Hesi #1 PDF

Hesi #1 1. A radiographer observes a radiography student removing her gloves after assisting with a lower gastrointestinal barium sulfate contrast study. The student slides two fingers of her gloved hand inside the other glove and begins to roll the glove off. What action should the radiographe...

Hesi #1 1. A radiographer observes a radiography student removing her gloves after assisting with a lower gastrointestinal barium sulfate contrast study. The student slides two fingers of her gloved hand inside the other glove and begins to roll the glove off. What action should the radiographer take? A. Remind the student to discard the gloves in a biohazard container after removal. B. Instruct the student to use two pair of gloves when fecal contamination is possible. C. Advise the student that the technique being used will result in hand contamination. D. Suggest the student roll both of the gloves off and inside out at the same time. 2. The successful outcome of a radiographic examination often depends upon the ability of the radiographer to communicate the necessary instructions to the patient. Which is the best way to ensure that the patient understands these instructions? A. Involve the family members to help reinforce the instructions B. Ask if the patient understands the instructions C. Provide a written explanation to supplement verbal instructions. D. Have the patient repeat or demonstrate instructions. 3. An 80 year old patient complains of dizziness while being helped into a sitting position after a lumbar spine series. What is the most likely cause? A. Hypotension B. Tachycardia C. Bradycardia D. Hypertension 4. Which type of substance is considered a health hazard on Safety Data Sheets (SDS)? A. Gasoline B. Carcinogenic chemicals C. Cleaning solvent D. Compressed gasses 5. A radiographer performs a lumbar spine exam on a patient who has just been given morphine sulfate for back pain. Of which potential side effects should the radiographer be most concerned? A. Nausea and vomiting B. Depressed respiratory rate C. Tachycardia D. Headache 6. Which clinical presentation most consistent with a patient experiencing shock? A. An unresponsive 75-year old patient with cool, dry skin and blood pressure of 184/114. B. An anxious 35-year old patient with warm, pink skin and blood pressure of 110/74. C. A lethargic 3-month old patient with pale, dry skin and blood pressure 88/68. D. A confused 47 year-old male with cool, clammy skin and blood pressure of 58/40. 7. Which position best demonstrates the left posterolateral ribs? A. RAO B. LAO C. RPO D. LPO 8. A radiographer performs two sternum examinations, first on an asthenic patient and then on a hypersthenic patient. Compared to the first exam, how will the radiographer adjust to the second oblique sternum? A. Increase degree of chest rotation B. Decrease miliamperes (mA) C. Decrease degree of chest rotation D. Increase source to image receptor distance (SID) 9. When the hand is pronated, which best describes the position of the 1st metacarpal? A. Posteroanterior (PA) B. Anteroposterior (AP) C. Oblique D. Lateral 10. Which quality factors are primarily determined by the look up table (LUT) during digital image processing? Choose two that apply A. Brightness B. Contrast C. Quantum mottle D. Magnification E. Spatial resolution 11. Which body position is best suited for a patient who suffers from orthopnea? A. Lithotomy B. Fowlers C. Trendelenburg D. Recumbent 12. A filament electron with 75 kiloelectron volts (keV) of kinetic energy passes close to a nucleus and slows, losing kinetic energy. When the filament electron travels beyond the nucleus, its kinetic energy is now 40 keV A. 40 keV B. 75 keV C. 115 keV D. 35 keV 13. Which position/projection should the radiographer use to demonstrate the apophyseal joints of the cervical spine? A. AP “open mouth” B. Anteroposterior (AP) C. Lateral D. Oblique 14. In which bone are lateral fractures likely to occur, both at the side of impact and at the opposite side of impact? A. Mandible B. Scapula C. Clavicle D. Ilium 15. What is the name of the broad, curved portion of the ilium ? A. Auricular surface B. Ala C. Crest D. Body 16. A radiographer prepares to perform a lumbar spine series on an obese adult. A message on the console indicates that the tube warm up should be performed, but the radiographer decides to proceed without the warm-up. Which adverse event may result from the radiographers actions? A. Filament breakage B. Inconsistent exposure output C. Anode cracking D. Inadequate anode rotation 17. How are insulin and metformin categorized? A. Antiarrhythmics B. Anticonvulsants C. Hypoglycemics D. Vasoconstrictors 18. A radiographers dosimeter indicates a reading of 1.5 msv from a fluoroscopic procedure. The radiographer wore a lead apron, but not a thyroid collar. Considering the tissue weighting factor for the thyroid is 0.05, what is the effective dose? A. 0.15 msv B. 1.5 msv C. 0.075 msv D. 0.05 msv 19. Which angle of needle insertion is recommended for intramuscular injections? A. 15 degrees B. 90 degrees C. 60 degrees D. 45 degrees 20. A patient exhibiting symptoms including slurred speech, blurred vision, and unilateral weakness is most likely experiences which event? A. Hypoglycemia B. Grand Mal seizure C. Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) D. Myocardial infraction (MI) 21. Which emergency cart drug aids in respiration by relaxing bronchioles and thus opening up the patients airway? A. Valium B. Xylocaine C. Epinephrine D. Acetaminophen 22. When administering pharmaceutical agents to a patient with liver disease, the radiographers primary concern is with which aspects of pharmacokinetics? A. Metabolism B. Distribution C. Excretion D. Absorption 23. Where is an aspirated object most likely to become lodged? A. Left primary bronchus B. At the terminal bronchiole C. Right primary bronchus D. Proximal to the carina 24. What effect does the use of higher ratio grids have on radiographic image quality and patient exposure? A. Image contrast decreases and patient exposure decreases B. Image contrast increases and patient exposure increases C. Image contrast decreases and patient exposure increases D. Image contrast increases and patient exposure decreases 25. Where is the barium demonstrated during a Right Anterior Oblique (RAO) position of the Upper Gastrointestinal (UGI) series? A. Fundus and duodenal bulb B. Pylorus and body C. Pylorus and duodenal bulb D. Fundus and body 26. What movement is permitted when positioning a patient with a hip replacement using a posterior approach, but is not permitted in a patient who has had a hip replacement using an anterior approach? A. Abduction B. Flexion of the hip beyond 90 degrees C. Adduction D. Internal rotation 27. When performing radiographs on an average (sthenic) trauma patient who is unable to move from a backboard, which is the correct degree of central ray angulation for an anteroposterior (AP) oblique sternum? A. 35 to 40 B. 5 to 10 C. 25 to 30 D. 15 to 20 28. What interaction, in routine non-contrast enhanced diagnostic radiography is primarily responsible for fogging of the x-ray image by secondary or scattered x-rays? A. Comptons effect B. Pair production C. Coherent (classical) scatter D. Photoelectric absorption 29. A patient receives an injection of iodinated contrast media during an intravenous urogram. Shortly after the injection the patient reports feeling flushed and nauseated? Which is the most appropriate response for the radiographer to make to this reaction? A. Administer antihistamine B. Call a code C. Administer atropine D. Provide an emesis basin 30. In the hematopoletic form of acute radiation syndrome (ARS), what is the most likely cause of death? A. Comma B. Damage to the epithelial cells C. Meningitis D. Bone marrow destruction 31. When is a short dimension grid useful? A. When excessive scatter is present B. When using high kilovolts peak (kvp) C. When it is difficult to center accurately to a grid D. When it is important to have efficient scatter clean up 32. Which articulation is considered a part of the ankle mortise ? A. Subtalar B. Calcaneocuboid C. Talocalcaneonavicular D. Talotibial 33. What is the mean marrow dose to a patient if the average absorbed dose is 0.7 milligray and 30% of the active bone marrow was exposed to the useful beam? A. 0.14 mGy B. 0.21 mGy C. 0.11 mGy D. 0.7 mGy 34. A radiographer uses a new grid to perform a portable abdomen. After the CR cassette is processed by the image reader device (IRD) the image appears on the monitor with light colored evenly space wavy lines over the entire image. What is the likely explanation of this appearance? A. Pi lines B. The grid frequency is too close to the sampling frequency C. The IRD light guide has dust on it D. The CR cassette has dead pixels 35. How does a dropout artifact appear on an image? A. An area of decreased resolution B. A fine white line across the image C. Inappropriate contrast for the anatomy of interest D. Blurriness across the entire image 36. A radiographers failure to follow hospital policy resulted in an injury to a patient. Under which legal doctrine might the hospital be found accountable for the radiographers error? A. Res ipsa loquitor B. Respondeat superior C. Personal responsibility D. Borrowed servant 37. What happens in the fluoroscopic system when a radiographer uses a 30/23/15 cm trifocus image intensifier? A. More electrons are focused on the output screen B. The automatic brightness control (ABC) increases exposure C. More light photons are produced by the output screen D. The automatic brightness control (ABC) decreases exposure 38. An ambulatory outpatient arrives to the x-ray department with orders for upright and supine abdominal x-rays. What is the correct sequence to perform the two images? A. Upright abdomen x-ray should be performed first B. Depends on patient preference C. There is not a correct sequence: either can be performed first D. Supine abdomen (KUB) should be performed first 39. Which positioning guideline is recommended to demonstrate the articular surfaces of the cuboid bone on an anteropsterior (AP) oblique foot projection? A. Rotate the foot 30 degrees laterally B. Rotate the foot 45 degrees laterally C. Rotate the foot 45 degrees medially D. Rotate the foot 30 degrees medially 40. Which part of the high voltage generator is responsible for converting the alternating current to direct current? A. Milliampere (mA) meter B. Rectifier C. Step up transformer D. Autotransformer 41. Which exam demonstrates the urinary system, but has a comparatively increased risk of contrast media reactions? A. Retrograde urogram B. Intravenous urogram (IVU) C. Voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG) D. Cystogram 42. If a physicians prescription states that the patients medications must be given parentally, which route of administration must be used? A. Intramuscular B. Rectal C. Oral D. Sublingual 43. What should a radiographer do if an image is lacking spatial resolution? A. Change to a 3.0 focal spot B. Decrease the digital matrix size C. Increase the object to image distance (OID) D. Increase the source to image receptor distance (SID) 44. What part of a fluoroscopic image intensifier is responsible for converting the x-rays into light? A. Flux gain B. Photocathode C. Output phosphor D. Input phosphor 45. Which type of personal monitoring device contains a lithium fluoride detector which is read by heating the detector? A. Optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeter B. Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) C. Film badge D. Pocket ionization chamber 46. A patient is placed in the supine position for a lateral projection of the lower leg. After placing the leg at the center of the field, the radiographer rotates the patient towards the affected side. Which outcome is achieved if the correct amount of rotation is applied ? A. The tibia and fibula will appear superimposed B. The fibula will appear posterior to the tibia C. The central ray is directed to the lower half of the leg D. The patella is parallel to the cassette 47. A radiographer is asked to image the pulmonary apices of a patient, but the patient is unable to stand. Which central ray should the radiographer use to project the clavicles above the apices? A. 5 to 10 degrees caudad B. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad C. 5 to 10 degrees cephalad D. 15 to 20 degrees caudad 48. The amount of radiation exposure will increase with a reduction in which factor? A. Source to image receptor distance (SID) B. Focal spot size C. Beam size D. Grid ratio 49. Which term is used to describe the potential sources of infection such as used hypodermic needle and other inanimate objects? A. Vehicle B. Reservoir C. Fomite D. Vector 50. Which interaction involves the outermost electron shell of the target atom in the diagnostic energy range? A. Compton’s effect B. Photoelectric effect C. Classical scattering D. Pair production 51. Which position will produce an image of the left lateral scapula (Y view) with the least amount of magnification? A. LPO B. LAO C. RAO D. RPO 52. How does the use of high kilovolt peak (KVP) impact a digital image? A. Increases image contrast B. Decreases image contrast C. Increases exposure to the image receptor (IR) D. Decreases exposure to the image receptor (IR) 53. An intercondyloid fossa (Homblad method) position was performed with the central ray 90- degree to the lower leg with the patient leaning forward approximately 30-degrees. How will the resulting image appear? A. The intercondyloid fossa will likely be open but overlapped by the patellar apex B. The intercondyloid fossa will likely be open without patellar overlap C. The intercondyloid fossa will likely be open but overlapped by the patellar base D. The intercondyloid fossa is unlikely to be open 54. To limit entrance skin exposure, what is the source to skin-distance (SSD) for a fixed fluoroscopes? A. 85 inches B. 12 inches C. 15 inches D. 20 inches 55. If a radiographer selects a kilovolts peak (kvp) setting of 90, what are possible energy levels for general (bremsstrahlung) x-rays that may result? Select three that apply A. 120 kiloelectronvolts (keV) B. 100 keV C. 20 keV D. 50 keV E. 80 keV 56. What is the medical term for the disease stage when a patient with a diagnose human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) does not exhibit symptoms? A. Manifest B. In remission C. Delayed D. Latent 57. Which person is responsible for performing the calculations necessary to determine fetal dose in the event that the pregnant patient is inadvertently irradiated? A. Imaging department manager B. Medical physicist C. Radiologist D. Staff radiographer 58. Which acronym is used to describe a standard which allows medical images to be transferred to the imaging system from different manufacturers with a consistency gray scale appearance ? A. RIS B. HIS C. DICOM D. PACS 59. If a patient is unable to fully extend the elbow, how can a radiographer obtain an anteroposterior (AP) projection? A. Perform a posteroanterior (PA) projection, instead of an AP B. Force the patient to straighten the arm C. Keep the arm in partial flexion an include an AP projection of distal humerus and an AP projection of the proximal forearm D. The AP projection is unnecessary if an adequate lateral projection is performed 60. The radiographer increases the milliamperage(mA) for an exposure. How will this change affect the x-ray beam? A. Penetration increases B. Absorption of scatter by the image receptor decreases C. Number of x-rays exiting the tube increases D. Average wavelength decreases 61. Which best describes the radiographic appearance of an anteroposterior (AP) shoulder projection when the humeral epicondyles are positioned perpendicular to the image receptor? A. The humeral head appears in profile medially B. The glenoid cavity appears in profile C. The lesser tubercle appears in full profile medially D. The greater tubercle appears in profile laterally 62. If higher contrast is desired when viewing a digital image on the display monitor, which adjustment should be made? A. Increase the window level B. Increase the window width C. Decrease the window width D. Decrease the window level 63. Which part of the x-ray tube is composed of a rotor and stator? A. Cathode B. Induction motor C. Glass enclosure D. Filament 64. How may bytes of data are equal to 534, 288 bits? A. 66,786 bytes B. 524 bytes C. 32,768 bytes D. 43,690 bytes 65. Insufficient phosphor stimulation to the computed radiography (CR ) plate causes what effect? A. Quantum mottle B. Excessive scatter C. Overexposure D. Increased fog 66. Which factor increases the number of photons that reach the image receptor (IR) ? A. Large focal spot B. Small focal spot C. Shorter source to image receptor distance (SID) D. Longer source to image receptor distance (SID) 67. Which type of filter is placed over the toes for an anteroposterior (AP) axial foot projection? A. Inherent filter B. Thoreas filter C. Compensating filter D. Added filter 68. Which parameters affect recorded detail of the radiographic image? Select 3 that apply A. Higher ratio grids B. Collimation C. Magnification factor D. Source to image receptor distance (SID) E. Focal spot size 69. When a female radiographer becomes pregnant, her fetus has a lower radiation limit than she does. Which radiation effects is this lower limit intended to prevent? (Select 3 that apply) A. Radiodermatitis B. Neonatal death C. Cataractogenesis D. Mental retardation E. Leukemia 70. What should a radiographer do when administering contrast media through an existing IV? A. Flush the IV before administration of contrast with saline B. Flush the IV after the administration of contrast with saline C. Flush the IV before and after the administration of contrast with saline D. Avoid flushing the IV with saline as this may precipitate a drug reaction 71. Which describes the proper central ray (CR) orientation for an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the knee in which the patient is unable to fully extend the knee joint? A. Parallel to the tibial plateau B. Perpendicular to Image Receptor (IR) C. 3-5 degrees cephalad D. 3-5 degrees caudad 72. Which steps increase contrast in fluoroscopy ? (select two that apply) A. Increase mA B. Reduce milliamperes (mA) C. Reduce kilovolts peak (kVp) D. Increase kVp E. Use a smaller collimator field 73. Which effect of ionizing radiation is likely to occur within weeks of exposure? A. Cataracts B. Bone marrow suppression C. Reduced fertility D. Skin cancer 74. Which source of radiation exposure should be avoided at all costs by radiographers? A. Natural background radiation B. Primary beam C. Leakage radiation D. Scattered radiation from patient 75. Which statement most accurately reflects the meaning of the term “respondeat superior”? A. The thing speaks for itself B. Let the master answer C. To stand by things decided D. Directed toward a particular person 76. Which technical factor affects the number of x-ray photons that reach the image receptor (IR)? A. Imaging system speed B. Exposure time C. Focal spot size D. Type of histogram 77. Which statement is true regarding the characteristics x-rays? A. They have fixed discrete energies and a discrete emission spectrum B. They are produced with exposure factors set below 69 kilovolts peak (kvp) C. They have a continuous emissions spectrum D. They are produced on the cathode target 78.which position is best for obtaining images of the lower ribs? A. Take exposures during shallow respiration B. Take exposure on inspiration C. Take exposure with the patient lying down D. Take exposure with the patient standing 79. A radiographer receives 0.5 mSv of exposure at 2 feet from the source of radiation. What will the radiographers exposure be at 3 ½ feet from the source of radiation? A. 1.63 mSv B. 0.163 mSv C. 0.286 mSv D. 0.00286 mSv 80. Which portion of a C-arm fluoroscope will result in the least dose to the radiographer? A. Intensifier on left of table and x-ray tube on right side of table B. Intensifier under the table and the x-ray tube over the table C. X-ray tube under the table and the intensifier over the table D. X-ray tube on left of table and intensifier on right side of table 81.Which is the best description of a lithotripsy procedure? A. Removal of a diseased kidney B. Crushing of a renal stone C. Placement of a ureteral stent D. Resection of a renal cyst 82. A radiographic image technique of 200 milliamperes (mA), 0.3 seconds, 80 kilovoltspeak, and a 12:1 grid. Which technical factor change will double the number of x-ray photons reaching the image receptor if repeat imaging is performed ? A. 0.15 seconds B. 16:1 grid C. 85 kVp D. 400 mA 83. Which type of radiation exhibits the lowest relative biologic effectiveness (RBE)? A. Alpha particles B. Protons C. Diagnostic x-rays D. Neutrons 84. Which venipuncture site is located at the ulnar aspect of the forearm? A. Axillary B. Basilic C. Cephalic D. Median cubital 85. Which medication is commonly used to pre-medicate patients prior to administration of iodinated contrast media? A. Lidocaine B. Epinephrine C. Benadryl D. Heparin 86. Myelography is commonly performed by injecting a contrast median into which space? A. Intraspinous space above the termination of the cord B. Subarachnoid space above the termination of the cord C. Subarachnoid space below the termination of the cord D. Intraspinous space below the termination of the cord 87. How can the radiographer prevent an image with excessive noise ? A. Select a smaller image receptor (IR) B. Increase kilovolts peak (kVp) C. Decrease milliampere-seconds (mAs) D. Reduce scatter 88. In positioning a patient for a postereoanterior (PA) clavicle, the radiographer notices that the clavicle appears foreshortened. How can this effect best be minimized? A. Decreasing object to image receptor distance (OID) B. Reducing part angulation to zero C. Decreasing central ray (CR) angulation to zero D. Reducing source to image receptor distance (SID) 89. Which is a product of photoelectric interaction? A. A photoelectron and characteristic radiation B. A negatron and annihilation radiation C. A recoil electron and scatter radiation D. A Compton electron and scatter radiation 90. Which radiographic appearance is the result of excessive knee flexion on a lateral knee projection? A. The patellofemoral space appears closed B. The medial condyle is projected below the lateral condyle C. The head of the fibula is projected onto the tibia D. The femorotibial joint appears closed 91. The radiation intensity is 1 mGya per hour at 10 ft. At what distance does the radiographer establish the uncontrolled area to ensure exposure is less than 0.08 mGya per hour? A. 30.0 feet B. 26.8 feet C. 11.0 feet D. 35.4 feet 92. What positioning error has occurred if the fibula is directly superimposed by the tibia on a lateral ankle radiograph? A. The plantar surface of the foot was perpendicular to the image receptor B. The ankle was externally rotated C. The ankle was internally rotated D. The foot was not dorsiflexed 93. Which digital image characteristic is inversely related to spatial resolution? A. Matrix size B. Window level C. Pixel size D. Window width 94. The radiographer is performing a posteroanterior (PA) projection of the skull with the central ray perpendicular to the image receptor. In relation to the image receptor, what midsagittal plane position ensures the skull will not be rotated on the radiograph? A. Parallel B. Tangenital C. Perpendicular D. Oblique 