Biochemistry Exam Past Paper PDF

Questions for preparation to the examination test Protein structure, properties and functions 1* Choose tetrapeptide which has TWO aminoacid residues with hydrophobic side chain: 1. Asn-Phe-Lys-Gln; 2. Trp-Ile-Cys-Val; 3. His-Ser-Leu-Met;...

Questions for preparation to the examination test Protein structure, properties and functions 1* Choose tetrapeptide which has TWO aminoacid residues with hydrophobic side chain: 1. Asn-Phe-Lys-Gln; 2. Trp-Ile-Cys-Val; 3. His-Ser-Leu-Met; 4. Tyr-Asp-Arg-Gly 2* Choose tetrapeptide which has THREE aminoacid residues with hydrophilic side chain: 1. Val-Cys-Met-Ser; 2. Asn-Trp-Ala-Tyr; 3. Lys-His-Trp-Met; 4. Asp-Gln-Val-Glu 3* Choose tetrapeptide which has N-terminal aminoacid residue with hydrophobic side chain: 1. Phe-Tyr-Lys-Val; 2. Asp-Gln-Met-Trp; 3. Lys-Phe-His-Ser; 4. His-Leu-Tyr-Ile 4* Choose tetrapeptide which has TWO aminoacid residues with hydrophilic side chain: 1. Asp-Met-Leu-Tyr; 2. Val-Cys-Ser-Arg; 3. Ile-Cys-His-Tyr; 4. Asn-Val-Val-Met 5* Choose tetrapeptide which has C-terminal aminoacid residue with hydrophilic side chain: 1. Tyr-Val-Asp-Trp; 2. Phe-His-Gly-Cys; 3. Val-Ser-Tre-Met; 4. Gln-Glu-Asp-Phe 6* Choose tetrapeptide which has THREE aminoacid residues with hydrophilic side chain: 1. Asn-Phe-Val-Trp; 2. Cys-Met-Asp-Ala; 3. Ser-Gly-Trp-Pro; 4. Glu-His-Arg-Leu * Tetrapeptides are given only as an example and may vary in examination test 7 The primary structure in ALL proteins is stabilized with… 1. Disulfide bonds; 2. Electrostatic interactions; 3. Hydrogen bonds; 4. Peptide bonds 8 The secondary structure of proteins is stabilized ONLY with… 1. Disulfide bonds; 2. Electrostatic interactions; 3. Hydrogen bonds; 4. Peptide bonds 9 The tertiary structure of proteins is stabilized with… 1. Covalent or/and noncovalent bonds; 2. Only disulfide bridges without noncovalent bonds; 3. Only hydrogen bonds; 4. Only hydrophobic interactions; 10 The quaternary structure of proteins is stabilized mainly with… 1. Only hydrophobic interactions; 2. Only disulfide bridges without noncovalent bonds; 3. Only hydrogen bonds; 4. Noncovalent bonds and hydrophobic interactions; 11 Indicate a function which is NOT performed by proteins in humans: 1. Transport of hormons in blood; 2. Muscle contraction; 3. Storing of genetic information; 4. Catalysis of reactions; 12* At neutral pH peptide Asn-Glu-Asp-Val-Phe… 1. carries positive charge and is moving towards anode. 2. carries positive charge and is moving towards cathode. 3. carries negative charge and is moving towards cathode. 4. carries negative charge and is moving towards anode. 13* At neutral pH peptide Val-Gly-His-Pro-Arg… 1. carries positive charge and is moving towards anode. 2. carries positive charge and is moving towards cathode. 3. carries negative charge and is moving towards cathode. 4. carries negative charge and is moving towards anode. 14* At pH=3 peptide Val-Glu-Phe-Pro-Arg… 1. carries positive charge and is moving towards anode. 2. carries positive charge and is moving towards cathode. 3. carries negative charge and is moving towards cathode. 4. carries negative charge and is moving towards anode. 15* At pH=10 peptide Gln-Glu-His-Met-Arg… 1. carries positive charge and is moving towards anode. 2. carries positive charge and is moving towards cathode. 3. carries negative charge and is moving towards cathode. 4. carries negative charge and is moving towards anode. * Peptides are given only as an example and may vary in examination test 16 If a globular protein can be dissolved in distilled water and precipitate in 100% (NH4)2SO4 solution, it represents a class of… 1. histones; 2. globulines; 3. albumins; 4. prolamines. 17 If a globular protein can not be dissolved in distilled water and precipitate in 50% (NH4)2SO4 it represents a class of… 1. histones; 2. globulines; 3. albumins; 4. prolamines. 18 If a globular protein contain a large amount of Lys and Arg residues, it represents a class of… 1. histones; 2. globulines; 3. albumins; 4. prolamines. 19 If a globular protein extracted from plants contain a large amount of Pro residues, it represents a class of… 1. histones; 2. globulines; 3. albumins; 4. prolamines. 20 The biological function of polypeptide hydrolysis is: Synthesis of physiologically active peptides. Synthesis of glycoproteins. Modulation of gene activity. Synthesis of Ca2+-binding proteins. 21 The biological function of γ-carboxylation reaction is: 1. Synthesis of physiologically active peptides. 2. Synthesis of glycoproteins. 3. Modulation of gene activity. 4. Synthesis of Ca2+-binding proteins (e.g. prothrombin). 22 The biological function of polypeptide hydrolysis is: 1. Digesting of food proteins. 2. Synthesis of phosphoproteins 3. Modulation of gene activity. 4. Synthesis of Ca2+-binding proteins (e.g. prothrombin). 23 The biological function of protein phosphorylation is: Modulation of gene activity. Synthesis of active enzymes from zymogens (e.g. pepsinogen). Modulation of several enzymes activity. Synthesis of Ca2+-binding proteins (e.g. prothrombin). 24 Protein precipitate without denaturation after adding a large amount of… 1. Heavy metals salts. 2. Strong acids. 3. Strong bases. 4. Neutral salts. 25 Globulins are poorely dissolved in pure water. We can increase globulins dissolving in water by adding small amounts of … 1. NaCl 2. CuSO4 3. HCl 4. AgNO3 26 We can say that it is a protein-ligand interaction when… 1. Substrate is binding to the active site of enzyme. 2. Subunits of protein with quaternary structure are associated. 3. Salt ions are nonspecifically adsorbed on the protein surface. 4. Actin and Myosin interact to participate in muscles contraction. 27 Define which expressions are FALSE: Binding of ligand is highly specific. Any protein can bind any molecule in its surrounding. Binding of ligand is not specific. Ligand binding by protein is necessary for performing specific biological function. 28 The examples of protein-ligand interactions are: 1. Antigen-antibody interaction. 