Exam_Machinist_4.pdf

TRADES PRACTICE TESTS SIGN UP ACCOUNT ADMIN Machinist Period 1, 120 Questions Please wait until the exam has fully loaded in your web browser before starting....

TRADES PRACTICE TESTS SIGN UP ACCOUNT ADMIN Machinist Period 1, 120 Questions Please wait until the exam has fully loaded in your web browser before starting. If you would like to go over your test offline, feel free to print this exam, then click on "Get Answer Key" at the bottom of the test and print the answer key that appears. If you would like the computer to mark your test for you, do not press "Submit Test For Online Marking" at the end of the exam until you are sure of your responses, as your test will be graded immediately. Good luck! Unit A: Safety And Measurement 1. Which of the following best describes a narrow rule? A) It is most commonly used by Machinists. B) It has graduations only along one edge. C) It can be used to set an inside caliper. D) It has measuring edges ground flat. 2. The acronym PASS outlines the proper use of a portable extinguisher. What does it stand for? A) Point the nozzle, Aim the hose, Spray, Sweep the fire. B) Pull the pin, Align the nozzle, Shoot the suppressant, Stand back. C) Pull the pin, Aim the nozzle, Squeeze the handle, Sweep the nozzle. D) Plan the exit, Aim the nozzle, Spray the fire, Shout for assistance. 3. Which of the following is the pitch of a 3/8 - 16 UNC screw thread? A) 1.6 in B) 0.375 in C) 0.546 in D) 0.0625 in 4. What does the above WHMIS pictogram represent? A) An explosion hazard. B) A reactivity hazard. C) A toxic or fatal hazard. D) A health hazard. 5. Which of the following best describes a crosscut sawmill file? A) It is a triangular shaped single cut file used for sharpening mill saws with M shaped teeth. B) It has a narrow triangular shape with a circular back used to sharpen mill saws and increase their gullet size. C) They are diamond shaped and single cut. D) They are triangular in shape and have no tang. 6. How are labels handled under WHMIS? A) By the Underwriters Laboratory. B) By the Canadian Standards Association. C) By the provincial governments chemical engineers P. Eng labeling system. D) By the globally harmonized system of classification and labelling of chemicals. 7. When referring to oxyacetylene welding sets, which of the cylinders is not to be used with the valve in the fully open position? A) The oxygen cylinder. B) The acetylene cylinder. C) The nitrogen cylinder. 8. What is a hacksaw's saw blade set?  A) The tension the blade is tightened into the handle. B) The number of saw blade teeth per inch. C) The way the teeth are bent out of line with the blade body. D) It is a type of kerf. 9. Which of the following is not a WHMIS hazard group? A) A Physical Hazard. B) An Emotional Hazard. C) A Health Hazard. D) An Environmental Hazard 10. Which part on a hand-held tap provide a spot for chips to accumulate and a passage for cutting fluid? A) The chamfer. B) The flute. C) The shank. D) The land. 11. When referring to oxyacetylene welding sets, all the oxygen connections have what kind of thread? A) They have a metric thread. B) They have a right-hand thread. C) They have a left-hand thread. D) They have a fine thread. 12. What is the depth of internal thread for a UNC 2B thread? A) It is 0.5413 in. B) It is 0.375 in. C) It is 0.0542 in. D) It is 0.0338 in. 13. The three types of harmful rays encountered during oxyacetylene use are visible light rays, infrared rays and what other rays? A) And cosmic rays. B) And ultraviolet rays. C) And electronic rays. D) And nuclear rays. 14. What does the above WHMIS pictogram represent? A) An oxidizing hazard. B) A corrosive hazard. C) A reactivity hazard. D) A flammable hazard. 15. What hacksaw pitch blade is used for cutting thin sheet metal and tubing? A) 32 B) 28 C) 26 D) 22 16. What is the purpose of a thread ring gauge? A) To check the accuracy of a threaded hole. B) To check the accuracy of outside threads. C) To check the accuracy of an outside taper. D) They can be used just like fixed gauges. 17. With a solid hand reamer, the amount of material left in a one-inch hole before hand reaming should be how much of an inch? A) It should be 0.002 of an inch. B) It should be 0.005 of an inch. C) It should be 0.186 of an inch. D) It should be 0.195 of an inch. 18. The WHMIS system requires how many types of identification? A) It requires five types of identification. B) It requires four types of identification. C) It requires three types of identification. D) It requires two types of identification. Unit B: Machine Tools 19. What type of lubrication system allows lubricant to escape into the environment after it has been applied to the machine? A) A defective lubrication system. B) A closed system. C) A ring system. D) A flow through system. 