95. Which has a reciprocal decrease in magnitude as x-ray frequency increases? A. Energy B. Velocity C. Amplitude D. Wavelength 96. How does an increase in kilovolts peak (kVp) affect the x-ray beam? A. Beam quality decreases and remnant radiation remains the same B. Beam quantity remains the same C. Beam quality increases and remnant radiation increases D. Beam quantity increases and remnant radiation decreases 97. If gonadal shielding does not interfere with an exam, the ovaries of adult females should normally be shielded by using what landmark? A. one-half inch distal to symphysis pubis B. one inch medial to anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) C. one inch lateral to anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) D. one-half inch proximal to symphysis pubis 98. Which action may the radiographer perform without a physician’s approval? A. Removal of cervical collar to perform cervical spine x-rays B. Placement of compression bands to reduce patient motion C. Removal of spine board to alleviate patient discomfort D. Placement of arm and leg restraints to reduce patient motion 99. What is the correct placement for a fetal dose monitor ? A. At the waist beneath the lead apron B. At the chest under the lead apron C. At the waist outside the lead apron D. At the neck or collar area of the lead apron 100. Where is the central ray directed for an anteroposterior projection of the 1st digit? A. Midshaft of the 1st metacarpal B. 1st interphalangeal joint (IP) C. 1st metacarpal-phalangeal joint (MCP) D. Base of the 1st metacarpal 101. Because of a newly placed traction bar over a patients bed, a shorter source to image receptor distance (SID) is required for a repeat portable exam. If the original technique of 75 kilovolts peak (kVp), 8 milliampere-seconds(mAs), and a 40 inch SID produced a quality mage, what change in mAs should be made to maintain exposure to the image receptor at a new SID of 32 inches. A. 5 mAs B. 13 mAs C. 3 mAs D. 7 mAs 102.In an operating room (OR) procedure where the C-arm is in a cross table position, which statement is true? A. Scatter is greater near the exit surface of the patient B. Scatter is the same on both the entrance and exit surface of the patient C. Scatter is greater near the entrance surface of the patient D. Scatter is greater at a 90 degree angle to the primary beam 103. A radiographer acquires a plain abdominal x-ray prior to performing a small bowel series on a patient. The radiographer then instructs the patient to drink the required amount of barium contrast and wait a half an hour. If the initial image was acquired at 80 kilovolts peak (kVp) using automatic exposure control, what is the best option for acquiring a quality 30 minute radiograph? A. Increase voltage to 110 kVp B. Use the same technique C. Center at the iliac crest D. Set the density selector to +1 104. What is the minimum source to skin distance (SSD), when fluoroscopy is performed using a mobile C-arm unit in surgery? A. 10 inches B. 12 inches C. 20 inches D. 15 inches 105.What factor is primarily responsible for altering the wavelength of the x-ray beam ? A. Focal spot size B. Kilovoltage C. Milliamperage D. Source image distance 106.According to the Center for Disease control (CDC), which is one of the three categories of Transmission Based Precautions? A. Droplet Precautions B. Universal Precautions C. Body Substance Precautions D. Standard Precautions 107. A radiographer makes an exposure recorded at 2mGya per hour at a distance of 40 inches. If the technical factors remain the same, what will the exposure be, if repeated at a distance of 72 inches? A. 0.62 mGya per hour B. 2.3 mgya per hour C. 0.93 mgya per hour D. 1.5 mgya per hour 108.Which radiographic appearance is created when a 5 to 7 degree cephalic central ray (CR) angle is used for a lateral knee projection? A. The patella is superimposed over the distal femur B. The medial femoral condyle is superimposed over the lateral femoral condyle C. The patellofemoral joint space appears open D. The proximal tibiofibular joint space appears open 109. A radiographer exposes an anteroposterior (AP) abdominal radiograph that demonstrates the spinal processes of the lumbar spine projected on the left side of the vertebrae. What is the positioning error? A. The patient is rotated toward the left side B. This is correct positioning C. The patient is not aligned to the table D. The patient is rotated toward the right side 110. When using the cross table lateral (Danellus-Miller method), what is the correct relationship between the central ray (CR) and the femoral neck? A. 15 degrees B. Parallel C. 30 degrees D. Perpendicular 111. The radiographer calls a patient from the waiting room using their full name as the identifier. Which communication rule, if any, has been violated according to the Joint Commission (TJC). A. The patients name is sufficient as the only identifier B. A minimum of two patient identifiers must be used to validate identity C. A minimum of three patient identifiers must be used to validate identity D. The patients name should never be used as an identifier 112. Which spatial resolution will give the user the best level of detail or sharpness in a computed radiography (CR) image? A. 0.52 mm/pixel B. 0.60 mm/pixel C. 1.0 mm/pixel D. 0.48 mm/pixel 113. After a substantial dose of radiation, what may pediatric patients eventually develop at twice the rate of adults? A. Radiation induced leukemia B. Epilation C. Erythema D. Radiation-induced osteogenic sarcoma 114. A radiographic procedure calls for a demonstration of the zygapophyseal joints of the thoracic region. Which patient position and central ray angle should be used? A. 70-degree oblique with a perpendicular central ray B. 30-degree oblique with a perpendicular central ray C. 45-degree oblique with a cephalic central ray D. 15 degree oblique with a cephalic central ray 115. What is the maximum allowable variation for the SID indicator when a 70-inch-source to image distance is used? A. 3.5 inches B. 2.1 inches C. 1.4 inches D. 0.7 inches 116.Which describes the process of photoelectric absorption ? A. Partial ionization of the atom B. Complete absorption of an electron with subsequent emission of a photon C. Complete absorption of a photon with subsequent emission of an electron D. Partial excitation of an atom 117. Which projection demonstrates the ulnar head free of superimposition ? A. Oblique wrist B. External oblique elbow C. Internal oblique elbow D. PA wrist 118. What is the maximum error of light and x-ray beam alignment in an x-ray collimator at a source to image receptor(SID) distance of 48 inches? A. 2.4 cm B. 24.4 cm C. 12.2 cm D. 4.8 cm 119. Which protective features are designed to reduce exposure to the patient during fluoroscopic procedures? ( select three that apply) A. Bucky slot cover B. Lead fluoroscopy curtain C. Automatic collimation D. Five minute reset timer E. Dead man foot switch 120. What is the name given to a drug before its official approval for use? A. Chemical name B. Proprietary name C. Generic name D. Trade name 121. A staff radiographer is sent to a local adult care facility to obtain portable x-rays of a patient who sustained injuries in a recent fall. For which of the requested radiographs is the radiographer least likely to use a stationary grid? A. Pelvis- Antero posterior(AP) projection B. Skull- lateral projection C. Cervical spine- lateral projection D. Unilateral hip- axiolateral projection 122. For a properly positioned parietoachanthial (Waters) projection of the facial bones, which positioning line must be perpendicular with the image receptor? A. Mentomeatal B. Infraorbitomeatal C. Orbitomeatal D. Acanthiomeatal 123. For which type of procedure can a shadow shield be used to protect the patient from the radiation exposure? ( select two that apply) A. Fluoroscopy of the esophagus B. Tomography of the kidneys C. Radiographic projection of the lumbar spine D. Fluoroscopy of the pelvis E. Radiographic projection of the pelvis 124. An anteroposterior (AP) projection of the pelvis is performed with the central ray two inches inferior to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the patients feet internally rotated approximately 15 degrees. Which statements correctly describe the resulting image. ( select the two that apply) A. The iliac crest will be likely clipped B. The femoral necks will be demonstrated with minimal foreshortening C. The greater trochanters will be superimposed by the femoral shafts D. The ischial tuberosities will likely be clipped E. The image will be properly centered to the center of the pelvis 125. A patient is scheduled for a mammogram in which the required exposure time is 500 milliseconds. If the exposure control has fractional notation, which exposure should be selected? A. ½ second B. 1/40 second C. ¼ second D. 1/20 second 126. In which part of the spinal column do the zygapophyseal joints open laterally at right angles to a midsagittal plane? A. Cervical B. Lumbar C. Thoracic D. Sacral 127.Which postprocessing technique allows different images of the same body part to demonstrate similar density and contrast, even with large variations and patient size and technical factors? A. Aliasing B. Modulation transfer function C. Automatic rescaling D. Image sampling 128. An image of an anteroposterior (AP) knee demonstrates the fibula totally superimposed by the tibia. Which position error occurred? A. Knee was not fully extended B. Knee was positioned in a true AP C. Knee was internally rotated D. Knee was externally rotated 129.Which digital image characteristic is controlled by adjusting the window level? A. Latitude B. Resolution C. Brightness D. Contrast 130. Which part of the scapula is most anterior ? A. Coracoid process B. Glenoid cavity C. Acromion process D. Inferior angle 131. Which projection facilitates the detection of tumors in the pituitary gland? A. Posteroanterior(PA) axial (Caldwell) sinus B. Lateral sinus C. Parietoacanthial (Waters) facial bones D. PA facial bones 132. An important way in which to gain the patients trust is to listen attentively. Which actions are characteristics of effective listening. (select the three that apply) A. Carefully explain the purpose of the examination B. Offer your undivided attention C. Maintain eye contact with the patient D. Place your arm around the patient to show concern E. Demonstrate caring with appropriate facial expressions 133. What distance in inches is equivalent to a source to image receptor distance (SID) of 183 cm ( rounded to the nearest whole number) A. 48 B. 72 C. 40 D. 44 134. Which action will result in the greatest decrease in the radiographers exposure? A. Double distance from patient B. Wear a lead apron C. Decrease time exposed by 50% D. Wear lead gloves 135. Which will likely result from underexposure of the image receptor? A. Quantum mottle B. Image blur C. Backscatter D. Moire effect 136. Which object to image receptor distance (OID) and source to image receptor distance (SID) combination causes the poorest recorded detail? A. 4 inch OID; 72 inch SID B. 2 inch OID; 44 inch SID C. 2 inch OID; 72 inch SID D. 4 inch OID; 44 inch SID 137. A radiographic exam is performed using a fixed technique of 250 milliamperes (mA), 100 kilovolts peak (kVP), and 3/20 second. If a repeat exam is performed with 500 mA at 85 kVp, what exposure time must be used to maintain the original exposure to the image receptor? A. 3/10 second B. 3/40 second C. 3/30 second D. 3/20 second 138.Which type of personal monitoring device contains an aluminum oxide detector that is read by a laser light? A. Film badge B. Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) C. Pocket ionization chamber D. Optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeter 139.Which of the numerical values of iodinated contrast media provides the lowest osmolality? A. 3 B. 1.5 C. 6. D. 4. 