Final Study Guide PDF

Final Study Guide 1. Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) plays a crucial role in synaptic transmission. Which of the following best explains its primary function? - Acetylcholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine into acetate and choline, terminating the signal transmission. 2. Adrenocorti...

Final Study Guide 1. Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) plays a crucial role in synaptic transmission. Which of the following best explains its primary function? - Acetylcholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine into acetate and choline, terminating the signal transmission. 2. Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) binds to what type of receptor on adrenal glands cells to stimulate cortisol release? - G-protein coupled receptor 3. During sleep, which of the following physiological changes is typically observed in a healthy adult? - Decreased body temperature and muscle tone during non-REM sleep. 4. During the transition from wakefulness to sleep, which of the following physiological changes is most accurately associated with the onset of non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep? - Decreased core body temperature and reduced metabolic rate. 5. How does the anterior pituitary gland regulate physiological processes through formone secretion, and what is an example of a feedback mechanism involved in this regulation? - The anterior pituitary gland releases hormones like adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which is part of a feedback loop with cortisol from the adrenal cortex. 6. How does the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) influence the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis in response to daylight? - The SCN indirectly influences the HPA axis through neural pathways that regulate circadian rhythms. 7. In the human visual system, what is the primary difference between rods and cones in terms of their response to light wavelengths? - Rods are highly sensitive to low light levels and do not differentiate colors, whereas cones are responsible for color vision and work best in bright light. 8. Which area of the brain is responsible for controlling the body internal clock? - The hypothalamus, especially the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) 9. Which brain structure plays a pivotal role in the integration of olfactory information with memory formation? - The hippocampus, which is involved in the consolidation of short-term to long-term memory. 10. Which component of the vestibular hair cell is primarily responsible for transducing mechanical stimuli into electrical signals? - Stereocilia 11. Which hormone is primarily responsible for stimulating uterine contractions during childbirth? - Oxytocin 12. Which hormone plays a crucial role in the regulation of calcium homeostasis in the blood by increasing calcium absorption in the intestine, promoting calcium retention in the kidney, and stimulating the release of calcium from bones? - Parathyroid hormone 13. Which of the following best describes the primary function of rhodopsin kinase in the phototransduction pathway? - Rhodopsin kinase phosphorylates activated rhodopsin, leading to its inactivation and the termination of the phototransduction signal. 14. Which of the following best describes the primary function of the utricle and saccule in the human vestibular system? - They detect linear acceleration and gravitational forces, contributing to the sense of balance and spatial orientation. 15. Which of the following best describes the role of vitamin A in the function of opsin proteins in the visual system? - Vitamin A is converted into retinal, which then combines with opsin to form rhodopsin. 16. Which of the following hormone is primarily responsible for regulating the sleep-wake cycle, particularly in response to light and darkness? - Melatonin, which is secreted by pineal gland in response to darkness. 17. Which of the following physiological changes is most directly associated with the initiation of deep sleep stages during a typical sleep cycle? - Increased sympathetic nervous system activity 18. Which of the following sleep stages is primarily characterized by rapid eye movement and vivid dreaming? - REM sleep 19. Which of the following statements accurately describes the gustatory pathway of the amino acid L-glutamate? - L-glutamate activates umami taste receptors, and its signals are relayed through the facial nerve to the gustatory cortex. 20. Which part of the brain regulates the secretion of hormones by the pituitary gland? - Hypothalamus 21. During the ebb phase of the metabolic response to trauma, which of the following physiological changes is most likely to occur? - Decreased cardiac output and reduced blood flow to peripheral tissues. 22. During the flow phase of the metabolic response to trauma, which of the following physiological changes is most likely to occur? - Increased protein catabolism and elevated energy expenditure. 23. In cellular physiology, which of the following best describes the primary function of phosphoprotein phosphatases? - They remove phosphate groups from phosphorylated proteins, thus regulating their activity. 