EXAMS QUESTION COMMUNITY PDF

1) Which of the following health interventions is not typical of primary prevention? a) Food hygiene b) Preventive immunization c) Chemoprophylaxis d) Community screening 2) The level of health of a community depends on the following main determinants: a) Health care, disease prevention and rehabilitation b) Socioeconomic conditions, environment and education c) Living habits, environment, genetics and healthcare d) Intersectoral coordination, health care and socioeconomic development 3) Point out the correct statement: a) Preventive medicine aimed at the masses is equivalent to promotion b) Health protection is aimed at individuals c) Specific prevention focuses on the general population d) All are correct 4) Frite Index: SS indicates: a) It is a population with low life expectancy b) We can deduce that it is a regressive type population with a high state of health c) Bulb-type pyramid with high juvenile and senile dependency d) They are all true 5) According to the current legal concept, a live birth is considered: a) The child who is born alive b) The child who dies 5 hours after birth c) The child who dies 3 hours after birth d) None of them 6) Indicate the incorrect answer about censuses: a) It is the responsibility of the municipality b) The variables collected are personal data and data about the buildings c) Collection is individualized d) The next one will be done in 2021 7) Indicate the correct answer: a) The crude birth rate is a good indicator because it allows us to make comparisons between countries with similar social structures b) The synthetic fertility index equal to 2 indicates that there are good prospects for the survival of the species in a country c) According to the Swaaron index, the closer it is to 100%, the worse the country's health status is. d) None is correct 8) The best indicator of health status is: a) Maternal mortality b) Life expectancy at birth c) Infant mortality d) Quality-adjusted years 9) Fetal mortality includes: a) From conception to 28 weeks b) From birth to the first year of life c) From birth to the first week d) From conception to birth 10) Friz index 79.94 and Sundbarg A-30.27 and 8-47.71: a) Indicates mature and regressive population respectively b) Indicates young and regressive population respectively c) Indicates Mature and stationary population respectively d) Indicates young and progressive population respectively 11) What situation would you include in the numerator of the maternal mortality formula? a) Women who die from receiving treatment b) A 35-year-old pregnant woman who smokes, stops her treatment due to non-compliance and dies c) Pregnant woman who has an accident d) None of the cases 12) According to the following infant mortality rates for 2010, indicate the correct statement: A 176, B 149, C 52, D 3 a) Country C has a higher level of health and culture than A b) Spain would be similar to the value presented by D c) We cannot know the level of development d) The denominator of the formula is the total number of children born alive in that year 13) What indicator gives me the average number of children per woman at the end of her fertile life: a) General fertility rate b) Synthetic fertility index c) Synthetic reproduction index d) Gross reproduction rate 14) Who are the most receptive to health education: a) Healthy people b) The entire population c) People with acute illnesses d) Workers exposed to occupational risks 15) The indirect method of health education: a) It is more eﬀective than direct ones b) They are very eﬃcient c) It is used to transmit complex messages d) Its use is not recommended at the beginning of programs 16) What health education technique cannot we use to transmit complex messages: a) Lectures b) Counseling c) The indirect method d) They are all true 17) The first international health promotion conference took place in: a) Adelaide b) Alma-Ata c) Ottawa d) Bankok 18) The health education program with the best cost-eﬀectiveness is: a) Health education in the community b) Health education at work c) Health education at school d) Health education for patients with acute illnesses 19) Counseling or medical advice: a) Requires new skills b) It is unidirectional c) Does not change ingrained negative attitudes d) It should not last more than 30 minutes 20) With whom will we use persuasive communication?: a) Healthy children b) Sick adults c) Healthy adults d) Sick elderly 21) Why was the health promotion movement born? a) Faced with a situation of social inequalities in global health b) To reform primary care with emphasis on health education c) Seek strategies such as citizen participation to improve health d) They are all true 22) Identify the correct statement: a) In the free market model, health is a good protected by the state with basic regulation b) The general health law establishes 3 levels of care that coincide with the levels of prevention: primary, secondary and tertiary c) In the Spanish health system, health services are under the responsibility of the autonomous communities. d) To achieve maximum operability and eﬀectiveness of health services, the basic health zones will be divided into health areas. 