Exam2 Multiple Choice Questions PDF

Memrizz Exam2 Multiple Choice Questions What is meiosis? a) A process of DNA replication. b) A type of cell division reducing chromosome number. c) A kind of mitotic division. d) A form of cellular respiration. Correct answer: A type of cell division reducing chr...

Memrizz Exam2 Multiple Choice Questions What is meiosis? a) A process of DNA replication. b) A type of cell division reducing chromosome number. c) A kind of mitotic division. d) A form of cellular respiration. Correct answer: A type of cell division reducing chromosome number. How many chromosomes are present during prophase I? a) 23 chromosomes. b) 92 chromosomes. c) 69 chromosomes. d) 46 chromosomes. Correct answer: 46 chromosomes. What defines a tetrad? a) Two pairs of homologous chromosomes. b) A group of four closely associated chromatids. c) A single chromosome with two sister chromatids. d) Four separate chromosomes in a cell. Correct answer: A group of four closely associated chromatids. What occurs during metaphase I? a) Chromatids replicate for division. b) Homologous chromosomes segregate to poles. c) Nuclear membrane breaks down. d) Tetrads align along the metaphase plate. Correct answer: Tetrads align along the metaphase plate. How many tetrads are there during anaphase I? a) 46 tetrads. b) 92 tetrads. c) 23 chromosomes. d) 23 tetrads. Correct answer: 23 tetrads. What happens to tetrads during anaphase I? a) Tetrads align randomly. b) Sister chromatids rejoin. c) Tetrads dissolve into single chromosomes. d) Tetrads separate to opposite poles. Correct answer: Tetrads separate to opposite poles. What is the chromatid count at the end of Meiosis I? a) 23 chromatids. b) 92 chromatids. c) 69 chromatids. d) 46 chromatids. Correct answer: 46 chromatids. How many chromatids are arranged in tetrads during metaphase I? a) 92 chromatids. b) 46 chromatids. c) 23 chromatids. d) 69 chromatids. Correct answer: 92 chromatids. What is the total number of chromosomes at the end of Meiosis I? a) 46 chromosomes. b) 23 chromosomes. c) 92 chromosomes. d) 69 chromosomes. Correct answer: 23 chromosomes. What does the term 'homologous chromosomes' refer to? a) Identical sister chromatids. b) Non-paired chromosomes. c) Chromosomes in somatic cells. d) Chromosomes that pair during meiosis. Correct answer: Chromosomes that pair during meiosis. What occurs during the gastrula stage of embryonic development? a) Cells migrate to form the nervous system. b) Cells divide into multiple identical cells. c) Cells begin external fertilization processes. d) Cells undergo invagination to form germ layers. Correct answer: Cells undergo invagination to form germ layers. What are the three embryonic germ layers formed during invagination? a) Ectoderm, Endoskeleton, Mesoderm. b) Endoderm, Epidermis, Mesogloea. c) Endoderm, Mesoderm, Ectoderm. d) Mesoderm, Notochord, Endoderm. Correct answer: Endoderm, Mesoderm, Ectoderm. What is formed as a result of the invagination during gastrulation? a) Blastopore and archenteron. b) Gastric cavity and notochord. c) Zygote and neural tube. d) Cephalus and digestive gland. Correct answer: Blastopore and archenteron. What does the archenteron develop into? a) The nervous system. b) The digestive tract. c) The circulatory system. d) The respiratory system. Correct answer: The digestive tract. In which group does the blastopore become the mouth? a) Deuterostomes. b) Protostomes. c) Porifera. d) Cnidaria. Correct answer: Protostomes. Which group of animals is classified as deuterostomes? a) Echinodermata and Chordata. b) Arthropoda and Mollusca. c) Nematoda and Rotifera. d) Platyhelminthes and Annelida. Correct answer: Echinodermata and Chordata. The mnemonic for remembering deuterostome phyla is what? a) Diverse Animals Create New Patterns Each Time. b) Privileged Children Play Nicely Rapidly And Maturely, Arthur Ensures Cooperation. c) All Animals Prefer Very Regular Systems. d) Consistent Patterns Emerge From Animal Classifications. Correct answer: Privileged Children Play Nicely Rapidly And Maturely, Arthur Ensures Cooperation. Which phyla exhibit more primitive developmental patterns? a) Echinodermata and Chordata. b) Platyhelminthes and Nematoda. c) Annelida and Mollusca. d) Porifera and Cnidaria. Correct answer: Porifera and Cnidaria. Which animal phyla are NOT classified as protostomes