely **22. Which of the following is NOT a documentation format for nutrition?** A\) SOAP\ B) PIE\ C) EMRs\ D) TEF **Answer:** D) TEF **23. Energy intake is measured in:** A\) kg or mg\ B) kJ or kcal\ C) ml or cm\ D) lb or oz **Answer:** B) kJ or kcal **24. How was historical energy intake typically determined?** A\) Use of metabolic chambers\ B) Using a bomb calorimeter\ C) Through patient food diaries\ D) By using wearable fitness trackers **Answer:** B) Using a bomb calorimeter **25. A bomb calorimeter is used to measure:** A\) Caloric intake of meals\ B) Heat produced from burned samples\ C) Total energy expenditure\ D) Resting metabolic rate **Answer:** B) Heat produced from burned samples **26. Resting Energy Expenditure (REE) refers to:** A\) Energy used during sleep\ B) Energy used while exercising\ C) Energy used while at rest\ D) Energy used during digestion **Answer:** C) Energy used while at rest **27. Which factor does NOT affect Resting Energy Expenditure (REE)?** A\) Lean body mass\ B) Age\ C) Sex\ D) Food type consumed **Answer:** D) Food type consumed **28. How does sex influence metabolic rates?** A\) Women have higher metabolic rates than men\ B) Women and men have the same metabolic rate\ C) Men have lower metabolic rates than women\ D) Women have lower metabolic rates than men **Answer:** D) Women have lower metabolic rates than men **29. The Thermic Effect of Food (TEF) refers to:** A\) Energy burned from exercise\ B) Energy expenditure increase from food consumption\ C) Calories burned from standing up\ D) Energy used while sleeping **Answer:** B) Energy expenditure increase from food consumption **30. How long is the Thermic Effect of Food (TEF) typically measured after a meal?** A\) For several days\ B) For several hours\ C) For 30 minutes\ D) For one hour **Answer:** B) For several hours **31. The Thermic Effect of Food (TEF) includes which of the following processes?** A\) Storage of body fat\ B) Digesting, absorbing, metabolizing, storing, and eliminating nutrients\ C) Physical activity levels\ D) Sleep-related metabolism **Answer:** B) Digesting, absorbing, metabolizing, storing, and eliminating nutrients **32. Approximately what percentage of total energy expenditure is due to TEF?** A\) 25%\ B) 50%\ C) 10%\ D) 5% **Answer:** C) 10% **33. TEF is greater after consuming:** A\) Proteins and fats\ B) Fats and carbohydrates\ C) Carbohydrates and proteins\ D) Fats and fiber **Answer:** C) Carbohydrates and proteins **34. What percentage of energy is wasted when metabolizing fat?** A\) 4%\ B) 10%\ C) 25%\ D) 15% **Answer:** A) 4% **35. How much energy is wasted when carbohydrates are converted to fat?** A\) 10%\ B) 4%\ C) 25%\ D) 15% **Answer:** C) 25% **36. Spicy foods can increase metabolic rate by up to:** A\) 10%\ B) 25%\ C) 33%\ D) 5% **Answer:** C) 33% **37. Adaptive thermogenesis refers to:** A\) A process that slows metabolism during exercise\ B) The body's regulation of metabolism to maintain homeostasis\ C) The process of increasing energy expenditure while sleeping\ D) The body's ability to absorb more nutrients from food **Answer:** B) The body's regulation of metabolism to maintain homeostasis **38. What effect does weight loss have on muscle mass and metabolism?** A\) Muscle mass increases and metabolism decreases\ B) Muscle mass remains stable while metabolism increases\ C) Muscle mass is lost, reducing energy needs and metabolism\ D) Muscle mass is gained, increasing metabolic rate **Answer:** C) Muscle mass is lost, reducing energy needs and metabolism **39. What effect does intake restriction have on the body?** A\) It increases energy needs\ B) It leads to adaptive thermogenesis, causing weight loss plateaus\ C) It boosts metabolism and aids in faster weight loss\ D) It prevents the onset of adaptive thermogenesis **Answer:** B) It leads to adaptive thermogenesis, causing weight loss plateaus **40. Which hormone stimulates hunger and increases body weight?** A\) Insulin\ B) Leptin\ C) Ghrelin\ D) Cortisol **Answer:** C) Ghrelin **41. Which hormone promotes satiety by diminishing appetite?