20. In a CNC program, what is used to prepare the machine for what is coming? A) N: sequence number B) O: program number C) G: preparatory function D) F: feedrate 21. When is mounting a dial indicator on the face of the chuck a good way to align the workpiece? A) When the carriage is between the headstock and the steady rest. B) When the steady rest is between the headstock and the carriage. C) When the workpiece is greater than three metres long. D) When the workpiece has a centre hole but the tailstock centre can not be used. 22. What is the calculated RPM for drilling a 0.585-inch hole into 3.5 diameter brass using an HSS twist drill? A) 1305.9 B) 979.43 C) 784.87 D) 652.9 23. Which of the following best describes carbide as a cutting material? A) It retain its hardness to a very high temperature and is also known as Stellite. B) It has molybdenum as its principle alloy element. C) It can be used with or without a coolant. D) It operates at the highest cutting speeds. 24. With CNC turning centres and lathes, what does the term "parting-off" refer to? A) Machining the outside diameter of the workpiece. B) Machining the ends of a workpeice. C) Machining that produces a channel on the diameter of the workpeice. D) Machining to separate a part from the main bar stock. 25. What does the term DNC refer to? A) Direct Numeric Control. B) Designated New Control. C) Denoted Non-Controlled. D) Denied Notified Connection. 26. What is the maximum angle that a template should have when using a hydraulic tracer attachment on a lathe? A) 90 degrees. B) 45 degrees. C) 30 degrees. D) 15 degrees. 27. When an X-Z coordinate system is laid out with the X line and the Z line intersecting each other at 90 degrees, with CNC lathes and programming, what does the Z axis represent? A) It represents the movement of the servo motor. B) It represents the movement of the stepper motor. C) It represents the movement of the crosslide. D) It represents the movement of the carriage. 28. What are grinding wheels classified according to? A) They are classified according to color, abrasive type and size. B) They are classified according to abrasive type, size and bonding material.  C) They are classified according to abrasive grain, abrasive type and bonding material. D) They are classified according to size, diameter and weight. 29. What supports the Headstock in a CNC turning centre? A) Tailstock. B) Headstock. C) Bed. D) Saddle. 30. Which type of lubrication system relies on a pump to force oil under pressure into a bearing? A) The enclosed circulating lubrication system. B) The drip feed lubrication system. C) The ring oiler lubrication system. D) The splash lubrication system. 31. What is the drill point angle for general purpose use? A) 180 B) 150 C) 118 D) 90 32. With CNC machines, which of the following is true with respect to a single spindle-double turret on independent slides? A) Tool holding capacity is decreased to allow increased speed. B) Roughing can be done in one pass. C) Different diameters can be machined at the same time. D) Either finish turning or threading can be done at the same time. 33. Which of the following is not evident when what is cut, amounts to a very fine thread on the workpiece? A) The end relief angle. B) The side rake angle. C) The back rack angle. D) The nose radius. 34. What is a characteristic of a Chucking Centre machine? A) It is designed for work that is held in a chuck at one end and supported with a tailstock at the other. B) It is built without a tailstock and has a short centre distance.  C) Allows the possibility to both turn and mill a workpeice in one set up. D) They are suitable for large, heavy and odd shaped workpeices that cannot be held on standard turning centres. 35. Which of the following best describes a forming tool? A) It is used to cut intricate cylindrical profiles. B) It is used to cut the inside of a diameter. C) It cuts on its ends. D) It is used to cut a flat surface at right angles to the axis of the workpiece. 36. Which of the following best describes the MCU of a CNC machine? A) It consists of the RAM and the ROM. B) It is the heart of any computer system. C) It is the nerve centre of the CNC machine coordinating all machine operations. D) Its function is to develop appropriate signals from program data for driving servo motors. 