23) Which health system has greater equity and cost control: a) Any health system b) National health system c) Free market model d) Social insurance model 24) The moderator ticket: a) It is completely free b) Avoid over saturation c) It is a type of improvement to be attended directly d) None are true 25) The health system in France corresponds to the model: a) Beveridge b) Bismarck c) Fielderwich d) Free market 26) In a population classified as progressive, where the average age is above 50 years, the senile dependency rate: a) It should be high b) It is probably low c) It is greater than what a regressive population would have d) A and C are correct 27) According to the United States health model: a) Universality is a basic principle in this model b) It has great advances in research and technology c) It has frequent accessibility problems d) Health is a good protected by the government 28) Specialized health care: a) It is only oﬀered in hospitals. b) Oﬀers total coverage c) The most common and mild pathologies of the disease are treated. d) It is the lowest cost level of health care 30) The aging of the population in Spain produces (incorrect): a) Impact on economic growth b) Increase in the cost of pensions c) Increase in health spending d) All are correct 31) In the phases of health education: a) Needs continuous evaluation in all phases b) It is not necessary to evaluate before carrying out the educational campaign c) Provide audio-visual support whenever possible d) They are all true 32) Instruments that increase population participation in order to improve their health (incorrect) a) Self-care b) Self-medication c) Mutual support groups d) Evaluation of health status 33) Point out the incorrect statement a) Reducing social inequalities improves health and reduces premature death b) The health promotion movement was an urgent action promoted by the workers c) The single objective for all in the year 2000 was not achieved d) The European health promotion agency was one of the consequences of development of the health 34) Positive externality means: a) It is an indirect benefit received by a population group that is not directly protected b) Give priority to the most serious operations and illnesses c) It is a concept that aﬀects people who are insured d) It is a type of improvement that means that they do not receive treatments completely free 34) Points out the Principle of a perfect health system that was not guaranteed before 2011 in Spain: a) Universality b) Financing through taxes c) Cost control d) Integrated system 35) Country with low birth rate, low mortality rate and high life expectancy a) United States b) Afghanistan c) Spain d) Morocco 40) According to the following table of crude mortality rates for the year 2010, select the correct answer: Country1: 17.49 / Country 2: 15.72 / Country 3: 9 / Country 4: 8.5 a) Country 3 has a higher infant mortality rate than country 4 b) Spain would resemble the value given by country 2 c) Country 3 and 4 have similar demographic structures d) Crude mortality rates cannot be compared directly between countries without knowing their demographic structures ———————————————————1) Gas gangrene is a disease that causes: - Titular necrosis, due exclusively to the growth of Clostridium perfringens. - Titular necrosis, due exclusively to the growth of Clostridium botulinum - Titular necrosis, due to the neurotic toxin of Clostridium botulinum - Titular necrosis, due to the growth of Clostridium perfringens and the action of its neurotic toxin 2) The most serious burn infections are: - Those produced by Staphylococcus Aureus - Those produced by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, since they can lead to disseminated tuberculosis - Those produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa, due to its great resistance to antibiotics. - Those produced by Clostridium, since they can pass into the blood and cause anthrax. 3) Herpes zoster is a disease: - With skin manifestation in the form of ulcers - Very serious and fatal in most cases - Requiring a long antibiotic treatment - Result of the reactivation of the chickenpox virus 4) The diseases known as ringworm are caused by: - Dermatophyte fungi - Bacteria from the skin's normal biota - Candida albians - Fungi that are capable of metabolizing chitin 5) The causative agent of tetanus: - It penetrates through skin wounds and secretes a neurotoxin that produces muscle rigidity. - It penetrates through the ingestion of contaminated food and secretes an enterotoxin that produces muscle rigidity. - It penetrates through the skin and secretes a neurotoxin that produces flaccid paralysis. - It is a microorganism incapable of producing spores 6) Fever is a disease that can appear: - How to complicate gonorrhea - As a consequence of staphylococcal pharyngitis - As a sequel to pharyngitis caused by Streptococcus pyogenes - As a sequel to pharyngitis caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae 7) Indicate the correct answer about osteomyelitis: - Osteomyelitis is always of endogenous origin and is caused by bacilli. - Osteomyelitis is only caused as surgical complications - Osteomyelitis is a disease of autoimmune origin - Osteomyelitis can have an endogenous origin through the blood, or surgical origin. 