24. In cellular physiology, which signaling method involves cells releasing molecules that affect nearby cells of a different type? - Paracrine signaling 25. In cellular physiology, which type of receptor is primarily involved in the signal transduction pathway that activated protein kinase A (PKA) through the production of cAMP? - G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) 26. In the context of cell physiology, what is the primary goal of medical management during the flow phase following trauma? - To restore cellular metabolism and support tissue repair processes. 27. In the context of cell physiology, which metabolic change is most likely to occur in response to severe trauma? - Increase in catabolic pathways resulting in protein breakdown. 28. Insulin stimulates the translocation of the GLUT4 transporter to the plasma membrane in adipocytes and muscle cells. How does this process become impaired in individuals with type 2 diabetes? - Insulin receptors are downregulated, preventing the activation o downstream signaling pathways necessary for GLUT4 translocation. 29. Phosphodiesterases (PDEs) play a crucial role in cellular physiology by regulating the intracellular levels of cyclic nucleotides. Which of the following best describes the primary function of phosphodiesterase enzymes? - Phosphodiesterases are responsible for the hydrolysis of cyclic AMP and cyclic GMP into their respective 5\'-monophosphates. 30. Prolactin primarily exerts its effects through what type of receptor? - Cytokine receptor. 31. The actions of antidiuretic hormones (ADH) on kidney cells occurs through which receptor type? - Vasopressin receptors 32. What is the primary goal of medical management during the ebb phase following trauma? - To stabilize vital signs and ensure adequate perfusion. 33. What type of receptor does growth hormone bind to? - Cytokine receptor 34. Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down cyclic AMP (cAMP) into AMP in cellular physiology? - Phosphodiesterase 35. Which hormone is primarily responsible for stimulating milk production in the mammary glands? - Prolactin 36. Which molecule is directly activated by the binding of epinephrine to a beta-adrenergic receptor? - Adenylate cyclase 37. Which of the following best describes the ebb phase in the metabolic response to trauma? - It involves a decrease in metabolic rate and oxygen consumption, focusing on conserving energy and maintaining vital organ function. 38. Which of the following best describes the flow phase in the metabolic response to trauma? - It is marked by a hypermetabolic state with increased energy expenditure and enhanced protein catabolism. 39. Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism of juxtacrine signaling in cellular physiology? - Juxtacrine signaling requires direct contact between the signaling cell and the target cell through membrane-bound molecules. 40. Which of the following best describes the primary role of cytokines in cell physiology? - Cytokines primarily serve as signaling molecules that mediate communication between cells. 41. Which of the following best describes the process by which molecules move across a permeable membrane without the use of cellular energy? - Simple diffusion 42. Which of the following best describes the role of peripheral integral proteins in cell membranes? - Peripheral integral proteins are involved in cell signaling and maintaining cell shape. 43. Which of the following correctly describes the difference between endocrine, paracrine, and autocrine signaling mechanisms? - Endocrine signaling involves hormones acting on distant target cells, paracrine signaling involves local action on nearby cells, and autocrine signaling involves responding to its own signal. 44. Which of the following correctly describes the role of cAMP in the signal transduction pathway initiated by G protein-coupled receptor (GPCRs)? - cAMP acts as a second messenger, activating protein kinase A (PKA) to phosphorylate target proteins. 45. Which of the following cytokines is primarily involved in the inflammatory response following trauma? - Interleukin-1 (IL-1) 46. Which of the following hormones is primarily released by the posterior pituitary gland? - Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) 47. Which of the following is a primary function of the epithelial cells in the human body? - They forma barrier to protect underlaying tissue. 48. Which of the following is a primary function of the hormone calcitriol in the human body? - Increasing calcium absorption in the intestines. 49. Which of the following is an example of an autocrine signaling mechanism? - A cell releasing a factor that binds to its own receptors. 50. Which of the following is the primary physiological action of vasopressin in the human body? - Increase in water reabsorption in the kidneys to concentrate urine. 51. Which of the following mechanism best explain how mutation in the RAS gene contribute to the development of cancer? - Mutation in RAS gene result in the constant activation of RAS protein, leading to unchecked cell division. 