GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (PAPER-1)47102012023153107.pdf

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a * q,q$4tdq ddabdod pdl/i aeirdddlta e.tq ddobd{odd) {,J*Egi a{Frrt d^rB 2021 JJJ.oJ w.g wt!9 7253657 id:o1r A : LYz iioulil$c :iDdxod ado$ ioded dgd i 471 -r dOdo erodzl$c : 1OO inddd*o 1. 2. 3 4 droeodrd !oa5, 5. dddde_ Ldnhd)d E 5.ide, dol) zPddo_o3)e Ddt doecdd iorj" oi)a$ ajilooiued:. i q,d" dgdo$C_ rJed aijio DdcJrclEdd). 6. dl drudgrdoiD 100 drdrldib r-SitJace69d. d, coinc-r qJ.tol" 4 so3>oridio z.*looAd>dd. 0e{ erudd.6E9ojre_ /D69: il>daleii&fod wddd:tl eoJ.:o E$raii./o9. ?.od) aieg o e- ucdSoog 6e$s ruciJld slg dr(gicbod) aec) qrr"J,$dd cldrri edl, ddca&::Dd rroddiio ibd)d) : dDe. sde s-dJo 4,.9 drd*rl i)rd deie.: 'z"od> qugdd$ J{26d drr3.' soi: dnduedr. t-od> de$ todScgida:J,1 sDddti9& ndiiroecr (&6d:) n, & -e_ s eiJ g dfi eJa'I) e:,cdrdo& d u drare,)rDd.i. 7. i/l*d$ iiid :d: uo/lqaxdsldddero_ad.)d-. 5.1*d AnaiciJolird c1l{-e d.-,5d+qraEecgdd")iJ-riid.Jofuec-:^:s;-{edrirrif O-: sc(,Jrhdo€,. 0d-rho-orl o-od-ld8er.:_ Eoeofurbqd. d, rlnedOd;d Eoz^l ";qhdoQ d Z ddnddrlg0_ o1:ad ?.PgE &oor;t>drl9c n0ol>nd? (1) s' I. $idr? II. d!,eqjdd (2) 10" IIL ?^,tl"r elodOd {3AetO (3) 1s" (1) I drd.l II (4) 20' (2) | (3) II drdr III 2. qlntuobd{n$re&iJd elad dEob Sd-lro-oded{sl, dearldO_ (4) I, II drd.? III dqd d rl g d,i & B A uD.rdodJv O d) 4 ilaobrd d..leeln, dcc0d Pd (1) aocoddeo deJrldc (1) dBd-> aood{edrrtd deroJr (2) mnl6 selo6 deGoiredn:6 aiet' (2 ) dr.i:. uaodfedrrld dooL> (3) tr{oaotteJe{ (3) d{5dc€o! dooJc (4) dordd alef, (4) o-oer,0d {Crtdc l47L-A (21 1 Imagine you are standing in 3. Rainbow is produced when front of a plane mirror and sunlight falls on tiny water take a turn by 10". How droplets. Which of the much ',1'ould the image following physical pheno- appear to turn? menon/phenomena is/are correct? (1) s' I. Diffusion II. Refraction (2) 10" II I. Total internal reflection (1) I and II (3) 1s' (2) I only (4) 20' (3) II and III (4) I, II and III 2 Most of the energetic charged particles reaching the earth are captured by 'Sunspots'on the surface of 4 the Sun are (1) E.rrth's atmosphere (1) regions of low magnetic fields (2) Van Allen radiation belt (2) regions of high magnetic fields (3) Asteroid belt (3) regions of black holes (4) Kuiper belt (4) imaginary spots 1471-A (3) lP. T. o. 5 alodr{,deorldc inobr{,dea3ood 8. dmdJ od.: {peei.,eatr dr.t-t rod:ad, ao h roeafr rier: rod ea ""l.lddr*t droe.ld* ;aenh ieOtud. u{ rld e.ln_odo ersl tutj* dned d (1) iu-oded-,aoh ddo n-odrd a3odrd dddc dndo nadrd zJn.bolr (1) uu€ddd; ue{fdc dt.tl., d;eel Eedc{d.r {,uad aledo{d. (2) ,r,-oded*aan ddd rodrd (2) aen_ ae[d9Ja doDdnetu{d. ?.rafuob ddQc dndo n-adrd i;ao1>Fd d;ed Eedc$d.: (3) eruddddc z^re;lrldc dA*r dru-od EedoQd. (3) ,r,-oded-aoh a3du nodrd uloQ,,d dddc dndo nadrd inolcrd (4\ eru€ddd-r Dertr9q adn doee.l Desrc{d-: t.lderortJdBo".r (a) doeod o$a{ci.n eler_ 9. elSe dub.rderluoh aJdolr.>d di, 6. do4 d;oaorldob,> G (1) Ead.) (1) -+rd qorroe.ld drud^rd (2) $Dd) (21 dd;e1o" drud^ra6 (3) dohdrom-r (3) dd z^lodeo6 (4) 0ee.rhO (4) d;edr, z,eaoad door,.:rldo 1O. dRdc rlogdu-oufl d, dSRd o1:od 7 oaoard fu erlddOprd uo;-oobOd nnrddqodnenrbqd? dn? (1) neaar: (1) d{prd (21 d3 (2) alodneoud erd-> (3) oor{OeoG (3) rlneQ (4) r)oajtud sd)_ (4\ e$. l47t-A (41 5 Lunar eclipses are seen 8 Three lamps are connected more often than solar in series to a voltage source. eclipses because of If one of the lamps burns out (1) the shadow of the (1) the other two lamps will relatively small moon glow brighter on the larger earth (2) the other two lamps will (2) the shadow of the burn out relatively small earth on the larger sun (3) the other two lamps will glow with less (3) the shadow of the brightness relatively small moon (4) the other two lamps will on larger sun remain unaffected (4) None of the above 9. The fastest growing plant is 6. Dry ice is (1) bamboo (1) solid CO, (2) mango (2) solid SO, (3) coconut (3) solid benzeoe (4) eucalyptus 14) ice whose surface is dried 1O. Which of the following 7. Mothballs contain plants is used for green manuring? (1) camphor (1) Sunhemp (2) benzoic acid (2) Cotton (3) naphthalene (3) Wheat (4) cinnamic acid (4) Rice t47L-A (s) lP.T.O. 11. d, ddndOrld0_ drodrBftd rood 14. dtiI ;rrQ IId{dO d.noDi aorto o$addJ? d, d9rl &edod nodeddd.l erudolnehidraod-r nOo$Dd (1) drd-r€v eruddddo j6td sob dnB: (2) zJdc,9, du3 CJ -I dh3 -tI (3) uemrl{ fal $dJdF0ob [/ aaSrdio6 (4) Ltodrore.loe der&dd trdogJe., 12. dt dqnddrldd_ dcrodoo0 ddd /b/ uiredd @l etroott'- ol:adil? deD&dd Etrrolf rdogreJ (1) ezr",& fld /c/ ,l,eta /iil/ a:uoscu deD&dd roo9.