or deuterostomes? a) Echinodermata and Chordata. b) Porifera and Cnidaria. c) Platyhelminthes and Arthropoda. d) Nematoda and Mollusca. Correct answer: Porifera and Cnidaria. The only deuterostome animal phyla are which? a) Mollusca and Arthropoda. b) Echinodermata and Chordata. c) Platyhelminthes and Annelida. d) Nematoda and Rotifera. Correct answer: Echinodermata and Chordata. What role does oxygen play in aerobic respiration? a) Combines with carbon dioxide to produce glucose. b) Initiates the Krebs cycle for energy production. c) Forms ATP as a byproduct of respiration. d) Acts as the final electron acceptor. Correct answer: Acts as the final electron acceptor. What is produced from the electron transport chain? a) Water (H2O). b) Carbon dioxide (CO2). c) Glucose (C6H12O6). d) Oxygen (O2). Correct answer: Water (H2O). How is ATP generated during aerobic respiration? a) From the Krebs cycle directly. b) By combining ADP and glucose. c) Through ATP synthase from the electron transport chain. d) Through anaerobic pathways. Correct answer: Through ATP synthase from the electron transport chain. What role do NADH and FADH2 serve in cellular respiration? a) They accept electrons in the Krebs cycle. b) They inhibit the electron transport chain. c) They act as electron donors. d) They produce glucose in glycolysis. Correct answer: They act as electron donors. During which process are NADH and FADH2 generated? a) Only during the electron transport chain. b) During glycolysis and the Krebs cycle. c) Only during pyruvate decarboxylation. d) Exclusively during ATP synthesis. Correct answer: During glycolysis and the Krebs cycle. What is a characteristic of homologous structures? a) Always serve the same function. b) Develop independently without ancestral links. c) Are structurally identical in all species. d) Derived from a common ancestor. Correct answer: Derived from a common ancestor. Which structure is homologous to a bird's wing? a) Butterfly wing. b) Hornet wing. c) Shark fin. d) Human forearm. Correct answer: Human forearm. What are the two main stages of photosynthesis? a) Light-dependent and light-independent reactions b) Thylakoid and chloroplast reactions c) Mitochondrial and cytoplasmic reactions d) Light and dark reactions Correct answer: Light-dependent and light-independent reactions Where do light-dependent reactions occur? a) In the chloroplast stroma b) In the mitochondrial matrix c) In the cytoplasm d) Along the thylakoid membrane Correct answer: Along the thylakoid membrane What process involves the splitting of water during photosynthesis? a) Respiration b) Fertilization c) Photolysis d) Fermentation Correct answer: Photolysis What is produced during photolysis? a) Glucose and carbon dioxide b) NADPH and ATP c) Electrons, hydrogen ions, and oxygen d) Fatty acids and proteins Correct answer: Electrons, hydrogen ions, and oxygen What happens during the Calvin cycle? a) CO2 is converted into glucose b) Glucose is converted into ATP c) Oxygen is consumed d) Water is split into hydrogen ions Correct answer: CO2 is converted into glucose What is the function of the intermembrane space in chloroplasts? a) It produces ATP b) It stores chlorophyll c) It facilitates photolysis d) It serves no function in reactions Correct answer: It serves no function in reactions Where does photolysis take place in the chloroplast? a) Thylakoid lumen b) Intermembrane space c) Chloroplast stroma d) Mitochondrial matrix Correct answer: Thylakoid lumen What occurs in the mitochondrial matrix? a) Krebs cycle and pyruvate decarboxylation b) Light-dependent reactions c) Calvin cycle d) Photolysis Correct answer: Krebs cycle and pyruvate decarboxylation What type of genetic condition is hemophilia? a) Sex-linked condition b) Autosomal recessive condition c) Autosomal dominant condition d) Multifactorial condition Correct answer: Sex-linked condition What genotype does a hemophiliac father possess? a) X^H X^H b) X^h Y c) X^H Y d) XY Correct answer: XY What is the probability that the second son is also a hemophiliac? a) 50% b) 75% c) 25% d) 0% Correct answer: 25% What type of allele designates hemophilia? a) X^H b) Y c) X^j d) X^h Correct answer: X^h What key concept applies to offspring probability in genetics? a) All offspring resemble the firstborn b) Probability increases with each generation c) Past