52. Which organ is primarily responsible for converting vitamin D3 into its active form? - Kidneys 53. Which receptor does luteinizing hormone (LH) bind to in the ovaries and testes? - LH receptor 54. Which type of cell junction allows ions and small molecules to pass directly from one cell to another, facilitating intercellular communication? - Gap junctions 55. Which type of cell junction is primarily responsible for creating a barrier to prevent the passage of molecules between adjacent cells? - Tight junctions 56. Which type of receptor is directly associated with the activation of G-protein in signal transduction pathways? - G-protein coupled receptors 57. Which type of receptor is primarily involved in the signal transduction pathway of insulin? - Receptor tyrosine kinase 58. In context of cell physiology, which of the following best describes the Purkinje effect and its significance in visual perception? - The Purkinje effect refers to the shift in peak sensitivity of rod cells in the retina from green to blue wavelengths under low-light conditions, enhancing scotopic vision. 59. In context of physiology, which of the following best describes the role of cones in the fovea compared to rods in the retina? - Cones in the fovea are responsible for color vision and high acuity, while rods are located primarily in the periphery and are more sensitive to low light conditions. 60. Opsins are a group of proteins that play a crucial role in physiology of vision. Which of the following statements accurately describes the function of opsins in photoreceptor cells? - Opsins undergo a conformational change upon absorbing light, activating a G-protein signaling cascade. 61. Vitamin A plays a crucial role in cell physiology. Which form of vitamin A is directly involved in the phototransduction process within the retina? - Retinal, which changes conformation upon light absorption by rhodopsin. 62. In cell physiology, how do rods and cones contribute to vision, and how is their function related to the condition known as monochromatism? - Rods are sensitive to low light and do not detect color, cones are responsible for color vision, and monochromatism occurs due to the absence or malfunction of cones. 63. In the human retina, rods and cones are two types of photoreceptor cells. What I the primary functional difference between rods and cones? - Rods are more sensitive to low light conditions, whereas cones are responsible for detecting color. 64. In the context of cell physiology, what is the primary function of the maculae within the vestibular system? - To detect changes in head position and linear acceleration through hair cells and otolithic membrane. 65. In the context of cell physiology, vestibular receptors play a critical role in maintaining balance and spatial orientation. Which of the following statements best describes the primary mechanism through which vestibular receptors transduce mechanical stimuli into neural signals? - Vestibular receptors rely on the bending of stereocilia, which alters ion channel permeability and initiates a change in membrane potential. 66. Which part of the brain is primarily involved in processing smell and is also associated with memory storage? - Hippocampus. 67. In context of physiology, how does the feedback mechanism associated with resistance to certain odors typically function at the cellular level? - Feedback inhibition reduces the production of odorant receptor proteins to limit sensitivity. 68. In context of olfaction, what is the primary role of mucus in the nasal cavity? - To dissolve odorant molecules, facilitating their interaction with olfactory receptors. 69. Which of the following statements best describes the role of the Organ of Corti in cell physiology? - The Organ od Corti converts sound vibrations into neural signals through the movement of the hair cells. 70. Which of the following best describes the role of umami receptors in the cell physiology? - Umami receptors are involved in the detection of amino acids, enhancing protein absorption in the gut. 71. Which type of receptor is primarily responsible for detecting bitter tastes on the tongue? - G-protein coupled receptors that activate signaling cascades. 72. In the context of cell physiology, which of the following best describes the mechanism of signal transduction in taste bud receptors? - Taste bud receptors initiate signal transduction by activating G-protein coupled receptors, leading to a cascade of intracellular events and ion channel modulation. 73. Cardiac output is determined by which of the following pairs of physiological parameters? - Heart rate and stroke volume. 74. Which of the following mechanisms primarily regulates the control of peripheral circulation in response to changes in blood pressure? - Baroreceptor reflexes that adjust heart rate and vascular tone. 75. Which physiological process is primarily responsible for the formation of a thrombus in the circulatory system? - Platelet aggregation and adhesion at the site of vascular injury. 76. In the context of general physiology, which of the following best describes the primary function of plasmin in the human body? - Plasmin primarily acts as an enzyme that facilitates the breakdown of fibrin in blood clots. 