2. Hydration of protein during its dissolving. 3. Hormone-receptor interaction. 4. Protein-heavy metal ion interaction. 29 Define which expressions are TRUE: Binding of ligand is not specific. Binding of ligand is highly specific. Any protein can bind any molecule in its surrounding. Ligand binding by protein is necessary for performing specific biological function. 30 Denaturation of proteins is always followed by… 1. Alterations in its biological function. 2. Changes in its solubility. 3. Decreasing of its molecular weight. 4. Alterations in its primary structure. 31 Denaturation of proteins may be induced by… 1. Adding a neutral salt to protein aqueous solution. 2. Adding a heavy metal salt to protein aqueous solution. 3. Adding a large amount of strong acid to protein aqueous solution. 4. Heating of protein aqueous solution to 30°C. Vitamins and enzymes 1 Vitamin B5 (nicotinic acid) is a part of coenzyme… 1. ATP; 2. FAD; 3. NAD; 4. THF; 2 Vitamin B6 is a part of coenzyme… 1. pyridoxalphosphate; 2. tetrahydrofolate; 3. thiamine pyrophosphate; 4. biocitine; 3 Vitamin B9 (folic acid) is a part of coenzyme… 1. UTP; 2. THF; 3. NADP; 4. FMN; 4 Vitamin B2 (riboflavin) is a part of coenzyme… 1. CTP; 2. HS-CoA; 3. FAD; 4. TPP; 5 Vitamin B1 (thiamin) is a part of coenzyme… 1. NADP; 2. THF; 3. TPP; 4. FMN; 6 Vitamin B3 (panthotenic acid) is a part of coenzyme… 1. PLP; 2. ATP; 3. THF; 4. HS-CoA; 7 Enzyme cofactor FAD performs a function… intermediate carrier of acyl groups; intermediate carrier of hydrogen atoms; intermediate carrier of amino groups; intermediate carrier of one-carbon groups; 8 Enzyme cofactor HS-CoA performs a function… 1. intermediate carrier of amino groups; 2. intermediate carrier of one-carbon groups; 3. intermediate carrier of acyl groups; 4. intermediate carrier of hydrogen atoms; 9 Enzyme cofactor NAD performs a function… 1. intermediate carrier of amino groups; 2. intermediate carrier of one-carbon groups; 3. intermediate carrier of acyl groups; 4. intermediate carrier of hydrogen atoms; 10 Enzyme cofactor THF (derivative of folic acid) performs a function… 1. intermediate carrier of amino groups; 2. intermediate carrier of one-carbon groups; 3. intermediate carrier of acyl groups; 4. intermediate carrier of hydrogen atoms; 11 Enzyme cofactor pyridoxal phosphate performs a function… 1. intermediate carrier of amino groups; 2. intermediate carrier of one-carbon groups; 3. intermediate carrier of acyl groups; 4. intermediate carrier of hydrogen atoms; 12 Vitamin K as an enzyme cofactor participate in the reaction of… 1. Carboxylation of pyruvic acid; 2. Carboxylation of glutamate residues in proteins; 3. Carboxylation of acetyl-CoA; 4. Carboxylation of propionyl-CoA; 13 Pyridoxal phosphate is a cofactor of… 1. Glutamate dehydrogenase; 2. Aspartate aminotransferase; 3. Pyruvate carboxylase; 4. Aldolase; 14 Pyridoxal phosphate is a cofactor of… 1. Pyruvate carboxylase; 2. Isocytrate dehydrogenase; 3. Histidine decarboxylase; 4. Lipoproteid lipase; 15 Flavinmononucleotide (FMN) is a cofactor of… 1. Oxydases of L-aminoacids; 2. Malate dehydrogenase; 3. Lecitin:cholesterol-acyltransferase; 4. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex; 16 NAD+ is a cofactor of… 1. Methylmalonyl-CoA-mutase; 2. Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase; 3. Succinyl-CoA-synthase; 4. Glutamate dehydrogenase; 17 Thiamin pyrophosphate is a cofactor of… 1. Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex; 2. Protein kinases; 3. Acyl-CoA:cholesterol-acyltransferase; 4. Glucokinase; 18 HS-CoA is a cofactor of… 1. Phenylalanine hydroxylase; 2. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex; 3. Pyruvate carboxylase; 4. Alanine aminotransferase; 19 Reaction of hydrolytic cleavage is catalyzed by… 1. Glycogen synthase; 2. Glycogen phosphorylase; 3. Amylase; 4. Hexokinase; 20 Reaction of isomerysation is catalyzed by… 1. Methylmalonyl-CoA mutase; 2. Isocytrate dehydrogenase; 3. Glucose-6-phosphatase; 4. Pyruvate carboxylase; 21 All enzymes listed below are from the class TRANSFERASES, except… 1. Aryl sulfotransferase; 2. Glucokinase; 3. Alanine aminotransferase; 4. Glucose-6-phosphatase; 22 Indicate the enzyme which belongs to the class LIGASES: 1. Pyruvate carboxylase; 2. Glucose-6-phosphatase; 3. Malate dehydrogenase; 4. Amylase 23 Indicate the enzyme which belongs to the class LIASES: 1. Amylase; 2. Aconitase; 3. Trypsin; 4. Hexokinase; 24 All enzymes listed below are from the class OXIDOREDUCTASES, except… 1. Phenylalanine monooxygenase; 2. Tryptophan pyrrolase; 3. Sucrase; 4. Cytochrom P450; 25 Blood indicator enzymes include… 1. Hepatic lipase; 2. Gamma-glutamyltranspeptidase; 3. Trypsin; 4. Lactate dehydrogenase; 26 Blood excretory enzymes include… 1. Amylase; 2. Trypsin; 3. Lipoproteid lipase; 4. Pancreatic lipase; 27 Blood secretory enzymes include… 1. Lipoproteid lipase; 2. Pseudo cholinesterase; 3. Pepsin; 4. Alanine aminotransferase 28 Diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction may be estimated by determination of activity of… 1. Lactate dehydrogenase (isoforms 1, 2); 2. Lactate dehydrogenase (isoforms 4, 5); 3. Kreatine kinase (MB isoform); 4. Gamma-glutamyltranspeptidase; 29 Diagnosis of acute viral hepatitis may be estimated by determination of activity of… 1. Lactate dehydrogenase (isoforms 1, 2); 2. Lactate dehydrogenase (isoforms 4, 5); 3. Gamma-glutamyltranspeptidase; 4. Kreatine kinase (MB isoform); 30 Diagnosis of acute pancreatitis may be estimated by determination of activity of… 1. Lipase; 2. Alanine aminotransferase; 3. Amylase; 4. Lactate dehydrogenase (isoforms 1, 2); Energy exchange 1 Aerobic dehydrogenation is a variant of oxidation reaction, which is catalyzed by… 1. Monoaminooxidase; 2. Phenylalanine monooxygenase; 3. Cytochrome oxidase; 4. Cytochrome P450; 2 Anaerobic dehydrogenation is a variant of oxidation reaction, which is catalyzed by… 1. Tryptophan pyrrolase; 2. Beta-carotene dioxygenase; 3. Succinate dehydrogenase; 4. Cytochrome oxidase; 3 Oxidation by removal of electrons is catalysed by… 1. Malate dehydrogenase; 2. Methemoglobin reductase; 3. Cytochrome a; 4. Monoaminooxidase; 4 Dehydrogenation is a type of oxidation reactions in which… 1. Electrons are removed from the substrate; 2. Hydrogen atoms are removed from the substrate; 3. Oxygen is embedded in the substrate structure; 4. Electrons are gained by the substrate; 5 Monooxygenases play significant role in… 1. Energy accumulation (ATP synthesis); 2. Xenobiotics detoxication; 3. Generation of reductive potentials; 4. Glucose oxidation; 6 Monooxygenases play significant role in… 1. Generation of reductive potentials; 2. Energy accumulation (ATP synthesis); 3. Drugs and metabolites inactivation; 4. Glucose oxidation; 7 Caloric coefficient for carbohydrates is… 1. 