** A\) Ghrelin\ B) Insulin\ C) Leptin\ D) Cortisol **Answer:** C) Leptin **42. Body composition refers to:** A\) The proportion of bone to muscle mass\ B) The proportion of water to fat in the body\ C) The proportion of fat to non-fat mass in the body\ D) The proportion of muscle to water mass in the body **Answer:** C) The proportion of fat to non-fat mass in the body **43. Hydrodensitometry is also known as:** A\) Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA)\ B) Underwater weighing\ C) Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)\ D) Air-displacement plethysmography **Answer:** B) Underwater weighing **44. Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis (BIA) measures body composition based on:** A\) Speed of sound waves through muscle\ B) Density of bones\ C) Speed of an electrical current\ D) Volume of air displaced **Answer:** C) Speed of an electrical current **45. How does body fat affect an electrical current in BIA?** A\) Fat speeds up the electrical current\ B) Fat slows down the electrical current due to greater resistance\ C) Fat neutralizes the current, leading to inaccurate readings\ D) Fat has no effect on the electrical current **Answer:** B) Fat slows down the electrical current due to greater resistance **46. Air-Displacement Plethysmography (BodPod) is used to assess:** A\) Water retention in the body\ B) Bone density\ C) Body composition using air displacement\ D) Muscle strength through air pressure **Answer:** C) Body composition using air displacement **47. How does Air-Displacement Plethysmography work?** A\) It measures water displacement in a tank\ B) It calculates air volume changes when a person exhales\ C) It measures volume of air displaced in a closed chamber\ D) It measures the speed of sound waves through the body **Answer:** C) It measures volume of air displaced in a closed chamber **48. Body density measurements are used to estimate:** A\) Water retention\ B) Muscle strength\ C) Body fat percentage and overall composition\ D) Blood pressure **Answer:** C) Body fat percentage and overall composition **49. Dual-Energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DEXA) measures:** A\) Only body fat and water retention\ B) Muscle mass, bone mass, and fat tissue\ C) Only bone density\ D) Body composition using air displacement **Answer:** B) Muscle mass, bone mass, and fat tissue **50. What makes DEXA more reliable compared to other methods of assessing body composition?** A\) It's the fastest method\ B) It only focuses on body fat percentage\ C) It provides detailed measurements of bone mass, fat tissue, and muscle mass\ D) It's the cheapest and most accessible option **Answer:** C) It provides detailed measurements of bone mass, fat tissue, and muscle mass **51. Why is body fat distribution important?** A\) It determines muscle strength\ B) It is a predictor of health status\ C) It defines the daily caloric needs\ D) It measures hydration levels **Answer:** B) It is a predictor of health status **52. What are the main categories of body fat distribution?** A\) Abdominal/central and peripheral fat\ B) Upper body and lower body fat distribution\ C) Abdominal/central and lower body fat distribution\ D) Subcutaneous and visceral fat **Answer:** C) Abdominal/central and lower body fat distribution **53. Why is abdominal/central fat distribution considered high risk?** A\) It increases the likelihood of muscle atrophy\ B) It is associated with a higher risk of cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes\ C) It leads to increased flexibility\ D) It boosts immune system function **Answer:** B) It is associated with a higher risk of cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes **54. What is considered a high-risk waist circumference for males?** A\) \>38 inches (96.5 cm)\ B) \>42 inches (107 cm)\ C) \>40 inches (102 cm)\ D) \>35 inches (88 cm) **Answer:** C) \>40 inches (102 cm) **55. What is the high-risk waist circumference for Asian females?