events do not influence future outcomes d) Only dominant traits are passed on Correct answer: Past events do not influence future outcomes What does independence of events in genetics mean? a) All outcomes are equally likely. b) Future probabilities depend solely on previous results. c) Past outcomes do not influence future probabilities. d) Only female offspring affect future outcomes. Correct answer: Past outcomes do not influence future probabilities. What type of trait is hemophilia classified as? a) A dominant autosomal trait. b) A co-dominant trait. c) An X-linked recessive trait. d) A Y-linked dominant trait. Correct answer: An X-linked recessive trait. What allele combination does a carrier mother possess? a) X" and Y alleles. b) XH and Y alleles. c) X" and XH alleles. d) X" and X" alleles. Correct answer: X" and XH alleles. What is the hemophilia allele symbol? a) XH b) X" c) Y d) X^h Correct answer: X" What is the genotype for a hemophiliac father? a) XH XH b) X" XH c) XY d) XX Correct answer: XY What are the offspring genotype combinations from the cross of X"XH and XY? a) X"X", XHX", XHY, XTY b) X"XH, XH, XY, XTY c) XHY, XY, X"Y, X"XH d) XH, X"XY, X"Y, XXH Correct answer: X"X", XHX", XHY, XTY What is the probability of each genotype outcome in this genetic cross? a) 25% probability for each outcome. b) 50% for hemophilia, 50% for normal traits. c) 100% for XHX" and XHY. d) 0% chance for any genotype. Correct answer: 25% probability for each outcome. Which of the following genotypes indicates a male offspring? a) X"X". b) XHX". c) XHY or XTY. d) X"Y. Correct answer: XHY or XTY. What defines homologous structures in biology? a) Have similar functions but different ancestors. b) Evolved independently but serve the same purpose. c) Derived from a common ancestor, may differ in function. d) Are identical in structure and function. Correct answer: Derived from a common ancestor, may differ in function. Which example illustrates homologous structures? a) Wings of birds and wings of butterflies. b) Forearm of a bird and human forearm. c) Fins of fish and legs of mammals. d) Eyes of octopuses and humans. Correct answer: Forearm of a bird and human forearm. What characterizes analogous structures? a) Similar structures and functions from common ancestry. b) Similar functions but not from a common ancestor. c) Different functions from a common ancestry. d) Identical functions from unrelated species. Correct answer: Similar functions but not from a common ancestor. Which structures are considered analogous? a) Forearms of humans and birds. b) Teeth of mammals and reptiles. c) Leaves of plants and stems of cactus. d) Wings of birds and wings of insects. Correct answer: Wings of birds and wings of insects. What is convergent evolution? a) Divergence from a common ancestor. b) Evolution of similar traits in unrelated species. c) Evolution resulting from common ancestry. d) A process leading to major evolutionary changes. Correct answer: Evolution of similar traits in unrelated species. What is a key takeaway regarding homologous structures? a) Are identical in every aspect. b) Always serve the same function. c) Evolve from similar environmental pressures. d) Share a common ancestor but differ in functions. Correct answer: Share a common ancestor but differ in functions. What occurs during light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis? a) Glucose is produced from carbon dioxide. b) Energy from sunlight is captured. c) Oxygen is absorbed and not released. d) Water is broken down into glucose and oxygen. Correct answer: Energy from sunlight is captured. Where do light-independent reactions take place? a) In the thylakoid membranes. b) In the stroma of the chloroplast. c) Within the intermembrane space. d) In the cytoplasm of the cell. Correct answer: In the stroma of the chloroplast. What is the main function of the Calvin Cycle? a) Convert inorganic CO2 into glucose. b) Break down glucose for energy. c) Release oxygen as a byproduct. d) Store energy in the form of ATP. Correct answer: Convert inorganic CO2 into glucose. What role does the intermembrane space serve in photosynthesis? a) Hosts light-dependent reactions. b) Does not play a role in photosynthesis. c) Contains chlorophyll for photosynthesis. d) Facilitates ATP production. Correct answer: Does not play a role in photosynthesis. What