>eJ (2) ererd d-:d (3) dJd,l /d/ aarBnobo fiui raod;r6 d;e deD&gd dd,;rd naoJ._r (4) abod, Codes '. 13.2O2O1O* 'dE* dz* aodo (a) (b) (c) (d) q/edaddndJd dN-oFtJd dE, dgddl (1) (t) (ii) (iii) (iu) (1) d*nndr -dO_ddieDor:dJ. (21 (iu) (iiE 0) fii) (2) doe, (3) doD altg (3) (iiil 0u) (il fii) (4) aroBegd (4) (iu) (iii) (it) (i) l47t-A (6) 11. Which of the iollowing is a 14. Match lisl-I with List-II and modified stem? select the correct answer using the codes given below (1) Onion the lists : (2) Garlic List-I List-II (3) Potato lal Mercury (lj Parkinson (4) Tomato contamination dis e ase /bi Arsenic (ii)Itai-itai 12. Which of the following is a contamination disease parasitic plant? (1) Drosera (c)Lead (iii)Minamata contamination disease (2) Banyan (3) Tulsi /d/ Cadmium (iu)Cancer contamination and skin (a) Methi lesions Codes: 13. In the year 2O2O, Karnataka Bird Festival popularly (a) (b) (c) (d) known as 'Hakki Habba' was held at (1) (il (it) (iii) (iu) (1) Mysuru (2) (iu) (iii) (il ftil (2) Hampi (3) Nandi Hil1s (31 (iii) (iu) (il 6il (4) Bandipura $) (iu) (iii) (ii) (il 1471-A (71 lP.r.o. 15. dN-oFo.Jd uotid ifdFdd oLoeadob-> 18. ndD$€d dn& ddDdedd uuqed oora;, Oedc dod*dd (ai oadcncr6 /i/ derd d*rld rh€nc$ddoo8rl a.rd$eGd nodpid -Ood doeend de.r_ob ddrldd-r, d.:oEncd rf:Oobdqdnobd. (b,/ rgddnes.:6 fiil &dodd d.]sd dDOdddaddrldod (1) durgd ;nrO (.12"s) d,radd draerld ;l.ld? (2) oaard8 aor0 doddd d*d (3) dr-urand3 aaro (c/ coboan (ill/ t d,neo6 dddd dgd (4 ) doeddoorle.: -de.t;Ptg ;ro, O (d/ ano' (iu) 9ea qllaturlsr dgd 16. Aadddq deuood{.1du eJeld.iN€ iozJ6 eldeard dod.:ud-:{ d. dredd olad dneBrl9c dOobfl d.nobdoJ:nrbQdz (1) d.-tQrdrded -d{ (1) /a/ d:Q fbl drDs/ (2) uuQd {,ded (21 /a/ *rQ /c/ d:ad, (3) uoQ, {,ded (3) fbl drQ (c/ dn-d, (4) doDFt"Jd (4) (o), (b), @)atQ@) 17. dodd s5add d{ tud-'drrl9d.l 19. Aaddd0_deoQ, d-:aOd, Oo$odroa eldoJce:atuqd. d.:od€ (CPCB)01: erdr,u-ad, dndo drldd$q+doad zrd d -9 8Ad doa-D6 -(1) n;:5o*e.';C dedd drdobod erudjolntu{d. (2) aonoerd erodAod (1) 1.s d.d. -dd* (3) dntuorJ dond ddddpb (2) 2.s E.d. d.:eei d:addd z^ieBdor:od (3) 0.s d.d. (4) aa$f,rrd ?-q1r:d.ldos)od (41 r.2 E.d. l47L-A (B) 15. Karnataka State Government 18. Name of the Objectlve Project is aimed at filling the conventlon of the lakes of drought-hit district conventlon of Kolar w'ith treated waste- lai Ramsar (l/ Conservation water from of migratory (1) Hebbal valley birds [b/ Stockholm (ii) Protection of (2) Arkavathi valley human hea-tth and (3) Vrishabhavathi valley environment from (4) Koramangala- Persistent Challaghatta valley Organic Pollutants (PoPs) 16. In India moist Alpine scrub (c) Yienna (iill Protection of forest is found in ozone layer (1) Madhya Pradesh (d) Bonn (iu/ Conservation of wetlands (2) Uttar Pradesh Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? (3) Andhra Pradesh (tl @) and (b) onty (4) Karnataka (2) (a) and (c) only (31 @ and /c/ only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 17. The ecological footprint is a measure of 19. In India, as per tl:e Central (1) non-sustainable lifestyle Pollution Control Board (CPCB), solid waste generated (2) carbon content per capita per day in large cities is (3) human demand on the (1) 1.5 kg earth's ecosystem (2) 2.s kg (s) 0.s kg (4) carrying capacity (4) t.2 kg t47L-A (e) lP.T.O. 20. Sdnd NaoJr t obddgq n0 22. Add adatu drded Bdddq aod.> eru{ddd1uo3;o at>B : uz30ioarbQdf deff (A) dod.2 rodee (Rl (1) 5deanoc (2) 2de dgao de0d (A) : dgJdJ +ui d/dedd) erge ddtr ra.0d drz.led Q eabo.gdobdi (3) 22de a{,ef dnoDd. (41 22de draa:6r rodea (Rlr ra.&d drz'ledrld SgddoJal dSFJ +td drdedd* 23. duoFtJd uoac, d.)add, 0oLlodreo dnd, Se$cdrtnoBd. ;t-rod€ a-o.ddobad ddr (1) (A) d.:q (R) addn n0 drdg (1) 1e86 (A) dcDcofl (R) OeBd sddd - n0o1;and. (21 1e81 (2) (A) drd; (R) ;ddra d0 sdd (3) Le74 (A) doOoah (R) &eBd sddd (4) te72 i0o1>hel, (3) (A) n0, udd (R) d{5 24. erarlSd sadd>d idndeddo doaloS3dod olDno6;di:roJ.> (4) (A) dd5 udd (R) no {Bs?FdJad obDdtu? (1) obd,t3d ded{dredt'ddr 21. d9nddrle0-o1:Dd dedfis 2O2ld dd.I dd qI erd d6d.d:et:3 zieoatr Sdd doid Addd,1 uo3nedeQ ? (2) olDd.,urd ded{ dddedo6 ddo, dd erd d.?r.,.d:ecr6 a3eoef (1 ) aleo-o ol l2l aaExnd (3 ) olDd.)t3d de'-ur{dredt'du6r io[lcf ud -d_rd;et^16 deoae (3) obdrtJd {et:i (4) obd.)t3d dedoi Sdde-oo6 (4) qradd dotid unf d_rd;etf zseo# l47t-A (10) 2O. Read the two statements 22.WorLd Wetlands Day is Assertion (A) and Reason (R). celebrated on _ of each Choose the correct answer year. from the four choices given below: (1) 5th June (21 2nd Februaqr Assertion (A) : Westem Ghats a-re the region showing (3) 22nd April richness of endemic species. $) 22nd March Reason (R) : The