8) The so-called "molluscum contagiosum" has as its causal agent: - A yeast - A filamentous fungus - A bacteria - A virus 9) Inactivated virus vaccines are used: - Viruses that have lost their invective capacity due to the action of heat or products - Pathogenic viruses adapted to grow on non-human cells - Viral capsid proteins - Virus envelope glycoproteins 10) Of the diseases indicated below, indicate which one you believe is not mandatory in Spain: a) Legionellosis b) Poliomyelitis c) Common gastroenteritis d) Rubella 11) Infectious diseases: a) They are always contagious b) Some are contagious c) They are never contagious d) They are always produced by bacteria 12) The measles virus: a) It only produces skin manifestations b) It is a localized disease of the skin of the trunk c) It can produce cathedral manifestations and skin rashes d) It can manifest itself several times in a person during his or her life. 13) The pathogenic mechanisms of gastroenteric diseases: a) They are always enterotoxigenic b) They are always invasive c) They can be enterotoxigenic and/or invasive d) They are neurotic 14) Escherichia coli: a) It has strains that always cause diseases b) Its strains are not pathogenic c) It has pathogenic and non-pathogenic strains d) Its strains are all enterotoxigenic 15) Apart from sexual transmission, by which of the following ways can HIV be transmitted? a) By fomites b) Through parental channels c) By respiratory route d) By fecal-oral route 16) Cholera is a disease that is acquired a) By absorption of the causal agent present in respiratory secretions b) Due to the passage of the causal agent through the placenta c) Due to the entry of the causal agent into the bloodstream after the bite. d) Due to the ingestion of the causal agent present in contaminated water. 17) Cholera toxin can be classified within the group of: a) Neurotoxins b) Endotoxins c) Enterotoxins d) Cytotoxins 18) Nonbacterial gastroenteritis: a) It is produced by yeast b) Produces bronchopulmonary clinical symptoms c) It is caused by viruses, and presents mild gastrointestinal symptoms d) It is caused by viruses, and is always fatal 19) Which of the following diseases is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated water or food? a) Tuberculosis b) Hepatitis A c) Hepatitis B d) Diphtheria 20) The symptoms of scalded skin syndrome, a skin disease, are due to a) The action of an exfoliative toxin produced by Streptococcus pyogenes b) The growth of Streptococcus pyogenes on the epidermis and the consequent lesions c) The destruction of the deep layers of the skin by Streptococcus aureus d) The action of an foliative toxin produced by Streptococcus aureus 21) Typhoid fever is a disease: a) Caused by Shigella gonorrhea and transmitted by ingestion of water or food contaminated b) Caused by Salmonella typhi and some of whose symptoms are constipation and splenomegaly c) Caused by Salmonella typhi and transmitted by the absorption of respiratory secretions d) Caused by Salmonella typhi and transmitted by ingestion of contaminated water or food 22) Oncogenic viruses: a) They always alter the mechanism that regulates cell multiplication b) They always destroy the cell plasma membrane c) They always give rise to metastasis d) They always produce malignant tumors 23) Which of the following statements is true? a) The cortex of the endospores has an identical composition to the bacterial cell wall b) Endorsers are forms of resistance of some bacteria c) Some bacterial endospores are formed by budding d) All bacteria can form endospores in the absence of nutrients 24) Indicate among the structures mentioned below, which ones are considered bacterial virulence factors. a) Plasmids b) 70S ribosomes c) The fimbriae or hairs d) Magnetosomes 25) What type of diseases can fungi cause: a) Intoxication b) Infections c) Hypersensitivity d) a,b and c 26) Elongated bacteria that group together to form chains are called: a) Staphylococcus b) Streptobacilli c) Streptococcus d) Staphylobacilli 27) Fungi that can grow in filamentous form or as yeast, depending on the environment in which they are found, are called: a) Diploid fungi b) Dimorphic fungi c) Yeast fungi d) Symbiotic fungi 28) Filamentous bongos have a cellular structure, which as a whole is called: a) Hyphelius b) Cytoskeleton c) Glycocalyx d) Mycelium 29) The peptidoglycan (murein) layer of the bacterial cell wall: a) It is found in Gram + and Gran - bacteria. b) It is in the microplasms c) It is only in Gram bacteria d) It is only in Gram + bacteria 30) Of the vicious diseases listed below, which would produce a persistent infection: a) Chickenpox b) AIDS c) Polio d) Cold sores 31) The capsomeros are: a) Long molecules composed of multiple copies of the viral genome b) The nucleic acid molecules synthesized by the virus after infection of a cell c) Each of the protein subunits that make up the capsid d) Viruses that have lost their capsid 32) Indicate in which situation listed below would it be easier for a person to acquire a nosocomial infection? a) Extreme age, that is, the elderly or small children b) Healthy people aged 20-30 years without any type of disease c) People undergoing surgery d) a and c 33) The membrane that surrounds enveloped viruses is a) Part of the cell wall that the virion acquires when it leaves the infected cell b) Part of the cell plasma membrane that the virus acquires when leaving the infected cell c) Part of the virus patina d) Part of the peptidoglycan of the virus 34) Strict aerobic microorganisms: a) They grow only in the presence of nitrogen b) They grow only in the presence of carbon dioxide c) They grow only in the presence of oxygen d) They grow in the presence of oxygen, but can tolerate its absence 35) In relation to temperature, what are the microorganisms that cause diseases in humans called? a) Mesophiles