are linked genes? a) Genes on different chromosomes assort independently. b) Genes that undergo high mutation rates. c) Genes that can only be inherited via cloning. d) Genes inherited together due to proximity on a chromosome. Correct answer: Genes inherited together due to proximity on a chromosome. How do unlinked genes behave during inheritance? a) They are always inherited together. b) They assort independently of each other. c) They are located on the same chromosome. d) They have high recombination frequencies only. Correct answer: They assort independently of each other. What is a map unit or centimorgan? a) A unit for measuring genetic distance between genes. b) A type of genetic mutation. c) A measure of chromosome size. d) A unit for measuring gene expression levels. Correct answer: A unit for measuring genetic distance between genes. What does 1 centimorgan correspond to in terms of recombination frequency? a) 0.1% recombination frequency. b) 1.5% recombination frequency. c) 1% recombination frequency. d) 10% recombination frequency. Correct answer: 1% recombination frequency. What does a 50% recombination frequency indicate? a) Strongly linked genes. b) Unlinked genes that assort independently. c) Genes with high mutation rates. d) Genes that are identical. Correct answer: Unlinked genes that assort independently. How can recombination frequencies of genes on the same chromosome be calculated? a) They are multiplied by each other. b) They are averaged. c) They can be added together. d) They cannot be calculated. Correct answer: They can be added together. In calculating the distance between genes A and B, what is the result of 14.0 CM and 7.5 CM? a) 21.5 CM. b) 14.0 CM. c) 6.5 CM. d) 7.5 CM. Correct answer: 6.5 CM. What arrangement maintains genes A and C as the furthest apart? a) A, B, C or C, B, A. b) A, C, B. c) B, A, C. d) C, A, B. Correct answer: A, B, C or C, B, A. What happens if genes A, C, and B are arranged as A, C, B? a) The calculation will be incorrect, giving 21.5 CM. b) It's a valid arrangement with correct distance. c) It results in an accurate 6.5% frequency. d) It indicates genes are linked. Correct answer: The calculation will be incorrect, giving 21.5 CM. What does a 21.5% recombination frequency suggest about genes A and B? a) They are closely linked. b) They cannot assort independently. c) They are identical genes. d) A and B must be the furthest apart. Correct answer: A and B must be the furthest apart. How are recombination frequencies calculated on a single chromosome? a) They can be added together. b) They are multiplied together. c) They are averaged. d) They are subtracted from one another. Correct answer: They can be added together. What is the recombination frequency between W and Z in the example provided? a) W/Z = W/X - X/Y + Y/Z. b) W/Z = W/Y + Y/Z. c) W/Z is irrelevant in this context. d) W/Z = W/X + X/Y + Y/Z. Correct answer: W/Z = W/X + X/Y + Y/Z. What is the distance between genes A and B based on the problem calculation? a) 7.5 CM. b) 6.5 CM. c) 14.0 CM. d) 21.5 CM. Correct answer: 6.5 CM. Which arrangement places genes A and C furthest apart? a) A, C, B. b) B, A, C. c) C, A, B. d) A, B, C or C, B, A. Correct answer: A, B, C or C, B, A. In the alternative arrangement of A, C, B, what is the recombination frequency? a) 21.5% recombination frequency. b) 14.0% recombination frequency. c) 7.5% recombination frequency. d) 6.5% recombination frequency. Correct answer: 21.5% recombination frequency. What distinguishes pterophytes in the plant kingdom? a) They reproduce via seeds. b) They reproduce via spores. c) They lack vascular tissues. d) They are non-vascular plants. Correct answer: They reproduce via spores. What type of plant are pterophytes classified as? a) Bryophytes. b) Tracheophytes. c) Gymnosperms. d) Angiosperms. Correct answer: Tracheophytes. Which type of vascular tissue transports water and minerals? a) Xylem. b) Phloem. c) Cortex. d) Meristem. Correct answer: Xylem. What is the primary role of phloem in vascular plants? a) Transporting water. b) Reproducing via spores. c) Providing structural support. d) Transporting nutrients. Correct answer: Transporting nutrients. Why was the development of tracheids significant for pterophytes? a) It limited their growth. b) It introduced seed reproduction. c) It was crucial for their