distribution of endemic species is 23. The Karnataka State confined only to Western Pollution Control Board Ghats. (KSPCB) was established in the year (1) Both (A) and (R) are (1) 1e86 correct and (R) explains (A) (2) 1e81 (2) Both (A) and (R) are (s) re74 correct but (R) does not explain (A) (4) 1e72 (3) (A) is correct but (R) is false 24. What is the full form of UNFCC with respect to (4) (A) is false but global warming convention? (R) 1S true (1) United Nations Framework Convention 21. Which of the following on Climate Change countries hosted the World Environment Day during (2) United Nations the year 2O2l? Federation Convention on Climate Change (1) China (3) United Nations (2) Pakistan Framework Center on Climate Change (3) United States (4) United Nations Federation Center on (4) India Climate Change l47L-A (11) lP.r.o 25. ds,nddrldatldDdrlr, : 27. Eer6 artro{pe erodoe$dd tuD ad)? (A) uroro6 oloead (1) oorooJc0d aldid z.rs' dpid (B) d.Pn;r, dnead (2) oasaob&d a$:, zid df,d (3) eld dgd (C) d-retroae# olnead (41 e$obd oeDd arddo$od aJC dJe0ddddq @Jd do{Prtlon€ d*d d.rood olDd)d) e-erderddd{ u9ilnoBdt 28. du} I dr" dq Ildoobrl dooDi (1) (A) drQ (B) iladl drdg ddrl dntfld:d iodedrlddl erudo.1nehto dOorJad uuQddd.l (2) (B) d,rQ (C) dras/ uob* d:aB : o-t{ I rodoaod:dd dq II sDol-DjC) (3) (C) dcadJ d€rldr (a/ dneer{ ro6 /i,/ ra*tferarod (4) (A), (B) doq (c) dJ&o!N" (b) dir /ii) tlo"en.oe \ t ,l,ad o 26. eQedrl tuqoJrd- dodrz.rd;d &etJfFDn6F doqrodd o1Jad Sed, (c) 6cdd.rd /iii,) aodo' ecenrod dnobrl ioz.loOird? /d/ a!,o'AF' /iul daoerorocn Codes ; (1) sdd ilodrod (a) (b) (c) (d) (2) mollltuso $ob (rt 0) (iii) (iu) (iil (3) er0drQ d.nod;.!d":d dedrl9 (2\ (ii) (iii) (i) (iu) tgQrdd (s) (iu) (iii) (t) (iil (4) (iii) (iu) (ii) 0 (4) udoerl, drdor l47r-A ( t2l 25. Consider the following: 27. What was the aim of Beej Bachao Andolan? (A) Project ASMAN (1) Crop protection without chemical use (B) Project MAUSAM (2) Crop protection with chemical use (C) Project MEGHRAJ (3) Crop protection from in se cts Which of the above include(s) (4) Crop protection by over- E-governance through cloud usage of water computing? (1) only (A) and (B) 28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (2) only (B) and (C) answer using the codes given below the lists : (3) only (C) List-I List-II (Breeds of Cattle) (Homeland) (4) (A), (B) and (C) (a,/ Holstein (l/ Scotland Friesian (b) Jersey liil Switzerland (c) Ayrshire (iii)Channel 26. Petersberg Dialogue which Island was seen in news recently, (d) Brown /iuj Netherlands is associated with which ' Swiss field? Codes : (1) World trade (o) (b) (c) (d) (2) Climate action (Ll (i) (iii) (iu) (iil (3) Economy of developing (2) (ii) (ii, (il 0u) ountrie c s (3) (iu) (iii) (il ftil (4) Health emergency (41 (iiE ftu) (ii) (il l47L-A (13 ) lP.r.o. 29. Strdd ?trq drdo dod,arod eerodolr: 31. d, ddndddeqo1.:Ddtu dOol>n o1Jad n o-+tldolooa VAIBHAV r1 dnoDdobtuQd? d, o rlB A1 ol:dl uolnedd,:$d: ? eraorJJ rfJ$ JaoJ$rfJ€e d-i ded (gJilrdF) doded (1) enge faleru-%doobd (i) Aw dodrod.: B/ uu-.6*enrc d":Q [i/ Bsh (2) 8uc'6EL sud eruqdoobd 1"7 J*.,e.c.^.q fiii) Bwk (3) Edafeaef al/aeoobe, 9ed dodoqtn&-r (4) z:adr /d/ al-"a asOnoer (iu) Cwe dnoDrl udrr eru{Be*doo! (1) (b)drdt (d) 3O. ?.laddd0_ mr0 +ao€ DrO (2) (b)*ce2 @) uaobrd, ;bdd1 eJolaedl,dJd)d) (3) (a)scQ (c) dr ddrddobdr.(;$ &Bobeu (41 @)*:Q @) (1) dOdddoddS 32. dBdJ drq z3oEor:od eldearddro n UJ* e, drdedd0_ dddmob (2) ded d,sddd dJadJAddd (1) lee"odddrdraolr (3) {eaoOdrtood tcdd -oddrnE (2) rood, drdoolr (3) uoe'Ja;, drdaaoL> (4) dd&qln$d dB (4) ;beod ol:adldn eler_ l47t-A (14) I 29. Department of Science and 31. Which of the following are Technologr is to organize correctly matched? VAIBHAV Summit along with which organization? Climatic Region Climatic (Trewartha) Code (1) rsRo (a)Tropical rainforest (i) Aw (2) DRDO [b/ Tropical and /iil Bsh subtropical steppe (3) BHEL /ci Temperate boreal (iii) Bwk cold desert (4) BARC /d/ Humid subtropical (iu) Cwe with dry winter (r) (b) and (d) 3O. Rallyfor Valley Programme in India waS organized to (2) (b) and (c) highlight the problem of (sl @) and (c) (1) environmental (4) (a) and (d) degradation (2) biodiversity 32. 'Slash and Burn'agriculture is a/an (1) shifting agriculture (3) resettlement of displaced people (2) intensive agriculture (3) commercial agriculture (4) loss of agricultural land (4) None of the above l47L-a (ls) lP. T. O. 33. d{ead erbOd erucooddob 36. doSO-od daJoa nqJobd{ olrd dor.Sdob0 o1>d oo ar, dnderde {,agddolc t drtueadon m.dd0_dz ddierdogJ$? (1) eJ9endd (1) Eraierolnerl (2) traoror (2) oarEdtf erolnerl (3) doartid (3) d.Potfz;artld oloead (4) d.rQr{,ded (4) oaerrtneoaenaroD olnead 34, dl dsnddrlg0- dd..de sd 37. dnq dnder uaOrl'elOdob"uddd' drdoeurdl ( erud..d rroro!ae.:o!) aoar ddddq aldtodd& ol:adr? dno8d;d ooa, (1) :,Eodi (1) aO'. darD_d.0q (2) Eaad (2) aQo6r. duqr. $ed.d (3) &d.ne3e.t drded (3) o$r. aef. rlnerg$l (4) $dod (4) ue.tl!.fruotldio6 35. 