GPSC AE Civil GWSSB Exam Paper PDF 2023

BEO PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY Name of The Post Assistant Engineer (Civil), Class-2, (GWSSB) Advertisement No 26/2022-23 Preliminary Test Held On 25-06-2023 Que...

BEO PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY Name of The Post Assistant Engineer (Civil), Class-2, (GWSSB) Advertisement No 26/2022-23 Preliminary Test Held On 25-06-2023 Que. No. 001-300 Publish Date 26-06-2023 04-07 -2023 Last Date to Send Suggestion (S) Instructions / સૂચના (Physical Submission) Candidate must ensure compliance to the instructions mentioned below, else objections shall not be considered: - (1) All the suggestion should be submitted in prescribed format of suggestion sheet PHYSICALLY. (2) Question wise suggestion to be submitted in the prescribed format (Suggestion Sheet) published on the website. (3) All suggestions are to be submitted with reference to the Master Question Paper with provisional answer key (Master Question Paper), published herewith on the website. Objections should be sent referring to the Question, Question No. & options of the Master Question Paper. (4) Suggestions regarding question nos. and options other than provisional answer key (Master Question Paper) shall not be considered. (5) Objections and answers suggested by the candidate should be in compliance with the responses given by him in his answer sheet. Objections shall not be considered, in case, if responses given in the answer sheet /response sheet and submitted suggestions are differed. (6) Objection for each question shall be made on separate sheet. Objection for more than one question in single sheet shall not be considered & treated as Cancelled. (7) Candidate who is present in the exam entitled to submit the objection/(s). (8) Candidate should attach copy of his/her OMR (Answer sheet) with objection/(s). ઉમેદવાર ે નીચેની સૂચનાઓનું પાલન કરવાની તકે દારી રાખવી, અ યથા વાંધા-સૂચન અંગે કર ેલ રજૂ આતો યાને લેવાશે નહી ં (1) ઉમેદવારે વાંધા-સૂચનો િનયત કરવામાં આવેલ વાંધા-સૂચન પ કથી રજૂ કરવાના રહેશ.ે (2) ઉમેદવારે માણે વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ કરવા વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ િનયત વાંધા-સૂચન પ કના નમૂનાનો જ ઉપયોગ કરવો. (3) ઉમેદવારે પોતાને પરી ામાં મળેલ પુિ તકામાં છપાયેલ માંક મુજબ વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ ન કરતા તમામ વાંધા-સૂચનો વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આ સર કી (મા ટર પ )ના માંક મુજબ અને તે સંદભમાં રજૂ કરવા. (4) મા ટર પ માં િન દ ષ્ટ અને િવક પ િસવાયના વાંધા-સૂચન યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહીં. (5) ઉમેદવારે જે ના િવક પ પર વાંધો રજૂ કરેલ છે અને િવક પ પે જે જવાબ સૂચવેલ છે એ જવાબ ઉમેદવારે પોતાની ઉ રવહીમાં આપેલ હોવો જોઈએ. ઉમેદવારે સૂચવેલ જવાબ અને ઉ રવહીનો જવાબ િભ હશે તો ઉમેદવારે રજૂ કરેલ વાંધા-સૂચન યાનમાં લેવાશે નહીં. (6) એક માટે એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પ ક વાપરવુ.ં એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પ કમાં એકથી વધારે ોની રજૂઆત કરેલ હશે તો તે અંગેના વાંધા-સૂચનો યાને લેવાશે નહીં. (7) પર ક્ષામાં હાજર રહ લ ઉમેદવાર જ વાંધા - ુચન ર ુ કર શકશે. (8) ઉમેદવાર વાંધા- ુ ચન સાથે પોતાની જવાબવહ ની નકલ બડાણ કરવાની રહ શે. M 001. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 1. røkhLkkh Ãkðoík{kt {¤e ykðu÷ rþÕÃk-MÚkkÃkíÞku {kiÞo Mk{úkx yþkufLkk Mkk{úkßÞLke økðkne Ãkqhu Au. 2. E.Mk. 1947 MkwÄe Mkkihk»xÙ rMkðkÞLkwt økwshkík, {wtçkE hkßÞLkku ¼køk níkwt. 3. økwshkík hkßÞLke MÚkkÃkLkkÚke y{ËkðkË hksÄkLke níke. 4. E.Mk. 1975{kt økktÄeLkøkhLke MÚkkÃkLkk fheLku hksÄkLke økktÄeLkøkh ÷E økÞu÷ níkk. (A) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) 1, 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1, 2 yLku 4 ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1, 3 yLku 4 ÞkuøÞ Au. 002. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 1. ¼  khíkLkk hk»xÙæðsLke ÷tçkkE yLku Ãknku¤kELkwt økwýku¥kh 3:2 Lkwt Au yLku æðsLke ðå[u Lkuðe çÕÞw htøkLkk [¢{kt 24 ykhkyku (Spokes) ykðu÷ Au. 2. 22 sw÷kE, 1947Lkk hkus ¼khíkLke çktÄkhý Mk¼kyu íkuLku Mðefkhu÷ níkku. 3. ðLkMÃkrík rðrðÄíkk{kt rðï{kt ËMk{wt yLku yurþÞk ¾tz{kt [kuÚkwt MÚkkLk ¼khíkLkwt Au. (A) 1 yLku 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1, 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. 003. ffoð]¥k “Tropic of Cancer” ¼khíkLkk fÞk hkßÞku{ktÚke ÃkMkkh ÚkkÞ Au ? 1. økwshkík, hksMÚkkLk, {æÞ«Ëuþ 2. Íkh¾tz, Ãkrù{ çktøkk¤ 3. rºkÃkwhk, r{Íkuh{, A¥keMkøkZ 4. fuh¤, íkkr{÷Lkkzw, fýkoxf (A) 1, 2 yLku 3 hkßÞku (B) 1, 2 yLku 4 hkßÞku (C) 1, 3 yLku 4 hkßÞku (D) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4 hkßÞku 004. yþkuf Míkt¼ ÃkhLke [kh ®Mknðk¤e rþÕÃkkf]rík su{kt 3 ®Mkn á~Þ{kLk Au íku fÞk MÚkkLk Ãkh ykðu÷ Au ? (A) ystíkk R÷kuhk økwVkyku (B) MkkhLkkÚk (C) swLkkøkZ (D) f÷f¥kk 005. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ LkÚke ? (A) ¼khíkLke fw÷ ðMíkeLkk 4.99% ðMíke økwshkík{kt hnu Au. (B) økwshkíkLke ðMíkeLke ½Lkíkk Ëh [kuhMk rf÷ku{exhu 308 Lke Au. (C) økwshkíkLkku Mkkûkhíkk Ëh 87.23 Au. (D) økwshkíkLke fw÷ ðMíkeLkk ÷øk¼øk 42.6% ðMíke þnuhku{kt hnu Au. 2 [BEO] [Contd.  M 006. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 1. rþðLkuhe rfÕ÷ku {wLLkh økk{Lke ÃkkMku ykðu÷ Au yLku íku rþðkS {nkhksLkwt sL{ MÚk¤ Au. 2. r[¥kkuzøkZ rfÕ÷ku hksMÚkkLk{kt ykðu÷ Au yLku íku 700 yufh{kt «Mkhu÷ Au. íku{kt ÷øk¼øk 22 s¤kþÞku Au. 3. r[ºkËwøko rfÕ÷ku fýkoxf{kt ykðu÷ Au. rfÕ÷k{kt {trËh, {MSË yLku yLÞ òuðk÷kÞf MÚkkÃkíÞ Au. (A) 1 yLku 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) 1 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1, 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. 007. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt ònuh MkknMk LkðhíLk (Navratna) LkÚke ? (A) rnLËwMíkkLk yuhkuLkkuxeõMk ÷e{exuz (Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd.) (HAL) (B) fku÷ RÂLzÞk ÷e{exuz (Coal India Ltd.) (CIL) (C) LkuþLk÷ yuÕÞwr{LkeÞ{ ftÃkLke (National Aluminium Co.) (D) þeÃkªøk fkuÃkkuohuþLk ykuV RLzeÞk (Shipping Corporation of India) (SCI) 008. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 1. ¼khík{kt {eXk ÃkkýeLkwt MkkiÚke {kuxwt Mkhkuðh ðw÷h (Wular Lake) Au. íku sB{w fk~{eh{kt ykðu÷ Au. 2. ¼khík{kt ¾khk ÃkkýeLkwt MkkiÚke {kuxwt Mkhkuðh Mkkt¼h Mkhkuðh (Sambhar Salt Lake) Au. íku hksMÚkkLk{kt ykðu÷ Au. 3. WËuÃkwhLke yku¤¾ký ík¤kðkuLkk þnuh íkhefu ykÃkðk{kt ykðu Au. (A) 1 yLku 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1, 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1, 2 yLku 3 çkÄk s ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. 009. ËuþLkk {nkLkw¼kðku yLku íkuykuLke MkkÚku òuzkÞu÷ MÚk¤kuLke òuze Ãkife fE òuze ÞkuøÞ LkÚke ? (A) ©e rðLkkuçkk ¼kðu – ÃkðLkkh yk©{ (B) ©e yh®ðË ½ku»k – Ãkwzw[uhe (C) ©e rððufkLktË – çku÷wh {X, fLÞkfw{khe (D) Mðk{e ËÞkLktË MkhMðíke – Ér»kfuþ 010. ÃkhËuþLke ¼qr{ yLku ¼khíkLkk hkßÞkuLke MkhnË òuzkÞu÷ nkuÞ íkuðk òuzfk ÞkuøÞ heíku økkuXðku. ËuþLkwt Lkk{ MkhnË MkkÚku òuzkÞu÷ hkßÞku a. çkktø÷kËuþ 1. Ãkrù{ çktøkk¤, ykMkk{ b. [eLk 2. rn{k[÷ «Ëuþ, rMkr¬{ c. ÃkkrfMíkkLk 3. {rýÃkwh, r{Íkuh{ d. BÞkLk{kh 4. økwshkík, hksMÚkkLk (A) a - 2, b - 4, c - 3, d - 1 (B) a - 1, b - 2, c - 4, d - 3 (C) a - 4, b - 3, c - 1, d - 2 (D) a - 3, b - 1, c - 2, d - 4 [BEO] [P.T.O. 3 M 011. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fE òuzeyku ÞkuøÞ Au ? íkx hkßÞ çktËh 1. ÃkqðeoÞ íkx – íkkr{÷Lkkzw – [uLLkkE 2. Ãkrù{ rfLkkhku – fýkoxf – {Uøk÷kuh 3. Ãkrù{ rfLkkhku – fuh¤ – fku[e 4. ÃkqðeoÞ íkx – ykuzeþk – {Uøk÷kuh (A) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) 1, 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1, 2 yLku 4 ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1, 3 yLku 4 ÞkuøÞ Au. 012. røkrhLkøkhku yLku hkßÞLku ÞkuøÞ heíku økkuXðku. røkrhLkøkhku hkßÞ 1. WËøk{tz÷{ (Qxe) a. W¥khk¾tz 2. Ëkrso®÷øk b. Ãkrù{ çktøkk¤ 3. {Mkqhe c. íkkr{÷Lkkzw 4. rþ÷kUøk d. {u½k÷Þ (A) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c (B) 1 - a, 2 - d, 3 - c, 4 - b (C) 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a, 4 - d (D) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a 013. LkËe yLku íkuLkk rfLkkhu ðMku÷ þnuhLku økkuXðku. LkËe þnuh 1. {åAw a. Mkwhík 2. nkÚk{íke b. LkðMkkhe 3. Ãkqýko c. ®n{íkLkøkh 4. íkkÃke d. {kuhçke (A) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a (B) 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a, 4 - d (C) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c (D) 1 - a, 2 - d, 3 - c, 4 - b 014. Lk]íÞ yLku Lk]íÞ þY ÚkLkkh nk÷Lkk hkßÞLke òuzeyku Ãkife fE òuze ÞkuøÞ LkÚke ? (A) ¼hík Lkkxâ{T – íkkr{÷Lkkzw (B) fÚÚkf – ykuzeþk (C) fw[eÃkwze – yktÄú«Ëuþ (D) fÚÚkf÷e – fuh¤ 4 [BEO] [Contd.  