evolution. d) It decreased water transport. Correct answer: It was crucial for their evolution. What structure in vascular plants is essential for water transport? a) Xylem. b) Phloem. c) Cambium. d) Cuticle. Correct answer: Xylem. What is the probability of a male offspring having hemophilia? a) 50% b) 25% c) 75% d) 100% Correct answer: 50% What genotype represents a normal male regarding hemophilia? a) xhy b) XHY c) XhY d) XHh Correct answer: XHY What does 'past events do not influence future outcomes' imply? a) Dependence on previous outcomes b) Independence of probabilistic outcomes c) Determinism in inheritance d) Fixed outcomes in genetics Correct answer: Independence of probabilistic outcomes How far apart are genes A and C located? a) 7.5 CM b) 6.5 CM c) 14.0 CM d) 21.5 CM Correct answer: 14.0 CM Which gene order shows a 21.5% recombination frequency? a) AA, C, B b) D, C, A, B c) C, B, A d) B, A, B, C Correct answer: C, B, A What occurs during prophase I of meiosis? a) Crossing over of homologous chromosomes b) Separation of sister chromatids c) Replication of chromosomes d) Independent assortment of chromosomes Correct answer: Crossing over of homologous chromosomes What characterizes linked genes? a) Far apart and assort independently b) Close together and inherited together c) Independently on different chromosomes d) Involved in different traits Correct answer: Close together and inherited together What is the measurement unit for genetic distance? a) Micrometers b) Base pairs c) Decimorgans d) Centimorgans (CM) Correct answer: Centimorgans (CM) What does a 1 centimorgan distance indicate? a) 10% recombination frequency b) 1% recombination frequency c) 25% recombination frequency d) 50% recombination frequency Correct answer: 1% recombination frequency What is true about unlinked genes? a) They are likely to crossover b) They are located close together c) They cannot recombine at all d) They assort independently Correct answer: They assort independently What are the main components of phloem? a) Xylem and tracheids b) Sieve cells and companion cells c) Microspores and megaspores d) Root hairs and stomata Correct answer: Sieve cells and companion cells What is the primary function of phloem? a) Transport water and minerals b) Transport sugars throughout the plant c) Store nutrients and energy d) Facilitate gas exchange Correct answer: Transport sugars throughout the plant Where is the Casparian Strip located? a) In the cell walls of plant roots b) In leaves c) In the stem d) In flower petals Correct answer: In the cell walls of plant roots What is the role of the Casparian Strip? a) Facilitates photosynthesis b) Anchors the plant to the soil c) Transports sugars to the leaves d) Filters water and solutes before entering xylem Correct answer: Filters water and solutes before entering xylem What materials compose the Casparian Strip? a) Fat and wax b) Cellulose and lignin c) Protein and carbohydrates d) Silica and minerals Correct answer: Fat and wax Which type of sperm in plants is motile? a) Non-flagellated sperm b) Oospheres c) Megaspores d) Flagellated sperm Correct answer: Flagellated sperm What environments do flagellated sperm need for swimming? a) Dry deserts b) High altitudes c) Moist environments d) Underwater conditions Correct answer: Moist environments Which plants typically have flagellated sperm? a) Angiosperms b) Gymnosperms c) Ferns and mosses d) Cacti Correct answer: Ferns and mosses What characterizes non-flagellated sperm? a) Lack motility mechanisms b) Have tails for swimming c) Can move toward a light source d) Depend on wind for fertilization Correct answer: Lack motility mechanisms How do non-flagellated sperm typically reach the ovule? a) Through pollinators or wind b) By floating on water c) Using flagella for movement d) By direct contact Correct answer: Through pollinators or wind What is the style in flowering plants? a) A tube that leads to the ovary b) The protective outer layer of seeds c) The reproductive structure for pollen d) The stem of a flower Correct answer: A tube that leads to the ovary What classification do flowering plants fall under? a) Gymnosperms b) Angiosperms c) Ferns d) Mosses Correct answer: Angiosperms What is the primary composition of xylem? a) Sieve cells and companion cells b) Microspores and megaspores c) Tracheids and vessel