77. In the coagulation cascade, which of the following steps is primarily responsible for the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin, a crucial enzyme in the clotting process? - The activation of factor X to Xa by the prothrombinase complex. 78. In the context of general physiology, which component of blood is primarily responsible for the transport of oxygen, and what is the main molecule involved in this process? - Red blood cells, utilizing hemoglobin as the main molecule for oxygen transport. 79. Which of the following statements best describes the role of the lymphatic system in microcirculation? - The lymphatic system assists in maintaining fluid balance by removing excess interstitial fluid. 80. In the study of hemodynamics, which factor primarily determines the resistance to blood flow within a vessel? - The diameter of the blood vessel. 81. In context of general physiology, what does the term 'inotropy' refer to? - The force of contraction of the heart muscle. 82. In the intrinsic regulation of myocardial function, which factor primarily influences the contractile strength of the heart muscle? - The Frank-Starling mechanism, related to the initial length of cardiac muscle fibers. 83. Which of the following statements correctly describes the function of the sinoatrial (SA) node in the heart? - The SA node acts as the primary pacemaker by generating electrical impulses at a regular rate. 84. Which of the following best describes the function of cardiac circulation in general physiology? - Providing oxygen-rich blood to the heart muscle and removing carbon dioxide-rich blood from it. 85. In the context of cardiac pump function, which physiological mechanism primarily determines the stroke volume of the heart? - The preload, which is the initial stretching of cardiac myocytes prior to contraction. 86. In pacemaker cells, what primarily causes the depolarization phase of the action potential? - The influx of calcium ions through L-type calcium channels. 87. Which of the following best describes the primary function of pacemaker cells in the human heart? - Pacemaker cells generate electrical impulses that regulate the heart\'s rhythmic contractions. 88. Which of the following mechanisms primarily facilitates the return of blood to the heart in the venous system? - The contraction of the skeletal muscles surrounding the veins. EMBRIOLOGY 1. Which of the following is the most common fertilization location? - Vagina - Uterus - Ampulla - Ovaries 2. Which of the following proteins allow sperm to gain proximity to the egg? - PH40 - ZO3 - PH20 - Phospholipase C - PIP2 3. Which of the following ions modify ZP2 to resist the entry of more sperms after the first has succeeded? - Sodium - Calcium - Iodine - Phosphate - Magnesium 4. Which cell type from the blastocyst binds to the epithelial wall of the uterus? - Inner cell mass - Trophoblast - Zona pellucida - Morula 5. How many cells have developed at the morula stage of development? - 12 - 10 - 20 - 8 - 16 6. During fertilization, the spermatozoon enters the ovum by puncturing what non-cellular structure? - Zona gale - Zona fasciculata - Zona radiata - Zona reticularis - Zona pellucida 7. What is a morula? - 58-cell mass - 16-cell mass - 4-cell mass - 2-cell mass - 8-cell mass 8. Which of the following refers to the cavity without cells, that is formed by the permeation of fluid into morulae? - Trophoblast - Morulae - Blastocyst - Zygote - Blastocele (blastocyst cavity) 9. Which structure gives rise to the placenta? - Inner cell mass - Embryoblast - Corona radiata - Zona pellucidum - Trophoblast 10. What is Heuser\'s membrane? - The outer layer of cells of the blastocyst - The inner lining of the morula - Proliferating epiblasts within the blastocyst - Hypoblast cells lining the blastocyst cavity - Epiblast cells lining the amniotic cavity 11. Which of the following will give rise to the umbilical cord in the embryoblast? - Extraembryonic coelom - Connecting stalk - Trophoblast - Primitive yolk sac 12. Most fertilization takes place in what region of the uterine tube? - Infundibulum - Ampulla - Isthmus - Fimbria - Ostium 13. Which of the following statements about preventing polyspermy is correct? - Once a single spermatozoon passes the zona pellucida, the cytoplasm of the ovum releases cortical granules making it impermeable to further spermatozoa entrance. - Polyspermy results in monozygotic twins. - Polyspermy is common and most often does not result in any noticeable changes. - Polyspermy is prevented by a charge barrier created by the polar bodies. - If multiple spermatozoa are able to pass through the zona pellucida, they are degraded by enzymes released by the acrosome. 14. Within the blastocyst, there is an inner cell mass and an outer cell mass; how do these two differ? - The inner cell mass will produce human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) while the outer cell mass will not. - The inner cell mass will create embryonic structures, and the outer cell will become the placenta and other supporting structures. - The inner cell mass will become the placenta and other supporting structures, and the outer cell mass will create structures of the embryo. - The inner and outer cell mass will contribute to the embryo and placenta equally. - At this stage, the inner cell mass is called the trophoblast, and the outer cell mass is called the embryoblast. 