b) Thermophiles c) Psychrophiles d) Barophiles 36) Of the sterilizing radiations indicated below, which one is not ionized and could be used, although with precautions, in a physiotherapy room? a) UV rays b) X-rays c) Cathode rays d) Gamma rays 37) Chlorine: a) It is only used as a sterilant b) It is only used as an antiseptic c) It is only used as a disinfectant d) It has the same applications as iodine 38) Chemical products used to eliminate pathogenic microorganisms and that can be used on living tissues are called: a) Bacterioslistaticos b) Sterilizers c) Anticeptics d) Aseptic 39) From the point of view of the level of sanitary disinfection, they are considered critical level equipment. a) Those that penetrate directly into the bloodstream or into sterile tissues b) Those that come into contact with the intact mucosa c) Those that come into contact with intact skin d) Those who come into contact with fomites 40) The process of destruction of both the vegetative and the endorsing forms of all the organisms present in a material is called: a) Disinfection b) Sterilization c) Sanitation d) Degermination 41) What method would be used to sterilize a solid material that is very sensitive to heat? a) Filtration b) Pressure in autoclave c) Ethylene oxide d) Tindalization 42) An autoclave is a device that is used to: a) Disinfection b) Hygiene c) antisepsis d) Sterilization 43) Glutaraldehyde: a) It is only used as a disinfectant b) It is only used as an antiseptic c) It is only used as a sterilant d) It is used as a sterilant or disinfectant depending on its concentration 44) What are the healthy carriers in contagious foci? a) They are individuals who present signs and/or symptoms of illness b) They are infected individuals without signs or symptoms of disease c) They are individuals who are incubating the disease d) They are an individual recovered from the disease or with subclinical symptoms 45) Lysozyme present in saliva, tears... is a defense mechanism: a) External b) Internal c) Acquired d) It is a type of antibody 46) Interferon are: a) Cells of the immune system that destroy cells infected by viruses b) Soluble molecules of the immune system that react specifically with antigens bacterial c) Soluble molecules that are part of the external defense mechanisms d) Molecules of the immune system that prevent the multiplication of viruses in cells infected 47) Pityriasis versicolor: a) It is a bacterial disease that aﬀects the respiratory system b) It is a mycosis that produces hypo or hyperpigmentation c) It is a vicious disease that produces hypo or hyperpigmentation d) It is a subcutaneous mycosis 48) The so-called primary syphilis: a) It is the phase of the disease that aﬀects the respiratory system b) It is manifested by lesions in the genital organs c) It can aﬀect the nervous system d) It only occurs in a female person 50) Legionnaires' disease is a disease: a) Produced by Legionella pneumophila and spread directly from person to person b) Produced by Legionella pneumophila and is not spread directly from person to person. person c) That fundamentally aﬀects the digestive system in older people d) What can be avoided by cooking food 51) Onychomycosis a) They are produced by Staphylocaccus Aureus b) They are produced only by yeasts with candida c) They are produced only by dermatophyte fungi. d) b and c 52) List the infectious disease that can cause septic arthritis a) Measles b) Gonorrhea c) Onymycosis d) Chickenpox 53) Anthrax is: a) A disease whose causal agent (Bacillus anthracis) penetrates through wounds in the skin but aﬀects only the nervous system b) A disease whose causative agent (Clostridium botulinium) destroys muscle fascia c) A skin disease whose causal agent (Bacillus anthracis) penetrates through wounds in the skin. skin, from sick animals d) A disease caused by the ingestion of a toxin secreted by its causative agent (Clostridium botulinum) 54) What type of method would you use to completely eliminate microorganisms from the surgical instrument? a) Sterilization in 2% hydrogen peroxide b) Pressure sterilization in autoclave c) Sterilization with ethanol d) Sterilization with sodium hypochlorite 55) Microorganisms involved in nosocomial infections: a) They are acquired after the person enters the hospital center b) They only aﬀect people undergoing surgery c) It does not usually present great resistance to antibiotic treatment d) It always comes from the patient's normal biota 56) An antimicrobial substance that acts on bacteria and fungi is considered: a) Altered spectrum b) Restricted spectrum c) Broad spectrum d) Selective spectrum 57) Diseases caused by pathogenic microorganisms are due to: a) Exclusively to the action of the toxins produced by them b) Exclusively to the growth of microorganisms on tissues c) To the action of toxins and/or growth, depending on the disease d) Alincrease in body temperature that always occurs 58) The infective dose is called: a) The degree of pathogenicity of a microorganism b) The establishment of microorganisms on a host independent of the humor of microorganisms that are c) The number of microorganisms necessary for the disease to occur d) The ability of microorganisms to produce the disease 59) The transmission of microorganisms from the infected mother to the child through the placenta is called: a) Horizontal transmission b) Postnatal transmission c) Congenital transmission d) Perinatal transmission 60) The