37. Which of the following best describes a solid dead centre? A) It is used when the entire length of the workpiece must be machined in one pass. B) It rotates on a bearing to prevent friction and heat buildup. C) It is held in the tailstock spindle and does not turn. D) It uses an eccentric or dovetail. 38. What carries the tool turret in a CNC turning centre? A) Cross slide. B) Headstock. C) Bed. D) Saddle. 39. What is the advantage of using grease over oil as a lubricant? A) It will seal the mechanism against moisture. B) It is less expensive to apply. C) It tends to adhere better to the surface of the part. D) All of the above. 40. What type of CNC turning center does not have a turret to hold cutting tools? A) A vertical single turning center. B) A twin spindle vertical turning center.  C) A gang style horizontal spindle turning center. D) A sliding headstock turning center. 41. With CNC machines which of the following best describes the term resolution? A) The ability to consistently produce parts with little downtime. B) The smallest slide movement the machine can control and act upon. C) The ability to repeat the same slide movements within the same tolerance. D) The representation of the amount of inaccuracy permitted over a specified distance. 42. With CNC turning machines, generally, what is the programmed speed for tapping? A) It is generally 25 to 50 % of that used for drilling. B) It is generally 25 to 46 % of that used for drilling. C) It is generally 25 to 33 % of that used for drilling. D) It is generally 25 to 27 % of that used for drilling. 43. What is the recommended cutting speed SFPM for high speed steel drills when the workpiece material is Aluminium? A) 300 B) 150 C) 80 D) 40 44. What should you do if a machine that you were going to use had one of its safety interlocks disabled? A) Just use the machine and not worry about that interlock. B) Evaluate what that interlock does then use it keeping an eye on the interlock. C) Bypass the safety interlock as it is probably not needed. D) Do not use this machine. 45. What is the calculated RPM for drilling a 32 mm hole in tool steel using a carbide drill? (the 100 mm workpeice is held on a four-jaw chuck) A) 1989.45 B) 1492.09 C) 994.7 D) 596.8 46. What is the oldest and simplest work holding device?  A) The drive plate. B) The lathe dog. C) The lathe centre. D) The lathe hitch. 47. In a CNC program, what does the M code M08 cause to happen? A) It will activate the spindle in the forward direction. B) It will cause the machine to stop executing a program. C) It will activate the spindle in the reverse direction. D) It will activate the flood coolant. 48. When using the right hand rule for identifying an axis, what does the thumb represent? A) The Z axis. B) The Y axis. C) The X axis. 49. Which of the following is a correct statement with respect to Quadrant 3 of an X and Z axis? A) -X, -Z B) +X, -Z C) +X, +Z D) -X, +Z 50. A floating reamer holder may _____ the effect of reamer misalignment. A) increase B) decrease C) stabilize 51. What should the feed rate for a roughing cut be? A) It should be as high as the cutting tool and the machine can handle. B) It should be as low as the cutting tool and the machine can handle. C) It should be as steady as the cutting tool and the machine can handle. 52. What is the major difference between a telescoping taper attachment and a plain taper attachment? A) The cross-slide screw on the telescoping attachment is not able to move in and out. B) The cross-slide screw is attached to the guide shoe on the telescoping attachment.  C) The telescoping attachment uses two binding screws. D) The depth of cut is set by the compound rest when using the telescoping attachment. 53. What type of CNC turning center is also called the Swiss style turning center? A) A vertical single turning center. B) A twin spindle vertical turning center. C) A gang style horizontal spindle turning center. D) A sliding headstock turning center. 54. With EIA coding, what is the maximum number of rows where program characters are found? A) 10 B) 8 C) 7 D) 5 55. What is the calculated RPM for drilling a 32 mm hole in leaded steel using a carbide drill? (the 100 mm workpeice is held on a four-jaw chuck) A) 1989.45 B) 1492.09 C) 994.7 D) 596.8 56. What is full format suppression when dealing with CNC machines? A) It allows dimensions to be written without the zeros in front of the decimal point. B) It is used to reduce the number of zeros in the full format dimensions. C) It allows dimensions to be written without the zeros after the decimal point D) Where eight digits are required for each dimension. 