elements d) Guard cells and stomata Correct answer: Tracheids and vessel elements What is the main function of xylem? a) Store sugars b) Transport water and minerals c) Facilitate photosynthesis d) Anchor the plant Correct answer: Transport water and minerals Where is pollen produced in flowering plants? a) In the ovary b) In the style c) In the stigma d) In the anther Correct answer: In the anther What develops from microspores in heterosporous plants? a) Female gametophytes b) Male gametophytes c) Zygotes d) Leaf structures Correct answer: Male gametophytes What do megaspores develop into? a) Male gametophytes b) Female gametophytes c) Root systems d) Vascular tissues Correct answer: Female gametophytes What is the stamen in a flower? a) The female sex organ of a flower. b) The male sex organ of a flower. c) The structure that supports petals. d) The base of the flower stem. Correct answer: The male sex organ of a flower. What is produced in the anther of a flower? a) Ovules for seed development. b) Pollen formation from microspores. c) Nectar for attracting pollinators. d) Petals for flower decoration. Correct answer: Pollen formation from microspores. What are the two cells formed from microspores in pollen? a) Ovary cell and stigma cell. b) Generative cell and tube cell. c) Filament cell and ovule cell. d) Petal cell and sepal cell. Correct answer: Generative cell and tube cell. What role does the filament play in the stamen? a) Supports the anther. b) Receives pollen from the air. c) Connects stigma to ovary. d) Forms a protective layer around ovules. Correct answer: Supports the anther. What is the function of the stigma in the pistil? a) To receive pollen. b) To produce ovules. c) To connect the style and ovary. d) To support the anther. Correct answer: To receive pollen. What does the style in a pistil connect? a) The anther to the filament. b) The filament to the petals. c) The ovary to the pollen. d) The stigma to the ovary. Correct answer: The stigma to the ovary. What is an ovule? a) The outer layer of the flower. b) The structure in the ovary that develops into seeds. c) The pollen-producing part of the stamen. d) The reproductive cell in the filament. Correct answer: The structure in the ovary that develops into seeds. Which type of plants produce only one type of spore? a) Dioscious plants. b) Homosporous plants. c) Heterosporous plants. d) Asexual plants. Correct answer: Homosporous plants. Which of the following is an example of a plant with independent gametophyte and sporophyte stages? a) Rose bushes. b) Lady ferns. c) Tulips. d) Cacti. Correct answer: Lady ferns. What is the goal of genome annotation? a) To classify species based on morphology. b) To determine flowering times of plants. c) To study soil composition for plant growth. d) To analyze and understand genetic information. Correct answer: To analyze and understand genetic information. Which of the following is NOT a focus of genome annotation? a) Determining 3D protein structures. b) Studying genomic changes over generations. c) Measuring plant height growth. d) Analyzing heritable epigenetic changes. Correct answer: Measuring plant height growth. What is the definition of genome annotation? a) Analyzing 3D protein structures in detail. b) Studying evolutionary changes over generations. c) Predicting gene sequences from protein structures. d) Identifying gene locations and coding/noncoding regions. Correct answer: Identifying gene locations and coding/noncoding regions. What is the main purpose of genome annotation? a) To analyze protein 3D structures. b) To understand genome functions and structures. c) To map evolutionary history of organisms. d) To predict future genetic mutations. Correct answer: To understand genome functions and structures. What does gene identification in genome annotation involve? a) Creating models of protein folding. b) Studying RNA interactions within the cell. c) Calculating rates of mutation over time. d) Locating DNA sequences of known proteins. Correct answer: Locating DNA sequences of known proteins. Why is function analysis important after sequencing a gene? a) To understand the gene's specific function. b) To determine evolutionary relationships. c) To predict mutations that might occur. d) To analyze its 3D protein structure. Correct answer: To understand the gene's specific