21dob 8d..>odBobqo1: dd-lo 38. d, ddnd{dqq oladdJ qroddd oorde8d ?+Todrld d{d ne0de-t"Q drood dera-o drlEuofldz ADd.ol:.; (1) d.reid d-rod€ (1) r"0o1> (2) deod, ;baOdd &obodreo (2) ao8.eD d:od€ (3) 3oQ (3) OeE erolnerl (4) era-oJbeFc (a) ded SOrlrld deod, d-:od€ l47L-A (16) 33. Which of the following 36. The Constituent Assembly States is the leading was set up according to the producer of iron ore? proposals of (1) Chhattisgarh (1) the Cripps Mission (2) Jharkhand (2) the Cabinet Mission (3) Karnataka (3) the Mountbatten Plan (4) Madhya Pradesh (a) the Rajagopalachari Plan 34. Which of the following 37. The word 'Development States does not have a High Administration' was coined Court of its own? by (1) Sikkim (1) F. W. Riggs (2) Bihar (2) Edward W. Weidner (3) Himachal Pradesh (3) U. L. Goswami (4) Manipur (4) Albert Waterston 35. Which of the following 38. Which of the following ls languages was added to the the major staff agency in list of regional languages by India? the 21st Amendment? (1) Railway Board (1) oriya (2) Central Pollution (2) Kashmiri Control Board (3) Sindhi (3) NITI Aayog (4) Assamese (4) Central Board of Direct Taxes l47r-A (t7l lP. T. O. 39. qndd io$eadd dr dend olnd 42. iosodo d$J$ob d, dgnd e0o1D qrdddd ooroddl oadrl o1>{ddo doz.loQed? tuO;fDd.ldd6o doarcQid? (1 ) ?,lrqarDd Oolrodreo (1) 100 de $8 (2) utroadma i:qodd (2) 200 de $Q (3) deod, d.rQ uae;, iouodrldc (3) 300 de eO (4) da &eOd dotSd (4) 330 de sQ 43. q,rgd r-oErd (SAARC) dddd 40. ?7odd do0qodd addof.: oo{rld noal, adg? gd)6dBoU) ud€codnd ra.ddfl sdo-od (1) s ilo;olDoo$fie dJDAd,nuld? (21 6 (1) 40 de Ed>odB (3) L2 12) 44 de 3d..>odB (4) 8 (3) 42 de 3d)odB 44.'tudd6 dd>rolnefl ' u-ooturd_rd;d (41 48 de 3d:odB eruded o (1) oarlOd dedoLr ,u-adrdrr 41. qndd do&qtodd erdrt3*ed 215 uuz.f o-oro$aoo$Ed doaloBtudod d, %d o-o{eob u-oo$rd, dr add;.. erudaloQ-^Dqd? (2) rod.nd, e6dd rod)ddF ddadll) uo{eob EoobFd/d) (1) o-oro1>orl &odd (3) d.,gd xod;frr ddDdcir (2) eiQereD uodoltaoob uo$eoJc roolFd/dr (3) ddc*rld dpid (4) o-o$-:rdd rad;flrr ddA;rb (4) Otf dndBnJd sQu-od uoi}eob uoolrr-drdr l47L-A (18) 39. Which of the following 42. Santhanam Committee Articles of the Indian pertains to Constitution describes the suability of the State in (1) anti-corruption India? (2) election reforms (1) Article- 100 (3) Centre-State relations (2) Article-2O0 (41 river water distribution (3) Article-30O (4) Article-330 43. How many countries are there in SAARC? 4O. Which Constitutional (1) s Amendment provides the (2) 6 provision to the establish- ment of Administrative (3) t2 Tribunals? (4) 8 (1) 4oth Amendment (2) 44th Amendment 44. The purpose of 'Mission Karmayogi' is (3) a2nd Amendment (1) National Programme for (4) 48th Amendment Civil Services Capacity Building 41. Article 215 of the Constitution (2) National Programme for provides _ to the High Common People's Court. Capacity Building (1) contempt of court (3) National Programme for Peasant's Capacity (2) court of record Building (3) protection of rights (4) National Programme for Labour's Capacity (4) power to issue writs Building l47L-A (le) lP. T. o. 45. eqearrl deddadod arod.9 48. fleJr:ad rloS Dddd& olJadr? &ddoad&. ed& irqeo d6et3Fd d, dqnd ob)d Oqocdrldrl ( 1) dd.rodd ridFoDduondpJ? (1) d]Jao?.jJa3 ddJrridJ Adod, (2) udur ql]aetJ dond (3 ) ?.id?.!aC (2) no$@dd d)rro tuodzJd o$dl SdrodE dDd€rrrid) (4) -ad",3 (3) dca&3 ddco (4) no;d? d,e4drd)d) 49. dd4dd doz.Jdo , dd3oir d3.)F 46. erudd dedd no&d"d Ddddrl (1) deooat; sdJd)dJ (2) ;ddde $drd.raAdd ( 1) odeo,,drido_ dcdo erud&dd ridO_ (3) drrlFl,od 12) zJD.d rorlerd dJdJ nJod.rlgo (4) edolaBgd (31 nJad.rldo d')dJ n.3rido (4) dJeod Do-dB 50. 8/e d.)*dedaooldr ud6&eg arl dartod rrod oJJ)ddr? 47. d.Po$Fd EaodOS uddd ztrad olad)tu? (1 ) eroozrdd de.rd,s r? (1) -9d.)d (2) t dJJq d$od (2) non{d (3) rrdFd,rariB (3) dradern dod (4) 5)droe.l (4) OeOFDd l47L-A (20 ) 45. Recently Keshavananda 48. Who wrote.lfifisara? Bharati passed away. He was the petitioner of which of the (1) Kamandaka following landmark decisions of the Supreme Court? (2) Raja Bhoj (1) Fundamental Rights are absolute (3) Bhavabhuti (21 Basic structure cannot (4) Vakpati be amendable (3) Right to Information 49. The author of Panchatantra (4) Parliament is supreme in Kannada is (1) Ranaraga 46. Post-Vedic literary works are (tl (2) Vikramaditya-II Arangakas and Upanishads (3) Durgasimha (2) Brahmanas and Sutras (4) Vinayaditya (3) Sutras and Smritis (4) All of the above 50 The book written by Sri 47. What was the language of Krishnadevaraya about administration in Mauryan 'Rajaneethi Grantha' is period? (l) Jambauana Kalgana (1) Prakrit (21 Amuktha Moulya (2) Sanskrit (31 Madalasa Charita (3) Ardhamagadhi (4) Kharosthi (41 Nitisara l47t-A (2r I lP. T. O. 51. EeSruauooj;ea deuoen! aO$r 54. addde dd.,N6 ddd ddd ddr (1) dde0ed.: (1) tt92 (21 1le1 (2) de.tuad,: (3) 11e3 (3) inedooaddd (41 77e4 (4) aradrler_ 55. dd AodJf doe dddod obd 52. EaraQdd rtnedriod.r.Uld d.ra+s" dndo! ur-ouddo 41et3 Odnrddd: o!ad.