57. With a lathe, where is the headstock is always attached to? A) It is attached to the left side of the bed. B) It is attached to the right side of the bed. C) It is attached to the top of the bed. D) It is attached to the bottom of the bed. 58. What is the cutting speed for a 4-inch diameter workpiece when the RPM is 900?  A) It is 966.86 RPM. B) It is 950.35 RPM. C) It is 945.71 RPM. D) It is 942.48 RPM. 59. What diameter must be used when doing spindle calculations for threading operations with a CNC machine? A) The diameter of the bit. B) The major diameter of the thread being cut. C) The outside diameter of the headstock. D) The inside major diameter of the thread being reamed 60. What is the advantage of a side wheel grinder over a bench grinder? A) The advantage is that the grinding surface is flat. B) The advantage is that the work rest to grinding wheel angle does not change. C) The advantage is that this type of grinder is very portable. D) The advantage is that the grinding surface is flat and the work rest to grinding wheel angle does not change. 61. What type of turning application are you doing when you have to perform work on a short slug? A) Mill work B) Bar work C) Shaft work D) Chucking work 62. What limits the size of the workpiece when using a milling attachment? A) The size of vise on the attachment. B) The horsepower of the lathe. C) The angle at which the attachment is rotated. D) The cost of the workpiece. 63. Tailstock support for a CNC turning machine is important when the work overhang is more than how many times its diameter? A) When it is more than 10 times its diameter. B) When it is more than 8 times its diameter. C) When it is more than 6 times its diameter. D) When it is more than 4 times its diameter. 64. Which of the following is NOT a type of mandrel?  A) solid B) expansion C) flexible D) gang E) threaded 65. Which of the following best describes a PLC? A) RAM connecting directly to binary logic allowing machining logic. B) It is a type of ROM that allows a programmed feedback loop. C) Its function is to develop signals from program data for driving servo motors. D) It allows a CNC machine to be programmed. 66. What type of CNC work are you performing when you are creating workpieces from raw material that is greater than three times its diameter? A) Mill work B) Bar work C) Shaft work D) Chucking work 67. Which of the following is a proper way to align a workpiece when using a lathe? A) Center drill the workpiece before mounting it in the steady rest. B) Mount a dial indicator on the face of the chuck and then rotate the chuck. C) Eye-ball the workpiece before tightening it in place. D) Run a dial indicator along the top of the workpiece. 68. When referring to CNC machines, what is a microswitch? A) A actual hardwired switch that activates when it is moved by something. B) A type of virtual or programmed switch that resides in the computer program. C) They protect guideways or recalculating ball screws from micro movement. D) A type of micro power generation device. 69. With respect to cutting, what happens to the actual cutting speed as the workpiece gets smaller provided RPM stays constant? A) The actual cutting speed increases. B) The actual cutting speed decreases. C) The actual cutting speed stays the same. 70. What is the cutting speed for a 2-inch diameter workpiece when the RPM is 600?  A) It is 322.87 RPM. B) It is 314.16 RPM. C) It is 312.09 RPM. D) It is 309.43 RPM. 71. Which of the following types of shoulders has a radius to relieve stress but the radius does not interfere with mating parts? A) The square shoulder. B) The filleted shoulder. C) The undercut shoulder. D) The overcut shoulder. 72. With CNC turning machines, what is varying the RPM to maintain the same cutting speed known as? A) It is known as constant spindle speed. B) It is known as constant surface speed. C) It is known as constant grip speed. D) It is known as constant lock speed. 73. When referring to a closed loop CNC feedback system, which of the following is true? A) It monitors servo consistency though the use of RAM. B) It monitors actual speed and slide positions and compares them to program commands. C) It is not an expensive system and uses a stepper motor. D) They are used where accuracy not greater than 0.001 is required. 74. Which of the following would be best suited for drilling in very large work pieces that are difficult to position? A) An upright drill machine. B) A radial drill machine. C) A sensitive drill press. D) A magnetic base drills. 75. When is running a dial indicator along a workpiece a good way to align the workpiece? A) When the carriage is between the headstock and the steady rest. B) When the steady rest is between the headstock and the carriage. C) When the workpiece is greater than three metres long. D) When the workpiece has a centre hole but the tailstock centre can not be used. 76. At what angle is saddle movement to the axis of the machining spindle?  