function. How is protein structure analysis related to genome annotation? a) It predicts the 3D structure of proteins. b) It helps in understanding functional protein products. c) It is not related to genome annotation. d) It focuses on nucleic acid sequences only. Correct answer: It helps in understanding functional protein products. What do epigenetic changes refer to in the context of genome annotation? a) Alterations in the DNA sequence of genes. b) Modifications affecting gene expression without changing DNA. c) Changes that only occur during reproduction. d) Structures that encode protein sequences directly. Correct answer: Modifications affecting gene expression without changing DNA. What is the focus of genome annotation concerning generational changes? a) Studying changes across different generations. b) It maps genes within a single genome. c) Tracking mutations over thousands of years. d) Analyzing epigenetic alterations across generations. Correct answer: It maps genes within a single genome. What is the key takeaway concerning genome annotation? a) It predicts future genetic variations effectively. b) It solely focuses on protein synthesis processes. c) It determines the locations and functions of genes. d) It changes the actual DNA sequence of genes. Correct answer: It determines the locations and functions of genes. What is the primary function of the left ventricle? a) To accept deoxygenated blood from the body. b) To release carbon dioxide into the lungs. c) To pump blood into the right atrium. d) To forcefully eject oxygenated blood into the aorta. Correct answer: To forcefully eject oxygenated blood into the aorta. Which valve does blood pass through from the left atrium? a) Aortic semilunar valve. b) Pulmonary semilunar valve. c) Tricuspid valve. d) Bicuspid/mitral valve. Correct answer: Bicuspid/mitral valve. What occurs at the capillaries during gas exchange? a) Oxygen is collected and carbon dioxide is delivered. b) Oxygen is delivered and carbon dioxide is collected. c) Oxygen is produced and carbon dioxide is eliminated. d) Blood is filtered and nutrients are absorbed. Correct answer: Oxygen is delivered and carbon dioxide is collected. How does deoxygenated blood return to the heart? a) Directly from lungs to left atrium. b) Through venules into the superior and inferior venae cavae. c) Through pulmonary veins into the right atrium. d) Via capillaries into the left ventricle. Correct answer: Through venules into the superior and inferior venae cavae. What is the role of the right atrium? a) To pump oxygenated blood to the lungs. b) To collect oxygen-rich blood from the aorta. c) To send blood to the left ventricle. d) To accept deoxygenated blood returning from the body. Correct answer: To accept deoxygenated blood returning from the body. Which chamber pumps oxygen-poor blood into pulmonary circulation? a) Left ventricle. b) Right atrium. c) Right ventricle. d) Left atrium. Correct answer: Right ventricle. What is the final destination of oxygenated blood in systemic circulation? a) The lungs. b) The left atrium. c) The body tissues. d) The right ventricle. Correct answer: The body tissues. What mechanism do antiviral drugs use? a) Enhancing viral protein synthesis. b) Stimulating the immune response. c) Blocking blood circulation. d) Preventing ribosomes from translating viral mRNA. Correct answer: Preventing ribosomes from translating viral mRNA. What is the main purpose of the aortic semilunar valve? a) To prevent blood from entering the right atrium. b) To allow oxygenated blood to enter the aorta. c) To facilitate blood flow into the lungs. d) To block deoxygenated blood from the body. Correct answer: To allow oxygenated blood to enter the aorta. Why is the left ventricle the most muscular chamber? a) It needs to pump blood throughout the body. b) It receives blood directly from the lungs. c) It collects deoxygenated blood from the body. d) It doesn't need to pump blood at all. Correct answer: It needs to pump blood throughout the body. What is the first step of the viral lifecycle? a) Penetration of viral proteins. b) Attachment to the host cell. c) Uncoating of viral genetic material. d) Replication of the viral genome. Correct answer: Attachment to the host cell. Which process involves viral surface proteins binding to host