** A\) ≥35 inches (88 cm)\ B) ≥31.5 inches (80 cm)\ C) ≥40 inches (102 cm)\ D) ≥32.5 inches (82.5 cm) **Answer:** B) ≥31.5 inches (80 cm) **56. Waist-to-Hip Ratio (WHR) and Waist-to-Height Ratio (WHtR) are used to:** A\) Identify hydration levels\ B) Identify health risks\ C) Determine daily energy intake\ D) Measure bone density **Answer:** B) Identify health risks **57. WHR and WHtR are better than BMI at:** A\) Identifying muscle strength\ B) Identifying health risks\ C) Measuring total body weight\ D) Measuring bone mass **Answer:** B) Identifying health risks **58. How is Waist-to-Hip Ratio (WHR) calculated?** A\) Hip circumference divided by waist circumference\ B) Waist circumference divided by height\ C) Waist circumference divided by hip circumference\ D) Height divided by waist circumference **Answer:** C) Waist circumference divided by hip circumference **59. How is overweight classified in children?** A\) BMI ≥85th percentile but \35 with risk factors\ C) Anyone with a BMI \>25\ D) Patients with a BMI \>35 and no risk factors **Answer:** B) Patients with a BMI \>40, or \>35 with risk factors **64. What is one major benefit of bariatric surgery?** A\) Permanent weight loss without lifestyle changes\ B) Instant results without risks\ C) Significant weight loss and improvement in obesity-related comorbidities\ D) Guaranteed muscle gain **Answer:** C) Significant weight loss and improvement in obesity-related comorbidities **65. Which of the following is a common risk associated with bariatric surgery?** A\) Immediate weight gain\ B) No change in lifestyle\ C) Postoperative complications\ D) Increased food cravings **Answer:** C) Postoperative complications **66. Which procedure is a common type of bariatric surgery?** A\) Gastric balloon\ B) Liposuction\ C) Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGB)\ D) Hormonal therapy **Answer:** C) Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGB) **67. How does the Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGB) work?** A\) It increases food absorption by enlarging the stomach\ B) It reduces hunger by placing a band around the stomach\ C) It creates a small stomach pouch connected directly to the intestine\ D) It removes the small intestine entirely **Answer:** C) It creates a small stomach pouch connected directly to the intestine **68. What happens in a Laparoscopic Vertical Sleeve Gastrectomy (LVSG)?** A\) The stomach is stapled to limit its size\ B) A portion of the intestine is removed\ C) A part of the stomach is removed to reduce its size\ D) A band is placed around the stomach **Answer:** C) A part of the stomach is removed to reduce its size **69. In Laparoscopic Adjustable Gastric Banding (LAGB), what is done?** A\) A part of the stomach is removed\ B) A band is placed on the upper stomach to create a small pouch\ C) The intestines are rerouted\ D) The stomach is stretched to increase capacity **Answer:** B) A band is placed on the upper stomach to create a small pouch **70. The Duodenal Switch, Biliopancreatic Diversion (DS-BPD) combines which two procedures?** A\) Gastric banding and intestine rerouting\ B) Sleeve gastrectomy with intestinal bypass\ C) Liposuction and gastric ballooning\ D) Stapling the stomach and reducing caloric intake **Answer:** B) Sleeve gastrectomy with intestinal bypass **71. How does the DS-BPD procedure work?** A\) It only reduces stomach size\ B) It removes the entire small intestine\ C) It removes part of the stomach and connects a small pouch to the end of the small intestine, bypassing most of it\ D) It adds a band around the stomach and leaves the intestines unchanged **Answer:** C) It removes part of the stomach and connects a small pouch to the end of the small intestine, bypassing most of it **72. Candidates for DS-BPD typically have a BMI:** A\) \>30\ B) \>35 with no risk factors\ C) \>50\ D) Between 20 and 25 **Answer:** C) \>50 **73. What is one of the primary risks of the DS-BPD procedure?** A\) Weight gain\ B) High risk of malnutrition\ C) Reduced muscle mass\ D) Increased food cravings **Answer:** B) High risk of malnutrition **74. Which of the following are medical factors contributing to malnutrition in older adults?