A) It is at 70-degree angles. B) It is at 30-degree angles. C) It is never parallel. D) It is parallel. 77. When using the back face as program zero, what are all X and Z coordinate values? A) They are all positive. B) They are all negative. C) They are all neutral. 78. What is the calculated RPM for drilling a 45 mm hole in Aluminium using a carbide drill? (workpeice is held on a four-jaw chuck) A) 2212.09 B) 2122.06 C) 2012.9 D) 2001.12 79. What type of transducer is a resolver? A) Transitional. B) Positional. C) Modulated. D) Direct. 80. What does a band file consist of? A) It consists of a series of notches in a steel blade. B) It consists of a series of short files riveted to a steel band. C) It consists of a flexible file on a drum. D) It consists of abrasive paper mounted on a wheel. 81. How is an angle denoted with polar coordinates when measured counter clockwise? A) Positive. B) Negative. C) Either positive or negative. 82. Which of the following types of lathe dogs engages a slot in the drive plate? A) The safety clamp. B) The straight tail.  C) The standard bent tail. D) The clamp. 83. What is program zero when referring to a CNC machine? A) It is fixed reference point that is established at shut down. B) The absolute reference point and origin of the machine coordinate system. C) A reference point on or off the workpeice. D) It is an example of a floating code system. 84. Which of the following best describes a revolving centre? A) It is used when the entire length of the workpiece must be machined in one pass. B) It rotates on a bearing to prevent friction and heat buildup. C) It is held in the tailstock spindle and does not turn. D) It uses an eccentric or dovetail. 85. When using the chuck face as program zero, what are all X and Z coordinate values? A) They are all positive. B) They are all negative. C) They are all neutral. 86. Which of the following best describes the CPU of a CNC machine? A) It consists of the RAM and the ROM. B) It is the heart of any computer system. C) It is the nerve centre of the CNC machine coordinating all machine operations. D) Its function is to develop appropriate signals from program data for driving servo motors. 87. What is the process called where a raised pattern is pressed onto a surface? A) annealing B) etching C) scratching D) knurling 88. Which of the following statements best describes counterboring? A) It is a process of cutting a bevel at the top of the hole so the hole can accept the head of a flat head screw. B) It is cutting threads in a drilled hole.  C) It is the process of enlarging the top of an existing hole to allow it to accept the head of a bolt or screw. D) It is enlarging an existing hole using a single point tool. Unit C: Trade Mathematics 89. Which of the following is the correct order for the rivets below listed from smallest to largest? A) B) C) D) 90. What is the small diameter of a taper, where TR=1:50, D=22mm, TL=100mm? A) 24.0 B) 21.5 C) 20.0 D) 19.2 91. What is the large diameter of a taper, where TR=1:60, d=42mm, TL=120mm? A) 45 B) 44 C) 43 D) 42 92. What is the fraction expressed in decimal form? A) It would be 1.5. B) It would be 0.15. C) It would be 0.015. D) It would be 0.0015. 93. In the above diagram, how many degrees is angle when = 550 and = 450? A) Angle is 39.3 degrees. B) Angle is 50.7 degrees. C) Angle is 54.9 degrees. D) Angle is 63.2 degrees. 94. Given that 1 inch = 25.4 mm, what is the value below? 91.44 cm = ______ feet A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3 95. Using the formula , if and , what is equal to? A) It is equal to 302.1. B) It is equal to 295.3.  C) It is equal to 55.5. D) It is equal to 2.17. 96. What is a triangle that has two equal angles called? A) A right triangle. B) An equilateral triangle. C) An isosceles triangle. D) An oblique triangle. 97. = 38 inches, = 3 feet, = 18 inches What is the perimeter, in feet, of the parallelogram in the above diagram? A) It is 8.35 feet. B) It is 12.33 feet. C) It is 148 feet. D) It is 684.2 feet. 98. Perform the following function: What is the result expressed in the lowest terms?  A) B) C) D) 99. In the above diagram, how many inches will side be when = 8 inches and = 4 inches? A) Side will be 21.5 inches. B) Side will be 7.56 inches. C) Side will be 6.93 inches. D) Side will be 3.69 inches. 