4,1 kcal/g; 2. 6,1 kcal/g; 3. 4,1 kcal/mol; 4. 9,3 kcal/mol; 8 Caloric coefficient for lipids is… 1. 4,1 kcal/mol; 2. 9,3 kcal/g; 3. 4,1 kcal/mol; 4. 9,3 kcal/mol; 9 Caloric coefficient for proteins is… 1. 4,1 kcal/mol; 2. 6,1 kcal/g; 3. 4,1 kcal/g; 4. 9,3 kcal/g; 10 Daily requirments for food lipids (according to the WHO recommendations) is… 1. 1 g/kg body weight; 2. 1,5 g/kg body weight; 3. 4,1 g/kg body weight; 4. 6 g/kg body weight; 11 Daily requirments for food proteins (according to the WHO recommendations) is… 1. 1 g/kg body weight; 2. 1,5 g/kg body weight; 3. 4,1 g/kg body weight; 4. 6 g/kg body weight; 12 Daily requirments for food carbohydrates (according to the WHO recommendations) is… 1. 1 g/kg body weight; 2. 1,5 g/kg body weight; 3. 4,1 g/kg body weight; 4. 6 g/kg body weight; 13 Arrange the given enzymes in sequence they act in the Krebs cycle (answer — four digits): 1. Isocitrate dehydrogenase; 2. Aconitase; 3. Citrate synthase; 4. α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex; 14 Arrange the given enzymes in sequence they act in the Krebs cycle (answer — four digits): 1. Fumarase; 2. Succinate dehydrogenase; 3. Malate dehydrogenase; 4. Succinyl-CoA-synthase; 15 Arrange the given enzymes in sequence they act in the Krebs cycle (answer — four digits): 1. α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex;; 2. Succinate dehydrogenase; 3. Isocitrate dehydrogenase; 4. Succinyl-CoA-synthase; 16 Arrange the given enzymes in sequence they act in the Krebs cycle (answer — four digits): 1. Malate dehydrogenase; 2. Fumarase; 3. Citrate synthase; 4. Isocitrate dehydrogenase; 17 Arrange the given enzymes in sequence they act in the Krebs cycle (answer — four digits): 1. Succinyl-CoA-synthase; 2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase; 3. Aconitase; 4. α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex; 18 Arrange the given enzymes in sequence they act in the Krebs cycle (answer — four digits): 1. Succinate dehydrogenase; 2. Malate dehydrogenase; 3. Fumarase; 4. Citrate synthase; 19 The inhibitor of complex I of the respiratory chain is… 1. Cyanide; 2. Rotenon; 3. Carboxin; 4. Carbon monoxide; 20 The inhibitor of complex II of the respiratory chain is… 1. Carboxin; 2. Antimycin; 3. H2S; 4. Rotenon; 21 The inhibitor of complex III of the respiratory chain is… 1. Carboxin; 2. Rotenon; 3. H2S; 4. Antimycin; 22 The inhibitor of complex IV of the respiratory chain is… 1. Antimycin; 2. Rotenon; 3. Carboxin; 4. Carbon monoxide; 23 The uncoupling effect on oxidative phosphorylation may be caused by… 1. Citrullin; 2. Nicotinic acid; 3. Acetylsalicylic acid; 4. Uric acid; 24 The uncoupling effect on oxidative phosphorylation may be caused by… 1. Dinitrophenol; 2. Dicumarin; 3. Diphenyl; 4. Dioxyphenylalanin; 25 Choose substances which are used as antioxidants: 1. Ascorbic acid; 2. Folic acid; 3. Tocopherols; 4. Acetic acid; 26 Choose enzymes related to antioxidant defense: 1. Heme-oxigenase; 2. Glutathion peroxidase; 3. Catalase; 4. Glucokinase; 27 Hypoenergetic state may be caused by deficiency of vitamin… 1. Cobalamine; 2. Folic acid; 3. Riboflavin; 4. B5 (nicotinic acid); 28 Choose enzymes related to antioxidant defense: 1. Heme-oxigenase; 2. Methylmalonyl-CoA mutase; 3. Superoxide dismutase; 4. Peroxidase; 29 Hypoenergetic state may be caused by… 1. Starvation; 2. Water deficiency; 3. Obstruction of respiratory ways; 4. MetHb accumulation; 30 Choose substances which are used as antioxidants: 1. Vitamin C; 2. Vitamin K; 3. Vitamin D; 4. Vitamin E; Carbohydrates 1 Choose a group of carbohydrates which is represented with glycogen: 1. Monosaccharids; 2. Disaccharids; 3. Homopolysaccharids; 4. Heteropolysaccharids; 2 Choose a group of carbohydrates which is represented with sucrose: 1. Monosaccharids; 2. Disaccharids; 3. Homopolysaccharids; 4. Heteropolysaccharids; 3 Choose a group of carbohydrates which is represented with hialuronic acid: 1. Monosaccharids; 2. Disaccharids; 3. Homopolysaccharids; 4. Heteropolysaccharids; 4 Choose a group of carbohydrates which is represented with galactose: 1. Monosaccharids; 2. Disaccharids; 3. Homopolysaccharids; 4. Heteropolysaccharids; 5 Choose a group of carbohydrates which is represented with lactose: 1. Monosaccharids; 2. Disaccharids; 3. Homopolysaccharids; 4. Heteropolysaccharids; 6 Choose a group of carbohydrates which is represented with heparin: 1. Monosaccharids; 2. Disaccharids; 3. Homopolysaccharids; 4. Heteropolysaccharids; 7 The metabolic pathway in which glucose is synthesised from non-carbohydrate substances is… 1. Glycolysis; 2. Gluconeogenesis; 3. Pentose phosphate pathway; 4. Glucogenesis; 8 The metabolic pathway in which glucose is oxidized in anaerobic conditions is… 1. Glycolysis; 2. Gluconeogenesis; 3. Pentose phosphate pathway; 4. Glucogenesis; 9 The metabolic pathway of glucose oxidation in which NADPH+H+ is generated is… 1. Glycolysis; 2. Gluconeogenesis; 3. Pentose phosphate pathway; 4. Glucogenesis; 10 The metabolic pathway of oxidative breakdown of glucose resulting in production of 32 mol of ATP per 1 mol of glucose is… 1. Glycolysis; 2. Aerobic oxidation of glucose; 3. Pentose phosphate pathway; 4. Oxidation to glucuronic acid; 11 The oxidative