** A\) High-fat diet and overhydration\ B) Poor dentition, chewing difficulties, loss of taste, and emphysema\ C) Overconsumption of protein\ D) Limited carbohydrate intake **Answer:** B) Poor dentition, chewing difficulties, loss of taste, and emphysema **75. How does emphysema affect caloric needs in older adults?** A\) It decreases caloric expenditure\ B) It has no effect on caloric expenditure\ C) It increases caloric expenditure due to the effort of breathing\ D) It increases caloric intake by increasing appetite **Answer:** C) It increases caloric expenditure due to the effort of breathing **76. How does severe emphysema affect food consumption?** A\) It increases the size of the stomach, allowing for more food\ B) Inflated lungs limit stomach size, decreasing food intake\ C) It causes extreme hunger, leading to overeating\ D) It has no effect on food consumption **Answer:** B) Inflated lungs limit stomach size, decreasing food intake **77. Malabsorption in older adults can lead to:** A\) Weight gain and increased fat storage\ B) Deficiencies in macronutrients and micronutrients\ C) Improved digestion and faster metabolism\ D) Enhanced muscle growth **Answer:** B) Deficiencies in macronutrients and micronutrients **78. How does Type 1 diabetes cause rapid weight loss in older adults?** A\) It increases appetite, leading to overeating\ B) It causes frequent urination due to excess blood sugar, leading to weight loss\ C) It increases fat storage, leading to muscle loss\ D) It reduces the amount of insulin produced, causing overeating **Answer:** B) It causes frequent urination due to excess blood sugar, leading to weight loss **79. How does a stroke impact nutrition in older adults?** A\) It improves digestion and increases appetite\ B) It can lead to dysphagia, depression, and decreased oral intake, contributing to malnutrition\ C) It boosts metabolism and energy expenditure\ D) It has no effect on nutrition **Answer:** B) It can lead to dysphagia, depression, and decreased oral intake, contributing to malnutrition **80. What are some nutritional challenges caused by Parkinson\'s disease?** A\) Increased appetite and overeating\ B) Dysphagia, increased caloric expenditure from tremors, and difficulties in meal preparation\ C) Enhanced digestion and muscle growth\ D) Increased food absorption **Answer:** B) Dysphagia, increased caloric expenditure from tremors, and difficulties in meal preparation **81. How can hospitalization affect nutrition in older adults?** A\) Improves their digestion and absorption\ B) Requires eating assistance, leads to missed meals, and increases nutrient needs\ C) Reduces their caloric intake by increasing appetite\ D) Decreases the need for nutrients **Answer:** B) Requires eating assistance, leads to missed meals, and increases nutrient needs **82. Which of the following is a lifestyle or social factor contributing to malnutrition in older adults?** A\) Excessive physical activity\ B) Isolation, financial issues, and lack of transportation access\ C) High consumption of fast food\ D) Overeating at family gatherings **Answer:** B) Isolation, financial issues, and lack of transportation access **83. What does muscle wasting in older adults indicate?** A\) A balanced diet\ B) Excessive fat intake\ C) A deficiency in energy and protein\ D) Lack of physical activity only **Answer:** C) A deficiency in energy and protein **84. Skin xerosis and bruising can suggest deficiencies in which nutrients?** A\) Vitamins A, C, and K\ B) Protein and carbohydrates\ C) Iron and zinc\ D) Sodium and potassium **Answer:** A) Vitamins A, C, and K **85. Hair thinning and pigment changes may indicate deficiencies in:** A\) Energy, protein, and vitamins A, B, and E\ B) Calcium and magnesium\ C) Vitamin D and selenium\ D) Iron and sodium **Answer:** A) Energy, protein, and vitamins A, B, and E **86. What is the recommended energy distribution for a high-energy diet?