M 015. hkßÞ yLku ÷kufLk]íÞLke òuze økkuXðku. hkßÞ Lk]íÞ a. yYýk[÷ «Ëuþ 1. y÷fÃk, yÂøLk b. ykMkk{ 2. ËÃÃkw, ÷tçkkze c. A¥keMkøkZ 3. fk÷eøkkuÃkk÷, çkenw d. Íkh¾tz 4. ÃkLkÚke, ÃktzðkLke (A) a - 2, b - 3, c - 4, d - 1 (B) a - 3, b - 4, c - 1, d - 2 (C) a - 4, b - 1, c - 2, d - 3 (D) a - 1, b - 2, c - 3, d - 4 016. ¼khík Ëuþu 15 ykuøkMx, 2022Lkk hkus fux÷k{ku Mðíktºkíkk rËðMk Wsðu÷ níkku ? (A) 74{ku (B) 75{ku (C) 76{ku (D) 77{ku 017. hkßÞku yLku hksÄkLkeLke òuzeyku Ãkife fE òuzeyku ÞkuøÞ Au ? 1. ykMkk{ – rËMkÃkwh 2. A¥keMkøkZ – hkÞÃkwh 3. rn{k[÷ «Ëuþ – rMk{÷k 4. {rýÃkwh – rþ÷kUøk 5. {u½k÷Þ – RBVk÷ 6. Lkkøkk÷uLz – ykRÍku÷ (A) 1, 2, 5 yLku 6 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) 1, 3, 4 yLku 5 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1, 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 4, 5 yLku 6 ÞkuøÞ Au. 018. økwshkík hkßÞLkk SÕ÷kyku yLku íkuLkk {wÏÞ {ÚkfLke òuzeyku Ãkife fE òuze ÞkuøÞ LkÚke ? (A) íkkÃke – ÔÞkhk (B) MkkçkhfktXk – Ãkk÷LkÃkwh (C) Ãkt[{nk÷ – økkuÄhk (D) Lk{oËk – hksÃkeÃk¤k 019.  hu¾kÃkezk (Rekhapida), ÃkeZkzwÞ÷ (Pidhadeul) yLku ¾kfhk (Khakra) yu fÞk hkßÞLke {trËh çkktÄýe{kt yøkíÞLkwt MÚkkLk Ähkðu Au ? (A) Ãkrù{ çktøkk¤ (B) ykMkk{ (C) ykurzþk (D) íkkr{÷Lkkzw 020. {nk¼k»Þ (Mahabhashya), su{kt ÔÞkfhýLke yøkíÞLke çkkçkíkkuLke rðøkíkku ykÃku÷ Au, íku fkuýu h[u÷ Au ? (A) yrïLk (Ashwin) (B) ½ku»kk (Ghosha) (C) Ãkíkts÷e (Patanjali) (D) fkfþeðík (Kakshivat) 021. {hkXk yLku yn{Ëþkn yçËk÷e ðå[u ÚkÞu÷ ÞwæÄ fÞk Lkk{Úke òýeíkwt Au ? (A) ÃkkýeÃkíkLkwt «Úk{ ÞwæÄ (B) ÃkkýeÃkíkLkwt çkesw ÞwæÄ (C) ÃkkýeÃkíkLkwt ºkesw ÞwæÄ (D) çkfMkhLkwt ÞwØ [BEO] [P.T.O. 5 M 022. fÞk Ä{oLkk Mk{kht¼ku{kt “fk÷[¢ Mk{kht¼” WsðkÞ Au ? (A) ®nËw Ä{o (Hinduism) (B) çkkiæÄ Ä{o (Buddhism) (C) siLk Ä{o (Jainism) (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife yuf Ãký Lknª 023. r[ºk þi÷e yLku MktçktÄeík hkßÞLke òuzeyku òuzku : r[ºk þi÷e hkßÞ a. Mkkihk ykxo (Saura Art) 1. hksMÚkkLk b. r[ºkk ÃkuELxªøk (Chitra) 2. fuh¤ c. hksÃkqík ÃkuELxªøk 3. ykurzþk d. f÷{EÍwÚkw (Kalamezhuthu) 4. fýkoxf (A) a - 1, b - 2, c - 3, d - 4 (B) a - 2, b - 3, c - 4, d - 1 (C) a - 3, b - 4, c - 1, d - 2 (D) a - 2, b - 4, c - 1, d - 3 024. ¼khíkeÞ ytøkúuS{kt ÷¾Lkkh ÷u¾fku yLku íkuykuLkk ÃkwMíkfkuLke òuzeyku Ãkife fE òuze ÞkuøÞ LkÚke ? (A) ykh. fu. LkkhkÞý – Äe økkEz, Äe {k÷økwze zuÍ (The Guide, The Malgudi Days) (B) {wÕfhks ykLktË – xÙuLk xw ÃkkrfMíkkLk (Train to Pakistan) (C) rfhý ËuMkkE – nÕ÷kçk÷ku ELk økwykðk yku[eoz (Hallabaloo in Guava Orchard) (D) ¾wþðtík®Mk½ – Äe ðe÷us, fw÷e (The Village, Coolie) 025. rnLËe ¼k»kkLkk ÷u¾fku yLku íku{Lkk ÷¾kýkuLke òuzeyku Ãkife fE òuzeyku ÞkuøÞ Au ? 1. {nkËuðe ð{ko – MkktæÞ økeík, MkÃíkÃkýko 2. hk{Lkhuþ rºkÃkkXe – MðÃLk, {kLkMke 3. y{]ík÷k÷ Lkkøkh – ËeÃk rþ¾k, Lkenkh 4. {irÚk÷eþhý økwÃík – rfMkkLk, Ãkt[ðxe (A) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) 1, 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1, 3 yLku 4 ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1, 2 yLku 4 ÞkuøÞ Au. 026. økwshkíke ¼k»kkLkk ÷u¾fku yLku íkuykuLkk ÞkuøkËkLkLku ÞkuøÞ heíku òuzku. ÷u¾f ÞkuøkËkLk 1. Lkh®Mkn {nuíkk a. {khe nfefík, Ä{orð[kh 2. «u{kLktË b. ÃkqðkoíkkÃk, Mkkøkh yLku þþe 3. Lk{oËkþtfh Ëðu c. hýÞ¿k, yr¼{LÞw ykÏÞkLk 4. {rýþtfh ¼è d. nkh, fwtze (A) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - a, 4 - b (B) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - d (C) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - d, 4 - c (D) 1 - b, 2 - d, 3 - c, 4 - a 6 [BEO] [Contd.  M 027. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 1. Äkíkw Þwøk{kt økwshkíkLkk «Ëuþku{kt ¾uíke MkkÚku WãkuøkkuLkku rðfkMk ÚkÞu÷ku níkku. 2. Mkku{LkkÚk, ÷kuÚk÷, ¼]økwfåA, Míkt¼íkeÚko suðk çktËhkuÚke ÃkhhkßÞku MkkÚku ðuÃkkh [k÷íkku níkku. 3. h  tøkÃkwh, fkux, ÃkuZk{÷e, ÷k¾kçkkð¤, hkusze suðk MÚk¤kuyuÚke nzÃÃkk yLku {kUnu-òu-ËzkuLke MktMf]ríkLkk yðþu»kku {¤e ykðu Au. (A) 1 yLku 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1, 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. 028. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku Ãkife fÞwt ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ LkÚke ? 1. {iºkf ðtþ îkhk ð÷¼eÃkwh{kt økwshkíkLke Mðíktºk Mk¥kk MÚkkÃku÷ níke. 2. E.Mk. 788 Úke 792 MkwÄe Mk{Mík økwshkík{kt fkuE MkðkuoÃkhe Mk¥kkLkwt þkMkLk «ðíkoíkwt Lk níkwt. 3. økwshkíkLkk nk÷Lkk ð÷MkkzÚke ðzkuËhk MkwÄe E.Mk. 750 Úke 972 MkwÄe [kðzk ðtþLkwt þkMkLk níkwt. (A) 1 ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. (B) 2 ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. (C) 3 ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. (D) 1, 2 yLku 3 çkÄk s ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. 029. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ Au ? 1. E.Mk. 1448{kt ÃkkuíkwoøkeÍ ¾÷kMke ðkMfku-ze-økk{kyu ¼khík ykððkLkku Lkðku ËrhÞkE {køko þkuÄu÷ níkku. 2. E.Mk. 1445{kt z[ ÷kufku ¼khík ykðu÷ níkk yLku E.Mk. 1505{kt «Úk{ VuõxheLke MÚkkÃkLkk fhe níke 3. ¼khík{kt £uL[ yLku ytøkúuòuLke MkuLkk ðå[uLkwt “ÃkkýeÃkíkLkwt çkesw ÞwæÄ” ¾qçk s {níð Ähkðu Au. (A) {kºk 1 (B) {kºk 2 (C) {kºk 3 (D) 1, 2 yLku 3 çkÄk s ÞkuøÞ Au. 030. 11{e MkËe{kt çkktÄfk{ Ãkqýo ÚkÞu÷ ®÷økhks {trËh (Lingaraja Temple) fÞk þnuh{kt ykðu÷ Au ? (A) ¼wðLkuïh (B) çkeòÃkwh (C) fku÷f¥kk (D) ©ðýçku÷økkuzk 031. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk ¼Âõík Mkt«ËkÞLkk Mktík îkhk rnLËe ¼k»kkLkku WÃkÞkuøk fhðk{kt ykðu÷ níkku ? (A) ËkËw (Dadu) (B) fçkeh (Kabir) (C) hk{kLktË (Ramananda) (D) íkw÷MkeËkMk (Tulsidas) 032. E.Mk. 1658{kt Äh{íkLkwt ÞwæÄ (Battle of Dharmat) fkuLkk ðå[u ÚkÞu÷ níkwt ? (A) {n{Ë ½kuhe yLku sÞ[tË (B) çkkçkh yLku yV½kLk (C) ykihtøkÍuçk yLku sMkðtíkMkª½ hkXkuz íkÚkk Ëkhk þefkun (Dara Shikoh) (D) yn{Ëþkn ËwhkLke yLku {hkXk [BEO] [P.T.O. 7 M 033.  E.Mk. 1946{kt h[ðk{kt ykðu÷e ð[økk¤kLke MkhfkhLke yuÂõÍõÞwrxð fkWÂLMk÷Lkk WÃk«{w¾ íkhefu fkuLke ðhýe fhðk{kt ykðu÷ níke ? (A) zkp. yuMk. hkÄkr¢»ýLk (B) zkp. Mke. hksøkkuÃkk÷k[khe (C) sðknh÷k÷ LknuY (D) zkp. hksuLÿ«MkkË 034. “ðLkkoõÞw÷h «uMk yuõx” (Vernacular Press Act) fkuýu hÆ (Repealed) fhu÷ níkku ? (A) ÷kuzo zVheLk (Lord Dufferin) (B) ÷kuzo heÃkLk (Lord Ripon) (C) ÷kuzo fÍoLk (Lord Curzon) (D) ÷kuzo nkzeOøk (Lord Hardinge) 035. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ LkÚke ? (A) E.Mk. 1906{kt {nkí{k økktÄeSyu Ërûký ykr£fk{kt Mkki «Úk{ MkíÞkøkún fhu÷ níkku. (B) E.Mk. 1917{kt [tÃkkhý ¾kíku ¼khíkLkku «Úk{ MkíÞkøkún ykht¼ ÚkÞu÷ níkku. (C) E.Mk. 1915{kt ¾uzk MkíÞkøkúnLkku þw¼ ykht¼ ÚkÞu÷ níkku. (D) E.Mk. 1930 {eXkLkk MkíÞkøkún {kxu Mkkçkh{íke yk©{Úke ËktzeLke Þkºkk þY ÚkÞu÷ níke. 036. ¼khíkLkk yøkíÞLkk ÞwæÄku yLku íkuLkk ð»koLku økkuXðku. ÞwæÄ ð»ko 1. ÃkkýeÃkíkLkwt «Úk{ ÞwæÄ a. 1576 2. fkhøke÷ ÞwæÄ b. 1526 3. íkhkELkwt «Úk{ ÞwæÄ c. 1999 4. n÷Ëe½kxeLkwt ÞwæÄ d. 1191 (A) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b (B) 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - a (C) 1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - c (D) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d 037. MkLku 1671Lkwt MkhkE½kxLkwt ÞwæÄ (Battle of Saraighat) fkuLkk ðå[u ÚkÞu÷ níkwt ? (A) {hkXk yLku yV½kLk (B) {w½÷ hksðe yLku ynku{ hksfíkko (Ahom Kingdom) (C) {hkXk yLku hksÃkwík (D) {hkXk yLku ynku{ hksfíkko 038. ykÄwrLkf ¼khíkLkk RríknkMk{kt {kWLx nuhÞux (Mount Harriet) fE çkkçkík MkkÚku Mktf¤kÞu÷ Au ? (A) ÃkEfk rðÿkun (Paika Rebellion) (B) yUø÷ku-{uhe ÞwæÄ (Anglo-Marri War) (C) yUø÷ku-þe¾ ÞwæÄ (Anglo-Sikh War) (D) yUø÷ku-{rýÃkwh ÞwæÄ (Anglo-Manipur War) 8 [BEO] [Contd.  M 2 039. ÃkÚkY½kx rðÿkun (Patharughat Uprising) rçkúxeþ þkMkLk Mkk{u fkuýu fhu÷ níkku ? (A) fk{Ëkh ðøko [¤ð¤ (B) ykrËðkMke çk¤ðku (C) LkkLkk ¾uzqíkkuLkwt yktËku÷Lk (D) [ku¬Mk òríkLke [¤ð¤ 040. ykŠÚkf rðfkMk yLku ykŠÚkf ð]ÂæÄ MktçktÄ{kt Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku. 1. ykŠÚkf rðfkMk yu ½xLkk Au yLku íku{kt WÃk÷çÄ MkkÄLkkuLke ÃkwLk: Vk¤ðýe WÃkh ¼kh {wfðk{kt ykðu Au. 2. ykŠÚkf ð]ÂæÄ yu rðfkMk «r¢Þk Au yLku yÚkoíktºk{kt ðýðÃkhkÞu÷ MkkÄLkkuLkk ðÃkhkþ ytøku yk [[ko fhu Au. (A) 1 yLku 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) {kºk 1 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) {kºk 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1 yLku 2 çktLku ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. 041. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : M 1. ËuþLke fw÷ hk»xÙeÞ ykðfLku, hk»xÙLke fw÷ ðMíke ðzu ¼køkðk{kt ykðu íkuLku {kÚkkËeX ykðf fnuðkÞ Au. 2. {  kLkð rðfkMkLkku yktf (Human Development Index - HDI) {kt, ykŠÚkf {kÃkËtzku WÃkhktík rçkLkykŠÚkf {kÃkËtzkuLkku W{uhku ÚkÞu÷ Au. yÃkurûkík ykÞw»Þ, rþûký yLku Mkkhwt SðLkÄkuhý, yu {kLkð rðfkMkLkk ytf{kt æÞkLku ÷uðkÞ Au. (A) {kºk 1 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) {kºk 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1 yLku 2 çktLku ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1 yLku 2 çktLku ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. 042. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ LkÚke ? (A) yÄo çkuhkusøkkheLkk ©r{fku íkuykuLke þÂõíkLkku Ãkqhku WÃkÞkuøk fhe þfíkk LkÚke yLku ÷kÞfkík fhíkk ykuAe ûk{íkkLkwt fk{ fhðwt Ãkzu Au. (B) «åALLk çkuhkusøkkhe yux÷u AwÃke çkuhkusøkkhe yLku sYheÞkík fhíkk ðÄkhu ÷kufku yk yuf{ / ûkuºk{kt hkufkÞu÷ Au. (C) [¢eÞ çkuhkusøkkhe yÚkoíktºkLke íkuS {tËe WÃkh ykÄkheík Au. (D) sYheÞkík, ÷kÞfkík «{kýu ßÞkhu ðuíkLk Lk {¤íkw nkuÞ íÞkhu ½»koýsLÞ çkuhkusøkkheLkku WËÞ ÚkkÞ Au. 043. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 1. rðËuþ ðuÃkkh{kt ÷uýËuýLke íkw÷kLkk {wÏÞíðu çku «fkh nkuÞ Au. 2. rðËuþ ðuÃkkh{kt, ÷uýËuýLke íkw÷kLkk {wÏÞíðu ºký ¾kíkkyku nkuÞ Au. 3. ÷uýËuýLke íkw÷kLku nqtrzÞk{ýLkku Ëh, yrLkðkÞo ykÞkíkku, ykŠÚkf rðfkMkLkku Ëh suðe çkkçkíkku yMkh fhu Au. (A) 1 yLku 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1, 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. 044. ytËksÃkºkLke árüyu, ¼khík{kt Mk¥kkLke ðnU[ýe{kt, fux÷k MíkhLke MkhfkhLkku WÕ÷u¾ Au? (A) þqLÞ MíkheÞ (B) yuf MíkheÞ (C) rî MíkheÞ (D) rºk MíkheÞ [BEO] [P.T.O. 9 M 045. ‘ðMíke rð»kÞf rzrðzLz (Demographic Dividend) yu ¼khík {kxu ðhËkLk Au.’ - yk ðkõÞLkku þwt yÚko Au ? (A) ¼khík{kt 0 Úke 15 ð»koLke ðMíke, fw÷ ðMíke{kt MkkiÚke ðÄkhu Au. (B) 15 Úke 64 ð»koLke ðÞsqÚkLkk ÷kufku, fw÷ ðMíke{kt MkkiÚke ðÄkhu Au. (C) 64 ð»koÚke WÃkhLke ðÞsqÚkLkk ÷kufku, fw÷ ðMíke{kt MkkiÚke ðÄkhu Au. (D) rðï{kt ¼khík MkkiÚke ðÄkhu ðMíkeðk¤ku Ëuþ Au. 046.  ¼khík{kt MktrðÄkLkLke f÷{ 266 {wsçk {¤u÷ fhðuhk yLku yLÞ ykðf, ¼khík Mkhfkh îkhk fÞk Vtz{kt s{k fhðk{kt ykðu Au ? (A) ¼khíkLkwt yufrºkík Vtz ykuV RÂLzÞk (Consolidated Fund of India) (B) ykfÂM{f Vtz ykuV RÂLzÞk (Contingency Fund of India) (C) ònuh yufkWLx Vtz (Public Accounts Fund) (D) rzÃkkuÍex yuLz yuzðkÂLMkMk Vtz (Deposits and Advances Fund) 047.  Mkk{kLÞ heíku ¼khík Ëuþ{kt ¾kÄÃkqhf Lkkýk-ÔÞðMÚkk (Deficit Financing) nuX¤, fÞk fkhýMkh Lkkýk ¼tzku¤ W¼w fhðk{kt ykðu Au ? (A) ykŠÚkf rðfkMk {kxu (Economic Development) (B) ònuh Ëuðk{ktÚke {wÂõík {u¤ððk (Redumption of Public Debt) (C) [qfðýeLkwt Mktíkw÷Lk Mk{Þkursík fhðk (Adjusting Balance of Payments) (D) rðËuþe Ëuðwt ½xkzðk (Reducing Foreign Debt) 048. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk fkhýMkh yÚkoíktºk{kt, LkkýkLkku ÃkwhðXku ðÄþu (Increase in money supply) ? 1. વ્ય  વહારો ોનું પ્રમાણ - Volume of Transactions 2. વ્યાપારની પ્રકૃ તિ - Nature of Trade 3. ભ  ાવ સ્ ્તર - The Price Level 4. RBIની નીતિ અને બેનકિં્ ગની આદતો ો - RBI Policy and Banking Habits (A) 1 yLku 2 (B) 1 yLku 4 (C) 1 yLku 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4 049.  Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk Ëuþku “£e xÙuz ÃkkxoLkh‚ ykuV yu.yuMk.E.yu.yuLk.” (Free trade partners of ASEAN) Lkk ¼køkeËkh Au ? 1. ykuMxÙu÷eÞk    2. fuLkuzk   3. [eLk    4. ¼khík    5. òÃkkLk 6. y{uhefk (A) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4 (B) 1, 2, 3, 5 yLku 6 (C) 1, 3, 4 yLku 5 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 yLku 6 10 [BEO] [Contd.  M 050. ¼khík{kt Mkhfkhe ¾[oLkk Mkt˼o{kt Lke[uLkk Ãkife fkuLku “xÙkLMkVh Ãku{uLx” (Transfer Payment) økýðk{kt ykðu Au ? 1. ÃkhËuþ{ktÚke ÷eÄu÷ ÷kuLkLkwt ÔÞks. 2. Mkhfkhe f{o[kheykuLku [qfððk{kt ykðíkku Ãkøkkh yLku ¼ÚÚkkyku. 3. Mkk{kSf WíÚkkLkLkk fkÞo¢{ku Ãkuxu [qfððk{kt ykðíke MknkÞ. (A) 1 yLku 2 (B) 1 yLku 3 (C) 2 yLku 3 (D) {kºk 3 051. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 1. SÕ÷k {æÞMÚk çkUfku, ¾uíkeðkze ûkuºk{kt (f]r»k ûkuºk{kt) ÔÞkÃkkhe çkUfku fhíkkt, ðÄkhu Lkkýkt Ãkqhkt Ãkkzu Au. 2. SÕ÷k {æÞMÚk Mknfkhe çkUfku «kÚkr{f Mknfkhe {tz¤eykuLkk {kæÞ{Úke økúkBÞ fûkkyu rÄhký ÃkqY Ãkkzu Au. (A) {kºk 1 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) {kºk 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1 yLku 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1 yLku 2 çktLku ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. 052. ßÞkhu fkuE ftÃkLke îkhk ÃkkuíkkLkk þuh çkkÞ çkuf (buyback) fhðk{kt ykðu Au íÞkhu... 1. çkkfe þuhLke çkòh ®f{ík ðÄu Au. 2. çkòh{kt þuhLke MktÏÞk{kt ½xkzku ÚkkÞ Au. 3. ßÞkhu ftÃkLkeLkk þuhLkwt {qÕÞ, yÃkuûkk fhíkk ykuAw nkuÞ íÞkhu ftÃkLkeyu çkkÞ çkufLke ykuVh fhu Au. WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fÞk ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au ? (A) 1 yLku 2 (B) 2 yLku 3 (C) 1 yLku 3 (D) 1, 2 yLku 3 053. ¼khíkLkk çktÄkhýLke f÷{ 356 {wsçk hk»xÙÃkrík þkMkLk ÷kËðkLkk Mkt˼o{kt Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku. 1. hk»xÙÃkrík þkMkLk ÷kËðk {kxu økðLkohLkku ynuðk÷ VhSÞkík Au. 2. rLkÞík Mk{Þ{kt, MktMkËLkk çktLku øk]nku îkhk, hk»xÙÃkrík þkMkLkLke ònuhkíkLku Mk{Þ {ÞkoËk{kt {tsqhe ykÃkðe VhSÞkík Au. (A) {kºk 1 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) {kºk 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1 yLku 2 çktLku ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1 yLku 2 çktLku ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. 054. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku. 1. økðLkohLkku fkÞo¼kh, fkÞoMk{Þ yu fuLÿeÞ LkkufheLkku ¼køk økýðk{kt ykðu Au. 2. økðLkohLke rLk{ýqf ¾kMk [qtxu÷k ÔÞÂõíkykuLkk Mk{qn îkhk fhðk{kt ykðu Au. (A) {kºk 1 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) {kºk 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1 yLku 2 çktLku ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1 yLku 2 çktLku ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. 055. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 1. rzÃkkxo{uLx MktçktÄeík MxuLzªøk fr{xe (DRSC)Lke ÃkwLk:h[Lkk Ëh ð»kuo ÚkkÞ Au. 2. yk fr{xeLkk MkÇÞku {kxu çkuXf{kt nkshe ykÃkðe VhSÞkík Au. 3. hkßÞ Mk¼k fhíkk ÷kufMk¼kLke Mkr{ríkyku ðÄkhu nkuÞ Au. (A) 1 yLku 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) 1 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1, 2 yLku 3 çkÄk s ÞkuøÞ Au. [BEO] [P.T.O. 11 M 056. ðkýe Mðkíktºk ytøkuLkku {q¤¼qík yrÄfkh nkuðk Aíkkt Lke[uLke fE çkkçkíku fkÞËkÚke {ÞkoËkyku {qfe þfkÞ Au ? 1. ¼khíkLkk Mkkðo¼ki{íð, y¾tzíkkLkk y{÷ {kxu. 2. hkßÞkuLke Mk÷k{íke, rðËuþe hkßÞku MkkÚku {iºke MktçktÄku ò¤ðe hk¾ðk. 3. rþüíkk, Lkerík{¥kk íkÚkk LÞkÞíktºkLke økrh{k ò¤ððk. (A) {kºk 1 yLku 2 {kxu (B) {kºk 2 yLku 3 {kxu (C) {kºk 1 yLku 3 {kxu (D) 1, 2 yLku 3 çkÄe s çkkçkíkku {kxu 057. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 1. ¼khíkLke MktMkËLkwt rLkÞík fu÷uLzh LkÚke yLku Ëh ð»kuo Mk{Þøkk¤ku yLku íkkhe¾ku Lk¬e fhðk{kt ykðu Au. 2. MktMkË çkku÷kððk {kxuLkku {q¤ ÏÞk÷ 1935Lkk økð{uoLx ykuV RÂLzÞk fkÞËk{kt hnu÷ Au. 3. YrZøkík heíku MktMkË ºký Mkºk {kxu {¤u Au. (A) 1 yLku 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1, 2 yLku 3 çkÄk s ÞkuøÞ Au. 058. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 1. ònuh LkkufheLke çkkçkíkku{kt íkfLke Mk{kLkíkk – ¼khíkLkk çktÄkhýLke f÷{-17 2. ðkýe Mðkíktºk ðøkuhu MktçktrÄík y{wf n¬kuLkwt hûký – f÷{-20 3. fkh¾kLkk ðøkuhu{kt çkk¤fkuLku Lkkufheyu hk¾ðkLkku «ríkçktÄ – f÷{-24 (A) {kºk 1 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) {kºk 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) {kºk 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1, 2 yLku 3 çkÄk s ÞkuøÞ Au. 059. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 1. 17 rzMkuBçkh, 2013{kt ÷kufÃkk÷ yLku ÷kufkÞwõík çke÷ MktMkË{kt {tsqh ÚkÞu÷ níkwt. 2. {kLk. hk»xÙÃkríkyu 1 òLÞwykhe, 2014Lkk hkus {tsqhe ykÃku÷ níke. 3. 16 òLÞwykhe, 2014Lkk hkus fkÞËku y{÷{kt ykðu÷ níkku. (A) 1 yLku 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1, 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. 060. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 1. ¼khíkLkk [qtxýe ykÞkuøkLkku WÕ÷u¾ ¼khíkLkk çktÄkhýLke f÷{ 324{kt fhðk{kt ykðu÷ Au. 2. M ktMkË yLku hkßÞLkk rðÄkLk{tz¤Lke yLku Ãkt[kÞík, LkøkhÃkkr÷fkLke [qtxýeykuLke {íkËkh ÞkËe íkiÞkh fhðe yLku [qtxýeyku fhðkLke sðkçkËkhe yk [qtxýe ykÞkuøkLke Au. (A) {kºk 1 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) {kºk 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1 yLku 2 çktLku ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1 yLku 2 çktLku ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. 12 [BEO] [Contd.  M 061. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 1. ÷kufMkuðk ykÞkuøkLkk MkÇÞkuLke rLk{ýqf yLku nkuÆkLke {wËíkLke òuøkðkE ¼khíkLkk MktrðÄkLkLke f÷{ 316{kt fhu÷ Au. 2. çktÄkhýLke f÷{ 320 nuX¤ ÷kufMkuðk ykÞkuøkLkk fkÞkuoLke rðøkík ykÃku÷ Au. (A) 1 yLku 2 çkLLku ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) {kºk 1 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) {kºk 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1 yLku 2 çkLLku ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. 062. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 1. hkßÞLke fkhkuçkkhe Mk¥kk hkßÞÃkk÷{kt rLkrník ÚkkÞ Au. 2. hkßÞLkk hkßÞÃkk÷Lke rLk{ýqf MkçktÄeík hkßÞLkk {wÏÞ{tºke©e fhu Au. 3. Mkk{kLÞ heíku hkßÞÃkk÷Lkk nkuÆkLke {wËík 6 ð»ko hnuþu. (A) {kºk 1 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) {kºk 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1 yLku 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. 063. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 1. ¼khíkLkk çktÄkhýLke f÷{-50 yLðÞu hkßÞ-Mkuðkyku{kt LÞkÞíktºkLku fkhkuçkkheÚke y÷øk fhðk hkßÞ Ãkøk÷kt ¼hþu. 2. ¼khíkLkk çktÄkhýLke f÷{ 131{kt Wå[ík{ LÞkÞk÷ÞLke {q¤ nfq{íkLke òuøkðkELke [[ko fhðk{kt ykðu÷e Au. (A) {kºk 1 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) {kºk 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1 yLku 2 çkLLku ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1 yLku 2 çkLLku ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. 064. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 1. çktÄkhýLke òuøkðkE {wsçk “økk{” ytøkuLke ònuhkík hkßÞÃkk÷©e fhu Au. 2. ¼khíkLkk çktÄkhýLke f÷{ “243A” {kt MkÇÞÃkË {kxuLke økuh÷kÞfkíkkuLke çkkçkíkku Ëþkoðu÷ Au. 3. çktÄkhýLke f÷{ 243Ç Lke òuøkðkE “Ãkt[kÞíkLke [qtxýe” ytøkuLke [[ko fhu Au. (A) 1, 2 yLku 3 çkÄes çkkçkíkku ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. (B) 1, 2 yLku 3Lke çkÄes çkkçkíkku ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) {kºk 1 yLku 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) {kºk 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. 065. X Lkwt {wÕÞ fux÷wt nþu. (A) 10 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) 13 066. ¾k÷e søÞk Ãkwhku. 3, 5, 8, 13, 22.......... (A) 55 (B) 44 (C) 39 (D) 28 [BEO] [P.T.O. 13 M 067.  yuf ðuÃkkhe 15 Yk. rf÷ku yLku 20 Yk. rf÷kuLke þkf¼kS yufºkeík fhu Au suÚke yufºkeík þkfLkwt {wÕÞ 16.50 Yk. ÚkkÞ (rf÷ku ËeX). yk Mktòuøkku{kt çkLLku þkf fÞk økwýku¥kh{kt yufºkeík fhðk òuEyu ? (A) 3 : 7 (B) 7 : 3 (C) 5 : 7 (D) 7 : 5 068.  ºký ÃkkEÃkLke {ËËÚke yuf xktfe 5 f÷kf{kt ¼hkÞ Au. A ÃkkEÃk, B ÃkkEÃkLke ÍzÃk fhíkk çk{ýe ÍzÃkÚke yLku ÃkkEÃk B, C fhíkk çk{ýe Ãkkýe ¼hu Au. yk Mktòuøkku{kt {kºk “A” ÃkkEÃkÚke fux÷k Mk{Þ{kt Ãkkýe ¼hkþu ? (A) 20 f÷kf (B) 25 f÷kf (C) 30 f÷kf (D) 35 f÷kf 069. X and Y ÃkkMku fw÷ Yk. 1210 Au X Lke hf{Lkk 4/15 yu Y Lke hf{Lkk 2/5 çkhkçkh ÚkkÞ Au. yk Mktòuøkku{kt B ÃkkMku fux÷k Yk. nþu ? (A) 460 (B) 484 (C) 512 (D) 664 070. çku MktÏÞkLkku økwýkfkh 120 ÚkkÞ Au íkuykuLkk ðøkoLkku Mkhðk¤ku 289 ÚkkÞ Au íkku íku çku MktÏÞkLkku Mkhðk¤ku fux÷ku Úkþu ? (A) 20 (B) 23 (C) 26 (D) 32 071.  ÷tçk [kuhMk çkøke[kLke ÷tçkkE yLku Ãknku¤kE 3 : 2 Lkk «{ký{kt Au. 12 rf{e/f÷kfLke ÍzÃku [k÷íkku {kýMk yk çkøke[kLke çkkWLzÙe (Ãkrhr{rík) 8 {eLkex{kt Vhe þfu Au. yk Mktòuøkku{kt çkøke[kLkwt ûkuºkV¤ fux÷wt nþu ? (A) 13560 [ku. {exh (B) 153600 [ku. {exh (C) 30720 [ku. {exh (D) 307200 [ku. {exh 072. 15, 25, 40 yLku 75 Úke Ãkqýoíkk ¼køke þfkÞ íkuðe 4 yktfzkLke MkkiÚke {kuxe MktÏÞk fE Au ? (A) 9000 (B) 9400 (C) 9600 (D) 9800 073. SCD, TEF, UGH,.........., WKL. ¾k÷e søÞk Ãkwhku. (A) CMN (B) UJI (C) VIJ (D) IJT 074. ELFA, GLHA, ILJA,.........., MLNA. ¾k÷e søÞk Ãkwhku. (A) OLPA (B) KLMA (C) LLMA (D) KLLA 075.  rÃkíkkLke nk÷Lke W{h ÃkwºkeLke W{h fhíkk 24 ð»ko ðÄkhu Au. çku ð»ko çkkË rÃkíkkLke W{h ÃkwºkeLke W{h fhíkk çk{ýe Úkþu. nk÷{kt ÃkwºkeLke W{h fux÷e nþu ? (A) 18 ð»ko (B) 20 ð»ko (C) 22 ð»ko (D) 24 ð»ko 14 [BEO] [Contd.  M 076.  yuf {kýMk ÃkkuíkkLkku «ðkMk ËMk f÷kf{kt Ãkqýo fhu Au. «Úk{ yhÄw ytíkh 21 rf.{e./f÷kfLke ÍzÃkÚke yLku ÃkAeLkwt yzÄwt ytíkh 24 rf.{e./f÷kfLke ÍzÃkÚke fkÃku Au. yk Mktòuøkku{kt fw÷ ytíkh fux÷wt nþu ? (A) 220 rf.{e. (B) 224 rf.{e. (C) 230 rf.{e. (D) 240 rf.{e. 077. 75 rf.{e./f÷kfLke ÍzÃku síke xÙuLk 3.5 rf.{e. ÷ktçkw MxuþLk ÃkMkkh fhu Au. xÙuLkLke ÷tçkkE 1/4 rf.{e. Au. yk Mktòuøkku{kt yk¾e xÙuLk fux÷k Mk{Þ{kt MxuþLk ÃkMkkh fhþu ? (A) 2.5 {erLkx (B) 3.0 {erLkx (C) 3.5 {erLkx (D) 4.0 {erLkx 078. òu A hf{Lkkt 20% çkhkçkh B ÚkkÞ Au, íkku B Lkk 20% yu A Lkk fux÷k ÚkkÞ ? (A) 4% (B) 5% (C) 6% (D) 8% 079. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku. 1. økúuxh, yuf ®þøkzkðk¤k økUzk, yu ¼khíkeÞ WÃk¾tzLkkt {q¤Lkk Au. 2. fkÍehtøkk LkuþLk÷ Ãkkfo{kt íkuLke MkkiÚke ðÄkhu MktÏÞk Au. 3. yk «kýe ICUN Lke ÞkËe {wsçk, økt¼eh heíku òu¾{{kt {wfkÞu÷ «kýe Au. (A) {kºk 1 yLku 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) {kºk 1 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) {kºk 2 yLku 3 ÞkuøÞ Au. (D) 1, 2 yLku 3 çkÄks ÞkuøÞ Au. 080. çkhVLkk r[¥kk (Snow Leopard)Lku çk[kððk fÞk «ÞíLkku fhðk{kt ykðe hnu÷ Au ? 1. «kuxuõx M™ku ÷uÃkzo (Protect Snow Leopard) 2. rn{k[÷ Mkthûkf (Himachal Sanrakshak) 3. rn{k÷Þ Mkwhrûkík hk¾ku (Secure Himalaya) (A) {kºk 1 (B) {kºk 2 yLku 3 (C) {kºk 1 yLku 3 (D) 1, 2 yLku 3 081. 1. zeÃkkuh çke÷ (Deepor Beel) yu ykMkk{{kt ykðu÷wt MkkiÚke {kuxwt íkkò ÃkkýeLkwt ík¤kð Au. 2. zeÃkkuh çke÷ yu hk{Mkh MkkEx Au yLku Ãkûkeyku {kxuLkwt yøkíÞLkwt yk©Þ MÚkkLk Au. WÃkhkuõík ðkõÞku [fkMkku. (A) {kºk 1 ÞkuøÞ Au. (B) {kºk 2 ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1 yLku 2 çkLLku ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. (D) 1 yLku 2 çkLLku ÞkuøÞ Au. [BEO] [P.T.O. 15 M 082. “LkkMkkLkwt ELksuLÞwELkexe r{þLk” (NASA Ingenuity Mission) fÞk çkkçkík MkkÚku Mktf¤kÞu÷ Au ? (A) LkuÃkåÞwLk yLku ÞwhuLkMkLkku yÇÞkMk (B) {kMko WÃkh nu÷efkuÃxhLkwt Wzký (C) Mk{wÿ{kt Wzký{kt MktþkuÄLk (D) {kMko WÃkh LÞwõ÷eÞh Ãkkðh zÙkuLkÚke MktþkuÄLk 083. yÚko ykuçkÍhðuþLk Mkuxu÷kEx (Earth Observation Satellite) fÞk fkÞo {kxu WÃkÞkuøk{kt ÷uðkÞ Au ? 1. s{eLkLkwt {wÕÞktfLk 2. Ãkkýe yLku ¾LkesLkwt {uÃkªøk fhðwt 3. nðk{kLkLke òýfkhe 4. s{eLk yLku støk÷kuLkwt Ãkheûký fhðwt (A) 1, 2 yLku 3 (B) 1, 2 yLku 4 (C) 2, 3 yLku 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4 084. ð]ûkku íkuykuLkk {n¥k{ Ãkku»ký íkíðku þk{ktÚke {u¤ðu Au ? (A) nrhík ÿÔÞ – Chlorophyll (B) ðkíkkðhý – Atmosphere (C) «fkþ – Light (D) s{eLk – Soil 085. {kA÷e Ãkkýe{kt zqçke síke LkÚke fkhý fu íkuLke ÃkkMku.......... Au. ¾k÷e søÞk Ãkwhku. (A) Mðe{ ç÷uzh – Swim bladder (B) çkìf ç÷uzh – Back bladder (C) yuh MkuõMk – Air sacs (D) yuh ELk MÃktLke çkkuLk – Air in spongy bones 086. ÷kVªøk økìMk “Laughing Gas” þwt Au ? (A) LkkÞxÙMk ykuõMkkEz (B) fkçkoLk {kuLkkuõMkkEz (C) MkÕVh zkÞkuõMkkEz (D) nkÞzÙkusLk ÃkuhkuõMkkEz 087. E÷uõxÙef çkÕçkLkk rV÷k{uLx fÞk ÄkíkwLkk çkLkkððk{kt ykðu Au ? (A) økúuVkEx (B) xtøkMxLk (C) ÷ku¾tz (D) rÃk¥k¤ 088. Vxkfzk{kt ÷e÷e ßÞkuík þkLkk fkhýu ÚkkÞ Au ? (A) MkkuzeÞ{ (B) çkuheÞ{ (C) Ãkkhku (D) ÃkkuxurþÞ{ 089. ¼khíkLkk fÞk hkßÞyu zÙkuLk nçkLkk {kæÞ{Úke MðkMÚÞ {kxuLke fkÞoðkne þY fhu÷ Au ? (A) fuh¤ (B) ykurzþk (C) nheÞkýk (D) {u½k÷Þ 16 [BEO] [Contd.  M 090. “{Lkkunh ËuðkzkuMk” (Manohar Devadoss) fÞk ûkuºk MkkÚku Mktf¤kÞu÷ níkk ? (A) ÷u¾Lk (B) rþûký (C) økkÞLk (D) h{íkøk{ík 091. “yusçk nuZkzo” îkhk fE h{ík{ktÚke rLkð]r¥k ÷uðkLkw yu÷kLk fhu÷ Au ? (A) r¢fux (B) çkkMfux çkkì÷ (C) Vwxçkkì÷ (D) xurLkMk 092. VkuhçkkìMkLkk 100 rðïLke MkkiÚke þÂõíkþk¤e {rn÷kyku{kt ¼khíkLke fux÷e {rn÷kykuLkku Mk{kðuþ ÚkkÞ Au ? (A) ºký (B) [kh (C) Ãkkt[ (D) A 093. 6 rzMkuBçkhLku ¼khík MkkÚku fÞk Ëuþu “{iºke rËðMk” íkhefu {LkkððkLkwt Lk¬e fhu÷ Au ? (A) çkúkÍe÷ (B) EhkLk (C) ¼qíkkLk (D) çkktø÷kËuþ 094. 12{e ®nËe ðÕzo fkuLVhLMk fÞk Ëuþ{kt ykÞkuSík fhðk{kt ykðe ? (A) zku{eLkefk (B) rVS (C) £kLMk (D) Ex÷e 095. ¾uíke (Kheti) fu suLku yÚkoþwx «kEÍ (Earthshot Prize) {¤u÷ Au íku fÞk Ëuþ{kt ykðu÷wt Au ? (A) ykuMxÙur÷Þk (B) ytøkku÷k (C) ¼khík (D) s{oLke 096. {tfe ÃkkuõMk (Monkeypox) Lkwt Lkk{ fE MktMÚkkyu çkË÷eLku MPOX Lk¬e fhu÷ Au ? (A) UNESCO (B) UNICEF (C) WHO (D) WTO 097. 7{e ø÷kuçk÷ xufTLkku÷kìS Mk{ex fÞk MÚk¤u {¤u÷ níke ? (A) Lkðe rËÕne (B) [uLLkkE (C) {wtçkE (D) økktÄeLkøkh 098. ક્યા દેશ ે " એ શિયા પેસિફિક બ્્રરોડકાસ્્ટ ટિિંગ જનરલ એ સેમ્્બલી, 2022"નું આયો ોજન કર્્યુું હતું ? (A) çkktø÷kËuþ (B) ¼khík (C) çku÷SÞ{ (D) çkúkÍe÷ 099. ¾kËe yLku ðe÷us fr{þLk îkhk Rehab «kusuõx fÞk þnuhÚke þY fhðk{kt ykðu÷ku Au ? (A) Ãkqýu (B) LkiLkeíkk÷ (C) [uLLkkE (D) y{ËkðkË 100. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt þnuh CDP õ÷kÞ{ux yuõþLk r÷Mx{kt «Úk{ ¢{ktf WÃkh Au ? (A) Ãkqýu (B) {wtçkE (C) Mkwhík (D) rËÕne [BEO] [P.T.O. 17 M 101. Percentage of water absorption in a good quality of building stone should be (A) 0 – 5% (B) 10 – 15% (C) 15 – 20% (D) 20 – 25% 102. How old is a particular tree can be found out by knowing the status of (A) Cambium layer (B) Medullary rings (C) Annual rings (D) Bark of tree 103. In a good brick earth used for making good quality bricks, percentage of silica lies (A) 10 – 20% (B) 20 – 30% (C) 30 – 40% (D) 50 – 60% 104. To impart plasticity is a main function of which ingredient? (A) Silica (B) Alumina (C) Iron (D) MgO 105. To construct brick masonry of one cubic meter, number of bricks required are (A) 300 (B) 500 (C) 800 (D) 1000 106. Which of the following is incorrectly matched ? (A) Grade 43 cement – Used in plastering and flooring (B) Grade 33 cement – Used in RCC work of multi-storey building (C) Grade 53 cement – compressive strength is 53 N/mm3 (28 days) (D) Portland puzzolana cement (PPC) – used in mass concrete and marine structure 107. Main ingredients of Portland cement are (A) Lime and Alumina (B) Lime and Silica (C) Silica and MgO (D) Silica and Alumina 18 [BEO] [Contd.  