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6/5/24, 9:47 PM ExamBank Login TRADES PRACTICE TESTS SIGN UP ACCOUNT ADMIN Machinist Period...

6/5/24, 9:47 PM ExamBank Login TRADES PRACTICE TESTS SIGN UP ACCOUNT ADMIN Machinist Period 1, 120 Questions Please wait until the exam has fully loaded in your web browser before starting. If you would like to go over your test offline, feel free to print this exam, then click on "Get Answer Key" at the bottom of the test and print the answer key that appears. If you would like the computer to mark your test for you, do not press "Submit Test For Online Marking" at the end of the exam until you are sure of your responses, as your test will be graded immediately. Good luck! Unit A: Safety And Measurement 1. Which class of fire extinguisher is to be used on a magnesium fire? A) Class A B) Class B C) Class C D) Class D 2. What is the purpose of a taper ring gauge? A) To check the angle and diameter of a tapered bore. B) To check the angle and diameter of an outside tapered bore. C) To check the inside diameter of a bore. D) To check the diameter of a shaft. 3. What would a machinist use to measure the size of a small bore? A) A machinist would use a ball-type small hole gauge. B) A machinist would use a micrometer. C) A machinist would use an inside caliper. D) A machinist would use a hook ruler. 4. What year did WHMIS become law in Canada? A) 1967 B) 1988 C) 2002 D) 2015 5. The three things necessary for a fire to occur are heat, fuel and what else? A) And hydrogen. B) And oxygen. C) And nitrogen. D) And helium. 6. Which of the following terms describes tolerance? A) It is used when several dimensions extend from a common point. B) It applies to the periphery of a circle. C) The smallest division on a scale that can be read reliably. D) A permissible variation in the size of a part. 7. Which of the following solutions is applied to the surface of large castings and hot rolled metal and will stick to the surface of the metal? A) Vermilion powder. B) Copper Sulphate. C) Chalk. D) Lime and alcohol. 8. What are the products called that the WHMIS system is designed to provide safety for? https://trades.exambank.com/cgi-bin/examinator2/1429?session=1717638783&key=3708386302&action=getexam 1/15 6/5/24, 9:47 PM ExamBank Login A) Restricted. B) Controlled. C) Dangerous. D) Prohibited. 9. When referring to oxyacetylene welding sets, all the oxygen connections have what kind of thread? A) They have a metric thread. B) They have a right-hand thread. C) They have a left-hand thread. D) They have a fine thread. 10. Which of the following best describes a minor diameter when referring to screw threads? A) A radial distance that a nut advances B) The diameter at which the thickness of the thread exceeds the thickness of the space between the threads. C) The longest length of a screw thread. D) The smallest diameter of a screw thread. 11. Lang lay ropes have their wires and strands twisted in what direction? A) They are twisted in opposite directions. B) They are twisted in same direction. C) They are twisted in a vertical direction. D) They are twisted in a horizontal direction. 12. What hacksaw pitch blade is used for alloy steels, iron pipe and light angle iron? A) 32 B) 24 C) 18 D) 14 13. What does the above WHMIS pictogram represent? A) An explosion hazard. B) A reactivity hazard. C) A toxic or fatal hazard. D) A health hazard. 14. How many symbols are used in the WHMIS system? A) 8 B) 6 C) 5 D) 3 15. What type of square is used for verifying squareness of workpieces and workholding devices on a machine? A) Bevel edge B) Machinist combination. C) Solid beam. D) Adjustable micrometer. 16. What does the precautionary statement deals with on the WHMIS supplier label? A) The name code or number used to identify the product. B) The handling and storage of the product. https://trades.exambank.com/cgi-bin/examinator2/1429?session=1717638783&key=3708386302&action=getexam 2/15 6/5/24, 9:47 PM ExamBank Login C) A statement that a MSDS is available. D) It describes the physical and health hazards. 17. What is the part of a hand-held tap that does most of the cutting called? A) It is called the chamfer. B) It is called the flute. C) It is called the land. D) It is called the shank. 18. What kind of rake angle is there on the cutting face of a hand reamer? A) They have a 0 to negative rake angle. B) They have a 9 to negative rake angle. C) They have a 14 to negative rake angle. D) They have a 21 to negative rake angle. Unit B: Machine Tools 19. With CNC machines, which of the following is true with respect to a single spindle-double turret on independent slides? A) Tool holding capacity is decreased to allow increased speed. B) Roughing can be done in one pass. C) Different diameters can be machined at the same time. D) Either finish turning or threading can be done at the same time. 20. Which of the following stops is set up under the carriage of a lathe and will disengage the feed lever? A) The block stop. B) The micrometer stop. C) The turret stop. D) The stop shaft. 21. Which of the following is a true with respect to Electronics Industry Association? A) It uses a discrete code. B) It uses an even parity format. C) The coding system uses an odd parity format. D) It uses a Hex/Dewey even parity. 