** A\) 10% from fat, 5% from protein\ B) 50% from fat, 10% from protein\ C) 30% from fat, at least 12-15% from protein\ D) 20% from carbohydrates, 25% from fat **Answer:** C) 30% from fat, at least 12-15% from protein **87. Individuals predisposed to eating disorders often:** A\) Exercise excessively but maintain a healthy diet\ B) Tend to diet strictly and develop associated psychological and medical problems\ C) Avoid any physical activity and increase caloric intake\ D) Have no history of dieting or body image concerns **Answer:** B) Tend to diet strictly and develop associated psychological and medical problems **88. Which of the following is a risk factor for eating disorders?** A\) High intelligence quotient (IQ)\ B) Regular physical exercise\ C) Environmental factors, character traits, mental health disorders, and biological factors\ D) Low salt intake **Answer:** C) Environmental factors, character traits, mental health disorders, and biological factors **89. Childhood factors that can increase the risk of eating disorders include:** A\) Early interest in sports\ B) Childhood obesity or large body size and early puberty\ C) High levels of parental involvement in nutrition\ D) Regular physical education at school **Answer:** B) Childhood obesity or large body size and early puberty **90. Which of the following best characterizes anorexia nervosa?** A\) Excessive weight gain due to lack of dieting\ B) Excessive dieting, severe weight loss, distorted body image, and fear of weight gain\ C) A balanced diet with high energy intake\ D) Compulsive overeating without weight concern **Answer:** B) Excessive dieting, severe weight loss, distorted body image, and fear of weight gain **91. What are the subtypes of anorexia nervosa?** A\) Overeating and fasting subtypes\ B) Restricting subtype and binge eating/purging subtype\ C) Active and passive subtypes\ D) Compulsive and non-compulsive subtypes **Answer:** B) Restricting subtype and binge eating/purging subtype **92. Can individuals with anorexia nervosa switch between subtypes during the illness course?** A\) No, the subtypes are fixed\ B) Yes, individuals can switch between subtypes\ C) Only if they have a specific genetic marker\ D) Only if they receive treatment **Answer:** B) Yes, individuals can switch between subtypes **93. What characterizes bulimia nervosa?** A\) Starvation and extreme thinness\ B) Binge eating followed by behaviors like self-induced vomiting to prevent weight gain\ C) Constant dieting without episodes of overeating\ D) Eating large amounts of food but no compensatory behaviors **Answer:** B) Binge eating followed by behaviors like self-induced vomiting to prevent weight gain **94. Which of the following are common compensatory methods in bulimia nervosa?** A\) Increased water intake and sleeping more\ B) Misuse of laxatives, diuretics, fasting, and excessive exercise\ C) Avoiding certain food groups only\ D) Daily snacking without purging **Answer:** B) Misuse of laxatives, diuretics, fasting, and excessive exercise **95. What is binge eating disorder?** A\) Starving oneself followed by compulsive exercise\ B) Recurring episodes of consuming large amounts of food with feelings of loss of control\ C) Constant overeating with no feelings of guilt\ D) Intermittent fasting followed by overeating **Answer:** B) Recurring episodes of consuming large amounts of food with feelings of loss of control **96. How does the APA differentiate between the subtypes of anorexia nervosa?** A\) Based on caloric intake only\ B) Restricting type involves no bingeing or purging; binge-eating/purging type involves recurrent bingeing or purging\ C) Based on the age at which the disorder starts\ D) Based on the person\'s exercise habits **Answer:** B) Restricting type involves no bingeing or purging; binge-eating/purging type involves recurrent bingeing or purging **97. What BMI classifies anorexia nervosa as mild according to severity?** A\) BMI ≥ 18 kg/m²\ B) BMI ≥ 16.5 kg/m²\ C) BMI ≥ 17 kg/m²\ D) BMI ≥ 15.5 kg/m² **Answer:** C) BMI ≥ 17 kg/m² **98. Can the severity of anorexia nervosa increase over time?