M 108. Which of the following pairs of cement test and equipment used in that test is not correctly matched ? (A) Soundness test – Le Chatelier's apparatus (B) Fineness test – Le Chatelier's apparatus (C) Consistency test – Vicat’s Apparatus (D) Setting time test – Vicat’s Apparatus 109. The concrete mix with slump value between 25 and 75 is considered _______ workable. (A) Very low (B) Low (C) Medium (D) High 110. As per IS 456:200, the minimum cement content for Reinforced concrete member with normal weight aggregates of 20 mm nominal maximum size for severe exposure condition is _______. (A) 320 kg/m3 (B) 250 kg/m3 (C) 200 kg/m3 (D) 350 kg/m3 111. _______ is the ability of a material to resist deterioration over long period of time. (A) Toughness (B) Hardness (C) Durability (D) Ductility 112. Poisson’s ratio for structural steel is _______. (A) 0.3 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.15 (D) 0.35 113. Upon loading a ductile bar beyond proportional limit, _______ increases more rapidly than the force. (A) Strength (B) Stress (C) Resistance (D) Elongation 114. Soundness of cement means _______. (A) Passing of sound waves through concrete (B) Minimum volume change after setting (C) Heat insulation (D) Early strength gain [BEO] [P.T.O. 19 M 115. The air permeability test is used for finding out _______. (A) Fineness of cement (B) Permeability of cement (C) Consistency of cement (D) Strength of cement 116. In case of a beam subjected to distributed load, the rate of change of bending moment is _______. (A) Slope (B) Deflection (C) Shear force (D) Intensity of loading 117. The maximum strain energy stored by a member without being permanently strained is _______. (A) Resilience (B) Proof resilience (C) Resistance (D) None of the above 118. Which one of the following is a kinematically determinate structure? (A) Simply supported beam (B) Cantilever beam (C) Fixed beam (D) Propped cantilever beam 119. For no tension condition, the maximum eccentricity in rectangular foundation of width ‘b’ should not exceed _______. (A) b / 2 (B) b / 6 (C) b / 3 (D) b / 4 120. The Poisson’s ratio of a material which has Young’s modulus of 120 GPa and Shear modulus of 50 GPa is (A) 0.1 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.4 121. The section modulus of a rectangular section is proportional to (A) area of the section (B) square of the area of the section (C) product of the area and depth (D) product of the area and width 122. Product of modulus of rigidity G and polar moment of inertia J is called (A) Axial rigidity (B) Flexural rigidity (C) Torsional rigidity (D) Shear stiffness 20 [BEO] [Contd.  M 123. Polar moment of inertia of circular section having diameter of 2m is (A) 1.2 (B) 1.6 (C) 1.3 (D) 1.57 124. The shear force diagram of a beam is shown in the given figure. The absolute maximum bending moment in the beam is (A) 2P × a (B) 5P × a (C) 4P × a (D) 7P × a 125. A mild steel beam develops a bending stress of 80 MPa at a distance of 8 cm from the neutral layer. If E = 200 GPa, the radius of curvature is (A) 400 m (B) 200 m (C) 100 m (D) None of the above 126. For any beam if NR = No. of Reactions, NM = No. of Members, NJ = No. of joints, then relation between SI and KI is (A) SI + KI = NR + NM (B) SI + KI = 3NM (C) SI = KI + NR (D) SI – KI = NR + 3NM 127. Two people weighing W each are sitting on a plank of length L on the water at L/4 from either end. Neglecting weight of plank, bending moment at the centre of plank is (A) WL/8 (B) WL/16 (C) WL/32 (D) Zero [BEO] [P.T.O. 21 M 128. A simply supported beam is subjected to uniformly distributed load on whole span. If both supports are made fixed, the reduction in deflection at centre will be (A) 1/5 (B) 1/4 (C) 1/3 (D) 1/2 129. A propped cantilever beam having uniform cross-section throughout a span of 4 m carried a uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m. Reaction at prop will be (A) 80 kN (B) 20 kN (C) 30 kN (D) 40 kN 130. A pin-jointed tower truss is loaded as shown in the given figure. The force induced in the member DF is (A) 1.5 kN Tension (B) 4.5 kN Tension (C) 1.5 kN Compression (D) 4.5 kN Compression 131. In moment distribution method, the unbalanced moment at a joint is distributed to members in _______. (A) proportion to the stiffness of members meeting at joint (B) proportion to stiffness of all the members of structure (C) proportion to the fixed end moments (D) proportion to ratio of spans 22 [BEO] [Contd.  M 132. A two-hinged arch is _______. (A) Statically determinate structure (B) Kinematically determinate structure (C) Statically indeterminate structure (D) None of the above 133. The internal forces in grids are _______. (A) The bending moment only (B) The bending moment and shear force (C) The shear force, bending moment and axial force (D) The shear force, bending moment and torsion 134. A prismatic beam fixed at both ends carries a uniformly distributed load. The ratio of bending moment at mid span to bending moment at support is (A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 1.5 (D) 2.0 135. The moment at the intermediate support of a two-span continuous beam of 6 m each with simple support at the ends carrying a uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m over only left span is (EI is same for both spans) (A) 90 kN-m Hogging (B) 45 kN-m Sagging (C) 45 kN-m Hogging (D) Zero 136. A simply supported beam of span L carries two-point loads P at a distance 1/3 from either support. The value of maximum bending moment anywhere in the section will be (A) PL/2 (B) PL/4 (C) PL/6 (D) PL/3 137. A beam of span ‘L’ is fixed at both ends and carries a point load ‘W’ at its mid point. At what distance from each support will be the point of contraflexure? (A) 3L/8 (B) 5L/8 (C) L/4 (D) L/3 138. For a fixed beam with span L and flexural rigidity EI, amount of force required to produce unit vertical displacement at any support is (A) 12EI/L3 (B) 6EI/L3 (C) 4EI/L (D) Zero [BEO] [P.T.O. 23 M 139. If three hinge parabolic arch carries uniformly distributed load on entire span, every section of the arch will resist (A) only pure compressive force (B) compressive force & radial shear (C) compressive force & bending moment (D) compressive force, radial shear & bending moment 140. If a structure is statically indeterminate to second degree, then maximum number of plastic hinges required to render the structure a mechanism is (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) Infinite 141. The diameter of hole for 16 mm diameter bolt with standard clearance is _______. (A) 16.5 mm (B) 18 mm (C) 17 mm (D) 17.5 mm 142.  The steel cross-sections, which can develop plastic moment of resistance, but have inadequate plastic hinge rotation capacity for formation of plastic mechanism is called (A) Plastic section (B) Semi compact section (C) Compact section (D) Slender section 143. The channel, angle and T sections belong to buckling class _______. (A) A (B) C (C) B (D) D 144. The function of _______ is to improve the buckling strength of a slender web due to shear. (A) Intermediate transverse web stiffener (B) Load carrying stiffener (C) Bearing stiffener (D) Torsion stiffener 145. Where a fillet weld is applied to the square edge of a part, the size of weld should be at least _______ less than the edge thickness. (A) 1.5 mm (B) 2.0 mm (C) 2.5 mm (D) 3.0 mm 24 [BEO] [Contd.  M 146. For limit state of serviceability, the partial safety factor for Dead load (DL) & Live load (LL) for DL + LL + CL (Crane load) combination is _______. (A) 1.2 (B) 1.0 (C) 1.5 (D) 0.8 147. In case of single laced system, the direction of lacing on opposite faces of the column shall be _______ (A) Random (B) Perpendicular (C) Opposite (D) Same 148. The spacing between adjacent parallel line of fasteners, in transverse to the direction of load is _______ (A) Spacing (B) Gauge (C) Edge distance (D) Pitch 149.  