breakdown of glucose released from glycogen in anaerobic conditions is… 1. Glucogenesis; 2. Glycolysis; 3. Gluconeogenesis; 4. Glycogenolysis; 12 The metabolic pathway of oxidative breakdown of glucose resulting in production of 2 mol of ATP per 1 mol of glucose is… 1. Glycolysis; 2. Aerobic oxidation of glucose; 3. Pentose phosphate pathway; 4. Oxidation to glucuronic acid; 13 Gluconeogenesis is a metabolic pathway which is located in… 1. Adipose tissue; 2. Kidney cortex; 3. Sceletal muscles; 4. Heart; 14 Gluconeogenesis is a metabolic pathway which is located in… 1. Adipose tissue; 2. Sceletal muscles; 3. Liver; 4. Heart; 15 Digestion of glycogen and starch in oral cavity is catalized by… 1. Lipase; 2. Pepsin; 3. Amylase; 4. Sucrase; 16 Digestion of disaccharides in small intestine is catalized by all enzymes listed below except… 1. Sucrase; 2. Lactase; 3. Amylase; 4. Maltase; 17 All sugars listed below can be absorbed in the intestinal wall except… 1. Ribose; 2. Lactose; 3. Glucose; 4. Galactose; 18 The products of food carbohydrates digestion in the GIT can be absorbed by all ways listed below except… 1. Active transport; 2. Endocytosis; 3. Facilitated diffusion; 4. Simple diffusion; 19 All hormones listed below have hyperglycemic effect except… 1. Insulin; 2. Glucagon; 3. Adrenalin; 4. Cortisol; 20 The hormone, which decreases blood glucose concentration is… 1. Adrenalin; 2. Tyroxin; 3. Insulin; 4. Cortisol; 21 The hormone, which increases glucose concentration in blood by stimulation of gluconeogenesis is… 1. Adrenalin; 2. Tyroxin; 3. Insulin; 4. Cortisol; 22 A patient has hyperglycemia if concentration of glucose in blood is… 1. 2,8 mmol/l; 2. 3,6 mmol/l; 3. 4,8 mmol/l; 4. 6,2 mmol/l; 23 A patient has hypoglycemia if concentration of glucose in blood is… 1. 2,8 mmol/l; 2. 3,6 mmol/l; 3. 4,8 mmol/l; 4. 6,2 mmol/l; 24 Normal range of glucose concentration in blood in adults is… 1. 2,2-4,4 mmol/l; 2. 3,3-5,5 mmol/l; 3. 4,4-6,6 mmol/l; 4. 5,5-7,5 mmol/l; 25 “Physiologic” hypoglycemia can be found in healthy persons in case… 1. Starvation; 2. Long-term hard physical activity; 3. Emotional stress; 4. After dinner; 26 “Pathologic” hypoglycemia can be found in patients in case… 1. Overdosage of insulin; 2. Diabetes mellitus; 3. Pheochromocytoma; 4. Bronze disease; 27 “Physiologic” hyperglycemia can be found in healthy persons in case… 1. Overconsumption of food carbohydrates; 2. Long-term hard physical activity; 3. Emotional stress; 4. Starvation; 28 “Pathologic” hyperglycemia can be found in patients in case… 1. Overdosage of insulin; 2. Diabetes mellitus; 3. Pheochromocytoma; 4. Bronze disease; 29 Galactosemia is a hereditary disease which is caused by mutations in genes coding… 1. Galactokinase; 2. Galactoso-1-phosphate-urydiltransferase; 3. Hexokinase; 4. Epimerase; 30 Fructose intolerance may be a result of mutations in genes coding… 1. Fructokinase; 2. Aldolase; 3. Fructose-1-phosphate aldolase; 4. Hexokinase; Lipids 1 The example of saturated fatty acids is: 1. Arachidonic; 2. Linoleic; 3. Palmitic; 4. Palmitoleic. 2 The example of polyunsaturated fatty acids is: 1. Stearic; 2. Linoleic; 3. Palmitic; 4. Palmitoleic; 3 The examples of monounsaturated fatty acids are: 1. Oleic; 2. Stearic; 3. Linoleic; 4. Palmitic; 4 Eicosanoids are products of metabolism of the fatty acid… 1. Palmitoleic; 2. Oleic; 3. Arachidonic; 4. Palmitic; 5 Main function of triacylglycerols is: 1. Structural components of cell membranes; 2. Energetical; 3. Products of their hydrolysis are second messengers. 4. Storage. 6 Cholesterol plays several physiological functions except: 1. A precursor for steroid hormones; 2. A source of energy during starvation; 3. Can be found in the structure of cell membranes; 4. A precursor for bile acids. 7 Main function of eicosanoids is… 1. Energy source; 2. Regulative molecules of paracrine system; 3. Membrane components; 4. Structural components of complex lipids; 8 Fatty acids may perform a lot of functions excluding: 1. Structural components of cell membranes; 2. Structural components of complex lipids; 3. Plasticity (synthetic); 4. Energy production. 9 Main function of glycosphingolipids is: 1. Body heat loss prevention; 2. Components of cellular membranes; 3. Sources of energy for cells. 4. Storage. 10 Main function of glycerophospholipids is: 1. Body heat loss prevention; 2. Storage. 3. Sources of energy for cells. 4. Components of cellular membranes; 11 What is true as a description of chylomicrons: 1. They have the largest diameter among all lipoproteids. 2. Main apoprotein is apoB100; 3. Main lipid constituent is cholesterol; 4. The lack of a part of triacylglycerols is a result of hepatic triacyglycerollipase activity. 12 Transport of exogenous lipids from intestine to tissues is provided by… 1. VLDL; 2. HDLP; 3. Chylomicrons; 4. LDL; 13 Ketone bodies can be synthesized in… 1. Adipocytes; 2. Neurons; 3. Hepatocytes; 4. Smooth muscle cells. 14 Normal serum concentration range of ketone bodies is… 1. 5-15 mg/l; 2. 0-30 mg/l; 3. 15-60 mg/l; 4. 1-3 mg/l 15 Normal serum concentration range of cholesterol is… 1. 2.0-4.0 mmol/l; 2. 3.0-6.5 mmol/l; 3. 3.5-5.2 mmol/l; 4. 2.5-4.2 mmol/l 16 Normal serum concentration range of free fatty acids is… 1. 0,28-0,48 mmol/l; 2. 0,38-0,58 mmol/l; 3. 0,48-0,68 mmol/l; 4. 0,68-0,88 mmol/l; 17 Normal serum concentration range of total lipids is… 1. 1-2 g/l; 2. 3-5 g/l; 3. 4-8 g/l; 4. 6-10 g/l; 18 The source of carbon atoms for fatty acids synthesis is… 1. Succinyl-CoA; 2. Acyl-CoA; 3. Acetyl-CoA; 4. Methylmalonyl-CoA 19 The main product of β-oxidation for saturated fatty acids is… 1. Malonyl-CoA; 2. HS-CoA; 3. Acetyl-CoA; 4. Succinyl-CoA. 20 Acyl groups are transported across mitochondrial membrane in complex with: 1. Carnitine; 2. Carnosine; 3. Creatine; 4. Ceramide. 21 Calculate the energetical effect of β-oxidation of stearic acid (C18). 1. 108; 2. 116; 3. 120; 4. 132. 22 Beta oxidation of fatty acids is located in … 1. nucleus; 2. cytoplasm. 