receptors? a) Attachment. b) Penetration. c) Release. d) Assembly. Correct answer: Penetration. During uncoating, where is the viral genetic material released? a) Into the extracellular space. b) Into the host cell membrane. c) Into the viral capsid. d) Into the cell cytoplasm or nucleus. Correct answer: Into the cell cytoplasm or nucleus. What occurs during the replication step of the viral lifecycle? a) Viral components are assembled. b) The viral genome is replicated and proteins synthesized. c) Viral capsid is disassembled. d) Viral particles are released. Correct answer: The viral genome is replicated and proteins synthesized. What leads to the formation of new viral particles? a) Attachment to the host cell. b) Assembly of viral components. c) Release via exocytosis. d) Uncoating of genetic material. Correct answer: Assembly of viral components. How are new viral particles released from the host cell? a) Through host cell lysis, budding, or exocytosis. b) By permanent attachment to the host. c) Only via host cell lysis. d) By replication of the host DNA. Correct answer: Through host cell lysis, budding, or exocytosis. What initiates the clotting cascade? a) Release of thrombin. b) Tissue damage exposing collagen. c) Activation of platelets. d) Formation of erythrocyte fragments. Correct answer: Tissue damage exposing collagen. What is the role of activated platelets in the clotting cascade? a) They adhere and aggregate to form a platelet plug. b) They dissolve the blood clot. c) They activate prothrombin. d) They release collagen into bloodstream. Correct answer: They adhere and aggregate to form a platelet plug. What does thromboplastin released by activated platelets convert? a) Fibrinogen into fibrin. b) Thrombin into fibrin. c) Collagen into thromboplastin. d) Prothrombin into thrombin. Correct answer: Prothrombin into thrombin. What is formed when thrombin converts fibrinogen? a) Collagen forming a tissue seal. b) Fibrin that attaches to platelets. c) A new platelet plug. d) Prothrombin in the bloodstream. Correct answer: Fibrin that attaches to platelets. What processes are not a trigger for the clotting cascade? a) Tissue damage. b) Erythrocyte fragmentation. c) Platelet activation. d) Fibrin formation. Correct answer: Erythrocyte fragmentation. What is the primary function of thromboplastin in the clotting cascade? a) It breaks down fibrinogen into fibrin. b) It inhibits the clotting cascade. c) It converts prothrombin into thrombin. d) It initiates tissue damage. Correct answer: It converts prothrombin into thrombin. What is the result of thrombin's action on fibrinogen? a) It converts thromboplastin into prothrombin. b) It aggregates fibrin into an insoluble clot. c) It inhibits fibrinogen breakdown. d) It converts fibrinogen into fibrin. Correct answer: It converts fibrinogen into fibrin. What type of blood clot does aggregated fibrin form? a) A soluble blood clot. b) An unstable blood clot. c) An insoluble blood clot. d) A temporary platelet plug. Correct answer: An insoluble blood clot. How does the breakdown of thromboplastin affect the clotting cascade? a) It inhibits the clotting cascade. b) It initiates the clotting cascade. c) It converts thrombin into prothrombin. d) It activates fibrinogen production. Correct answer: It inhibits the clotting cascade. What role do antibodies play in the immune response? a) They initiate the clotting cascade. b) They convert prothrombin into thrombin. c) They are involved in the adaptive immune response. d) They aggregate fibrin into clots. Correct answer: They are involved in the adaptive immune response. What key mechanism characterizes the clotting cascade? a) It is a negative feedback mechanism. b) It is initiated by direct fibrin action. c) It is a positive feedback mechanism. d) It operates independent of tissue damage. Correct answer: It is a positive feedback mechanism. What initiates the clotting cascade? a) Release of antibodies into the bloodstream. b) Activation of platelets only. c) Tissue damage exposing collagen. d) Absence of thrombin in the blood. Correct answer: Tissue damage exposing collagen. Which statement about antibodies is correct? a) They initiate the clotting cascade. b) They promote thrombin production. c) They break down blood clots. d) They are not involved in the clotting cascade. Correct answer: They are not involved in the clotting cascade.