Cross-section in which the elements buckle locally before reaching yield moment is called _______. (A) Short section (B) Flexural section (C) Slender section (D) Axially loaded section 150. In the case of plate girder (with fy = 250 MPa), the width to thickness ratio to prevent local buckling for plastic section shall be (A) 9.4 (B) 8.4 (C) 10.4 (D) 13.6 151. Web crippling generally occurs at the point where (A) bending moment is maximum (B) concentrated loads act (C) shearing force is minimum (D) all of the above 152. Angle of inclination of lacing bar as per IS:800-2007 is between _______ degree. (A) 20-30 (B) 30-40 (C) 40-70 (D) 70-90 [BEO] [P.T.O. 25 M 153. Two plates of 16 mm and 14 mm are joined by lap joint with a fillet weld. The maximum size of fillet weld may be (A) 16.0 mm (B) 14.0 mm (C) 12.5 mm (D) 14.5 mm 154. An ISMB 400 is used as a beam in a framed structure. If it can be taken as a laterally restrained then its (A) Tension flange is laterally restrained (B) Compression flange is laterally restrained (C) Web is adequately stiffened (D) Both (A) & (B) are met 155. Which of the following elements are essentially required to provide in a roof and sides of an industrial structure to resist wind force? (A) purlin (B) bracing (C) truss (D) sag rod 156. A compression member may be considered as short when both the slenderness ratios are less than _______. (A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 8 (D) 16 157. When high strength deformed bars are used, the reinforcement in either direction in slabs shall not be less than _______% of total cross-sectional area. (A) 0.15 (B) 0.10 (C) 0.12 (D) 0.2 158. The minimum thickness of flat slab shall be _______. (A) 100 mm (B) 175 mm (C) 125 mm (D) 150 mm 159. The bending moment used in design of isolated footing supporting RC column shall be computed at _______. (A) Center of column (B) Edge of footing (C) At a distance of effective depth ‘d’ away from face of column (D) Face of column 26 [BEO] [Contd.  M 160. In limit state method, the design strength is calculated as characteristics strength _______. (A) Multiplied by partial safety factor (B) Divided by partial safety factor (C) Divided by factor of safety (D) Multiplied by factor of safety 161. The maximum spacing of shear reinforcement shall not be more than _______ for vertical stirrups. (A) Effective depth (B) Width of member (C) 0.75 times effective depth (D) 0.5 times effective depth 162.  The actual concrete cover at site should not deviate from the required nominal cover by _______. (A) + 10 mm (B) ± 10 mm (C) + 10 mm – 5 mm (D) – 10 mm 163. Accelerator reduces _______ time and accelerate rate of hydration. (A) Curing (B) Hardening (C) Strengthening (D) Setting 164. The formwork from sides of beams can be removed after _______ days. (A) 4 (B) 7 (C) 14 (D) 1 165. Lateral ties in reinforced concrete column are provided to resist (A) Bending moment (B) Shear force (C) Buckling of longitudinal steel reinforcements (D) Both bending moment and shear force 166. As per IS:456-2000, the short term modulus of elasticity of M25 grade of concrete can be assumed to be (A) 25000 MPa (B) 28500 MPa (C) 30000 MPa (D) 36000 MPa [BEO] [P.T.O. 27 M 167. For maximum negative moment at internal support of a multi-span beam, the arrangements of Dead load(DL) and Live load(LL) shall be (A) DL and LL on all span (B) DL on all span & LL on alternate span (C) DL on all span and LL on adjacent span meeting the support at which negative moment to be determined. (D) Only DL or LL on all span 168. Minimum percentage of steel provided in the column as per IS:456 is _______ of its gross sectional area. (A) 0.5% (B) 0.8% (C) 1.0% (D) 1.2% 169. Which one of the following loss do not occur in pretensioned beam? (A) Elastic shortening (B) Anchorage slip (C) Relaxation (D) Shrinkage & Creep 170. Which one of the following parameters is not taken into account in Response reduction factor, which is used in the determination of seismic force? (A) Overstrength (B) Redundancy (C) Ductility (D) Stiffness 171. When activity can be started before completion of predecessor activity, such activity is called (A) Sequential activity (B) Parallel activity (C) Overlapping activity (D) None of the above 172. What is the expected activity duration for an activity whose optimistic time period is 3 days, most likely time period is 5 days and pessimistic time period is 13 days? (A) 5 days (B) 6 days (C) 7 days (D) 10 days 28 [BEO] [Contd.  M 173. Which statement is incorrect? (A) Tail event marks the beginning of an activity (B) Dummy activity requires highest time and maximum recourses (C) Event that follows another event is called successor event (D) Event that occurs before another event is called predecessor event 174. Which is correct in case of slack? i. Slack is negative if latest allowable time is more than earliest expected time ii. Slack is positive if latest allowable time is less than earliest expected time iii. Slack is zero if latest allowable time is equal to earliest expected time (A) Only (i) and (ii) are correct (B) Only (i) and (iii) are correct (C) Only (iii) is correct (D) All three are correct 175. The equipment used for precise excavation as far as depth of excavation is concerned for utility trenches is (A) Drag line (B) Hoe (C) Grader (D) Shovel 176. Consider the following activities in building construction: 1. Concreting of roof slab 2. Placing of steel cage 3. Erection of form work for slab 4. Construction of parapet wall Which one is the correct sequence of constructional activities? (A) 2, 1, 3 and 4 (B) 3, 1, 4 and 2 (C) 1, 4, 3 and 2 (D) 3, 2, 1 and 4 177. Which type of fund is the Sinking Fund? (A) Fund to rebuild structure when its economic life is over (B) Fund to be raised to meet maintenance cost (C) Fund for paying to Municipal authorities as building tax (D) Fund for doing modifications in structure [BEO] [P.T.O. 29 M 178. Earth work for excavation of foundation of a single room of 4.8 m × 3.6 m for depth of foundation of 1 m and wall thickness of 30 cm is (A) 21.5 cum (B) 19.6 cum (C) 16.2 cum (D) 14.8 cum 179. In the analysis of rates used in the estimation and costing of the building, percentage provision for water charges is generally around (A) 1.5 % (B) 3.5 % (C) 8.5 % (D) Never included 180. What is correct in case of Schedule of rates ? i. It consists rates of different items of works ii. PWD of state and Central governments maintain printed book of it iii. Schedule of rates (SOR) are fixed and never revised iv. Working rates when differ much from schedule of rates (SOR), then rates are revised, generally after three years (A) Only (i) and (iii) are correct (B) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (C) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct (D) All are correct 181. What is incorrect in case of earnest money used in contract? (A) It is about 20 % – 25 % of estimated cost of the work (B) It is forfeited when the contractor run away even his tender is accepted (C) It is to be deposited by the contractor while submitting tender (D) It is refunded to the contractor whose tender is not accepted 182. Which statement is not correct related to Measurement Book (MB)? (A) MB is always numbered serially and issued to particular person (B) Continuous entries are recorded in the book without leaving any blank page (C) Payment of works and supply is made on the basis of measurements recorded in MB (D)  Standard measurement book (SMB) is never used for annual repair and maintenance work 30 [BEO] [Contd.  M 183. A brick portion obtained by cutting a brick lengthwise into two pieces is called (A) King closer (B) Queen closer (C) Bat closer (D) Corner closer 184. In a masonry work, single Flemish bond should have at least thickness of (A) Half brick (B) One brick (C) One-and-half bricks (D) Two bricks 185. A joint in which projection is provided in one stone and depression in other stone to prevent sliding is termed as (A) Joggle joint (B) Butt joint (C) Lap joint (D) Dowel joint 186. Vertical member of a frame which subdivide a window or door vertically is known as (A) Transom (B) Jamb (C) Mullion (D) Reveal 187. What number of treads will be there in a single flight of stair provided for floor height of 3.0 m with 15 cm height of each riser? (A) 19 (B) 20 (C) 21 (D) 15 188. With respect to dry weight, first class bricks should not have water absorption more than (A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 40% (D) 50% 189. Properly designed stair should have maximum pitch value of (A) 20° (B) 40° (C) 60° (D) 70° 190. Type of flooring suitable for theatres and library, where noiseless covering is required is (A) Glass flooring (B) Linoleum flooring (C) Cork flooring (D) Tiles flooring [BEO] [P.T.O. 31 M 191. Expansion joints in masonry walls are generally provided at length interval of more than (A) 10 m (B) 20 m (C) 30 m (D) 40 m 192. Which one of following is not a dewatering method used for digging foundation in waterlogged area? (A) Well point system (B) Cement grouting (C) Freezing process (D) Electrical resistivity method 193. What is correct as per requirement for Low cost housing generally used in village? i. Low energy consumption ii. Use of local material with improved technology iii. Use of costly and high strength material for long life (A) Only (iii) is correct (B) Only (i) and (iii) are correct (C) Only (i) and (ii) are correct (D) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct 194. Which of the following is correct in case of roominess? i. It means getting maximum benefits from minimum dimensions of the room ii. As per this length to width ratio of 1.2 to 1.5 is desired iii. very long length compared to width may create tunnel effect (A) Only (iii) is correct (B) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct (C) Only (i) and (iii) are correct (D) All (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct 195. A vertical window provided in sloping roof of building to admit light and air and also to impart architectural view is called (A) Dormer window (B) Bay window (C) Gable window (D) Lantern light window 32 [BEO] [Contd.  