15. Which of the following best describes how the trophoblast facilitates gas and metabolic exchange between the mother and the developing embryo? - The trophoblast grows into the uterus, creating a surface for gas and metabolic exchange while keeping the embryo and the mother\'s blood supplies separate. - The trophoblast grows into the uterus, obtaining gas and metabolic exchange through the joining of the embryo and mother's blood supplies. - The trophoblast is able to obtain gas and metabolic exchange through passive diffusion with the mother's blood supply. - The trophoblast sits atop the uterus and has direct blood supply from the mother, which permits the exchange of gases and metabolites. - The trophoblast grows deep into the uterus toward the mother's blood supply, where it is able to exchange gases and metabolites through proximity. 16. What will be the result when a zygote splits or when two zygotes implant simultaneously? - Twins will develop. - The pregnancy will become ectopic. - The zygote will become aneuploidy. - The blastocyst will lose its trophoblast layer. - Miscarriage will occur. 17. Which of the following describes the migrating mass of freely floating nuclei that move into the uterine lining, permitting the developing embryo to follow? - Hypoblast - Syncytiotrophoblast - Embryoblast - Cytotrophoblast - Hypoblastocyst 18. The bilaminar embryonic phase is reached when the embryoblast splits into which two structures? - Hypoblast and embryoblast - Hypoblast and syncytiotrophoblast - Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast - Hypoblast and epiblast - Epiblast and embryoblast 19. What is contained in the trophoblastic lacunae? - Secreted hormones - Maternal blood - Fetal blood - Amniotic fluid - Glandular fluid 20. What is the group of specialized cells that migrate through the primitive node towards the prechordal plate? - Embryonic mesoderm - Notochordal process - Cardiogenic mesoderm - Primitive streak - Primitive pit 21. The mesoderm migrates cranially and laterally to the prechordal plate to become which of the following? - Paraxial mesoderm - Intermediate mesoderm - Extraembryonic mesoderm - Lateral plate mesoderm - Cardiogenic mesoderm. 22. What is the most common neonatal tumor that arises from the primitive streak? - Lipoma - Neurogenic tumor - Hemangioma - Neuroblastoma - Teratoma 23. The right-left patterning of the body is influenced by what signaling molecule? - Ras - EGF - Raf - Nodal - Gdf1 24. Which of the following structures arise from the hindgut? - Distal one-third of the transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum - Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon - Rectum, ascending colon, descending colon - Ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon - Proximal transverse colon, distal transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon 25. Which of the following is false regarding anal development and the pectinate line? - Below the pectinate line, there is ectoderm of the anus. - The pectinate line is formed by an outpouching of the rectal pit. - Above the pectinate line, there is endoderm of the rectum. - Portal system drains blood above the pectinate line. - Vena cava system drains blood below the pectinate line. 26. Which of the following is the last unpaired arterial branch to come off of the abdominal aorta? - Inferior mesenteric - Hepatic - Splanchnic - Renal - Superior mesenteric 27. The cloaca is divided into an anterior and a posterior chamber; which of the following divides these two sides of the cloaca? - The allantois sheath - The vitelline sheath - A wall of ectoderm, called the urorectal septum - A wall of endoderm, called the urorectal septum - A wall of mesoderm called the urorectal septum 28. Which of the following best describes imperforate anus? - When there is a connection between the rectum and vagina or rectal and bladder - When the anus does not form with muscular sphincters to control the release of fecal material - Failure of the neural crest cells to migrate into the gut tube - When the anal membrane remains intact - When the anal pit does not form or meet the rectum 29. Which of the following is false regarding congenital megacolon? - It results from failure of the neural crest cells to migrate into the affected region of the gut tube. - Typically, it resolves without surgical intervention. - The colon proximal to the affected segment will expand as it fills with feces. - The lack of ganglion cells in the affected segment leads to persistent contraction of muscle, preventing movement of fecal material. - It is the most common cause of colon obstruction in newborns. 30. Which of the following is false regarding renal and reproductive development? - In development, the two systems are not linked. - In development, both systems are linked anatomically. - The urogenital ridges are the primordia of the gonads, but not the kidneys. - Both systems are formed from intermediate mesoderm. - The nephrogenic cords are primordia of the kidney, but not the reproductive organs. 