>? 0eBd.dof (1) dndd-:no€ floeO (1) d,Jd,raobnd,6 (2) (r*oc (2) olrod:d erOf (3) aaaofled (3) ez.r9&o sBe, Er (4) aa a;a'ao6 (4) d.nddrod egDet' ao 56. dJ.)d/ad) delne al9cd€ol: 53. 'dJ.,d.ndJ tu$e.:6 i&ra6'd Oedo$dc iodaJrdO d*tud, uoard dOdo$Rddd) 6aodcnhdod dJ (1) ir. don'ozoeur (1) Bo€ A)eroF q5-ooo$e, (2) aooduode eld# (2) uS.sdoduo# (3) eru-arts6 uod:;raeJ $; (3) d. deaaQ erobdc,6 dndOoj.:ad (4) dd. ao. Addeddrdobd (4) dd uO,,olrd zDdddF l47L-A (221 51. Where is the Kirthinarayana 54. The Second Battle of Tarain temple situated? was held in the year. (1) Halebid (1) 1te2 (2) Talakad (21 1le1 (3) Somanathapura (3) 11e3 (4) Javagal (4) tre4 55. Sir Thomas Roe visited the 52. Who was the founder of Gol court of which Mughal Gumbaz in Bijapur? ruler? (1) Muhammad Ghori (1) Humayun (2) Yusuf Arif (2) Akbar (3) Ibrahim Adil Shah (3) Jahangir (4) Mohammed Adil Shah (a) Shah Jahan 53.'Mysore Civil Service' 56. Diwan of the State of Mysore examination was introduced during Mysore Chalo Movement was by (1) Sir Mirza Ismail (1) C. Rangacharlu (2) Kantharaj Urs (21 T.Ananda Rao (3) Arcot Ramaswamy (3) K. Seshadri Iyer Mudaliar (4) Sir M. Vishweshwaraiah (a) Sir Albion Banerjee l47L-A (231 lP.T.O. 57. €t dqnd ddoar odndd;", 6O. aaa0d0_ z.rodEeol: i dod. ua erod)d, dJ d O_ ard o9-:0 : Oen5eld,1 19 2 4d O_ a-ou&i dJd) I. d:oLndddcr (1) a9ddoad ood II. ?,Jhedd (2) oa#Eaao alned III. u-odcidd:r a (3) ncpad zJod, dnelf IV. aao3dd;r (4) daJqd.:,. zrorddr ddrl d.nt3drd sJr iodedrl90 dOolDd erudddd-: tr0i,0: (1) I, II, III, IV 61. o$ad uotrdd 'q-r9a{ na-lefl' 15 urld, 2O2 l dodl aoOrt uoDd-r? (2) I, III, II, IV (3) I, II, IV, III (1) dd-dFtrd (4) I, IV, III, II (2) dedd 58.'rlaaJeoLload' E&dd.1 doobdo erdi (3) dtudco-od.> (1) t"odde dedoaoJc (a) dooooa{ (2) ddd (3) addde deduool> 62. d.nesd-19d doehrlerrl ia-ao1"l dJDdeD qrodSeo$ drod 'dnd (4) Sredo{deduoql: 0oLlo3rd drdrEeolr tJ-g0'ob dddedr? 59. dJ.,dnd @60 dqeed o-oaroEd do-9d3ob{ u&dod, uod *dr (1) MEDBOT (1) 1913 (2) RATLMED (2) te23 (3) ROBMED (3) tere (a) dredd ol:addra so_ l4l 1eoe l47t-A (241 57. Arrange the following 60. Indian Independent League Kadamba Kings in in Japan was founded in chronological order : 1924 by I. Mayurasharma (1) Chittaranjan Das II. Bhageeratha (2) Rash Behari Bose III. Kakusthavarma (3) Subhas Chandra Bose IV. Santivarma (4) W. C. Banerjee Choose the answer from the following code : (1) I, II, III, IV 61. Which State's 'e-crop survey' came into existence (2) I, III, II, IV on August 15,2O2l? (3) I, II, ry, III (1) Karnataka (4) I, IV, III, II (2) Kerala 58. Which ruler assumed the title 'Gajabetekara'? (3) Tamil Nadu (1) Devaraya-I (4) Maharashtra (2) Hakka (3) Devaraya-II 62. What is the name of the (a) Sri Krishnadevaraya remote controlled medical trolley introduced by the 59. The Mysore State Iron Indian Railways to help Works came into being at Covid-19 patients? Bhadravathi in (1) MEDBOT (1) 1e13 (2) RATLMED (2\ te23 (3) teTe (3) ROBMED (41 1eoe (4) None of the above l47t-A (2s ) lP. r. o. 63. 'Dddiodned ddb 2021' dro-od 66. ue.td-r{ uddU}d dided.:z rrlQd eldrod iod.nedd oa{ oladdJ? (1) draodrn-ooQ erddtlg (1) ec#enrod (2) eno6 Dddrood saLerddtr"r (2) z;drr& (3) a;uoddene.f ddd) oddtJ* (3) oadr (4) dcdo$ erddtLl (4) aadd 67. deo{, udttr 2O2O-21dO_ deoQ, do-orddo elSdndo ercroobd d,-loe.r 64. ol:Dd or{d) dcndo dJd.9 obaddJ? ee.Sobd,{ dd", dctS-)oa.l olnea d o$O_ ac-dD 11 d oDd r (1) iddc Jodo deuo dOrl (1) zsed (2) dodO d0t1 (2) cijdO/UdN (3) eroaoJ.> dorl (3) aron-o;Ced (4) ilal aao Edd d.odnaDdrldc (4) aadd 68. ddnd ol>d doi, dgnd d-ld.? 65. doDFtJddO_ad* o-o{eoL: uuoa,d d.:e0d noigl Ood eh ded ded? nOJiJqd? (1) 20 (1) mordJ do?