M 196. At what temperature water is treated as standard fluid in case of specific gravity? (A) 0°C (B) 4°C (C) – 4°C (D) 100°C 197. If the cylinder contains 0.3 m3 of air at pressure of 100 kPa, what will be the pressure in that cylinder if this air is compressed to 0.06 m3? (A) 50 kPa (B) 100 kPa (C) 500 kPa (D) 1000 kPa 198. Stokes, which is a unit of kinematic viscosity is also equivalent to (A) cm2/s (B) m2/s (C) mm2/s (D) dm2/s 199. Regarding specific gravity which statement is correct? i. Ratio of specific weight of fluid to specific weight of standard fluid ii. Ratio of mass density of fluid to mass density of standard fluid iii. it is dimensionless and have no unit (A) Only (i) and (ii) are correct (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (C) Only (i) and (iii) are correct (D) Only (i) is correct 200. Ratio of Bulk modulus of water to Bulk modulus of air is about (A) 1000 (B) 2000 (C) 10000 (D) 20000 201. Which of the following is used to measure discharge? (A) Venturimeter (B) Current meter (C) Anemometer (D) All of the above 202. Maximum thickness of boundary layer in a pipe of diameter D is (A) D/10 (B) D/4 (C) D/2 (D) D [BEO] [P.T.O. 33 M 203. When constant rate flow takes place through a tapering pipe then flow is (A) Unsteady and uniform (B) Unsteady and non-uniform (C) Steady and uniform (D) Steady and non-uniform 204. Which statement is correct in the context of flow net? i. Used to study irrotational flow ii. Obtained by plotting a series of stream lines and equipotential lines iii. Fluid flow is confined within two-dimensional boundaries (A) Only (ii) is correct (B) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct (C) Only (i) and (iii) are correct (D) All (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct 205. Head loss in a circular pipe of water supply for a fixed distance is proportional (A) Directly to pipe diameter (B) Directly to square of pipe length (C) Directly to square of flow velocity (D) Inversely square of flow velocity 206. Which of the following accessories will cause maximum head loss in pipe flow? (A) 45° elbow (B) 60° bend (C) U bend (D) 90° T-bend 207. Which statement is correct when pipes are arranged in parallel system in pipe flow? (A) Same flow in all pipes (B) Same head loss across each pipe (C) Increased flow in parallel pipes (D) None of the above 34 [BEO] [Contd.  M 208. Installation of draft tube in a reaction turbine helps to (A) Increase flow rate (B) Transport water to downstream (C) Convert potential energy to kinetic energy (D) Convert kinetic energy to pressure head 209. Kaplan turbine is suitable for (A) Low head and low discharge (B) Low head and high discharge (C) High head and low discharge (D) High head and high discharge 210. Single stage centrifugal pump delivers 1 m3/s of water against net head of 16 m. What is specific speed of pump if it runs at 800 rpm? (A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 125 (D) 200 211. If two identical pumps each of capability of delivering discharge Q against head H are connected in series, then resulting discharge is (A) 2Q against head of H (B) 2Q against head of 2H (C) Q against head of H (D) Q against head of 2H 212. Which is incorrect in case of the methods used for measurement of average rainfall? (A) Isohyetal method is used for hilly area (B) Theissen polygon method is used for hilly area (C) Theissen polygon method is used for plain area (D) Theissen polygon method is used when gauging stations are less 213. Which is incorrect in case of unit hydrograph theory? (A) Unit hydrograph represents 1 cm of runoff (B) Effective rainfall in unit hydrograph is uniformly distributed over entire area (C) Unit hydrograph theory is not applicable to large area (D) Unit hydrograph theory is applicable to appreciable precipitation of snow also [BEO] [P.T.O. 35 M 214. Area under the hyetograph represents (A) Total rainfall occurred in that period (B) Total runoff occurred during that period (C) Total infiltration occurred in that period (D) Total evapotranspiration occurred in that period 215. What is coefficient of permeability in cm/day for a 1000 cm thick aquifer, which shows transmissibility of 20 m2/day? (A) 50 (B) 200 (C) 500 (D) 20000 216. Which statement is correct regarding flood control ? i. Construction of Levees ii. Provision of flood wall iii. Prevention of diversion channels iv. Construction of storage reservoirs (A) Only (i) and (iii) are correct (B) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct (C) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct (D) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct 217. Which of the following water is not available for plant for use? (A) Capillary water (B) Hygroscopic water (C) Soil moisture water (D) None of the above 218. What is delta of a crop which has base period of 100 days with duty of 2160 hectare/ cumec? (A) 200 mm (B) 400 mm (C) 600 mm (D) 800 mm 219. A cross drainage work in which canal flows over the drain/river and HFL of drain/river is higher than canal bed is known as (A) Aqueduct (B) Syphon aqueduct (C) Super passage (D) Canal syphon 36 [BEO] [Contd.  M 220. What is width of canal, which has side slope of 0.5 H : 1 V and cross-section area of 42 square meter with depth of canal as 2 m? (A) 20 m (B) 21 m (C) 22 m (D) 40 m 221. What percentage of total water demand is considered for industrial purposes? (A) 5-10 % (B) 20-25 % (C) 40-45 % (D) 60-65 % 222. What is design flow for per capita demand of 200 litres/day of a city having population of 240000? Consider Peak factor for variations of demand is 1.5. (A) 3000 m3/hr (B) 4500 m3/hr (C) 5000 m3/hr (D) 8000 m3/hr 223. Dental disease named as mottling of teeth is caused when concentration of fluoride exceeds (A) 0.1 (B) 0.5 (C) 1.0 (D) 2.0 224. Hydraulic mean depth of sewer having diameter of 0.80 m is (A) 200 mm (B) 400 mm (C) 800 mm (D) 1000 mm 225. Detention time for high rate digestion process is (A) 5 days (B) 15 days (C) 30 days (D) 60 days 226. Which is true regarding the following statements? i. Backwashing is done in RSF ii. Sludge recirculation is done in activated sludge process iii. Facultative zone exists in oxidation pond iv. Trickling filter is an anaerobic process (A) Only (i) and (ii) are incorrect (B) Only (ii) and (iii) are incorrect (C) Only (iii) is incorrect (D) Only (iv) is incorrect [BEO] [P.T.O. 37 M 227. Principal gases produced in anaerobic decomposition of organic solid waste compounds in landfills are (A) CO2 and CH4 (B) NO2 and NH3 (C) SO2 and SO3 (D) NH3 and N2 228. Pathogenic bacteria are usually determined by (A) MPN test (B) Turbidity test (C) Jar test (D) Conductivity test 229. Particles released in atmosphere due to incomplete combustion of carbon are called (A) Particulate (B) Aerosols (C) Soot (D) PAN 230. Settling velocity in primary settling tank does not depend on (A) Length of tank (B) Width of tank (C) Depth of tank (D) Size of particles to be settled 231. Minimum DO for survival of Aquatic life and Fishes in water bodies is around (A) 1 mg/L (B) 4 mg/L (C) 8 mg/L (D) 10 mg/L 232. Noise level generated by rail traffic is around (A) 30-40 dB (B) 50-60 dB (C) 80-100 dB (D) >150 dB 233. Liquid which is collected after water percolates through solid waste is called (A) Sediment (B) Sullage (C) Coagulant (D) Leachate 234. Organisms who derive both energy and material from organic compounds are called (A) Heterotrophs (B) Phototrophs (C) Autotrophs (D) None of the above 38 [BEO] [Contd.  M 235. Approximate Range of velocity gradient (G) for design of flash mixer in water treatment plant is (A) 50-100 (B) 200-300 (C) 300-400 (D) 600-800 236.  