3. lysosomes; 4. mitochondrial matrix; 23 Lipolysis in adipose tissue is stimulated by all hormones except… 1. Glucagon; 2. Insulin; 3. Cortisol; 4. Adrenalin. 24 Lipogenesis in adipose tissue is stimulated by… 1. Insulin; 2. Glucagon; 3. Cortisol; 4. Adrenalin. 25 Calculate the atherogenicity coefficient and make a conclusion if it is a high risk of atherosclerosis development for each patient (the answer should be given in the form +-+): patient 1: total cholesterol 5.6 mmol/l, HDL cholesterol 1.1 mmol/l; patient 2: total cholesterol 5.4 mmol/l, VLDL+LDL cholesterol 3.2 mmol/l; patient 3: HDL cholesterol 1.6 mmol/l, total cholesterol 5.7 mmol/l; 26 Calculate the atherogenicity coefficient and make a conclusion if it is a high risk of atherosclerosis development for each patient (the answer should be given in the form +-+): patient 1: total cholesterol 4.6 mmol/l, HDL cholesterol 1.5 mmol/l; patient 2: HDL cholesterol 2.5 mmol/l, total cholesterol 12.5 mmol/l; patient 3: total cholesterol 5.4 mmol/l, VLDL+LDL cholesterol 4.4 mmol/l; 27 Calculate the atherogenicity coefficient and make a conclusion if it is a high risk of atherosclerosis development for each patient (the answer should be given in the form +-+): patient 1: VLDL+LDL cholesterol 6 mmol/l, HDL cholesterol 1.5 mmol/l; patient 2: total cholesterol 5.2 mmol/l, VLDL+LDL cholesterol 3.2 mmol/l; patient 3: HDL cholesterol 1 mmol/l, total cholesterol 5 mmol/l; 28 Calculate the atherogenicity coefficient and make a conclusion if it is a high risk of atherosclerosis development for each patient (the answer should be given in the form +-+): patient 1: total cholesterol 7.5 mmol/l, HDL cholesterol 1.5 mmol/l; patient 2: total cholesterol 6 mmol/l, VLDL+LDL cholesterol 4.5 mmol/l; patient 3: HDL cholesterol 2 mmol/l, VLDL+LDL cholesterol 6 mmol/l; 29 Calculate the atherogenicity coefficient and make a conclusion if it is a high risk of atherosclerosis development for each patient (the answer should be given in the form +-+): patient 1: total cholesterol 6 mmol/l, HDL cholesterol 1.5 mmol/l; patient 2: total cholesterol 4 mmol/l, VLDL+LDL cholesterol 2 mmol/l; patient 3: HDL cholesterol 1 mmol/l, total cholesterol 7 mmol/l; 30 Calculate the atherogenicity coefficient and make a conclusion if it is a high risk of atherosclerosis development for each patient (the answer should be given in the form +-+): patient 1: total cholesterol 4.5 mmol/l, HDL cholesterol 1.5 mmol/l; patient 2: total cholesterol 5.5 mmol/l, VLDL+LDL cholesterol 4.5 mmol/l; patient 3: HDL cholesterol 1 mmol/l, VLDL+LDL cholesterol 6 mmol/l; Proteins and aminoacids exchange 1 Choose a pair of aminoacids which include TWO essential aminoacids: 1. Ala, Gly; 2. Phe, Met; 3. Trp, Cys; 4. Phe, Tyr; 2 Choose a pair of aminoacids which include TWO essential aminoacids: 1. Lys, Ile; 2. His, Val; 3. Arg, Asn; 4. Glu, Thr 3 Choose a pair of aminoacids which include TWO essential aminoacids: 1. Ser, Cys; 2. Gly, Val; 3. Ile, Asn; 4. Thr, Trp; 4 Nitrogen equilibrium may be observed in… 1. Healthy adults (65-85 years old); 2. Healthy adults (25-35 years old); 3. Healthy children (1-3 years old); 4. Starvation state (5 days without food proteins); 5 Negative nitrogen balance may be observed in… 1. Healthy children (1-3 years old); 2. Healthy adults (25-35 years old); 3. Healthy adults (65-85 years old); 4. Starvation state (one day without food proteins); 6 Positive nitrogen balance may be observed in… 1. Healthy adults (25-35 years old); 2. Healthy children (1-3 years old); 3. Healthy adults (65-85 years old); 4. Starvation state (5 days without food proteins); 7 Chymotrypsinogen is activated by… 1) Enterokinase; 2) CO2; 3) HCl; 4) Trypsin; 5) Pepsin; 6) H2O; 8 Choose metabolic pathways in which aminoacids can be used in our body: 1) Glycolysis; 2) Gluconeogenesis; 3) Protein synthesis; 4) Oxydative breakdown; 9 Transamination is a process of … 1) Oxydative breakdown of aminoacid; 2) Transfer of amino group from amino acid to carboxylic acid; 3) Transfer of amino group from amino acid to ketoacid; 4) Removal of amino group from amino acid in the form of ammonia; 10 Transdeamination includes two reactions: 3. 1. Transamination with oxaloacetate AND Oxidative deamination of Asp. Tra nsa mi nati on wit h α- ket ogl uta rate AN D Oxi dati ve dea mi nati on of Gln. 4. Tra nsa mi nati on wit h α- ket ogl uta rate AN D Act ion of L- ami noa cid s oxi 11 Enzymes which catalyze transdeamination reactions have cofactors in their active site: 1. HS-CoA and FMN; 2. FAD and NAD+; 3. Pyridoxalphosphate and NAD+; 4. FMN and Thiamine pyrophosphate; 5. Tetrahydrofolate and NADP+; 12 Decarboxylation of aminoacids and their metabolites needs cofactor of decarboxylases: 1. NAD+; 2. FMN; 3. Ascorbate; 4. Thiamine pyrophosphate; 5. Pyridoxalphosphate; 13 Choose vitamin(s) whose cofactor form(s) is(are) used in transamination reaction: 1) B1; 2) B2; 3) B6; 4) B9; 5) B12; 14 Aminoacid pool include … of free aminoacids. What value we should substitute instead dots? 1) 5 grams; 2) 15 grams; 3) 30 grams; 4) 50 grams; 5) 100 grams; 15 Choose metabolic pathway in which aminoacids can not be used: 1) Glycolysis; 2) Gluconeogenesis; 3) Protein synthesis; 4) Oxydative breakdown; 16 Choose urea cycle reaction which is catalyzed by mitochondrial enzyme: 1. In this reaction arginine hydrolysis occur; 2. Ammonia is a substrate in this reaction; 3. Asp and ATP are used as substrates in this reaction; 4. In this reaction Crebs cycle intermediate is synthesized; 17 Choose the substance which is regenerated in each round of transdeamination reactions: 1. Oxaloacetate; 2. Glutamate; 3. Glutamine; 4. α-ketoglutarate; 5. Iminoglutarate; 18 Methylation (transmethylation) reactions are used for: 1. Gluconeogenesis; 2. Urea synthesis; 3. Adrenalin synthesis; 4. Norepinephrine synthesis; 19 Deficiency of folic acid and cobalamine may cause: 1. Anemia; 2. Renal disfunction; 3. Vision disfunction; 4. Liver disfunction; 20 Ammonia is toxic due to… 1. Decrease of α-ketoglutarate concentration in mitochondria. 