31. Which of the following is false regarding the nephrogenic cords? - They are primordia of the gonads. - They form 3 sets of kidneys during development. - They are formed by intermediate mesoderm. - The pronephros is the first kidney structure to form in development. - They are the primordia of the kidneys. 32. Which of the following statements regarding kidney precursors is TRUE? - The connection between metanephros and the mesonephric duct becomes the urethra. - Metanephric kidneys form in the pelvis and later descend further. - Metanephros forms in the cervical region. - Pronephros degenerates at the end of week 20. - The final adult kidneys arise from the metanephros. 33. Which of the following is false regarding the movement of the kidneys during development? - Additional renal vessels are relatively common as a result of the reception and loss of multiple arteries during development. - The suprarenal (adrenal) glands form atop the kidneys and move to the lower thoracic level as the kidney ascends. - Metanephric kidneys acquire a succession of renal arteries as they ascend. - During ascent, the kidneys move to a retroperitoneal region. - The metanephric kidneys form in the pelvis but ascend. 34. Which of the following is true regarding unilateral renal agenesis? - It typically affects the development of the suprarenal gland. - It typically results in a nonviable fetus. - It typically results in oligohydramnios. - It typically results in a horseshoe kidney. - It typically results from failure of the ureteric bud to form off the metanephric duct. 35. Which of the following is false regarding polycystic kidney disease? - The autosomal recessive form is due to PKHD1 mutation. - The autosomal dominant form can be due to a PKD-1 mutation. - The autosomal dominant form typically causes poor kidney development during early infancy, resulting in very early clinical presentation. - The autosomal dominant form can be due to a PKD-2 mutation. - The PKD-1 and PDK-2 mutations lead to dysfunctional calcium transport in the cilia, resulting in apoptosis and cysts. 36. The metanephric S-shaped vesicle will eventually become which of the following? - Nephron - Collecting tubule - Metanephric cap - Pear-shaped vesicle - Metanephric vesicle 37. Which of the following structure is the precursor to the collecting tubules? - Metanephric pear-shaped vesicle - Pronephros - Ureteric bud - Metanephric cap - Metanephric S-shaped vesicle 38. Which of the following best describes the development of the suprarenal gland? - One wave of cortex comes in from the urogenital ridge and surrounds the neural crest cells, which ultimately form the medulla. - Two waves of neural crest cells come in to become the cortex and surround the migrating urogenital ridge cells that will ultimately become the medulla. - Three waves of cells migrate from the urogenital ridge to form the trilaminar suprarenal gland, including two layers of cortex and one layer of the medulla. - Two waves of cortex come in from around the urogenital ridge and migrating cells from the neural crest invade this developing cortex to form the medulla. - One wave of neural crest cells come in from the urogenital ridge to become the medulla and subsequently, cortical migration occurs from cells in the urogenital ridge to become the cortex. 39. Which of the following is not associated with Potter sequence? - Oligohydramnios - Failure of lung development - Limb malformations due to long-term lack of buoyancy for the developing fetus - Failure of the neural crest cells to migrate into and become the medulla of the suprarenal gland - Facial flattening 40. Which of the following best describes the allantois? - A region of mesenchymal tissue separating the rectum and urogenital sinus - A structure that will ultimately become the prostate gland in men and the urachus in women - A mass of mesenchymal tissue that moves down to form a region of connective tissue at the perineum - A common chamber that drains the GI and urogenital systems - A thin layer of endoderm that remains attached to the apex of the urogenital sinus and extends into the umbilical cord 41. Any gland associated with the bladder or urethra has an origin of which cell type from the urogenital sinus? - Mesonephric - Mesodermal - Endodermal - Ectodermal - Neural crest 42. During development what is the fate of the mesonephric ducts? - In men, they become the vas deferens and in women, they recede. - They become collecting ducts. - In men and women, they become the vas deferens. - They recede in both men and women. - They become the ureters. 