The effective size, uniformity coefficient and coefficient of curvature are used to define _______. (A) Permeability of soil (B) Density of soil (C) Grading of soil (D) Relative density of soil 237. Sensitivity is measure of change in consistency or strength of soil on _______. (A) Compaction (B) Remoulding (C) Consolidation (D) Compression 238. The unit of permeability is _______. (A) sec / m (B) kg / sec (C) cm / sec (D) m3/ sec 239. The constant head test is used to determine _______ of soil. (A) Hydraulic gradient (B) Compressibility (C) Thermal conductivity (D) Hydraulic conductivity 240. Liquefaction is sudden large decrease of the shearing resistance of _______ soil. (A) Cohesionless unsaturated (B) Cohesive saturated (C) Cohesionless (D) Cohesionless saturated 241. In Rankine analysis for lateral earth pressure, the soil deposit is assumed in a state of _______. (A) Elastic equilibrium (B) Plastic equilibrium (C) Equilibrium of wedge of soil and wall upto assumed failure plane (D) None of the above [BEO] [P.T.O. 39 M 242. Liquid and plastic limit exists in _______ soil. (A) Gravel (B) Clay (C) Silty (D) Sandy 243. Proctor’s test is performed to determine _______. (A) Maximum water content (B) Specific gravity (C) Maximum dry density (D) Dry density 244. The cohesionless soil loses _______ on attaining quick condition. (A) Bearing capacity (B) Shear strength (C) Plasticity (D) Elasticity 245. The black cotton soil is not suitable for foundations because _______ (A) Particles are cohesive (B) Bearing capacity is low (C) Undergo volumetric change due to variation in moisture content (D) Difficult to drain 246. Geodetic survey compared to Plane survey is treated differently because of (A) Earth’s curvature is considered in it (B) Geodetic survey is used for hilly area (C) Geodetic survey covers small area (D) Geodetic survey is done by compass 247. In field survey, the Prismatic compass measures on the field (A) WCB only (B) RB only (C) Both WCB and RB (D) None of these but only indicates north 248. What is RB of a line if WCB of that line is 220° ? (A) N 40° E (B) N 220° W (C) S 40° W (D) S 140° W 249. If a line AB has FB of 40° and line BC has FB of 10°, then what is included angle between these lines ______? (A) 50° (B) 100° (C) 150° (D) 210° 250.  Contour rings plotted after contour survey, shows higher RL values in outer rings compared to inner rings represents (A) Valley (B) Hill (C) Cliff (D) Plane ground 40 [BEO] [Contd.  M 251. Staff intercept taken on point A is 0.7 m and on point B is 0.6 m from same setting of instrument, what is true with respect to instrument location _______? (A) Point B is far compared to point A (B) Point A is far compared to point B (C) Point A and B are at same distance (D) Distance cannot be calculated 252. Which statement is correct for Change point in levelling ? i. FS and BS is taken on same staff station ii. Required when line of sight passes over the staff iii. Required when line of sight passes under the staff through ground iv. Used when it is not possible to read staff clearly (A) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct (B) Only (i) and (iv) are correct (C) All statements are correct (D) No statement is correct 253. What is tangent length of a simple circular curve whose radius is 200 m and deflection angle is 90° ? (A) 100 m (B) 200 m (C) 400 m (D) 800 m 254. What is length of transition curve for maximum super elevation of 400 mm, provided with rate of 1 in 400 ? (A) 100 m (B) 160 m (C) 320 m (D) 400 m 255. What is RL of top of hill if a flag of 3.5 m length is put over the hill and angle taken by theodolite of top of flag is 45° from a distance of 100 m? BM = 50 m and BS = 1.5 m (A) 100 m (B) 148 m (C) 152 m (D) 155 m 256. What is scale of a vertical photograph which was taken from an aircraft flying at 2000 m altitude over a hill of 200 m elevation fitted with 200 mm focal length camera? (A) 1 in 6000 (B) 1 in 8000 (C) 1 in 9000 (D) 1 in 10000 [BEO] [P.T.O. 41 M 257. If plumb line is marked above observers station then upper point on the celestial sphere is called (A) Zenith (B) Nadir (C) Horizon (D) Equator 258. Range of wavelength for visible spectrum of EMR used in remote sensing is (A) 100 – 200 nm (B) 400 – 700 nm (C) 800 – 1200 nm (D) 1500 – 2000 nm 259. Which of the following is not a metamorphic rock? (A) Shale (B) Gneiss (C) Schist (D) Marble 260. Which of the following is not true in case of use of GPS? (A) Vehicle having GPS is traceable (B) GPS can be used in fleet management (C) Traditional surveying equipments needed in GPS which make it costly (D) Data for prospective project sites are quickly and accurately collected by GPS 261. Recommended values of camber for cement concrete road in the area of light to heavy rainfall is (A) 1.7 % – 2.0 % (B) 2.5 % – 3.0 % (C) 3 % – 4 % (D) 4 % – 5 % 262. Width of carriageway for roads having two lanes with raised kerbs is around (A) 5.5 m (B) 7.5 m (C) 9.5 m (D) 10.5 m 263. Safe overtaking sight distance as per IRC for speed of 60 kmph is (A) 100 m (B) 150 m (C) 200 m (D) 300 m 264. What is equivalent factor of PCU (passenger car unit) for straight rural roads for small bullock cart ? (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10 265. Total numbers of potential conflicts for two-lane roads when both roads are one-way can be estimated as (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 24 42 [BEO] [Contd.  M 266. Which statement is correct ? i. Dowel bars are provided at the transverse joint in cement concrete road ii. Dowel bars maintain slab edges at same level at joints iii. Tie bars are used across the longitudinal joints of cement concrete road (A) Only (i) and (ii) are correct (B) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct (C) All (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (D) Only (iii) is correct 267. In which type of pavement Reflection cracking is generally observed? (A) Flexible pavement (B) Rigid overlay over flexible pavement (C) Rigid pavement (D) Bituminous overlay over rigid CC road 268. Side drains arc are provided in hill roads in (A) Only on the hill side of road (B) Only on the opposite side of hill (C) On both sides of road (D) Side drains are not provided 269. What are the requirements of the investigation for the location of the bridge site ? i. Technical feasibility study ii. Techno-economic study iii. Detailed survey and report (A) Only (i) and (ii) (B) Only (ii) and (iii) (C) Only (i) and (iii) (D) All three 270. As per IRC, minimum height of cushion to be provided in the pipe culverts is (A) 250 mm (B) 450 mm (C) 600 mm (D) 1200 mm 271. Slab bridges are used for maximum span of (A) 6 m (B) 9 m (C) 12 m (D) 15 m [BEO] [P.T.O. 43 M 272. Which class of vehicle live loading shall be considered as per IRC, for design of bridges in select corridors where passage of trailer vehicles carrying stator units, turbines, heavy equipments and machinery may occur occasionally? (A) Class A loading (B) Class AA loading (C) Class 70R loading (D) Class SV loading 273. Which is correct statement in case of lining of tunnels? i. It supports the loosened rock pieces during blasting ii. It gives proper section to the tunnel iii. It strengthens the weak locations in the tunnel (A) Only (i) and (ii) are correct (B) Only (i) and (iii) are correct (C) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct 274. Which of the following is the method used for tunnel construction in soft soil ground ? (A) Compressed air method (B) Full face method (C) Heading and bench method (D) Pilot tunnel method 275. Resonators are used in tunnels for the purpose of (A) Noise control (B) Drainage control (C) Dust control (D) Ventilation control 276. Total storage capacity of Narmada dam reservoir is around (A) 4400 MCM (B) 9400 MCM (C) 14400 MCM (D) 24000 MCM 277. Which type of turbine is used in the canal head power house for power generation in Narmada dam ? (A) Francis pump turbine (B) Kaplan-type turbine (C) Pelton wheel turbine (D) Radial flow turbine 278. Which is the world’s largest masonry dam ? (A) Bhakra Nangal Dam (B) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam (C) Bratsk Dam (D) Hoover dam 44 [BEO] [Contd.  M 279. Which of the following is incorrect statement in case of “Statue of Unity”? (A) Its height is 282 m (B) It is the world’s tallest statue (C) Materials used in its construction were cement, steel and bronze (D) Its cost of construction was around 3000 crore 280. Along with famous Sun Temple, Modhera village of Gujarat is also famous for (A) Station of Bullet train (B) 100 % literacy rate (C) Fully solar powered village (D) 100 % vaccinated village for Covid-19 281. Which of the following statements is not true in case of The Ukai Dam situated in Gujarat ? (A) It is meant for irrigation, power generation