2. Decrease of pyruvate concentration in mitochondria. 3. Decrease of glutamate concentration in mitochondria. 4. Decrease of ascorbate concentration in mitochondria. 21 Accumulation of arginine in blood is a result of genetic defect of synthesis… 1. Carbamoylphosphate synthase I; 2. Ornithine transcarbamoylase; 3. Arginase; 4. Argininosuccinase; 22 Alkaptonuria is a result of genetic defect in… 1. Dihydrobiopterin reductase; 2. Tyrosine transaminase; 3. Homogentisate oxidase; 4. Phenylalanine hydroxylase; 23 Accumulation of argininosuccinate in blood is a result of genetic defect of synthesis… 1. Carbamoylphosphate synthase I; 2. Ornithine transcarbamoylase; 3. Arginase; 4. Argininosuccinase; 24 Classic variant of phenylketonuria is a result of genetic defect in… 1. Dihydrobiopterin reductase; 2. Tyrosine transaminase; 3. Homogentisate oxidase; 4. Phenylalanine hydroxylase; 25 Genetic disorder (metabolic disease) hyperammoniemia type I is a result of defect in the… 1. Carbamoylphosphate synthase I; 2. Ornithine transcarbamoylase; 3. Arginase; 4. Argininosuccinase; 26 Functions of serotonine include: 1. Vasoconstrictor agent; 2. Inducer of gastric juice secretion; 3. Vasodilatator; 4. Activate glycogen breakdown in the liver 5. Neurotransmitter in sympathetic nervous system; 6. Neurotransmitter in CNS; 27 Biogenic amines are inactivated by… 1. Methylation; 2. Transamination; 3. Oxydative deamination; 4. Decarboxylation; 28 Functions of adrenalin include: 1. Vasoconstrictor agent; 2. Inducer of gastric juice secretion; 3. Vasodilatator; 4. Activate glycogen breakdown in the liver 5. Activate lypolisis in the adipose tissue; 6. Neurotransmitter in CNS; 29 Regeneration of Met from homocystein require: 1. N5-CH3-H4-folate; 2. N5,N10-methylene-H4-folate; 3. Methylcobalamine; 4. Deoxyadenosine cobalamine; 30 Functions of histamine include: 1. Vasoconstrictor agent; 2. Inducer of gastric juice secretion; 3. Vasodilatator; 4. Activate glycogen breakdown in the liver 5. Activate lypolisis in the adipose tissue; 6. Neurotransmitter in CNS; Nucleic acids and nucleotides 1 The bases which can be found in purine nucleotides are: 1. Adenin and thymin; 2. Guanin and cytosin; 3. Adenin and guanin; 4. Thymin and cytosin; 2 The bases which can be found in pyrimidine nucleotides are: 1. Adenin and thymin; 2. Guanin and cytosin; 3. Adenin and guanin; 4. Thymin and cytosin; 3 Monomers in the structure of RNA are: 1. dAMP; 2. dGMP; 3. dCMP; 4. dTMP; 2. AMP; 2. GMP; 3. CMP; 4. UMP; 3. dATP; 2. dGTP; 3. dCTP; 4. dTTP; 4. ATP; 2. GTP; 3. CTP; 4. UTP; 4 Monomers in the structure of DNA are: 1. dAMP; 2. dGMP; 3. dCMP; 4. dTMP; 2. AMP; 2. GMP; 3. CMP; 4. UMP; 3. dATP; 2. dGTP; 3. dCTP; 4. dTTP; 4. ATP; 2. GTP; 3. CTP; 4. UTP; 5 Nucleotides which can be used in the DNA biosynthesis are: 1. dAMP; 2. dGMP; 3. dCMP; 4. dTMP; 2. AMP; 2. GMP; 3. CMP; 4. UMP; 3. dATP; 2. dGTP; 3. dCTP; 4. dTTP; 4. ATP; 2. GTP; 3. CTP; 4. UTP; 6 Nucleotides which can be used in the RNA biosynthesis are: 1. dAMP; 2. dGMP; 3. dCMP; 4. dTMP; 2. AMP; 2. GMP; 3. CMP; 4. UMP; 3. dATP; 2. dGTP; 3. dCTP; 4. dTTP; 4. ATP; 2. GTP; 3. CTP; 4. UTP; 7 The bond between nucleotides in the primary structure of nucleic acid is… 1. Hydrogen bond; 2. Peptide bond; 3. 5’,3’-phosphodiester bond; 4. 3’,5’- phosphodiester bond; 8 The complementary pair of bases in the secondary structure of DNA is… 1. Adenin-Guanin; 2. Adenin-Thymin; 3. Guanin-Thymin; 4. Adenin-Cytosin; 9 The secondary structure of DNA is stabilized by… 1. Peptide bonds; 2. Phosphodiester bonds; 3. Disulfide bonds; 4. Hydrogen bonds; 10 Indicate the sequence of DNA folding events which reflect the order of their appearance: 1. Nucleosomes→Chromosomes→30-nm fibrills→Loops; 2. 30-nm fibrills→Nucleosomes→ Loops→Chromosomes; 3. Loops→Nucleosomes→Chromosomes→30-nm fibrills; 4. Nucleosomes→30-nm fibrills→Loops→Chromosomes; 11 Choose an expression which is WRONG: 1. All chromosomes except X and Y consist of two molecules of DNA; 2. There are 5 types of histone proteins which can be found in chromosomes; 3. In somatic cells we have 23 pairs of chromosomes; 4. All nuclear DNA molecules consist of two polynucleotide chains; 12 The length of separate DNA molecule is… 1. Several nanometers; 2. Several micrometers; 3. Several centimeters; 4. Several decimeters; 13 The name for enzyme that unwind double helix during replication of DNA is… 1. Topoisomerase; 2. Subunit of DNA-polymerase α with helicase activity; 3. Subunit of DNA-polymerase α with primase activity; 4. Subunit of DNA-polymerase delta with helicase activity; 14 The name for enzyme that prevents supercoils formation during replication of DNA is… 1. Topoisomerase; 2. Subunit of DNA-polymerase α with helicase activity; 3. Subunit of DNA-polymerase α with primase activity; 4. Subunit of DNA-polymerase delta with helicase activity; 15 The name for enzyme that synthesise oligoribonucleotide during replication of DNA is… 1. Topoisomerase; 2. Subunit of DNA-polymerase α with helicase activity; 3. Subunit of DNA-polymerase α with primase activity; 4. Subunit of DNA-polymerase delta with helicase activity; 16 The name for enzyme that doesn’t work during replication of DNA is… 1. Topoisomerase; 2. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase; 3. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase; 4. DNA-ligase; 17 Choose an expression which is WRONG: 1. t-RNA is responsible for aminoacids transport to ribosomes; 2. There are many types of t-RNA in the cytosole; 3. t-RNA are synthesised in the nucleus; 4. Aminoacids are attached to t-RNA in the region of anticodon loop; 18 Choose an expression which is WRONG: 1. The process of protein biosynthesis is located in the cytosole; 2. During translation 24 different aminoacids can be used; 3. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is a place where ribosomes can be found; 4. Ribosomes are particles which consist of two subunits; Regulation of metabolism 1 Choose an expression which is WRONG: 1. Glucagon is a hormone of pancreatic gland; 2. Tyroxin is a hormone of thyreoid gland; 3. Adrenalin is a hormone of medulla of suprarenal glands; 4. Somatotropin is a hormone of hypothalamus; 2 All hormones listed below are synthesised in the cortex of suprarenal glands except… 1. Cortisol; 2. Aldosteron; 3. Calcitriol; 4. Testosteron; 3 All hormones listed below are synthesised in the pancreatic gland except… 1. Somatostatin; 2. Insulin; 3. Somatotropin-releasing hormone; 4. Glucagon; 4 All hormones listed below are synthesised in the pituitary gland except… 1. Somatostatin; 2. Growth hormone; 3. Thyreotropic hormone; 4. ACTH; 5 All hormones listed below are synthesised in the pituitary gland except… 1. TTH; 2. Oxitocin; 3. Somatotropin; 4. Growth hormone; 6 All hormones listed below are synthesised in the thyreoid gland except… 1. Calcitonin; 2. T3; 3. Tetraiodthyronine; 4. Calcitriol; 7 Choose the true expression: 1. Hormones of peptide nature include glucagon, growth hormone, insulin and thyreotropin; 2. Hormones of protein nature include adrenalin, thyroxine, insulin and somatotropin; 3. Hormones — derivatives of aminoacids — include adrenalin, glucagon; T3 and T4; 4. Steroid hormones include aldosteron, cortisol, calcitriol and testosteron; 8 Choose the true expression: 1. Hormones — derivatives of aminoacids — include adrenalin, melatonin; T3 and T4; 2. Hormones of peptide nature include glucagon, growth hormone, insulin and thyreotropin; 3. Hormones of protein nature include adrenalin, thyroxine, insulin and somatotropin; 4. Steroid hormones include aldosteron, cortisol, calcitonin and testosteron; 9 Choose the true expression: 1. Hormones — derivatives of aminoacids — include aldosteron, melatonin; T3 and T4; 2. Hormones of protein nature include LH, thyreotropin, insulin and somatotropin; 3. Hormones of peptide nature include glucagon, growth hormone, insulin and thyreotropin; 4. Steroid hormones include aldosteron, cortisol, calcitonin and testosteron; 10 Choose the true expression: 1. Hormones — derivatives of aminoacids — include aldosteron, melatonin; T3 and T4; 2. Hormones of protein nature include LH, thyreotropin, adrenalin and somatotropin; 3. Hormones of peptide nature include glucagon, vasopressin, oxitocin and somatostatin; 4. Steroid hormones include aldosteron, cortisol, calcitonin and testosteron; 11 Thyroxine and adrenalin are synthesised from: 1. Threonine; 2. Tyrosine; 3. Tryptophan; 4. Glutamic acid; 12 Steroid hormones are synthesised in all endocrine glands listed below except… 1. Cortex of adrenal glands; 2. Testes; 3. Ovaries; 4. Pituitary gland; 13 All hormones listed below have receptors in the outer cell membrane except… 1. Insulin; 2. Cortisol; 3. Growth hormone; 4. Adrenalin; 14 All hormones listed below have receptors in the outer cell membrane except… 1. Calcitriol; 2. Thyreotropin; 3. Glucagon; 4. Calcitonin; 15 All hormones listed below have receptors inside cell (in cytosole or nucleus) except… 1. Thyroxine; 2. Cortisol; 3. Parathyreoid hormone; 4. Aldosteron; 16 Choose a hormone acting on receptors in nucleus: 1. Adrenalin; 2. Cortisol; 3. Glucagon; 4. Thyroxine; 17 Choose a hormone acting on receptors in cytosole: 1. Growth hormone; 2. Testosteron; 3. Vasopressin; 4. Thyreotropin; 18 Choose a hormone acting on receptors in the outer cell membrane: 1. Retinoic acid; 2. Calcitonin; 3. Calcitriol; 4. Estradiol; 19 How insulin is inactivated? 1. Oxidative deamination and conjugation; 2. Carboxilation and proteolysis; 3. Decarboxilation and methylation; 4. Breakdown of disulfude bonds and proteolysis; 20 How adrenalin is inactivated? 1. Oxidative deamination and methylation; 2. Conjugation and proteolysis; 3. Breakdown of disulfude bonds and decarboxilation; 4. Carboxilation and methylation; 21 How glucagon is inactivated? 1. Oxidative deamination; 2. Conjugation; 3. Proteolysis; 4. Breakdown of disulfude bonds; 5. Decarboxilation; 6. Methylation; 22 Choose a pair of hormones regulating exchange of water and minerals: 1. Calcitriol and calcitonin; 2. Adrenalin and glucagon; 3. Aldosteron and vasopressin; 4. Testosteron and estradiol; 23 Choose a pair of hormones regulating reproductive functions: 1. Calcitriol and calcitonin; 2. Adrenalin and glucagon; 3. Aldosteron and vasopressin; 4. Testosteron and estradiol; 24 Choose a pair of hormones regulating exchange of calcium and phosphates: 1. Calcitriol and calcitonin; 2. Adrenalin and glucagon; 3. Aldosteron and vasopressin; 4. Testosteron and estradiol; 25 All effects listed below are shared by glucagon and cortisol except… 1. Increase of blood level of glucose; 2. Stimulation of gluconeogenesis in the liver; 3. Stimulation of protein breakdown in the extrahepatic tissues; 4. Stimulation of lipogenesis in the adipose tissue; 26 Choose appropriate effects of cortisol: 1. Increase blood level of glucose; 2. Decrease blood level of glucose; 3. Increase glycogen synthesis in the liver; 4. Stimulate gluconeogenesis in the liver; 5. Stimulate lipogenesis in the adipose tissue; 6. Stimulate lipolysis in the adipose tissue; 7. Stimulate protein biosynthesis in all tissues. 8. Stimulates protein biosynthesis in liver; 27 Choose appropriate effects of insulin action on cells: 1. Stimulate lipogenesis in the adipose tissue; 2. Stimulate lipolysis in the adipose tissue; 3. Stimulate glycogenolysis in muscles; 4. Stimulate protein biosynthesis in tissues. 5. Increase blood level of glucose; 6. Decrease blood level of glucose; 7. Decrease gluconeogenesis in the liver; 8. Stimulate gluconeogenesis in the liver. 28 Choose appropriate effects of adrenalin: 1. Decrease blood level of glucose; 2. Increase blood level of glucose; 3. Increase glycogen breakdown in the liver; 4. Decrease glycogen breakdown in the liver; 5. Stimulate lipogenesis in the adipose tissue; 6. Stimulate lipolysis in the adipose tissue; 7. Stimulate glycogenolysis in muscles; 8. Stimulate protein biosynthesis in tissues. 