** A\) No, it remains constant\ B) Yes, it can increase based on clinical symptoms, functional disability, and supervision needs\ C) Only in cases where there is no access to treatment\ D) Only if the patient gains weight **Answer:** B) Yes, it can increase based on clinical symptoms, functional disability, and supervision needs **99. What defines the current severity of bulimia nervosa?** A\) How much weight is gained during a binge\ B) The number of episodes of inappropriate compensatory behaviors per week\ C) The patient's BMI\ D) The amount of food consumed during each binge **Answer:** B) The number of episodes of inappropriate compensatory behaviors per week **100. Which of the following are physical and health complications of anorexia nervosa?** A\) Improved digestion and muscle gain\ B) Cold extremities, dry skin, lanugo, marked weight loss, alopecia, acrocyanosis\ C) Increased appetite and faster metabolism\ D) Excessive fat accumulation and hair growth **Answer:** B) Cold extremities, dry skin, lanugo, marked weight loss, alopecia, acrocyanosis **101. What health complications arise from bulimia nervosa?** A\) Generally result from purging behaviors and are typically life-threatening\ B) Generally result from purging behaviors but are not typically life-threatening\ C) Primarily related to malnutrition only\ D) Include increased body mass index (BMI) **Answer:** B) Generally result from purging behaviors but are not typically life-threatening **102. Health complications of binge eating disorder are usually associated with:** A\) Vitamin deficiencies\ B) Obesity\ C) Starvation\ D) Hypertension without weight gain **Answer:** B) Obesity **103. What is the cardiac cycle?** A\) The rate of the heart's electrical activity\ B) The contraction and relaxation of the heart\ C) The blood flow through the veins only\ D) The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs **Answer:** B) The contraction and relaxation of the heart **104. What are the phases of the cardiac cycle?** A\) Oxygenation and deoxygenation\ B) Systole (contraction) and diastole (relaxation)\ C) Ventricular filling and ventricular emptying\ D) Atrial contraction and atrial relaxation **Answer:** B) Systole (contraction) and diastole (relaxation) **105. What is systolic blood pressure?** A\) Pressure in blood vessels during heart contraction\ B) Pressure in blood vessels during heart relaxation\ C) The amount of blood the heart pumps\ D) Blood pressure in the veins only **Answer:** A) Pressure in blood vessels during heart contraction **106. Diastolic blood pressure refers to:** A\) The highest pressure in the veins\ B) Pressure in blood vessels during heart relaxation\ C) Blood flow from the heart to the lungs\ D) The amount of blood pumped by the ventricles **Answer:** B) Pressure in blood vessels during heart relaxation **107. Which instrument is used to measure blood pressure?** A\) Stethoscope\ B) Thermometer\ C) Sphygmomanometer\ D) ECG machine **Answer:** C) Sphygmomanometer **108. How does the pressure in arteries compare to veins?** A\) Pressure is higher in arteries than veins\ B) Pressure is lower in arteries than veins\ C) Pressure is equal in both arteries and veins\ D) Pressure is absent in veins **Answer:** A) Pressure is higher in arteries than veins **109. Systolic blood pressure is defined as:** A\) The pressure in veins during contraction\ B) The pressure in arteries during ventricular contraction\ C) The pressure during diastole\ D) The pressure in capillaries during relaxation **Answer:** B) The pressure in arteries during ventricular contraction **110. What is the normal systolic pressure?** A\) 140 mm Hg\ B) 100 mm Hg\ C) 120 mm Hg\ D) 90 mm Hg **Answer:** C) 120 mm Hg **111. Diastolic blood pressure refers to the pressure in:** A\) Arteries during ventricular relaxation\ B) Veins during contraction\ C) Arteries during ventricular contraction\ D) The left atrium **Answer:** A) Arteries during ventricular relaxation **112. What is the normal diastolic pressure?** A\) 90 mm Hg\ B) 80 mm Hg\ C) 100 mm Hg\ D) 70 mm Hg **Answer:** B) 80 mm Hg **113. What is considered a normal blood pressure reading?** A\) 140/90 mm Hg\ B) 110/70 mm Hg\ C) 120/80 mm Hg\ D) 130/85 mm Hg **Answer:** C) 120/80 mm Hg **114. What is hypertension?