-roosJg (21 ls (2) den_dOdd (3) 10 (3) doaoos-:3 dtu3 (4) s (4) doeOd.re;ro_ ioi;lsrc 1471-A (261 63. Which country is recognized 66. What is the another name as world's happiest country of Almatti Dam? as per 'World Happiness Report 2O2L'? (1) Mahatma Gandhi Dam (1) Iceland (2) Lal Bahadur Shastri Dam (2) Germany (3) Jawaharlal Nehru Dam (3) Norway (4) Kuvempu Dam (4) Finland 67. What is the biggest source 64. Which country announced of income for the Central three-children policy to Government in the Union their family planning? Budget 2O2O-2L? (1) China (1) Goods and Services Tax (2) Pakistan (2) Corporation Tax (3) Bangladesh (3) Income Tax (4) India (4) Borrowing and other liabilities 65. How many National parks 68. Which one of the following are there in Karnataka? has both the upward and downward linkage? (1) 20 (1) Gram Panchayat (2) ls (2) Zila Parishad (3) 10 (3) Panchayat Samiti (4) s (4) All of the above l47t-A (27l, lP.T.O. 69. dr ddnd obad de€drldc 71. d:aatrr 3l,2O2ldoS, qrodddo-d n0ol.>DnsJ u-orodrl9 ?"O.re sd)sa")dd t &rl9 (NPA) dJaod.>-.;$J? (1) IMF dJd) IBRD AddN aa&orlo6dO- drilod do3eOobdqdnoDd. (1) 12.50 erd-doet3 dn. (2) IMF dJQ IBRD addn (2) 10.46 e-td doetS d.n. oJDd.tuid dedoi urlrdrdedo6d dr.jd nodrlsrohd. (3) 8.34 erd d.net3 dn. a (3) IBRD t disdd zrorod;odn ddobsgd. Al 6.54 e.td dnetS d.n. (4) ooddoa{eob deou-od.> e0ob0- Lrodgd dod aoer: lo oh. 72. oj.mdoe&obNc t"do*[:d dogd o$ad dod4od; rtro&d dedrl9c rod-:a d, d d 0^oL: d1 eld d Bidod, eu d.r:od a:oDdt 7O. de8eob dd&^ob d:alg'l aodd de8eoJc ddqo! d,Jaodd) (1) t"dd (1) dua;*.:Qd (2) do0_oa{rl9c (2) da$o$Drbqd (3) dndeu dLild dodd (3) aa#r dBdJobodJqd (4) dnder e€d dodd dua;.b{d (4) a&o!o6 l47r-A (281 69. Which of the following 71. As on 31st March, 2021 statements is not correct? what was the worth of total Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) of the banks in (1) Both the IMF and IBRD India? have headquarters in Washington (1) { 12.50 lakh crore (2) Both IMF and IBRD are the constituent (21 < 10.46 lakh organizations of United crore Nations Organization (3) { 8.34 lakh crore (3) IBRD is also called World Bank (4) { 6.54 lakh crore (4) India's vote share in the International Monetar5r Fund is 1O%o 72. Nter European Union, which another group of countries has come forward 70. Appreciation of domestic for adapting common currency means value of currency? domestic currency (1) lncrease s (1) OPEC (2) decreases (2) Gulf Countries (3) first increases then decreases (3) SAARC (4) first decreases then increase s (4) Asian l47t-A (2e l lP.T.O. 73. zJeBE deaj olroaoriero 76. 4ooh od.1 obod, aaddrld d;eeJ, 25% od.l Etgdd dreel, l5oh (1) drq eldl dzro,"r-ad:!, rl9 d;ed dJd.? 5% (21 erOob&>d erdl &ed/aeddd€lrld d-ree.l ddogJird dodd drae&u-o al€ (3) *:eeur$aofledeodc erudBdcd dea dro. 1,305. eldC D€o$d6dea (4) dddre€trod: (1) dn.9,500 74. eadddO- dnder: olroa-orl dnoooto.b eloadreddeo (2) dra.8,300 dJaderdo$dJ? (3) dn.8,7OO (1) re4s (2\ te46 (4) d/a. 9,2OO (3) re4a (4) te47 77. u-adolad noairold1 tud-:8tuO : 75, 40 d)drnqbOdld ddrlSobO., 30 Is-T_+ 3 8 d.>d:nobd nuonO a{d 160 cm lzgl s 35 11 drQ uu€d dod>hoJ">d ioodD teT4 ? _tJ ad-d 150 cm. t"tli ddrlgo$ noadO aQd (1) s6 (1) 168 cm (2) 46 (21 159 cm (3) 78 cm (3) 43 (4) 143 cm (41 4e l47L-A (s0) 73. The demand curve is always 76. After spending 40% on machinery, 25o/o on building, (1) level 157o on raw material and 5o/o on furniture, Monika (2) irregular had a balance of d0rl qdod, Bd scroobd A hod deEa-o adg drqfdt 88. d, ddnddddq ?^,od) r9$)e€? (1) s0% o0d, bo o1n eo;d oJc u-o oJc rd, d:d e.r_ (2) 7 5o/o (1) 0Suddrafeao (3) lOOyo (2) dudd, (4) 125yo (3) ecuo6&8r 86. Etqdned doaJro$d.1 dod":&6 (4) ,l,uo6d, qi;O : a J z 5 89. uordetd fiaJ$Jeea aoroEd z^,ttg 4 5 9 zloduoddo_ agolaead eoroEd 5 6 1 q,Edd drdJDsa adJ"r? 72 73 ? (1) deEc-o 55 (rl 74 (2) deEm 45 (2) 63 (3) 60 (3) dedea 35 (4) 6s (4) dedea 20 l47t-A (34 ) 84. The sum of the place values 87. Which tax is collected by of 3 in the number 503535 Panchayat? is (1) 6 (1) Sales tax (2) 60 (2) Custom duty (3) 3030 (3) Land revenue (4) 3300 (a) Tax on local fairs 85. If A's income is 50% less than that of B, then B's 88. Which scheme is not related income is what percent to rural development? more than that of A? (1) s0% (1) TRYSEM (2\ 7s% (2) JRY (3) 100% (3) rRDP (41 L25o/o (4) cRY 86. Find the missing number. \, 2 5 89. What is the share of 4 5 9 sponsor bank in the capital 5 6 1 of regional rural bank? 72 73 ? (1) ss% (t) 74 (2) 45o/o (2) 63 (3) 60 (3) 3 s% (4) 6s (4) 20% l47L-A (3s ) lP.T.O. 90. obad udtrdd) dnd0rl 'nDJAJe€o 93. tpaddd0_ d.nde.r troOrl croaraudd uudn, erl qiddn' uoolrrdrd;dd1 obad der_ob dotrooJcd uoe# eoOri do8d-rz dddiategdBi,dooGQZ (1) tua;crod (1) erudoXd;d (2) dedd (21 doorld$d (3) dra-auo{ (3) oDrBc,6 (4) uofrrdrded (4) Aroded 91. olDd dtuEolD'dandr' ;r-o"Sier-> a 94. qrddSeob idu-od tJdcd€ob Suodn: d,raBdJ? er3.:.dd od ioiolafld o (i ) Sdoad-to6 ntu8 (1) ao6itua6cec (NCCFI) (2) de.r_oL:, ne-:8 (2\ ocndadir?" (IFFCO) (3) dodaoen d$o3 (3) oc:,;o (ICM) (4) dorluoao6 nSrS (4) ao6ioboec (NCUI) 92. ndaoO nodd rldrl deiob 95. do-oruddo den dDdd ' er:,dd joJ t d eo hdaa9 d O_ oa, d o{;roh d;o o d: arod ddr (1) doort^ld oaardO_o3;e dndeD (1) aelef 1987 (2) padddO_obe dnder: (2) anoc 1987 (3) $@d $odd-d_obe dndeu (3) afl,ef 1993 (a) arrl.ldo_obe doder: (4) tanoc 1993 l47t-A (36 ) 9O. The Rural Employment 93. Which district of Rajasthan Guarantee Scheme was first adopted Panchayati Raj implemented in which State? system for the first time in India? (1) Gujarat (1) Udaipur (2) Kerala (2) Dungarpur (3) Maharashtra (3) Nagaur (4) Andhra Pradesh (4) Bikaner 91. Which Committee recomm- ended the establishment of NABARD? 