140. Which is the most likely explanation for the appearance of a phantom image artifact when using a computed radiography (CR) system? A. The image plate was not processed until several hours after exposure B. The CR failed to completely erase the previous image C. The incorrect histogram was selected for the type of examination performed D. The grid was oriented with grid lines parallel to the laser of the CR reader 141. A patient presents with a possible tumor just below the right clavicle. The posteroanterior (PA) and lateral chest projections are inconclusive in demonstrating the lesion. Which additional chest projection can be taken to better visualize the tumor? A. Right lateral dorsal decubitis B. Posteroanterior (PA) oblique, right anterior oblique (RAO) projection C. Anteroanterior (AP) oblique, left posterior oblique (LPO) projection D. Anteroposterior (AP) axial projection 142. Which will most likely cause hypovolemic shock ? A. Myocardial infraction B. Cervical spine fracture C. Anaphylactic reaction D. Gun shot wound 143.Which factor contributes to a high signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) ? A. Increased matrix size B. Decreased kilovolts peak (kVp) C. Decreased pixel size D. Increased milliampere-seconds (mAs) 144. Which structure represents the neck of the “scotty dog" on an oblique lumbar spine image? A. Pars interartucularis B. Transverse process C. Pedicle D. Superior articular process 145.Which effect is the best explanation for the biologic damage to deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) during radiolysis of water? A. Target molecule B. Prodromal period C. Indirect D. Direct 146. The use of which grid ratio will result in the highest x-ray exposure to the patient? A. 5:1 B. 8:1 C. 12:1 D. 16:1 147. Which projection of the knee best demonstrates the proximal tibiofibular joint? A. AP lateral oblique B. Lateral C. Anteroposterior D. AP medial oblique 148. Which describes the appearance of a correctly positioned anteroposterior (AP) medial oblique elbow radiograph? A. The trochlea and capitulum are superimposed B. The olecranon process is within the olecranon fossa C. The lateral epicondyle is in profile D. The radial head and neck are clearly seen 149. If a patient has pleural effusions, where is the first place they will be seen on a lateral x-ray? A. Posterior cardiophrenic angles B. Anterior costophrenic angles C. Anterior cardiophrenic angles D. Posterior costophrenic angles 150. A radiographer has serious personal concerns about performing a barium enema on a patient diagnosed with HIV. What is the best course of action in this situation? A. Perform the exam regardless of personal concern B. Ask a fellow radiographer to perform the exam C. Go to the radiology manager and explain the concern D. Refuse to perform the exam 151. Which projection best demonstrates the sigmoid colon in a double contrast barium enema? A. Left posterior oblique (LPO) B. Ventral decubitus lateral C. Anteroposterior (AP) axial (butterfly) D. Right posterior oblique (RPO) 152. Which landmark is used to position the central ray (CR) for a posteroanterior (PA) chest projection? A. Inferior border of the scapula B. Sternal notch C. Xiphoid process D. Lower costal margin 153. What fundamental principle explains how the cathode assembly’s focusing cup focuses the electron stream? A. Charges move from a higher concentration to a lower concentration B. Unlike charges attract C. Like charges repel D. Only negative charges move 154. What will occur when a ferrous material is placed within an intense magnetic field? A. It will become electrified B. It will change electrical voltage C. It will act as a conductor D. It will become magnetized 155. An increase in which factor results in less scatter by reducing the number of Compton interactions? A. Beam filtration B. Collimation C. Kilovolts-peak (kVP) D. Grid ratio 156. Which strategy will minimize radiation exposure to the patient during fluoroscopy? A. Minimize distance between the x-ray tube and the patient B. Maximize distance between the image intensifier and the patient C. Use pulsed fluoroscopy D. Use magnification mode 157.Which factor maximizes spatial resolution in a digital imaging system? A. Bigger image receptor B. Large detector element size C. Increased sampling frequency D. Reduced matrix 158. In which patient scenario should the radiographer use soap and water for handwashing instead of alcohol-based rubs? A. A 54 year old with clostridium difficile B. A 76 year old with tuberculosis C. A 4 year old with acute leukemia D. A 30 year old with HIV 159. Which conditions will require an increase in technical factors when performing a KUB? (select the three that apply) A. Ascites B. Internal bleeding C. Soft tissue masses D. Pneumonia E. Bowel gas 160. A lateral facial bone image shows the magnified mandibular ramus posterior to the other ramus. How was the patient positioned? A. The patients face is rotated away from the image receptor B. The top of the patients head is tilted toward the image receptor C. The patients face is rotated toward the image receptor D. The top of the patients head is tilted away from the image receptor 161. Which fracture involves the distal forearm? A. Colle’s B. Le fort C. Jeffersons D. Potts 162. A radiographer is preparing the room for an interventional procedure requiring extensive fluoroscopy. What should the radiographer do in order to minimize patient dose during the procedure? A. Switch to magnification mode B. Double the exposure frame rate C. Use the highest appropriate kilovolts peak (kVp) D. Increase the fluoroscopic field size 163. What is the correct central ray orientation for a plantodorsal calcaneus? A. 15 degrees cephalad to the plantar surface of the foot B. 40 degrees cephalad to the plantar surface of the foot C. perpendicular to the plantar surface of the foot D. 30 degrees caudad to the plantar surface of the foot 164. What corrective action is needed if a straight white line is noted on multiple computed radiography (CR) images? A. Clean the outside of the cassette and the phosphor plate itself B. Clean the input area of the image reader (IR) C. Limit scatter radiation as much as possible D. Call service to check for sources of electronic noise 165. What is the effect on the quantity and average energy of the x-ray emission when there is an increase from 60 kilovolts peak (kVp) to 90 kVp? A. Both decrease B. Quantity decreases and average energy increases C. Quantity increases and average energy decreases D. Both increase 166. Which projection of the elbow joint will demonstrate the radial head without superimposition? A. External oblique B. Anteroposterior C. Lateral D. Internal oblique 167. If a digital system has a bit depth of 10, how many shades of gray can one pixel produce? A. 200 B. 256 C. 2048 D. 1024 168. What mode of infectious transmission occurs when a patient develops an in infection form the healthcare provider using a contaminated stethoscope? A. Transmission by a vector B. Endogenous transmission C. Indirect transmission D. Host to host direct 169. Which outcomes are expected to result from the proper use of protective shielding ? (select the three that apply) A. Reduction in gonadal exposure B. Reduction in the number of genetic mutations C. Reduction in the volume of tissue irradiated D. Removal of low energy x-rays from the primary beam E. Reduction in the number of repeat radiographs 170. In an effort to communicate with a patient who is hearing impaired, which action is most effective? A. Speak in an upper register since gearing loss is usually from the lower range B. Get the patients attention before speaking C. Speak directly to an interpreter D. Talk quickly 171. Which personal dosimeter is best suited for pregnant or potentially pregnant radiographers ? A. Film badges B. Optically stimulated luminescent dosimeters C. Thermoluminescent dosimeters D. Pocket ionization chambers 172. Which structure is superimposed on a correctly positioned anteroposterior (AP) hip projection? A. Lesser trochanter B. Intertrochanteric crest C. Fovea capitus femoris D. Greater trochanter 173. How many degrees should the patient be rotated for posteroanterior(PA) oblique chest projections when performed as part of a cardiac series? A. 90 B. 45 C. 20 D. 60 174. A radiographer needs to demonstrate the right intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine, but wishes to select a projection that will decrease the patients thyroid dose. Which projection should be performed? A. Right anterior oblique (RAO) B. Left anterior oblique (LAO) C. Right posterior oblique (RPO) D. Left posterior oblique (LPO) 175. A patient is scheduled for an intravenous urogram. While reviewing the patients lab values, the radiographer notes a creatine level of 2.1 mg/100 ml and a BUN of 36mg/100ml. Which effect will these lab values likely have on the visualization of structures ? A. Decreased ability to see the renal cortex B. Increased ability to see the renal pelvis C. Decreased ability to see the renal collecting system D. Increased ability to see the major calyces 176. A lateral cervical spine image demonstrates the intervertebral foramina. what should the radiographer do? A. Approve the image and send to the radiologist B. Reposition the patient to true lateral and repeat the exposure C. Repeat the image and align the patients mentomeatal line(MML) with central ray D. Repeat the image with a 15 -degree caudal central ray angle 177. What type of gloves provide the best protection against hazardous materials? A. Nitrile B. Vinyl C. Leather D. Latex 178. Which items are helpful in reducing fluoroscopic patient exposure? (select 4 that apply) A. Flat panel digital image intensifiers B. Continuous fluoroscopic exposure C. Placing the image intensifier tube near to the patient D. Pulsed fluoroscopy E. Small collimator setting 179. The radiographer is assisting in the move of a patient from a wheelchair to the x-ray table. Which statement represents the safest practice by the radiographer when moving the patient ? A. Extend the radiographer’s arms as far as possible to increase the base of support and stability. B. Reduce the base of support slightly so that the center of gravity is easier to maintain during the move C. Bend at the waist so the center of gravity is midway between the client and the radiographer. D. Maintain the center of gravity over the base of support of the radiographer 180. From what location is the electron cloud emitted during thermionic emission? A. Stator B. Glass envelope C. Filament D. Anode 181. Which procedure may be performed to acquire images of the ribs below the diaphragm? A. Make the exposure one second after full inspiration B. Place the patient in an erect position C. Place the patient in a recumbent position D. Use a low kVp technique (65 kVp to 75 kVp) 182. Which radiographic exam of the chest may be necessary if nodules in the lower lung are discovered on a routine chest radiograph? A. Lateral decubitus B. Anteroposterior (AP) lordotic C. Bilateral obliques D. Inspiration/expiration 183. What component of a fluoroscopic image intensifier is responsible for converting light into electrons? A. Photocathode B. Output phosphor C. Flux gain D. Input phosphor 184. Which term describes the inability to speak ? A. Apnea B. Apoplexy C. Aphagia D. Aphasia 185. Which action helps prevent injury when lifting a heavy object? A. Ensure the base of support is less than the shoulder width B. Use the muscles of the upper arms and lower back to lift C. Keep objects as close to the radiographer’s body as possible D. Bend at the waist and keep the back straight when lifting 186. Which situation is most likely