29 Choose appropriate effects of glucagon: 1. Increase blood level of glucose; 2. Decrease blood level of glucose; 3. Increase glycogen breakdown in muscles; 4. Stimulate gluconeogenesis in the liver; 5. Increase glycogen breakdown in the liver; 6. Decrease glycogen breakdown in the liver; 7. Stimulate lipogenesis in the adipose tissue; 8. Stimulate lipolysis in the adipose tissue; 30 Choose appropriate effects of insulin action on cells: 1. Increase blood level of glucose; 2. Decrease blood level of glucose; 3. Increase glycogen synthesis in the liver; 4. Decrease glycogen synthesis in the liver; 5. Increase glycogen breakdown in the liver; 6. Decrease glycogen breakdown in the liver; 7. Stimulate lipogenesis in the adipose tissue; 8. Stimulate lipolysis in the adipose tissue; Biochemistry of blood, liver, kidney, and connective tissue 1 All metabolic pathways listed below do not work in erythrocytes except: 1. Pentose pathway; 2. Aerobic oxidation of glucose; 3. Oxidative phosphorylation; 4. Protein biosynthesis on ribosomes; 5. DNA replication 2 Choose substance which decreases Hb affinity to oxygen: 1. 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate; 2. 2,3- bisphosphoglycerate; 3. glycerol-3-phosphate; 4. glucose 3 Choose a variant of Hb which can not transport oxygen in blood: 1. OxyHb; 2. MetHb; 3. HbF; 4. CarboxyHb 4 ATP in red blood cells is used mainly… 1. For protein biosynthesis; 2. For active transport; 3. For glycogen synthesis; 4. For gluconeogenesis; 5 Increase of affinity and rate of O2 binding to Hb is a result of… 1. Positive cooperative effect; 2. Negative cooperative effect; 3. Allosteric inhibition; 4. Binding of Hb with protons; 6 Choose a pathologic variant of Hb appearing due to mutations in gene coding β-chain of Hb: 1. MetHb; 2. HbS; 3. CarbHb; 4. HbF; 7 If total protein concentration in patient’s plasma is 78 g/l, it means… 1. Normal value; 2. Hypoproteinemia; 3. Hyperproteinemia. 8 If total protein concentration in patient’s plasma is 92 g/l, it means… 1. Normal value; 2. Hypoproteinemia; 3. Hyperproteinemia. 9 If total protein concentration in patient’s plasma is 54 g/l, it means… 1. Normal value; 2. Hypoproteinemia; 3. Hyperproteinemia. 10 Hyperazotemia with an urea nitrogen percentage less than 30% refers to… 1. Relative azotemia; 2. Absolute productive azotemia; 3. Absolute retention azotemia; 11 Hyperazotemia with an urea nitrogen percentage more than 80% refers to… 1. Relative azotemia; 2. Absolute productive azotemia; 3. Absolute retention azotemia; 12 Hyperazotemia is an organism condition when total nitrogen of low-molecular weight compounds in blood is more than… 1. 0,4 mmol/l; 2. 4 mmol/l; 3. 14 mmol/l; 4. 28 mmol/l; 13 Glucokinase in hepatocytes has kinetic properties: 1. High value of Km; is inhibited by reaction product; 2. Low value of Km; is inhibited by reaction product; 3. High value of Km; is not inhibited by glucose-6-phosphate; 4. Low value of Km; is not inhibited by glucose-6-phosphate; 14 Direct bilirubin CAN NOT be found in urine of patients with… 1. Hemolytical jaundice; 2. Parenchymal jaundice; 3. Obstructive jaundice; 15 All of compounds listed below are stored (can be accumulated) in liver tissue except: 1. VitB12; 2. Vit A; 3. Copper ions; 4. Glucose; 16 Choose a pair of lipoproteids which are produced by hepatocytes: 1. Chylomicrons and VLDL; 2. VLDL and HDL; 3. LDL and HDL; 4. VLDL and LDL; 17 Blood proteins which are not synthesised by hepatocytes are: 1. Albumins; 2. α-globulins; 3. β-globulins; 4. γ-globulins 18 The most common variant of bilirubin detoxication in the liver is … 1. Methylation; 2. Acetylation; 3. Glucuronidation; 4. Oxidation; 19 Kidney is the main organ producing… 1. Erythropoetin; 2. Insulin-like growth factors; 3. Albumin; 4. Somatostatin 20 All substances listed below are abnormal components of urine (in adults) excluding… 1. Glucose; 2. Protein; 3. Creatine; 4. Aminoacids; 5. Blood 21 Normal urine (in adults) contains in detectible amounts all compounds listed below except… 1. Uric acid; 2. Ammonia; 3. Creatinin; 4. Protein; 5. Urea; 22 Heteropolysaccharides turnover rate can be measured by determination of … in urine: 1. Uronic acids; 2. Aminoacids; 3. Glucose; 4. OH-proline 23 Collagen turnover rate can be measured by determination of … in urine: 1. Desmosin; 2. Galactose; 3. OH-proline; 4. Calcium; 5. Lysine 24 Selective proteinuria means that… 1. Patient’s urine contains albumins and globulins; 2. Patient’s urine contains only albumins; 3. Patient’s urine contains only globulins; 4. Patient’s urine contains paraproteins; 25 Which expressions are true? 1. Cells in connective tissue have larger volume in comparison with extracellular matrix. 2. Extracellular matrix in connective tissue have larger volume in comparison with cells. 3. Main proteins in the connective tissue are globular proteins. 4. Main proteins in the connective tissue are fibrous proteins. 26 Choose expressions which are TRUE: 1. Fibronectin is a polydomain protein; 2. Main function of tissue fibronectin is integrative; 3. Fibronectin consists of 2 heavy and 2 light polypeptide chains; 4. Fibronectin is a globular protein responsible for elasticity of tissues; 27 Choose expressions which are TRUE: 1. Collagen after its degradation produces desmosin; 2. Unusual aminoacids — OH-Pro and OH-Lys can be found in collagen; 3. Gly content in collagen is approximately 10%; 4. Collagen synthesis require ascorbic acid; 28 Choose expressions which are TRUE: 1. Collagen is glycoproteid; 2. Collagen after its degradation produces desmosin; 3. Gly content in collagen is approximately 33%; 4. Collagen synthesis is abnormal in scurvey; 29 Choose expressions which are TRUE: 1. Elastin molecules consist of three polypeptide chains; 2. Gly content in elastin is approximately 33%; 3. Elastin after its degradation produces desmosin; 4. Elastin is a protein which is responsible for elasticity of tissues; 30 Indicate polysaccharides which can be found in extracellular matrix of humans: 1. Chondroitinsulphates; 2. Dermatansulphates; 3. Glycogen; 4. Keratansulphates; 5. Geparansulphates 6. Cellulose;