22. In a CNC program, what does the G code G97 specify? A) It specifies that all information must be in the imperial measurement system. B) It specifies that all information must be in the metric measurement system. C) It specifies the spindle speed. D) It specifies the length of time that the machine will pause. 23. In a CNC program, what does the G code G20 specify? A) It specifies that all information must be in the imperial measurement system. B) It specifies that all information must be in the metric measurement system. C) It specifies the spindle speed. D) It specifies the length of time that the machine will pause. 24. What defines a plane? A) A binary coded expression. B) Two intersecting axes. C) A polar originated coordinate. D) The axis that created it. 25. Which of the following is a benefit of using a cutting fluid when cutting metal? A) It reduces heat. B) It improves the surface finish of the final product. C) It reduces the cost of power consumed. D) All of the above. https://trades.exambank.com/cgi-bin/examinator2/1429?session=1717638783&key=3708386302&action=getexam 3/15 6/5/24, 9:47 PM ExamBank Login 26. Which of the following statements best describes the lip or cutting edge of a drill bit? A) It is provided by grinding the heel lower than the cutting edge. B) It is the portion remaining between the flutes. C) It extends from the chisel edge to the margin. 27. When programming a CNC what does the letter "T" stand for? A) It stands for tool index. B) It stands for torque. C) It stands for tool selection. D) It stands for distance of travel. 28. Which type of wheel would be used on a grinder when you want to clean a work piece of scale and dirt but not remove any of the metal? A) A flap wheel. B) A wire wheel. C) A sanding wheel. D) A grinding wheel. 29. A coordinate system consists of how many axes that intersect a point of origin? A) It consists of 5 or more axes. B) It consists of 4 or more axes. C) It consists of 3 or more axes. D) It consists of 2 or more axes. 30. What is the calculated RPM for drilling a 32 mm hole in copper alloy using a carbide drill? (the 100 mm workpeice is held on a four-jaw chuck) A) 1989.45 B) 1492.09 C) 994.7 D) 596.8 31. What principle of measurement does a rotary encoder use? A) Transitional. B) Positional. C) Indirect. D) Direct. 32. In a CNC program, what is the first word in every program? A) N: sequence number B) O: program number C) G: preparatory function D) F: feedrate 33. In a CNC program, what does the number preceded by T stand for? A) It will cause the machine to pause for a specified time. B) The station number for a turret index. C) It causes the machine to move in a counter-clockwise circular path. D) This identifies the spindle speed in rpm. 34. Which of the following is a correct statement with respect to Quadrant 4 of an X and Z axis? A) -X, -Z B) +X, -Z C) +X, +Z D) -X, +Z 35. What is a power constant? A) The amount of horsepower required to remove one cubic inch of a given material per minute. B) The amount of horsepower required to remove one square inch of a given material per second. C) The amount of electrical current the motor uses under load. D) The kilo-watt hour reading a machine will use under load. https://trades.exambank.com/cgi-bin/examinator2/1429?session=1717638783&key=3708386302&action=getexam 4/15 6/5/24, 9:47 PM ExamBank Login 36. When cutting a thread using a lathe and a compound rest set at degrees, the total infeed per side to finish the thread of a - 16 UNC thread would be how much of an inch? A) It would be 0.0470 of an inch. B) It would be 0.0561 of an inch. C) It would be 0.0625 of an inch. D) It would be 0.0695 of an inch. 37. Which of the following types of shoulders is a simple cut but will weaken the shaft by creating a stress? A) The square shoulder. B) The filleted shoulder. C) The undercut shoulder. D) The overcut shoulder. 38. Which attachment would be added to a lathe to cut keysets and flats? A) A grinding attachment. B) A milling attachment. C) A threading attachment. D) A backlash attachment. 39. When was the first practical digital super computer developed? A) 1969 B) 1958 C) 1947 D) 1939 40. Where is the feed reverse lever found on a lathe? A) It is found on the gear box. B) It is found near the bed. C) It is found on the headstock. D) It is found in the tailstock. 41. What is the calculated RPM for drilling a 45 mm hole in Aluminium using a carbide drill? (workpeice is held on a four-jaw chuck) A) 2212.09 B) 2122.06 C) 2012.9 D) 2001.12 42. With respect to CNC turning centres which of the following is true with respect to twin spindle-twin turret arrangements? A) It is used where work must be machined on both ends. B) It is designed for work that must be machined from both sides at the same time. C) It is the most common arrangement. D) It is used in high production machining. 43. When referring to CNC machines, what is a microswitch? A) A actual hardwired switch that activates when it is moved by something. B) A type of virtual or programmed switch that resides in the computer program. C) They protect guideways or recalculating ball screws from micro movement. D) A type of micro power generation device. 