host's external mechanical defense mechanisms: a) They are the pH of the stomach b) They are part of the acquired or specific immune system c) They are the barrier of the skin and mucous membranes d) They destroy tumor cells or cells infected by viruses ———————————————————————————————————— 1) Oncogenic viruses: - They always produce malignant tumors - They always destroy the cell plasma membrane - They always give rise to metastasis - They always alter the mechanism that regulates cell multiplication 2) The chemical products used to eliminate pathogenic microorganisms and that can be used on living tissues (skin, mucous membranes, etc.) are called: - Bacteriostatic - Sterilizers - Antiseptics - Aseptic 3) Glutaraldehyde: - Only used as a disinfectant - It is only used as an antiseptic - It is only used as a sterilant - It is used as a sterilant or disinfectant depending on its concentration 4) Indicate in which of the following situations it would be easier for a person to acquire a nosocomial infection: - Extreme age, i.e. elderly and small children - Healthy people 20-30 years old, without any type of disease - People undergoing surgery - a and c 5) Indicate the correct answer about osteomyelitis: - Osteomyelitis is always of endogenous origin and is caused by bacilli. - Osteomyelitis is only caused by surgical complications - Osteomyelitis is a disease of autoimmune origin - Osteomyelitis can have an endogenous origin through the blood or surgical origin. 6) The infective dose is called: - The degree of pathogenicity of a microorganism - The establishment of microorganisms on a host regardless of the number of microorganisms there are - The number of microorganisms necessary for the disease to occur - The ability of microorganisms to cause diseases 7) Of the microorganisms listed below, indicate which one produces diﬀerent types of diseases depending on the route of transmission: - Streptococcus pneumoniae - Bacillus cereus - Staphyllococcus aureus - Clostidium tetanil 8) Diseases caused by pathogenic microorganisms are due to: - Exclusively to the action of the toxins produced by them - Exclusively to the growth of microorganisms on tissues - To the action of toxins and/or growth depending on the disease - The increase in body temperature (fever) that always occurs 9) Indicate what is called zoonosis: - Diseases where the reservoir is a mechanical vector - Infectious diseases of personnel who care for zoo animals - Animal diseases that can be transmitted to humans - Human diseases that can be transmitted to animals 10) Spherical-shaped bacteria that group together to form chains are called: - Staphylococcus - Streptobacilli - Streptococci - Staphylococcus 11) Which of the following diseases is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated food or water? - Tuberculosis - Hepatitis A - Hepatitis B - Diphtheria 12) Gonorrhea (or gonorrhea): - It is a disease that is transmitted through sexual contact - It is a disease that is only transmitted through the fecal-oral route. - It is the result of the action of Staphylococcus aureus - It gives rise to lesions (“chancres”) on the sexual organs, especially in females. 13) Of the diseases indicated below, indicate which one you believe is not notifiable in Spain: - Legionellosis - Poliomyelitis - Common gastroenteritis - Rubella 14) List the infectious disease that can cause septic arthritis: - The measles - The gonorrhea - Onychomycosis - Varicella 15) Of the viral diseases listed below, which would cause a persistent infection: - Chickenpox - AIDS - Polio - Herpes labialis 16) Botulinum toxin can be classified within the group of: - Neurotoxins - Endotoxins - Enterotoxins - Cytotoxins 17) A mesophilic microorganism: - It grows at temperatures above 50°C - Grows at room temperatures - It grows at body temperatures, around 37°C - Grows at temperatures below 5°C 18) The transmission of microorganisms from the infected mother to the child through the placenta is called: - Horizontal transmission - Postnatal transmission - Congenital transmission - Perinatal transmission 19) In a hospital environment, indicate what type of microorganisms need to be more careful when applying a method to control the transmission of infectious diseases: - Of bacterial vegetative forms - Of fungal vegetative forms - In any case, the resistance that microorganisms can produce - Of non-enveloped viruses 20) Indicate the correct phrase: - In indirect horizontal transmission of infectious diseases, mechanical vectors only transport the pathogen - Horizontal transmission can be vertical and mechanical - Vertical transmission is transmitted through biological vectors. - In indirect horizontal transmission of infectious diseases, biological vectors only transport the pathogen 21) What type of method would you use to completely eliminate microorganisms from surgical instruments (scalpel, forceps,...)? - Sterilization in 2% hydrogen peroxide - Pressure autoclave sterilization - Ethanol sterilization - Sterilization with sodium hypochlorite 22) The iodine: - It is only used as a sterilant - It is only used as an antiseptic - Only used as a disinfectant - It has the same applications as chlorine 23) What is anthrax? - It is a disease whose causal agent (Bacillus anthracis) penetrates through wounds in the skin, but aﬀects only the nervous system. - It is a disease whose causal agent (Clostridium botulinum) destroys the muscle “fascias”. - It is a skin disease whose causal agent (Bacillus anthracis) penetrates through wounds in the skin from sick animals. - It is a disease caused by the ingestion of a toxin secreted by its causative agent (Clostidium botulinum). 