** A\) Low blood pressure\ B) High blood pressure\ C) Abnormal heart rhythm\ D) Low pulse rate **Answer:** B) High blood pressure **115. What are the types of hypertension?** A\) Primary and secondary\ B) Mild and moderate\ C) Systolic and diastolic\ D) Cardiac and renal **Answer:** A) Primary and secondary **116. What characterizes primary (essential) hypertension?** A\) Directly caused by kidney failure\ B) Caused by inflammatory responses and influenced by lifestyle\ C) Caused by heart failure\ D) Linked to severe dehydration **Answer:** B) Caused by inflammatory responses and influenced by lifestyle **117. Secondary hypertension is caused by:** A\) Genetic factors alone\ B) Chronic conditions such as kidney, vascular, or endocrine issues\ C) Lack of exercise\ D) Excessive salt intake only **Answer:** B) Chronic conditions such as kidney, vascular, or endocrine issues **118. How does hypertension affect blood vessels?** A\) Dilates them, increasing blood flow\ B) Narrows and restricts them, reducing blood flow\ C) Has no effect on blood vessels\ D) Increases blood clot formation **Answer:** B) Narrows and restricts them, reducing blood flow **119. What happens when kidney blood vessels are damaged by hypertension?** A\) They improve fluid retention\ B) They impair the ability to remove waste and fluids from the body\ C) They expand, causing less blood flow\ D) They cause the kidneys to regenerate **Answer:** B) They impair the ability to remove waste and fluids from the body **120. How does excess fluid affect blood pressure?** A\) Lowers blood pressure\ B) Raises blood pressure, increasing the risk of kidney failure\ C) Decreases the heart\'s workload\ D) Decreases kidney function without affecting blood pressure **Answer:** B) Raises blood pressure, increasing the risk of kidney failure **121. What does a comprehensive hypertension treatment plan include?** A\) Only medication\ B) Only exercise\ C) Weight reduction\ D) Increasing sodium intake **Answer:** C) Weight reduction **122. What is the effect of being overweight on the heart?** A\) It reduces blood pressure\ B) Extra strain is placed on the heart\ C) It reduces the risk of heart disease\ D) It lowers cholesterol **Answer:** B) Extra strain is placed on the heart **123. What are the benefits of losing a small amount of weight?** A\) Increases blood pressure\ B) Reduces blood pressure, vessel damage, risk of heart attack, and stroke\ C) Increases cholesterol levels\ D) Causes the heart to work harder **Answer:** B) Reduces blood pressure, vessel damage, risk of heart attack, and stroke **124. What other treatments are used for hypertension besides weight loss?** A\) Only dietary changes\ B) Pharmacological interventions like loop diuretics and thiazides\ C) Increasing salt intake\ D) Reducing physical activity **Answer:** B) Pharmacological interventions like loop diuretics and thiazides **125. What is the function of loop diuretics?** A\) Increase sodium retention\ B) Help kidneys remove salt and water through urine, reducing fluid in veins and arteries\ C) Reduce the heart\'s workload\ D) Increase blood flow **Answer:** B) Help kidneys remove salt and water through urine, reducing fluid in veins and arteries **126. Which of the following is an example of a loop diuretic?** A\) Furosemide (Lasix)\ B) Metformin\ C) Atenolol\ D) Hydrochlorothiazide **Answer:** A) Furosemide (Lasix) **127. What is the function of thiazides in treating hypertension?** A\) Increase sodium reabsorption\ B) Decrease sodium reabsorption, increasing fluid loss in urine\ C) Increase potassium levels\ D) Reduce cholesterol **Answer:** B) Decrease sodium reabsorption, increasing fluid loss in urine **128. Thiazides are preferred for:** A\) Patients with normal kidney function for greater antihypertensive effects\ B) Patients with kidney failure\ C) Treating heart failure only\ D) Only pediatric patients **Answer:** A) Patients with normal kidney function for greater antihypertensive effects **129. How does weight reduction help with hypertension?