to result in grid cutoff? A. The x-ray beam is angled along the grid lines B. The x-ray beam is off center to a parallel grid C. The grid is tilted or off level during exposure D. A 90-cm SID is used with a 100-cm focused grid 187. The use of contact shielding with 1 mm lead when performing a radiographic exam on a male patient can reduce the primary beam exposure by what percentage? A. 10% B. 90% C. 50% D. 30% 188. Which set of signs indicates a patient in shock? A. Warm skin, bradycardia, blood pressure of 90/50 B. Diaphoresis, tachycardia, blood pressure of 70/40 C. Pallor, tachycardia, blood pressure of 110/70 D. Dry skin, unconscious, blood pressure 100/70 189. How many personal identifiers does the joint commission require? A. 1 B. 3 C. 2 D. None 190. A radiographer is performing an emergent 2-view chest exam when the patient begins to appear unsteady and complains of dizziness. The blood pressure reading on the patients monitor is 74/40. In which position should the patient be placed? A. Fowler’s B. Dorsal recumbent C. Sims D. Trendelenburg 191. What is the effective annual dose equivalent limit recommended by the National Council on Radiation Protection (NCRP) for the hands or feet of a radiographer? A. 50 msv B. 10 msv C. 150 msv D. 500 msv 192. Which projection will best demonstrate spondylolisthesis? A. Anteroposterior (AP) thoracic spine B. Anteroposterior (AP) sacrum C. Lateral lumbar spine D. Right anterior oblique (RAO) cervical spine 193. Which correctly describes the position of the lumbar epicondyles as they relate to the image receptor on a lateral elbow projection? A. Perpendicular B. Tangential C. 45-degree angle D. Parallel 194. Which correctly describes the path that barium travels after passing through the rectum during a barium enema? A. Ascending colon, splenic flexure, hepatic flexure, descending colon B. Sigmoid, descending colon, hepatic flexure, transverse colon C. Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon D. Descending colon, splenic flexure, hepatic flexure, ascending colon 195. When imaging a KUB on an extremely tall patient, both the bladder and the kidneys cannot be included on the same image. What can be done to correct this situation? A. Take two images lengthwise to include both the upper and lower abdomen B. Direct the central ray (CR) high to ensure the upper abdomen is included, since the kidneys are the most important anatomy. C. Take two images crosswise to include both the upper and lower abdomen D. Direct the central ray(CR) low to ensure the symphysis pubis is included, since the bladder is the most important anatomy. 196. A posteroanterior (PA) skull projection is performed with the orbitomeatal line (OML) perpendicular to the image receptor and parallel to the central ray. Where will the petrous ridges be projected on the image? A. Just below the maxillary sinuses B. At the top of the orbits C. In the lower one-third of the orbits D. At the bottom of the orbits 197. Which organization accredits hospitals? A. HIPAA B. TJC C. ARRT D. ASRT 198. What is the difference in energy storage between an optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) and a thermoluminescent (TLD) dosimeter? A. OSL stores energy in an aluminum oxide layer B. TLD stores energy in a lithium oxide layer C. TLD stores energy in negatively charged protons D. OSL stores energy in positively stored neutrons 199. What is the purpose of the metal filters in a optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeter? A. Protects the aluminum oxide layer B. Makes immediate readings possible C. Measures the different radiations energy levels D. Contains lithium fluoride 200. What transfer method is preferred when transferring a patient from a wheelchair to x-ray table if the patient cannot bear weight? A. Hydraulic lift B. Two-person lift C. Three-person lift D. Face to face assist 201. What technology has replaced many of the glass tube television camera used to view fluoroscopic images? A. Charged coupled device (CCD) B. Photospot camera C. Cesium iodide screen (CsI) D. Thin film transistor (TFT) 202. A light field-radiation field misalignment is most likely due to a malfunction or misalignment of which imaging system component? A. Detent lock B. Bucky tray C. X-ray tube housing D. Collimator shutters 203. When the frequency of the voltage waveform supplied to the x-ray tube is increased, what component is reduced? (select the two that apply) A. The average wavelength of the x-ray beam B. Output of the x-ray tube C. Power consumption D. Single exposure rating for the x-ray tube E. Patient exposure Hesi #2 1. A radiographer prepares to perform a lumbar spine series on an obese adult. A message on the console indicates that a tube warm up should be performed, but the radiographer decides to proceed without the warm-up. Which adverse event may result from the radiographer’s action? A. Anode cracking B. Inconsistent exposure output C. Inadequate anode rotation D. Filament breakage 2. While performing a critique of a posteroanterior (PA), a radiographer notices that the metal hinges of the image (IR) visible on the image. This appearance is due to which phenomenon? A. Backscatter B. Coherent scatter C. Side scatter D. Small angle scatter 3. In computed radiography, what artifact is caused by incorrect alignment of the grid to the lase scan direction? A. Laser motion effect B. Moire pattern C. Miller frequency D. Grid cutoff 4. What is the purpose of automatic shuttering? A. To increase the amount of light striking the eye B. To eliminate veil glare C. To compensate for poor collimation D. To increase the amount of data contained in an image 5. Which situation will cause the backup timer to terminate the exposure when using an automatic exposure control (AEC) system? A. All three detectors were used for an abdomen exam on a thin patient B. The center detector was set for a posteroanterior (PA) chest system C. An outside detector was selected for a lumbar spine exam D. The table detectors were activated with the tube directed toward the wall bucky 6. What is effectively eliminated when automatic shuttering blackens out the white collimation borders? A. Veil glare B. Quantum mottle C. Smoothing D. Aliasing 7. Which bit depth results in the least number of gray shades? A. 10 B. 8 C. 4 D. 12 8. Which bit depth will result in the greatest contrast resolution? A. 4 B. 10 C. 12 D. 8 9. A chest image demonstrates very blurry lung markings. A fixed technique of 110 kilovolts peak (kVp), 150 milliamperes (mA), and a 0.2 second exposure was used. The image demonstrates good contrast and density, and the cardiac silhouette is adequately penetrated. Which set of technical factors should the radiographer use to decrease blurriness? A. 110 kVp, 300 mA, 0.1 sec B. 110 kVp, 100 mA, 0.2 sec C. 110 kVp, 600 mA, 0.05sec D. 120 kVp, 150 mA, 0.2 sec 10. The edges of the light field as displayed by the collimator light and the radiation field must be within +/- what percent of the source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID)? A. 10 B. 5 C. 15 D. 2 11. The Compton effect is responsible for which characteristic of x-ray images? A. High resolution B. Fogging C. High contrast D. Background density 12. How should a radiographer minimize visualization of lung markings on a lateral projection? A. Take one exposure on full inspiration B. Use high milliamperes (mA) C. Use low milliamperes (mA) D. Take the exposure on full expiration 13. What is the purpose of digital imaging and communication (DICOM) standards? A. To save money by replacing film, screens and processing B. To allow remote viewing of digital radiographic images C. To make digital images compatible in a variety of computer and monitor platforms** D. To permit post processing of soft copy digital images 14. If an insufficient number of photons reach the image receptor what is the impact on digital image quality? A. Less than adequate density B. High image contrast C. A highly resolved image D. A noisy, mottled image 15. What does the exposure index indicate in computed radiography (CR) systems? A. The dynamic range B. Radiation dose to the patient C. Image data recognition D. Radiation exposure to the plate 16. Which element is used for direct conversion in flat panel digital radiography? A. Complimentary metal oxide silicon B. Charged coupled device C. Amorphous selenium D. Amorphous silicon 17. What is the primary effect on the radiographic image if the focal spot size is reduced? A. Improved detail B. Decreased scatter C. Greater contrast D. Reduced density 18. A radiograph is obtained using a fixed technique of 80 kilovolts peak (kVp), at 20 milliamperes (mAs), with a 12:1 grid. A second radiograph is to be obtained with an 8:1 grid. What new mAs will produce a radiograph with identical exposure to the receptor as the first? A. 10 B. 16 C. 25 D. 12 19. An image obtained using a focused grid has a gradual decrease in receptor exposure towards the lateral edges of the image. Which grid error has occurred? A. Upside down in the bucky device B. Used at too short of a source to image distance (SID) C. Perpendicular to the central ray (CR) but laterally decentered D. Tilted laterally but properly centered 20. Which scenario is most likely to result in an accurate histogram? A. Controlling the amount of scatter B. Exposing less than 30% of the image receptor (IR) C. Using the largest possible image receptor (IR) D. Presence of a hip prosthesis 21. Which compound is used as the input phosphor in a fluoroscopic image-intensifier tube? A. Zinc cadmium sulfide B. Calcium tungstate C. Cesium iodide D. Gadolinium oxysulfide 22. In digital radiography, which artifact is caused by incorrect alignment of the grid to the laser scan direction? A. Laser motion effect B. Moire pattern C. Grid ratio error D. Miller frequency 23. Prior to performing a posteroanterior (PA) chest projection, the radiographer discovers that the patient has had a left total pneumoectomy. Should the radiographer adapt the procedure? A. Increase the milliampere-seconds (mAs) by 35% B. Select the right chamber on the automatic-exposure control (AEC) C. Use the normal settings for a PA chest projection D. Perform the exam on expiration 24. What term is used to describe how the angle of the x-ray tube targets the size of the effective focal spot? A. Penumbra effect B. Anode-heel effect C. Line-focus principle D. Target theory 25. Which quality factors are primarily determined by the look-up table (LUT) during digital image processing? (select the two that apply) A. Contrast B. Magnification C. Spatial resolution D. Brightness E. Quantum mottle 26. What is the cause of a Moire artifact on a computed radiography (CR) image? A. Improper acquisition settings B. Grid lines and scanning laser are parallel C. Exposure factors are too low D. Using an oscillating high-frequency grid 27. A particular radiographic aging unit consistently produces PA chest radiographs with the left lung field clipped. Assuming that the patient positioning and centering procedures are correctly performed. What should the radiographer do about this ongoing issue? A. Report the problem to the quality control supervisor B. Report the problem to the chief radiologist C. Call biomedical equipment repair personnel to fix the alignment D. Call the manufacturer’s service representative with the problem 28. A radiographer performs a wrist series in which the digital image receptor (IR) is overexposed. Which factor is the most likely cause of the overexposure? A. Source to image receptor distance (SID) is too short B. Focal spot size is too large C. Kilovolts peak (kVp) is set too low D. Milliampere-seconds (mAs) is set too low 29. Which pathology most often requires increased exposure for adequate penetration? A. Bowel obstruction B. Osteomyelitis