100. What is the small diameter of a taper, where TR=1:40, D=20.4mm, TL=96mm? A) 21.0 B) 20.6 C) 19.9 D) 18.0 101. Which of the following best describes a lathe headstock spindle? A) It has an internal taper only to accept the tapered shank of a drill. B) The outside of the spindle nose is tapered as well as the inside.  C) It is designed to align a milling cutter and to release easily. D) It is sometimes called arbors. 102. The vertical component of a triangle is 165 units and the horizontal component is 310 units. The hypotenuse will be how many units? A) 262 units. B) 292 units. C) 310 units. D) 351 units. 103. What is COS 45 degrees equal to? A) It is equal to 0.0. B) It is equal to 0.707. C) It is equal to 0.866. D) It is equal to 1.0. 104. What is the most accurate method of measuring a taper? A) Using a plain micrometer. B) Using a taper micrometer. C) Using a sin bar. D) Using a cord type ruler. Unit D: Print Reading 105. The scale on a drawing is 1:10. The scaled diameter of a gear is 21 mm. The actual diameter of the gear will be how many mm? A) 210 mm B) 220 mm C) 2100 mm D) 2110 mm 106. When referring to surface finishes, what does the term "surface roughness" mean?  A) The pattern of groves or scratches left on the surface of a workpiece by the cutting action of the tool. B) The intended surface of the workpiece as specified in the drawing. C) The average deviation from the centerline measured in microinces or micro meters. D) The greatest spacing between adjacent grooves or scratches. 107. Which of the following is the Top View of the figure? A) B) C) D) 108. When referring to surface finishes, what does the term "roughness height" mean?  A) The pattern of groves or scratches left on the surface of a workpiece by the cutting action of the tool. B) The intended surface of the workpiece as specified in the drawing. C) The average deviation from the centerline measured in microinces or micro meters. D) The greatest spacing between adjacent grooves or scratches. 109. What type of key should be used between the hub and a 6 inch diameter shaft? A) Square key. B) Flat key. 110. What is a FN3 fit used for? A) For parts that can be highly stressed. B) For heavier steel parts and shrink fits on medium sections. C) For permanent assemblies requiring light assembly pressures. D) For ordinary steel parts or light shrink fits on thin sections. 111. A circle drawn in an isometric projection would form an ellipse. A) True B) False 112. What type of tolerancing must be used for fully defining form and controlling angular relationships? A) Conventional tolerancing B) Geometric dimensioning and tolerancing 113. When referring to machinist blueprint drawings, what does the abbreviation TYP stand for? A) It stands for Test Year Period. B) It stands for Trial. C) It stands for Typical. D) It stands for Third Year Posting. 114. Which of the following statements best describes a micro-inch? A) It is one thousand of an inch B) It is one millionth of an inch. C) It is the metric unit of measurement for surface roughness. D) It is expressed as 1000000.00 of an inch. 115. When referring to machinist blueprint drawings anti-friction bearings are not normally dimensioned.  A) True B) False 116. When referring to tapers on machinist blueprint drawings, what does the acronym TPF stand for? A) It stands for Taper Pressed Fit. B) It stands for Taper Ratio. C) It stands for Test Press Fit. D) It stands for Taper Per Foot. 117. What a ratio of is drawn at actual size when referring to a drawing? A) 1:4 B) 4:1 C) 1:1 118. Which of the above machine screw driving recesses represents a keystone? A) A B) D C) E D) F 119. What is one of the main purposes of the sectional view on a blueprint? A) It is to allow you to see inside an object. B) It is to determine the size of the object. C) It is to allow for expansion and contraction. D) It is to reduce the size of the part. 120. When referring to surface finishes, what does the term waviness refer to?  A) An unrepeated or random irregularity in the surface finish of a workpiece. B) The predominate direction of the roughness patterns. C) The distance between repeated wavy patterns. D) It consists of the widely spaced irregularities caused by vibration or chatter. Submit Test For Online Marking Get Answer Key Important! If you want the computer to mark your test for you, click on "Submit Test for Online Marking" above. Only click on "Get Answer Key" if you have printed this test, and want to get a corresponding answer key to print off as well. For most browsers, if you click on the wrong button, you will be unable to go back if you change your mind. Request took 0.140 seconds. Exam ID: 1718070440 Copyright © 2024, Syzygy Research & Technology Ltd. All rights reserved. Follow us; we're friendly!