24) What are vaccines? - Antibody preparations that are administered to man and animals in order to provoke the production of antibodies that serve to prevent infectious diseases - Antigenic preparations that are administered to humans and animals in order to provoke the production of antibodies that serve to prevent infectious diseases. - They are sera that contain antibodies against infectious agents. - They are preparations of antibodies and antigens mixed to avoid infectious diseases. 25) From the point of view of the level of disinfection of health instruments, they are considered “critical level equipment” - Those that directly penetrate the bloodstream or sterile tissues - Those that come into contact with intact mucosa - Those that come into contact with intact skin - Those who come into contact with fomites 26) Dermatophyte fungi that cause skin mycoses: - They are keratinophiles - They are chitinophiles - They are necrotic - They are neurotoxic 27) What are so-called systemic diseases? - They are those produced exclusively by bacteria - They are those produced exclusively by viruses - They are those that aﬀect multiple organs or tissues - They are those that are located in a single organ or tissue 28) The causative agent of tetanus (Clostridium tetanii): - It penetrates through skin wounds and secretes a neurotoxin that produces muscle rigidity. - It penetrates through the ingestion of contaminated foods and secretes an enterotoxin that produces muscle rigidity. - It penetrates through skin wounds and secretes a neurotoxin that produces flaccid paralysis. - It is a microorganism incapable of producing spores 29) What is a fomite? - Common inanimate objects found around the patient - Transmission vectors mechanisms such as insects - A pathogenic microorganism that is usually found in sick carriers - Food that patients eat in hospitals 30) What are onychomycosis? - They are bacterial diseases that aﬀect the skin - They are fungal diseases that aﬀect the skin - They are fungal diseases that aﬀect the nails - They are bacterial diseases that aﬀect the nails ANSWEARS: D C C D D C C C C C B A C B D A C C C A B B C B A A C A A C —————— ANGELINA FUCKING QUESTIONS ————————————————————————————————— SECOND PARTIAL 1. Why was the health promotion movement born? a) Faced with a situation of social inequalities in global health b) To reform primary care with emphasis on health education c) Seek strategies such as citizen participation to improve health d) They are all true 2. Identify the correct statement: a) In the free market model, health is a good protected by the state with basic regulation b) The general health law establishes 3 levels of care that coincide with prevention levels: primary, secondary and tertiary c) In the Spanish health system, health services remain under the responsibility of the autonomous communities d) To achieve maximum operability and eﬀectiveness of health services, the areas basic health areas will be divided 3. Which health system has greater equity and cost control: a) Any health system b) National health system c) Free market model d) Social insurance model 4. The moderator ticket: a) It is completely free b) Avoid over saturation c) It is a type of improvement to be attended directly d) None is true 5. The health system in France corresponds to the model: a) Beveridge b) Bismarck c) Fieldewich d) Free market 6. In a population classified as progressive, where the average age is above 50 years, the senile dependency rate: a) It should be high b) It is probably low c) It is greater than what a regressive population would have d) A and C are correct 7. According to the United States health model: a) Universality is a basic principle in this model b) It has great advances in research and technology c) It has frequent accessibility problems d) Health is a good protected by the government 8. Specialized health care: a) It is only oﬀered in hospitals b) Oﬀers total coverage c) The most common and mild pathologies of the... d) It is the lowest cost level of health care 9. Positive externality means: a) It is an indirect benefit received by a population group that is not protected directly b) Give priority to the most serious operations and illnesses c) It is a concept that aﬀects people who are insured d) It is a type of improvement that means that they do not receive treatments completely free 10. Points out the beginning of a perfect health system that was not guaranteed before 2011 in Spain: a) Universality b) Financing through taxes c) Cost control d) Integrated system 11. Gas gangrene is a disease that causes: a) Tissue necrosis, due exclusively to the growth of clostridium perfringens b) Tissue necrosis, due exclusively to the growth of clostridium botulinum c) Tissue necrosis, due to the necrotic toxin of clostridium botulinum d) Tissue necrosis, due to the growth of clostridium perfringens and the action of its necrotic toxin 12. The most serious burn infections are: a) Those produced by Staphylococus Aureus b) Those produced by Myobacterium tuberculosis, since they can lead to disseminated tuberculosis c) Those produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa, due to its great resistance to antibiotics d) Those produced by