C. Osteopetrosis D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (emphysema) 30. What is the purpose of the photomultiplier tube inside the computed radiography (CR) reader? A. Amplifies light and sends it to a digitizer B. Restores trapped electrons to a slower energy state C. Releases stored energy as visible light D. Floods the plate with light to erase it 31. Which processing technique results in a black background surrounding the original collimated edges? A. Beam restriction B. Subtraction C. Shuttering D. Collimation 32. When sampling a signal, the sampling frequency must be twice the bandwidth of the input signal or greater. Which term describes this rule? A. Look-up table (LUT) B. Histogram C. Modulation transfer function (MTF) D. Nyquist theorem 33. When is a short dimension grid useful? A. When excessive scatter is present B. When using high kilovolts peak (kVp) C. When it is important to have efficient scatter clean up D. When it is difficult to center accurately to a grid 34. What will occur if the source to image receptor distance (SID) is decreased and no other technical factors are changed? A. Intensity will increase and beam divergence will increase B. Intensity will increase and beam divergence will decrease C. Intensity will remain constant and beam divergence will decrease D. Intensity will decrease and beam divergence will remain constant 35. While performing a portable knee exam in the operating room, the radiographer must move the standard 40 inch source to image distance (SID) to a 55-inch SID due to the sterile field. If the exam is normally performed at 70 kilovolts peak (kVp) and 10 milliampere-seconds (mAs) at 40-inch SID, what technique is required at the new SID? A. 80 kVp at 10 mAs B. 80 kVp at 20 mAs C. 70 kVp at 5 mAs D. 70 kVp at 18 mAs 36. Which phenomenon explains why increased source to image receptor distance (SID) results in increased exposure to the image receptor (IR) A. Reciprocity law failure B. Beam divergence C. Line-focus principle D. Anode heel effect 37. The American College of Radiology (ACR) recommends that an SMPTE test pattern be used to test PACS monitor quality at least how often? A. Monthly B. Daily C. Semi-annually D. Weekly 38. Which unit of measurement is used to express spatial frequency? A. Hounsfeld units B. Line pairs per millimeter C. Voxels D. Pixels 39. Which item affects spatial resolution in digital radiography? A. Pixel size B. Bit depth C. Window width D. Kilovoltage peak 40. Which factor is most likely to cause decreased spatial resolution? A. Increased object to image receptor distance (OID) B. Decreased object to image receptor distance (OID) C. Decreased focal spot size D. Increased source to image receptor distance (SID) 41. Which actual imaging characteristic results in higher spatial resolution? A. Increase in pixel pitch B. Decrease in pixel size C. Increase in image noise D. Decrease in scatter radiation reaching the image receptor 42. How does the filament transformer of an x-ray machine change the shape of electrical power? A. Stepping up voltage and stepping down current B. Stepping down voltage and stepping up current C. Stepping down voltage and stepping down current D. Stepping up voltage and stepping up current 43. What characteristics of tungsten make it ideal for the use of anode target material? (select three that apply) A. Efficiency of heat dissipation B. High atomic number C. Reduced thermal conductivity D. High melting point E. Decreased exposure time 44. Which image characteristics is altered when a radiographer adjusts the window width on a digital image monitor? A. Contrast B. Brightness C. Temporal resolution D. Spatial resolution 45. Which type of power supplied to the x-ray tube is nearest to constant potential? A. Single phase, full wave rectified B. 10,000 hertz high frequency C. Three phase, six pulse D. Three phase, twelve pulse 46. A patient interacts with the radiographer in an angry manner. Which reason may be behind the patients angry outbursts? A. The patient is frightened of the exam results B. The patient does not believe the radiographer is competent C. The patient is in the bargaining phase of the grieving process D. This is the patients normal personality 47. The radiographer is assisting in the move of a non-weight bearing patient from a wheelchair to the x-ray table. Which represents the safest practice by the radiographer when transferring the patient? A. Slightly reduce the base of the support to better maintain the center of gravity B. Bend at the waist so that the center of gravity is midway between the patient and the radiographer C. Extend the arms as far as possible to increase the base of support D. Straighten the lower back to maintain the center of gravity over the base of support 48. Which term best describes the process of cleaning the surface in a Radiology Department with 10% bleach solution in water? A. Medical asepsis B. Sterile technique C. Sterilization D. Surgical asepsis 49. Which is described as evidence of competency in certain skills or tasks? A. Certification B. Scope of practice C. Licensure D. Standard of care 50. Prior to entering a patients room to perform a portable x-ray procedure, the radiographer notices a sign outside the room indicating that the patient has been placed on contact isolation. Which precaution should the radiographer take prior to entering the patient’s room? A. Disinfect the imaging equipment B. Don non-sterile gloves C. Dress with a sterile gown D. Put on a surgical mask 51. Which is the most effective strategy for communicating with a patient with Down syndrome? A. Rely primarily on the patients caregiver for history B. Speak to the patient as you would a small child C. Use nonverbal rather than verbal methods of communication D. Determine the patients ability to understand instructions 52. Which patient is most likely to exhibit hypovolemia? A. A small, pale woman who needs a double contrast enema B. A large, red-faced and red-skinned man undergoing an IVP C. An auto accident victim bleeding profusely from several wounds D. An auto accident victim with several fractures 53. What should the radiographer do first in the event of extravasation during the injection of IV contrast media? A. Remove the IV B. Apply pressure to the area C. Stop the injection D. Call the radiologist 54. In which traditional culture is direct eye contact rude and intrusive? A. Mexican B. Japanese C. Inuit D. Scandinavian 55. What does a rating scale number 4 indicate on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) ? A. Severe hazard B. Moderate hazard C. Serious hazard D. Slight hazard 56. Which organization establishes standards for the use of personal protective equipment (PPE)? A. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) B. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) C. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) 57. A radiographer prepares to transfer a patient from a wheelchair to the x-ray table by placing the patients right side nearest the x-ray table. Due to the configuration of the room, the wheelchair is normally locked with patients left side nearest the x-ray table. Which is the best reason for modifying the normal procedure? A. The patient has left sided weakness B. The radiographer is not familiar with this exam room C. The radiographer prefers the modified procedure D. The patient has right sided weakness 58. A patient is transported to the radiology department with severe burns after being rescued from a house fire. The patients skin feels cold appears blue in color. The patient is still conscious but has lost a significant amount of plasma and is going into hypovolemic shock. After alerting the physician, which action should the radiographer perform? A. Administer antihistamine B. Call a code blue C. Place patient in fowlers position D. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position 59. Which requirement must be met before valid informed consent is obtained? A. The patient has been deemed mentally competent B. An informed consent has been signed by the patient in view of multiple witnesses C. Emergency procedures have been shared with the patient D. The patient has been informed about the cost of the procedure 60. When obtaining a medical history in an emergent setting, which person is the best choice to act as a language interpreter for a patient who doesn’t speak English? A. The treating physician B. A hospital-contacted medical interpreter C. The patients designated healthcare proxy D. A member of the patients family 61. Which laboratory value represents a potential contraindication for the administration of intravenous (IV) iodinated contrast media? A. Creatine = 1.0 B. International normalized ratio (INR)= 1.8 C. Prothrombin time (PT) = 12.5 D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) = 32.0 62. Which is an example of a negative contrast medium? A. Carbon dioxide B. Non-ionic, water soluble, injectable C. Barium sulfate D. Ionic, water soluble, injectable 63. When a patient codes and there is no DNR notification in the patients chart, what immediate action must be taken by the radiographer? A. Wait for the nearest physician to arrive B. Wait for the code response team C. The patients doctor must be consulted D. The patient must be resuscitated 64. Which factor represents a common reason for use of parenteral medication administration? A. Longer duration of action B. Faster response to medication C. Easier for patients to self medicate D. Less expensive option 65. If a physician’s prescription states that the patients medications must be given parenterally, which routes of administration may be used? A. Oral B. Rectal C. Nasogastric D. Intravascular E. Intramuscular F. Subcutaneous 66. A radiographer attempts to acquire a history from a patient who appease to be in severe pain. The patient is alert, but has difficulty answering questions. Which strategy is most likely to make it easier to communicate with this patient? A. Ask the patients nurse if pain medication can be given B. Try a nonverbal mode of communication C. Use a more authoritative tone of voice D. Have the patient communicate the history in writing 67. A patient experiences an allergic response to an intravenously injected contrast medium during a radiographic procedure. After contacting the attending radiologist, what is the next action the radiographer should take? A. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position B. Open the crash cart C. Asses the patients vital signs D. Call a code 68. which is a normal number of respirations per minute for a typical adult in resting state? A. 36 B. 16 C. 8 D. 24 69. Which is a sign of anaphylactic shock ? A. Acute renal failure B. Facial droop C. Bronchospasm D. Hypertension 70. The radiographer is asked to assist with a sterile procedure and is required to perform a surgical scrub. Of the steps listed below, which should be completed first? A. Cleanse the arm with a lathered brush B. Rinse form the fingertips to the elbow C. Scrape under the nails with a nail pick D. Use a soapy brush to scrub the hands 71. A radiographer begins an exam on a patient with diabetes who has been NPO since midnight. If the patient experiences insulin shock, what symptoms might be noted? ( select the two that apply) A. Dry skin B. Slow onset of symptoms C. Weakness D. Polyuria E. Hunger 72. A patient with multiple injuries is placed on a monitor and transported to radiology for a series of trauma radiographs. The patients vital signs appear normal upon arrival. Which change in vital signs would indicate the need for the radiographer to call for immediate assistance during the exam? A. BP 140/90, pulse 90; respirations 16 B. BP 70/50, pulse 120, respirations 28 C. BP 120/80, pulse 80, respirations 14 D. BP 100/60, pulse 70, respirations 20 73. Which abdominal pathology requires an increase in technical factors? A. Volvulus B. Ascites C. Ileus D. Intussusception 74. Which term refers to the part of the humerus distal to the lateral epicondyle that articulates with the radius? A. Coronoid fossa B. Trochlea C. Capitulum D. Olecranon fossa 75. In what position should the leg and foot be placed when positioning a patient to view the ankle mortise joint? A. 15 to 20 degrees external rotation B. 45 degrees internal rotation C. 15 to 20 degrees internal rotation D. 45 degrees external rotation 76. A patient who has had several routine posteroanterior (PA) chest x-rays in the last month now requires an anteroposterior (AP) supine chest. How will the new image appear differently from the older images? A. The diaphragm is more superior in the thorax B. Sharper anterior rib detail is seen C. More lung volume is present D. The heart appears smaller 77. Where is the usual injection site for a shoulder arthrogram? A. 1-2 cm superior and medial to the coronoid process B. 1-2 cm superior and medial to the coracoid process C. 1-2 cm inferior and lateral to the coronoid process D. 1-2 cm inferior and lateral to the coracoid process 78. Which describes the appropriate central ray orientation for an axiolateral projection of the hip and proximal femur? A. Perpendicular to the long axis of the femoral neck B. Perpendicular to the long axis of the femur C. Parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck D. Parallel to the long axis of the femur 79. What is the most likely reason for choosing a breathing right anterior oblique (RAO) instead of a breath-hold RAO when examining the sternum? A. Rotates the sternum out from spinal superimposition B. Rotates the sternum out from under the heart C. Blurs superimposing structures like lung markings and the ribs D. Projects the sternum through the image of the heart 80. In attempting a lateral (Swimmer’s method) projection of the cervicothoracic region, the patient cannot cooperate in depressing the shoulder furthest from the image receptor. What should the radiographer do? A. Angle the central ray 3-5 degrees caudal B. Angle the central ray 3-5 degrees cephalic C. Roll the patient anteriorly 10 degrees D. Roll the patient posteriorly 10 degrees 81. A patient who was injured in a fall is unable to lay on her back. When imaging the patient’s coccyx, how should the central ray (CR) be directed and in what direction? A. 10 degrees cephalad B. 10 degrees caudad C. 15 degrees cephalad D. 15 degrees caudad 82. Assuming a 40-inch source to image receptor distance (SID) and proper positioning, which anteroposterior (AP) projection is most likely to result in the greatest size distortion? A. Humerus B. Shoulder C. Clavicle D. Scapula 83. Which projection best demonstrates the condylar process of the mandible? A. PA modified Water’s B. Submentovertical C. Axiolateral oblique D. Posteroanterior (PA) with no central ray (CR) angle 84. Which landmark corresponds to the thoracic vertebra used for central ray (CR) placement on posteroanterior (PA) chest x-ray? A. Jugular notch B. Vertebral prominens C. Inferior angle of the scapula D. Sternal angle 85. A lateral cervical spine image demonstrates the intervertebral foramina. What should the radiographer do? A. Repeat the image and align the patient’s mentomeatal line (MML) with central ray B. Repeat the image with a 15-degree caudal central ray angle C. Approve image and send to radiologist D. Reposition the patient to the true lateral and repeat exposure 86. An elderly patient comes into the Emergency Department after falling on ice, and attempting to catch herself. The radiographer prepares to do the ordered wrist exam, noting a deformity with posterior displacement of the distal forearm. What fracture is likely to be seen on the radiograph? A. Spiral B. Depressed C. Boxer’s D. Colle’s 87. When an upright abdomen view cannot be obtained, what position demonstrates free air in the abdomen? A. Ventral decubitus B. Anteroposterior (AP) supine C. Right lateral decubitus D. Left lateral decubitus 88. While reviewing an posteroanterior (PA) image of a hand the radiographer notices, that the distal phalanx of all of the digits appears shorter than normal, and the distal interphalangeal joint space is closed. What is the positioning error that is demonstrated? A. The patients fingers are not flat on the image receptor B. The central ray is improperly centered distal to its proper location C. The hand and digits are elevated off the image receptor (IR), but are parallel to the IR D. The central ray is angled towards the wrist 89. Why is the right anterior oblique (RAO) position preferred over a left anterior oblique (LAO) position when doing an esophagus exam? A. Less visibility of esophagus between heart and spine B. Better visibility of esophagus between heart and spine C. Either projection is acceptable D. Allows better demonstration of esophageal varices 90. A patient comes to the emergency room, complaining of pain after a basketball hyperextended his finger. Which type of fracture could result from this type of injury? A. Avulsion B. Compression C. Depression D. Impacted 91. A lumbar myelogram shows a protrusion of the nucleus pulposus into the spinal canal. Which term best describes this finding? A. Spondylolysis B. Herniated disc C. Vertebrogenesis D. Spondylolisthesis 92. In which space is contrast media injected for myelogram? A. Subpial space B. Subarachnoid space C. Subcutaneous space D. Subdural space 93. What is the orientation of the cervical interverbal foramina relative to the median and transverse planes? A. 17 degrees anterior, 55 degrees inferior B. 55 degrees anterior, 17 degrees inferior C. 45 degrees anterior, 15 degrees inferior D. 15 degrees anterior, 45 degrees inferior 94. For projections of the distal femur, at what level should the lower margin of the image receptor be placed? A. Knee joint B. 2 inches below the knee joint C. Mid patella D. Apex of the patella 95. Which abdominal landmark is used to position the inferior margin of the cassette for a supine anteroposterior (AP) abdomen projection? A. Iliac crest B. ASIS C. Greater trochanter D. Symphysis pubis 96. Where should the central ray be directed for a lateral projection of the nasal bones? A. Acanthion B. 0.5 inch inferior to the nasion C. 1 inch inferior to the nasion D. Nasion 97. What instructions should be given to a patient when imaging the lateral cervical spine? A. Rotate shoulders so that they do not lie in the same horizontal plane suspend respiration at the end of expiration B. Rotate shoulders so that they do not lie in the same horizontal plane and suspend respiration at the end of inspiration C. Depress shoulders and suspend respiration at the end of inspiration D. Depress shoulders and suspend respiration at the end of expiration 98. How should the patient’s shoulder be positioned when performing an upright lateral projection of the cervicothoracic spine? A. Depress the shoulder nearest the image receptor and rotate posteriorly B. Depress the shoulder farthest from the image receptor and rotate posteriorly C. Both shoulders should be positioned so that they lie in the same horizontal plane D. Elevate the shoulder farthest from the image receptor 99. Which represents the correct central ray location for a lateral hand projection? A. First metacarpophalangeal joint B. Second metacarpophalangeal joint C. Fourth metacarpophalangeal joint D. Third metacarpophalangeal joint 100. A patient is placed in the supine position for a lateral projection of the lower leg. After placing the at the center of the field, the radiographer rotates the patient toward the affected side. Which outcome is achieved if the correct amount of rotation is applied? A. The patella is parallel to the cassette B. The tibia and fibula will appear superimposed C. The central ray is directed to the lower half of the leg D. The fibula will appear posterior to the tibia 101. When imaging the thoracic spine on a male patient with unusually broad shoulders, what is the most appropriate central ray (CR)? A. 15 degree cephalad, entering at the level of T-7 B. Perpendicular entering at the level of T-7 C. 10 degree caudad angle, entering at the level of T-7 D. 10 degree cephalad angle, entering at the level of T-7 102.Which portion of the “scotty dog" is analogous to the transverse process of the lumbar spine? A. Neck B. Nose C. Eye D. Ear 103.How could a radiographer decrease some of the inherent magnification on a lateral thoracic position? A. Use a 30 inch source-to-image receptor distance (SID) B. Perform the exam in a recumbent position C. Use a 48 inch source-to-image receptor distance(SID) D. Perform the exam in a standing position 104.Which projection will result in the greatest heart size on an image? A. Anteroposterior (AP), 72 inch source image distance (SID) B. Anteroposterior (AP), 44 inch source image distance (SID) C. Posteroanterior (PA), 72 inch source image distance (SID) D. Posteroanterior (PA), 44 inch source image distance (SID) 105. How is contrast media injection classified for a myelogram? A. Intravenous B. Intrathecal ** C. Intramuscular D. Intradermal 106. When using a 10x12 inch image receptor (IR), where should the IR be centered to properly center the vertebrae on a posteroanterior (PA) Axial Oblique Projection of the cervical spine? A. C-5 B. C-2 C. C-3 D. C-4 107. Which is the best approach to demonstrate a pneumothorax? A. Posteroanterior (PA) inspiration and expiration views B. PA and lateral expiration only C. PA inspiration only D. Lateral inspiration only 108. Which should be clearly demonstrated on the anteroposterior (AP) projection of the forearm? (Select the three that apply) A. Radiocapitular joint B. Radioschapoid joint C. Distalradioulnar articulation D. Glenohumeral joint E. Metacarpophalangeal articulation 109. Why is a retrograde urogram referred to as a nonfunctional test? A. This is incorrect , a retrograde urogram is a functional test B. It does not allow physiology to be demonstrated C. Nonfunctioning kidneys will not be demonstrated D. This exam is not performed if renal function is compromised 110. If scapular Y view demonstrates the head of the humerus inferior to the coracoid process, what is most likely indicated? A. Inferior shoulder dislocation B. No shoulder dislocation C. Posterior shoulder dislocation D. Anterior shoulder dislocation 111. What should a radiographer do to assure a uniform beam penetration in the entire thoracic region when performing an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the thoracic vertebrae? A. Place the cathode end of the tube towards the patients head B. Angle 10 degrees cephalad C. Place the cathode end of the tube towards the patients feet D. Angle 10 degrees cephalic 112. A fractured olecranon process is best demonstrated on which elbow projection? A. Anteroposterior (AP), 45- degree medial rotation B. Anteroposterior (AP), 45-degree lateral rotation C. Lateral D. Anteroposterior (AP) 113. Which anatomical structure is visualized by performing a plantadorsal projection of the calcaneus? A. Subtalar joint B. Sesamoid bone C. Metatarsalphalangeal joint D. Cuneiform bone 114. Which tarsal bone forms the most superior portion of the foot? A. Calcaneus B. Lateral cuneiform C. Cuboid D. Talus 115. A 60 year old patient complains of knee pain. His physician wishes to evaluate the patient for osteoarthritis. What projection will be most useful? A. Anteroposterior (AP) weight-bearing B. Medial oblique C. Lateral D. Anteroposterior (AP) 116. Which statement most correctly describes the change that takes place when a stream of electrons strike the anode of the x-ray tube? A. Potential energy is converted into thermal energy B. X-ray’s are converted to light C. Thermal energy is