44. With CNC turning centres and lathes, what does the term "turning" refer to? A) Machining the outside diameter of the workpiece. B) Machining the ends of a workpeice. C) Machining that produces a channel on the diameter of the workpeice. D) Machining to separate a part from the main bar stock. 45. What type of CNC work are you performing when you are creating workpieces from raw material that is in the form of short slugs with lengths no greater than three times its diameter? A) Mill work B) Bar work https://trades.exambank.com/cgi-bin/examinator2/1429?session=1717638783&key=3708386302&action=getexam 5/15 6/5/24, 9:47 PM ExamBank Login C) Shaft work D) Chucking work 46. What type of CNC turning center is also called the Swiss style turning center? A) A vertical single turning center. B) A twin spindle vertical turning center. C) A gang style horizontal spindle turning center. D) A sliding headstock turning center. 47. Which of the following describes truing? A) The operation of cleaning or restoring the sharpness of a wheel that has become glazed. B) The removal of material from the cutting face of a grinding wheel to restore its shape. C) Protecting mounting washers from abrasive grit. D) A method of compensating for uneven surfaces. 48. What is one of the hazards of applying too much pressure to the fasteners of components when machining? A) The component may come loose. B) The component may become deformed. C) The component may not get an even finish. D) The component may jam the machine. 49. Which of the following lathe stops is clamped to the ways of the lathe? A) The block stop. B) The micrometer stop. C) The turret stop. D) The stop shaft. 50. With respect to CNC turning centres which of the following is true with respect to single spindle-double turret arrangements? A) It is used where work must be machined on both ends. B) It is designed for work that must be machined from both sides at the same time. C) It is the most common arrangement. D) It is used in high production machining. 51. Which type of lubrication system relies on a pump to force oil under pressure into a bearing? A) The enclosed circulating lubrication system. B) The drip feed lubrication system. C) The ring oiler lubrication system. D) The splash lubrication system. 52. What is machine zero when referring to a CNC machine? A) It is an unfixed reference point that is established at start up. B) The absolute reference point and origin of the machine coordinate system. C) A reference point on or off the workpeice. D) It is an example of a floating zero. 53. On a CNC lathe, which axes is parallel to the axes of the lathe and represents the movements of the carriage? A) U B) X C) Y D) Z 54. What does odd parity mean in reference to CNC terminology? A) Each program character is represented in rows containing odd number holes. B) The number of wires from the controller to the hardware is always odd. C) The RAM is sectored off in odd divisions. D) The hard drive is mathematically tuned to mathematical operations thst result in odd numbers. 55. Which of the following is true with respect to a CNC machine? A) They are hard wired. B) They are adaptable but not overly flexible. https://trades.exambank.com/cgi-bin/examinator2/1429?session=1717638783&key=3708386302&action=getexam 6/15 6/5/24, 9:47 PM ExamBank Login C) They are difficult to program. D) They have a read-write memory. 56. Which of the following best describes a revolving centre? A) It is used when the entire length of the workpiece must be machined in one pass. B) It rotates on a bearing to prevent friction and heat buildup. C) It is held in the tailstock spindle and does not turn. D) It uses an eccentric or dovetail. 57. What is displayed on a manufacture's lubrication schedule for a piece of equipment? A) The kind of lubrication that must be used. B) The points on a machine that require lubrication. C) The frequency at which the machine must be lubricated. D) All of the above. 58. Which of the following best describes the servo drive control in a CNC machine? A) It consists of the RAM controlling specific stepper motors. B) It is a type of transitional servo control. C) It is the nerve centre of the CNC machine coordinating all machine operations. D) Its function is to develop appropriate signals from program data for driving servo motors. 59. When referring to a contour band saw, what is the distance between the blade and the column commonly referred to as? A) It is referred to as the maximum work height. B) It is referred to as the work distance. C) It is referred to as the throat distance. D) It is referred to as the jaw distance. 60. Which of the following is NOT a standard toolholder? A) The left-hand offset. B) The right-hand offset. C) The titanium. D) The carbide. 61. What is machining of curved surfaces known as? A) Encountering. B) Undercutting. C) Profiling. D) Facing. 62. What principle of measurement does a linear encoder use? A) Transitional. B) Positional. C) Indirect. D) Direct. 