Clostridium, since they can pass into the blood and produce the carbuncle 13. Shingles is a disease: a) With skin manifestation in the form of ulcers b) Very serious and fatal in most cases c) That requires a long antibiotic treatment d) Result of reactivation of the chickenpox virus 14. The diseases known as ringworm are caused by: a) Dermatophytic fungi b) Bacteria of the normal biota of the skin c) Candida albians d) Fungi that are capable of metabolizing chitin 15. Fever is a disease that can appear: a) As the complication of gonorrhea b) As a sequel to staphylococcal pharyngitis c) As a sequel to pharyngitis caused by Streptococcus pyogenes d) As a sequel to pharyngitis caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae 16. Indicate the correct answer about osteomyelitis: a) Osteomyelitis is always of endogenous origin and is caused by bacilli b) Osteomyelitis is only caused as surgical complications c) Osteomyelitis is a disease of autoimmune origin d) Osteomyelitis can have an endogenous origin through the blood, or surgical origin 17. The so-called “molluscum contagiosum” has as its causal agent: a) A yeast b) A filamentous fungus c) A bacteria d) A virus 18. Inactivated virus vaccines use: a) Viruses that have lost their invective capacity due to the action of heat or products b) Pathogenic viruses adapted to grow on non-human cells c) Viral capsid proteins d) Virus envelope glycoproteins 19. Of the diseases indicated below, indicate which one you believe is not notifiable in Spain: a) Legionellosis b) Poliomyelitis c) Common gastroenteritis d) Rubella 20. Infectious diseases: a) They are always contagious b) Some are contagious c) They are never contagious d) They are always produced by bacteria 21. The measles virus: a) It only produces skin manifestations b) It is a localized disease of the skin of the trunk c) It can produce cathedral manifestations and skin rashes d) It can manifest itself several times in a person during his or her life. 22. The pathogenic mechanisms of gastroenteric diseases: a) Always enteroxigenic b) They are always invasive c) They can be enterotoxigenic d) They are neurotic 23. Escherichia coli: a) It has strains that always cause diseases b) Its strains are not pathogenic c) It has pathogenic and non-pathogenic strains d) Its strains are all enterotoxigenic 24. Apart from sexual transmission, by which of the following ways can HIV be transmitted: a) By fomites b) Through parental channels c) By respiratory route d) By fecal-oral route 25. Cholera is a disease that is acquired: a) By absorption of the causal agent present in respiratory secretions b) Due to the passage of the causal agent through the placenta c) Due to the entry of the causal agent into the bloodstream after the bite d) Due to ingestion of the causal agent present in contaminated water 26. Cholera toxin can be classified within the group of: a) Neurotoxins b) Endotoxins c) Enterotoxins d) Cytotoxins 27. Nonbacterial gastroenteritis: a) It is produced by yeast b) Produces bronchopulmonary clinical symptoms c) It is caused by viruses, and presents mild gastrointestinal symptoms d) It is caused by viruses, and is always fatal 28. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated food or water: a) Tuberculosis b) Hepatitis A c) Hepatitis B d) Diphtheria 29. The symptoms of scald skin syndrome, a skin disease, are due to: a) The action of an exfoliative toxin produced by Streptococcus pyogenes b) The growth of Streptococcus pyogenes on the epidermis and lesions consequent c) The destruction of the deep layers of the skin by Streptococcus Aureus d) The action of an foliative toxin produced by Streptococcus Aureus 30. Typhoid fever is a disease: a) Caused by Shigella gonorrhea and transmitted by ingestion of water or food contaminated b) Caused by salmonella typhi and some of whose symptoms are constipation and splenomegaly c) Caused by Salmonella typhi and transmitted by the absorption of secretions respiratory d) Caused by Salmonella typhi and transmitted by ingestion of water or food contaminated 31. Of the microorganisms mentioned below, indicate which one causes diﬀerent types of diseases depending on the route of transmission: a) Streptococcus pneumoniae b) Bacillus cereus c) Staphyllococcus Aureus d) Clostidium tetanil 32. Gonorrhea (or gonorrhea): a) It is a disease that is transmitted through sexual contact b) It is a disease that is only transmitted through the fecal-oral route c) It is the result of the action of Staphylococcus Aureus d) It gives rise to lesions (“chancres”) in the sexual organs, especially in people of the female sex 33. List the infectious disease that can cause septic arthritis: a) Measles b) Gonorrhea c) Onychomycosis d) Chickenpox 34. Of the viral diseases listed below, which would cause a persistent infection: a) Chickenpox b) AIDS c) Polio d) Cold sores 35. What are vaccines: a) Antibody preparations that are administered to man and animals with the in order to provoke the production of antibodies that serve to prevent infectious diseases b) Antigenic preparations that are administered to the shoulder and animals in order to provoke the production of antibodies that serve to prevent diseases infectious c) They are sera that contain antibodies against infectious agents. d) They are preparations of antibodies and antigens mixed to avoid diseases infectious 36. What are the so-called systemic diseases: a) They are those produced exclusively