94. The apex organization of the Indian Co-operative (1) Shivaraman Committee Movement is (2) Chelliah Committee (1) NCCFr (3) Dantwala Committee (2) rFFCO (4) Rangarajan Committee (3) rcM (4) NCUr 92. Co-operative society, started in Gadag district, Kanaginahal was the first in 95. In Karnataka, Zilla Parishad (1) Karnataka State came into existence on (1) April, 1987 (2) India (2) Jlune, 1987 (3) Asian Continent (3) April, 1993 (4) the World (4) June, 1993 147L-a (37 ) lP.T.O. 96. dDdrlddr"c ilodrlCdq drd,i 98. eedFc,6 o.oo$F6 gdd dodrrl dloddcid{ SQier:, norJ, &ier: drQ d, :,AaolDrl eu tld d: OeBdJd doaSd droder.l do?roo$3rl€rl a-gQuaO OeBd io$qrodd dodo; (1) drdd.raebd 0drdr, erld (1) dod.r:243 H dDo-odaahd. (2) de.tdo 243 I (2) arJdrdJDd 0d>do.rerl (3) deld.::243 J dDd0-;od1oafld. (4) dod.! 243 G 97. UDdd iaordd udn04lrd Arodef (3) ra/$rer? ?"rdrld uQd d.JDdd olneadoJ.: qrodaah dre 2020 dO- ioddn e-tddc". d dd d, deddQ aoOrl dod {Fod d.ro3, d-ld^, erudoLoeDn:dtdc. dodd olneagdob (.b.ao.ao. a#.dr.) tuO (a) d-re0d o!Dd)d/D ero_ (ll 2024-25 de udQob0- 99. 7992d io$cod uaob^ - ;en_ SJeOd eruuo"ddobdl 19 sJOobN6 tjN6 dabzr ooarrl9 dJodJ dodd doroo1cd dJDd,r$dr d,rd.l icrodO qotf dodurl9 ddogrl eldaod aa&rd arqdrddob dd dedd d.nBdrodeu zJeu-od erdioaJ, 1 0. 5 dd* dab.d:ado{oohd. d &{E*od erQddofl d?.J edc (21 2024-25 de erdQol-rO_ (1) 20 erpirldc A)e0d vucorddobdl 20 SJOobNc tj6r6 drJ% (2) 30 erpirlsc d,rDdJddr dJQ icrodO ;s-o&Ed arddeddob dd dedd (3) 25 erpirldc 8 dd* dabzrdJDd,-lgoahd. (a) doeOd oba{1dn ere.r_ (3) 2024-25 de odQol-:{ Are&d vuuo.ddobdl 22 1OO. oo$eolo dcLl-:oal &d u-oolr:d fuOoJcNc tj6r6 dafr,j olneasdo.1:t ddhd olneado$O d dJadJddr ildg iuaiD ro&Fd ardddrlob dd deEd (1) zi;Jadd dnedn'ao6 olnerd 9dd* dab.ilad"rd1oahd. (2) uudo, erl arod0 olraeegd (4) 2024-25 de erdQol":O_ tue0d eruco.rddobdl L7 (3) rrDr$Jeea qia d&3 uudnrerl fuOobo6 t^jo6 dafr. arodD oinea;d drDdrddr drdg iooiO uo&rd dgdrddob dd dedd (a) uo{eoJc rododd da-aoLrd 11 dd* dt3-:"ratndc{oahd. oLoead l47L-A (38 ) 96. Taxes, tariffs and fines are 98. Arthur Lewis is popular for Ievied, collected and his contribution towards distributed by the (1) developing solution for Panchayat authority under the of the Indian disguised unemployment Constitution. (2) developing wavs to solve (1) Article 243H seasonal unemployment (21 Artrcle 2431 (3) Article 243 J (3) utilization of surplus manpower from rural to (4) Article 243 G urban area 97. Pradhan Mantri Matsya (4) None of the above Sampada Yojana (PMMSY), a flagship scheme, was 99. The Constitution Act, 1992 launched in May 2O2O as a makes provisions for a part of Atma Nirbhar Bharat 3-tier system of Panchayati Package by the Government Raj for a1l the States having of India, aims at population of above (1) enhancing fish produc- (1) 20 lakhs tion to 19 million tones by 2024-25 at an (2) 30 iakhs average annual growth rate of about 10.5 percent (3) 25 lakhs (2) enhancing fish produc- (4) None of the above tion to 20 million tones by 2024-25 at an lOO.The National Family average annual growth Benefit Scheme 15a rate of about 8 percent scheme under (3) enhancing fish produc- tion to 22 million tones (1) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana by 2024-25 at an (2) Employment Assurance average annual growth. Scheme rate of about 9 percent (4) enhancing fish produc- (3) The Rural Landless tion to 17 millon tones Employment Guarantee by 2024-25 at an Programme average annual growth (4) National Social rate of about 11 percent Assistance Programme l47t-A (3e) lP.r.o.  DO NOT OPEN THIS QUES?rOJV BOOKLET UNTrL YOU ARE AS,KED TO DO SO Question Paper Version Code 2021 QUESTION BOOKLET A Time Allowed : L'/, Hours GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (PAPER_I} SUBJEGT GODE | 471 Maximum Marks : 1OO Z INSTRUCTIONS 1. Immediately after the commencement of the Examination, you should check that the Question Booklet does NOT have Booklet' of the any unprinted or torn or missing pages or questions etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete 'Question same Question Paper Version Code as printed in your OMR Answer Sheet. lf candidate uses faulty question paper without checking all the pages of the question paper, then the candidate shall be held responsible. 