43. f the allantois does not disappear in a normal developmental manner, a variety of problems can occur; which of the following is not one of those problems? - A blind pouch extending from the umbilicus or apex of the bladder - A vesico-urachal diverticulum - An umbilical urachal sinus - Ectopic ureter - Urachal cysts HISTOLOGY 1. Which of the following is NOT a component of the reticular dermis? - Reticular fibers - Fibroblasts - Elastic fibers - Adipocytes 2. What is the primary cell type found in tendons? - Osteocytes - Chondrocytes - Fibroblasts - Adipocytes 3. Which of the following is NOT a type of muscle tissue? - Skeletal muscle - Cardiac muscle - Smooth muscle - Nervous muscle 4. Where are Nissl bodies located? - In the nucleus of neurons - In the cytoplasm of neurons - In the axon of neurons - In the dendrites of neurons 5. Which germ layer gives rise to the nervous system? - Ectoderm - Mesoderm - Endoderm - None of the above 6. What is the primary function of macrophages? - Producing antibodies - Conducting nerve impulses - Phagocytosis - Hormone secretion 7. Which cell junction seals cells together to prevent leakage? - Gap junction - Tight junction - Desmosome - Hemidesmosome 8. What is the most common stain used in histology? - Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) - Masson\'s trichrome - Periodic Acid-Schiff (PAS) - Wright\'s stain 9. Which type of microscope uses a beam of electrons to create an image? - Light microscope - Electron microscope - PHASE-contrast microscope - Fluorescence microscope 10. What is the primary function of oligodendrocytes? - Producing cerebrospinal fluid - Forming the blood-brain barrier - Myelinating axons in the central nervous system - Phagocytosing cellular debris 11. What is the primary component of the extracellular matrix in cartilage? - Collagen fibers - Elastic fibers - Proteoglycans - Calcium phosphate 12. Which type of white blood cell is responsible for antibody production? - Neutrophil - Eosinophil - Basophil - B lymphocyte 13. What is the function of microvilli in epithelial cells? - Cell-to-cell adhesion - Movement of fluids - Increased surface area for absorption - Secretion of mucus 14. Which endocrine gland is responsible for regulating metabolism? - Pituitary gland - Thyroid gland - Adrenal gland - Pancreas 15. What is the function of the Golgi apparatus in a cell? - Protein synthesis - Cellular respiration - Protein packaging and modification - Cell division ANATOMIA 1. Where are the vocal folds located relative to the ventricular folds? - Medial - Posterior - Superior - Lateral - Inferior 2. The passage of air results in which of the following movements in the vocal cords? - Elongation - Vibration - Displacement - Passage of air does not cause vocal cord movement. - Rotation 3. The cricoid and epiglottis are mainly composed of which of the following types of cartilage, respectively? - Elastic, hyaline - Elastic, fibrous - Hyaline, fibrous - Fibrous, hyaline - Hyaline, elastic 4. Which of the following statements regarding the trachea is MOST ACCURATE? - Its epithelium does not include mucus-secreting goblet cells. - It is located posterior to the esophagus. - It has 16-20 rings of hyaline cartilage. - It is lined by pseudostratified squamous epithelium. 5. Which of the following best exemplifies the shape of the rings of hyaline cartilage in the trachea? - Spiral shaped - Horseshoe-shaped - Longitudinal - S-shaped 6. Which of the following triads best defines acute pharyngitis? - Cough, neck stiffness, sore throat - Fever, cough, lymphadenitis - Hoarseness, cough, tonsillar exudates - Sore throat, lymphadenitis, cough - Fever, sore throat, pharyngeal inflammation 7. Among the following age groups diagnosed with acute pharyngitis, which group is most likely to have group A Streptococcus? - 5-15 years - 25-34 years - More than 65 years - 35-65 years - 18-24 years 8. Which of the following is NOT a virulence factor of group A Streptococci? - Streptokinase, streptodornase (DNase B), and streptolysins - Antigen 85 complex - Exotoxins such as pyrogenic (erythrogenic) toxin - M protein and lipoteichoic acid for attachment - A hyaluronic acid capsule that inhibits phagocytosis 9. Which of the following most commonly cause acute pharyngitis? - Sexually transmitted pathogens - Viruses - Group A streptococci - Anaerobic bacteria - Mycobacterium species 10. Which of the following layers of the gut wall is absent in the gall bladder? - Muscularis mucosae - Muscular layer - Serosa - Lamina propria - Epithelium 11. Which of the following is TRUE about the gallbladder? - It produces bile. - It synthesizes proteins. - It breaks down large fat droplets into smaller droplets. - It concentrates bile. - It stores iron. 12. Which of the following salivary glands is INCORRECTLY matched with its type of secretion? 13. Top of Form - Submandibular - seromucous - Minor salivary glands - only serous - Sublingual - mucous - Parotid glands - mainly serous - All the options provided are correct. 14. Which of the following best describes a lobule of an exocrine gland? - A collection of acini - A collection of vacuolated cells - A collection of ducts - Acinus and duct 15. Bottom of Form - T11--L2 - T12--L1 - T12--L3 - T11--L1 - T10--L1 16. Which statement regarding kidneys is inaccurate? 17. Top of Form - They remove excess water and salts from the body. - Kidneys are not the same height. - They are retroperitoneal organs. - The right kidney is usually higher than the left kidney. - They maintain an acid-base balance. 18. Which of the following structure(s) does not lie posterior to the kidneys? 19. Top of Form - Ureters - Quadratus lumborum muscle - Iliohypogastric nerve - Subcostal nerve 20. Bottom of Form - Superomedial - Medial - Posterior - Lateral - Superolateral 21. Bottom of Form