by bacteria b) They are those produced exclusively by viruses c) They are those that aﬀect multiple organs or tissues d) They are those that are located in a single organ or tissue 37. What are onychomycosis: a) They are bacterial diseases that aﬀect the skin b) They are fungal diseases that aﬀect the skin c) They are fungal diseases that aﬀect the nails d) They are bacterial diseases that aﬀect nail fever 38. Rheumatic fever is a disease that can appear: a) As a compilation of gonorrhea b) As a sequel to staphylococcal pharyngitis c) As a sequel to pharyngitis caused by streptococcus pyogenes d) As a sequel to pharyngitis caused by streptococcus pneumoniae 39. The so-called primary syphilis: a) It is the phase of the disease that aﬀects the respiratory system b) It is manifested by lesions (chancres) on the genital organs c) They can aﬀect the nervous system (neurosyphilis) d) It only occurs in females 40. What is legionellosis? a) It is a disease caused by legionella pneumophila and is spread directly from person to person b) It is a disease caused by Legionella pneumophila and is not contagious. directly from person to person c) It is a disease that fundamentally aﬀects the digestive system in people greater d) It is a disease that can be avoided by cooking food 41. Indicate the correct statement related to tuberculosis: a) Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is not a intracellular pathogen b) Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tumefaciens, which causes tubercles in a lung c) Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is a pathogen intracellular d) Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium leprae, which is a pathogen intracellular 42. How is Vibrio cholerae acquired?: a) By absorption of the causal agent present in respiratory secretions b) Due to the passage of the causal agent through the placenta c) Due to the entry of the causal agent into the bloodstream after an insect bite d) Due to ingestion of the causal agent present in contaminated water 43. In accordance with the new current Spanish health regulations a) The assets pay in full for the medication b) Contribution of assets in the payment of the medication is 40% c) The contribution of retirees in paying for the medication is 0% d) An unemployed employee without any remuneration contributes to the payment of the medication 0% 44. Identify the correct statement: a) In the free market model, the principle of universality follows b) The general health law establishes 3 levels of care that coincide with prevention levels: primary, secondary and tertiary c) In the Spanish health system, health services remain under the responsibility of the autonomous communities d) To achieve maximum operability and eﬀectiveness of health services, the areas Basic health care will be divided into health areas 45. Pityriasis versicolor: a) It is a bacterial disease that causes hyperpigmentation b) It is a mycosis that produces hypo or hyperpigmentation c) It is a viral disease that produces hypo or hyperpigmentation d) It is a subcutaneous mycosis 46. The so-called primary syphilis: a) It is the phase of the disease that aﬀects the respiratory system b) It is manifested by lesions (chancres) on the genital organs c) It can aﬀect the nervous system (neurosyphilis) d) It only occurs in females 47. Onychomycosis: a) They are produced by Staphylococcus aureus b) They are produced only by yeast such as Candida c) They are produced only by dermatophyte fungi d) B+C 48. Anthrax is: a) A disease whose causal agent (Bacillus antracis) penetrates through wounds in the skin, but it aﬀects only the nervous system b) A disease whose causal agent (Clostridium botulinum) destroys the “fascias” muscular c) A skin disease whose causal agent (Bacillus antracis) penetrates through wounds on the skin, from sick animals d) A disease caused by the ingestion of a toxin secreted by its agent causal (Clostridium botulinum) 49. Shingles is a disease: a) With skin manifestation in the form of ulcers b) Very serious and fatal in most cases c) That requires a long treatment with antibiotics d) Results of chickenpox virus reactivation 50. What are immunosera: a) They are sera that contain antibodies against infectious agents b) They are sera that contain antigens against infectious agents c) They are antigenic preparations that are administered to man and animals for the purpose to provoke the production of antibodies that serve to prevent diseases infectious or to cure them d) They are preparations identical to vaccines 51. Indicate what is called innate or nonspecific immunity: a) Those that occur after exposure to an infectious agent, that is specific and measured by antibodies or lymphoid cells b) It is the one possessed at birth c) It is what is acquired after vaccinations d) It is the one acquired after an illness such as the flu 52. Botulinum toxin can be classified within the group of: a) Neurotoxins b) Endotoxins c) Enterotoxins d) Cytotoxins 53. What is used in inactivated virus vaccines: a) Viruses that have lost their infective capacity due to the action of heat or products chemicals b) Pathogenic viruses adapted to grow on non-human cells c) Viral capsid proteins d) Virus envelope glycoproteins 54. Dermatophytic fungi that cause skin mycoses: a) They are keratinophiles b) They are chitinophiles c) They are necrotic d) They are neurotoxic

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