2. Read the instructions on the OMR An swer Sheet ancl Admission Ticket 3. The candldates shall ensure that the Question Paper Version Code of the Question Booklet given is same as the Question Paper Version Code prlnted on OMR Answer Sheet' If any discrepancy found it should be reported to the lnvigilator and get thc sane QuGstlon Paper Ver.lon Code as Prlnted on the OMR Anser Sheet. 4. All questions carry equal marks Register Number 5. You have to enter your Register Number in the Question Booklet in the box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Question Booklet. 6. This Question Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question comprises four lesponses (ansrvers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the OMR Answer Shee t. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider as the most appropriate. In any case, choose 'ONLY ONE RESPONSE i for each question. If the candidate encodes more thall one an swer, then that answer shall be considered as IilVALID 7. Questions are printed both in Kannada and English' lf there is any confusion in the translation of Kannada questions, candidate shall refer the questions in Irnglish and rtnclerstand the (luestlons. g, All the responses should be ma|ked ONLY on the separate OMR Answer Sheet provided and ONLY in Black or Blttt' J 9. Ball Point Pen. that the Question Paper Version Code printed in the Personalized OMR Answer sheet matches 1.he candidates shall ensure with the euestion paper Version Code printed on the nominal roll. In case of any discrepancy, the candidates shall give declaratlon regardinjthe actual Question Paper version Code used.by the candidate. Ifthe candidate fails to give such UJ a declaraHon, then the verslon code printed on the OMR Answer Sheet shall be considered for evaluation' 1O. ln case if candidate uses the personalized OMR Answer Sheet belonging to another candidate. then the OMR Answer Sheet shall be considered as invalid. 11. The candidate shall affix l-ris/her Sig,nature in the OI\'IR Answer Sheet in the space provided without lail lf the Candidate fails to do so, then sucl-r ()MlR Answer Sher:t shall be considered as INVALID. 12. In case if canclidate uses the Non-personalized OMR Answer Shect, then the candidate shall write the Register Number in the space provided and also encode the relevant circles. Also the canclidate shall write the version code and subje< t code compulsorily and affix his/her signittlrre in the space providecl. lf the candiclate fails to clo so, then such OMR Answer Sheet shall be considered as INVALID. 13. Candidate shall sign in the Nominal Roll (Attendance sheet) without fail. 14. lf the candidate violates any of the above instructions, then the OMR Answer Sheet shall l>e considered as invalid. 15. Immediately after the final bell indicating tl-re conclusion of the examinatiou, stop any lurther markings in the OMR Answer Sheet. The candidates shall nor leave the examination hall till the OMR Answer Sheets are collected and accounted for bY the lnvigilator. 16. The Canditlates shall retain Carbonless copy of the olvlll Answer Shcet (candiclate copy) till the announcement of final list and in case if the Commission directs the canclidate ro producc the candidate copy, then the candidate shall procluce the same without fail. L7. Sheets for rough work are appenclecl ar the end of the Question Boolilet at the end. You should not make any markil]g on any other part of the Question Booklet. 18. Penalty for WRONG Answer : THERE WILL BE PENAL'ry FOR WRONG ANSWEIT MI\RI{ED BY TTIE CANDIDATE. (l/ There are four alternatives for the answer to cvely question. For each question for which wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth (O.25) of the marks assigned to that question will be deductecl as penalty. 1ir.f tf a candidate gives more than olte answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even i[ one of the givel-r answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii)lf a question is teft blank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, thet'e will be no penalty for that questioll. Possession of Mobile Phones, Smart watches, Calculators and other Electronic/Communication gadgets of any kind are strictly prohibited inside the Examination Venue. id;.th : tua?3drl9 d vd.eo::-: e Eqeifcb dr:cqaddd d)Ero.{d l47t-A (44 I UU21(E)-51234x4