** A\) Increasing blood pressure\ B) Reducing weight (BMI 18.5--24.9) can reduce systolic blood pressure by 5--20 mm Hg per 10 kg of weight lost\ C) Reducing systolic blood pressure by 1--2 mm Hg per 10 kg of weight lost\ D) Has no effect on blood pressure **Answer:** B) Reducing weight (BMI 18.5--24.9) can reduce systolic blood pressure by 5--20 mm Hg per 10 kg of weight lost **130. What does the DASH eating plan for hypertension include?** A\) High sodium and fat intake\ B) Rich in fruits, vegetables, low-fat dairy, with reduced fats; can lower systolic blood pressure by 8--14 mm Hg\ C) High protein and low fiber intake\ D) Processed and fast foods **Answer:** B) Rich in fruits, vegetables, low-fat dairy, with reduced fats; can lower systolic blood pressure by 8--14 mm Hg **131. What is the recommended sodium intake for individuals with hypertension?** A\) ≤2400 mg/day, ideally reducing to 1500 mg/day\ B) 3000 mg/day\ C) 500 mg/day\ D) Unlimited sodium intake **Answer:** A) ≤2400 mg/day, ideally reducing to 1500 mg/day **132. How does lowering sodium intake affect blood pressure?** A\) It increases systolic blood pressure\ B) Can reduce systolic blood pressure by 2--8 mm Hg\ C) Has no effect on blood pressure\ D) Increases the risk of stroke **Answer:** B) Can reduce systolic blood pressure by 2--8 mm Hg **133. What is the impact of reducing sodium by 1000 mg/day?** A\) No effect on blood pressure\ B) Still beneficial in lowering blood pressure\ C) Increases blood pressure\ D) Increases risk of kidney damage **Answer:** B) Still beneficial in lowering blood pressure **134. What is atherosclerosis?** A\) Loss of bone density\ B) Thickening of vessel walls from plaque buildup and loss of elasticity, restricting blood flow\ C) Enlargement of the heart\ D) Increased blood circulation **Answer:** B) Thickening of vessel walls from plaque buildup and loss of elasticity, restricting blood flow **135. What does atherosclerosis result in?** A\) Increased oxygen delivery\ B) Restricted blood flow\ C) Decreased blood pressure\ D) Improved heart function **Answer:** B) Restricted blood flow **136. What conditions are linked to atherosclerosis?** A\) Myocardial infarction (heart attack), cerebrovascular accident (stroke), peripheral vascular disease (PVD)\ B) Hypertension and arthritis\ C) Diabetes and liver disease\ D) Anemia and low blood pressure **Answer:** A) Myocardial infarction (heart attack), cerebrovascular accident (stroke), peripheral vascular disease (PVD) **137. What is peripheral vascular disease (PVD)?** A\) A disease that affects the brain\ B) A condition affecting blood flow to limbs and areas outside the brain and heart\ C) A disease of the heart valves\ D) A condition of liver failure **Answer:** B) A condition affecting blood flow to limbs and areas outside the brain and heart **138. What causes blood vessel thickening in atherosclerosis?** A\) Increased red blood cells\ B) Plaque buildup and loss of elasticity\ C) Increased muscle mass in the blood vessels\ D) Reduced cholesterol levels **Answer:** B) Plaque buildup and loss of elasticity **139. Atherosclerosis results in:** A\) Reduced blood flow\ B) Increased heart rate\ C) Improved circulation\ D) Increased muscle strength **Answer:** A) Reduced blood flow **140. What is coronary heart disease (CHD)?** A\) The narrowing/blockage of coronary arteries\ B) Increased oxygenation of the heart\ C) A disorder affecting heart valves\ D) Inflammation of the heart muscle **Answer:** A) The narrowing/blockage of coronary arteries **141. What can severe CHD or myocardial infarction lead to?** A\) Diabetes\ B) Congestive heart failure (CHF)\ C) Increased cholesterol levels\ D) Improved heart function **Answer:** B) Congestive heart failure (CHF) **142. What happens in congestive heart failure (CHF)?** A\) The heart pumps blood more efficiently\ B) The heart can\'t pump blood efficiently enough to meet the body's needs\ C) The heart increases its oxygen usage\ D) There is no effect on heart function **Answer:** B) The heart can\'t pump blood efficiently enough to meet the body's needs **143. What is the goal total cholesterol level in adults over 21?** A\) \