converted to kinetic energy D. Kinetic energy is converted to thermal energy 117. How much of the typical diagnostic primary x-ray beam consists of bremsstrahlung x-ray? A. 80% B. 40% C. 10% D. 20% 118. When performing C-arm procedures, what is a good practice to reduce exposure to the patient and personnel? (Select the three that apply). ???? A. Place the image intensifier as close to the patient as possible B. Utilize the magnification mode whenever possible C. Minimize the source-to-skin distance while performing radiographer exams with the C-arm D. Utilize the last image-hold whenever possible E. Position the c-arm so the x-ray tube is beneath the patient and the image intensifier is on top 119. Which practice best protects the radiographer from any radiation source? A. Being shielded from the radiation source B. Minimizing time spent near the radiation source C. Maximizing distance from the radiation source D. Taking a sodium iodide pill daily 120. If tungsten (W) has the election shell binding energies shown below, what energy of characteristic radiation is produced by an N to K shell transition? K shell – 69.5 kiloelectron volts (keV) L shell- 11.3 keV M shell- 2.3 keV N shell- 0.8 keV O shell- 70 ev P shell- 8 ev A. 69.4 keV B. 69.5 keV C. 67.2 keV D. 68.7 keV 121. Why should four sided collimation be done on all images, providing it does not cut off essential anatomy? (Select the three that apply) A. Reduces scatter B. Reduces the volume of tissue irradiated C. Prevents repeat exposure D. Provides compensation for inadequate filtration of the x-ray beam E. Provides proof of documentation that the beam was restricted 122. What effect does closing down from the image receptor size to body part size have on the number of interactions of x-rays occurring in the patient? A. Increases interactions by confining scatter within the patients body B. Increases interactions by concentrating the beam to a smaller area C. Reduces interactions by reducing the number of target atoms and photons available D. Reduces the interactions by minimizing the number of x-ray photons produced 123. What is the maximum equivalent dose of radiation allowed each week to personnel in a controlled radiation area? A. 10 millisievert (mSv) B. 100 millisievert(mSv) C. 1 millisievert (mSv) CFR 1 mSv/year D. 1000 millisievrt (mSv) 124. Which action could a radiologist take to decrease patient exposure during fluoroscopic procedures? A. Use a bucky slot cover B. Document total fluoroscopy time used C. Insert protective curtain in fluoro tower D. Depress and release foot switch 125. According to the National Council on Radiation Protection (NCRP) what is the effective annual dose equivalent limit for the lens of the eye of a radiographer? A. 50 mSv B. 150 mSv C. 500 mSv D. 10 mSv 126. Which is the dose response relationship for a radiation effect that begins to occur at a specific dosage and increases in direct proportion to increasing doseage? A. Liner-threshold B. Linear- nonthreshold C. Nonlinear – threshold D. Nonlinear – nonthreshold 127. The radiation principles applied to minimize patient exposure are based on which dose-response curve? A. Linear, threshold B. Nonlinear, threshold C. Linear, nonthreshold D. Nonlinear, threshold 128. What personnel monitoring device provides the most sensitive exposure detection at the lowest radiation level? A. Thermoluminescent heat activated dosimeter B. Aluminum and copper based film badge C. Optically Stimulated Luminescent dosimeter D. Cutie pie ionization chamber dosimeter 129. Which concept best explains why effective dose (efd) was developed to measure risk? A. Some sources of radiation are more damaging than others B. Different organs have different sensitivities to radiation C. Small children are more susceptible to the effects of radiation D. Certain imaging procedures result in greater absorbed dose 130. Which scientific principle applies to the negatively-charged focusing cup that narrows the electron stream? A. Charges move from a higher concentration to a lower one B. Like charges repel each other C. Inverse square law D. Only negative charges move 131. A watt of power represents 1 ampere of current flowing across a potential difference of 1 volt per 1 second. At 100 kilovolts peak (kVp), 500 milliamperes (mA), 3/10 second, there is 30% of 100,000 volts x 0.5 or 15 KW (kilowatts) of power consumed. For a lateral lumbar spine exposure (15kW), how much of this electrical power is wasted as heat? A. 1 % B. 99% C. 83% D. 26% 132. Which radiographic exam has the highest mean marrow dose (MMD) for an adult patient? A. Lumbar spine B. Chest C. Cervical spine D. Sternum 133. Which procedure causes the highest occupational exposure for radiographers? A. Mobile chest x-ray B. Abdomen radiography C. Barium enema D. Lumbar spine radiography 134. What is the name of the component that changes the light field size to match the size of the image receptor (IR)? A. Extension cylinder B. Aperture diaphragm C. Light field reducer (LFR) D. Positive beam limitation (PBL) 135. Which value represents the required amount of total filtration for fluoroscopic x-ray tubes? A. 1.5- mm aluminum equivalent B. 25- mm aluminum equivalent C. 5- mm aluminum equivalent D. 2.5- aluminum equivalent 136. Which protocol should be implemented to reduce patient dose during fluoroscopic procedures? A. Increase the number of spot films B. Use magnification mode when possible C. Reset the cumulative timer before the alarm goes off D. Reduce the patient-to-image intensifier distance 137. Which kind of radiation is absorbed by the protective curtain on a fluoroscopic unit? A. Scatter B. Primary C. Remnant 138. What is the radiographers most effective means of protection from ionizing radiation during a fluoroscopic procedure? A. Decreasing the radiation dose given to the patient B. Wearing a 0.5 mm lead equivalent thyroid shield C. Increasing the distance from the radiation source D. Ensuring time of exposure doesn’t exceed 5 minutes 139. Which type of gonadal shield is suspended from the radiographic tube? A. Shaped contact B. Flat contact C. Clear head D. Shadow 140. Which is usually a primary barrier A. Part of a wall behind the chest bucky B. The wall of the control booth facing the room C. The ceiling of the exposure room D. Side wall furthest from the fluoroscopic carriage 141. A radiographer is standing 1 meter from the source of radiation during a fluoroscopic procedure and receiving 2.5 mGy, per hour. What will the rate of exposure be if the radiographer increases the distance to 2.5 meters from the source? A. 1.0 mGy per hour B. 6.25 mGy per hour C. 0.4 mGy per hour D. 2.5 mGy per hour 142. A radiographer’s exposure during fluoroscopy is 2 mGy, per hour while standing 1 foot from the radiation source. How far must the radiographer be from the radiation source to receive 1 mGy, per hour? A. 2.6 ft B. 2 ft C. 0.5 ft D. 1.4 ft 143. Which chemical equation most accurately represents the initial interaction of an x-ray photon and a water molecule? H20 à H + OH*(free redical) à H2O2 (hydro peroxide) A. H2O HOH+ eB. HOH+ H+ + OHC. H2O HHO+ +e- * D. HOH- OH- + H+ 144. The radiographer must perform an imaging process during which the patient must be manually immobilized. Who should perform immobilization of the patient during the procedure? A. The radiographer performing the process to reduce positioning errors B. A student radiographer who needs hands on experience with the procedure C. Non-radiographic employee who is not routinely exposed to radiation D. A radiographic who has not been exposed to radiation in the past 15 days 145. Which limit represents the maximum monthly dose to the fetus of radiographers? A. 50 mSv B. 0.05 mSv C. 5 mSv D. 0.5 mSv 146. Which imaging procedure would likely result in the greatest occupational exposure to a radiographer? A. Intraoperative hip pinning B. Upper Gastrointestinal (UGI) exam C. Portable chest X-ray D. Hand x-ray 147. Which action will increase pediatric exposure rates during medical studies? A. Perform study in PA position B. Use a grid C. Decreased mA settings D. Increase collimation 148. A radiographer wishes to shield a 6 year old during an upper gastrointestinal (UGI) exam. If the patient is supine on the x-ray table, which shield placement will most adequately protect the gonads during fluoroscopy? A. Under the patients pelvis B. Over the patients pelvis C. Shielding may not be used during this exam D. Shielding will not decrease the patients radiation exposure 149. Which concept implies subjective belief without supporting scientific fact? A. Estimated risk B. Perceived risk ** C. Comparable risk D. Extrapolated risk 150. Which best describes an interaction between an x-ray photon and an inner shell electron, tightly bounded to an atom of the absorbing medium? A. Coherent scattering B. Photoelectric effect C. Compton scattering D. Pair production 151. The probability of photoelectric absorption is greatest when photon energy is ____ and the atomic number of the irradiated tissue is ___ A. High; low B. Low; high C. High; high D. Low; low 152. When a C-arm procedure is performed in the operating room, where is the best placement of the C-arm to reduce personnel exposure? A. So the image intensifier is far from personnel B. With the x-ray tube under the patient C. With the x-ray tube over the patient D. So the x-ray tube is far from personnel OR 153. Which explains the relationship between biologic damage to deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and radiolysis of water? A. Indirect effect B. Target theory C. Prodromal period D. Direct effect 154. According to the law of Bergonie and Tribendeau what is the least radiosensitive cell in the adult human body? A. Nerve cell B. Epithelial cell C. Hematopoietic cell D. Muscle cell 155. According to the National Council on Radiation and Measurements (NCRP), how many times must the primary beam scatter before reaching the radiographer behind the control-booth barrier? A. Five times B. Three times C. Two times D. Four times 156. A radiographer performs a scoliosis series on a 13 year old girl. Which projection will result in increased breast exposure? A. Use a 72” source -image-distance (SID) B. Use shadow shields C. Perform the exam in the anteroposterior (AP) position D. Perform the exam in the posteroanterior (PA) position 157. Which source of radiation exposure is most important to an average American, according to National Council on Radiation Protection (NCRP) report number 160? A. Medical diagnostic testing B. Background radiation C. Emissions from consumer products D. Environmental radiation 158. What sources of ionization radiation exists in addition to medical and dental exposures? ( Select the three that apply) A. Lithium B. Radon C. Microwaves D. Cosmic radiation E. Nuclear fallout 159. Cell damage caused by indirect action may occur when x-rays interact with what type of molecule? A. Water B. Protein C. DNA D. RNA 160. Which kilovolts peak (kVp) and milliampere seconds (mAs) combination provides the lowest dose? A. 77 kVp and 4 mAs B. 58 kVp and 8 mAs C. 67 kVp and 6 mAs D. 90 kVp and 2 mAs 161. Which is the best description of the x-ray tube current? A. X-rays traveling from the tube to the Image receptor (IR) B. X-rays that exit the patient and strike the IR C. Electrons traveling from cathode to anode D. Electrons exiting the tube 162. The velocity at which electrons travel from cathode to anode is controlled primarily by what factor? A. Capacitance B. Amperage C. Rectification D. Voltage 163. At which kilovolts peak (kVp) level is the production of x-rays most efficient? A. 120 B. 60 C. 80 D. 100 164. What is used to measure the penetrability of the x-ray beam ? A. Kilovolts peak accuracy B. Half value layer C. Emission spectrum D. Exposure linearity