63. Which shanks of drills are tapered? A) Shanks larger than 1 inch are tapered. B) Shanks larger than inch are tapered. C) Shanks larger than inch are tapered. D) Shanks larger than inch are tapered. 64. What does the term "grit" refer to when looking at grinding wheels? A) It refers to the bonding. B) It refers to the rpm. C) It refers to the color. D) It refers to the abrasiveness. 65. What is a characteristic of a CNC Combination Centre? https://trades.exambank.com/cgi-bin/examinator2/1429?session=1717638783&key=3708386302&action=getexam 7/15 6/5/24, 9:47 PM ExamBank Login A) It is designed for work that is held in a chuck at one end and supported with a tailstock at the other. B) It is built without a tailstock and has a short centre distance. C) Allows the possibility to both turn and mill a workpeice in one set up. D) They are suitable for large, heavy and odd shaped workpeices that cannot be held on standard turning centres. 66. What determines the size of a lathe? A) The largest diameter of workpiece that can be supported over the ways. B) The greatest length of workpiece that can be supported between centers. C) The horsepower input into the machine. D) Both A and B. 67. Which of the following describes dressing? A) The operation of cleaning or restoring the sharpness of a wheel that has become glazed. B) The removal of material from the cutting face of a grinding wheel. C) Protecting mounting washers from abrasive grit. D) A method of compensating for uneven surfaces. 68. What is the main reason to use emulsifiable oils? A) The main reason is because it is man-made. B) The main reason is for its cooling properties. C) The main reason is because it is cheaper. D) The main reason is for its qualities when cutting cast iron. 69. Which of the following describes a stop shaft? A) It has six adjustable screws in an index-able head. B) It uses an adjustable screw for precise adjustment. C) It is clamped to the ways to stop the movement of the carriage. D) It is set up under the carriage to disengage the feed lever. 70. What type of CNC work are you performing when you are creating workpieces from raw material that is greater than three times its diameter? A) Mill work B) Bar work C) Shaft work D) Chucking work 71. On a lathe what does the term "backlash" refer to? A) The space between meshing gears. B) The size of meshing gears. C) A type of inverted prism design. D) The bearing associated with the tailstock. 72. With CNC machines which of the following best describes the term resolution? A) The ability to consistently produce parts with little downtime. B) The smallest slide movement the machine can control and act upon. C) The ability to repeat the same slide movements within the same tolerance. D) The representation of the amount of inaccuracy permitted over a specified distance. 73. A floating reamer holder may _____ the effect of reamer misalignment. A) increase B) decrease C) stabilize 74. Which of the following types of lathe dogs is useful for finished work where a set screw might damage the surface finish? A) The safety clamp. B) The straight tail. C) The standard bent tail. D) The clamp. 75. What is one of the hazards of not applying enough pressure to the fasteners of components when machining? https://trades.exambank.com/cgi-bin/examinator2/1429?session=1717638783&key=3708386302&action=getexam 8/15 6/5/24, 9:47 PM ExamBank Login A) The component may come loose. B) The component may become deformed. C) The component may not get an even finish. D) The component may jam the machine. 76. Which of the following best describes a forming tool? A) It is used to cut intricate cylindrical profiles. B) It is used to cut the inside of a diameter. C) It cuts on its ends. D) It is used to cut a flat surface at right angles to the axis of the workpiece. 77. At what angle is saddle movement to the axis of the machining spindle? A) It is at 70-degree angles. B) It is at 30-degree angles. C) It is never parallel. D) It is parallel. 78. What is the cutting speed for a 2-inch diameter workpiece when the RPM is 600? A) It is 322.87 RPM. B) It is 314.16 RPM. C) It is 312.09 RPM. D) It is 309.43 RPM. 79. Which of the following is not a common type of grit used on an abrasive metal cut-off wheel? A) Aluminum oxide. B) Metal oxide. C) Silicon carbide. D) Diamond. 80. What is the best way to remove chips from a workpiece after it has been machined? A) Use your bare hand and push the chips away. B) Use compressed air and blow the chips away. C) Use high pressure water to blow the chips away. D) Use a brush or scraper to brush away the chips. 81. Which of the following best describes a self driving centre? A) It is used when the entire length of the workpiece must be machined in one pass. B) It rotates on a bearing to prevent friction and heat buildup. C) It is held in the tailstock spindle and does not turn. D) It uses an eccentric or dovetail. 82. If you are using a lathe to cut a 60 degree thread then the compound rest should be adjusted so the workpiece feeds at an angle of _____ degrees. A) 60 B) 45 C) 29.5 D) 15.5 83. Which of the following types of band saw blades is usually the most expensive? A) Carbon steel. B) Tungsten carbide. C) Bimetal. D) Abrasive. 84. What is zero suppression when dealing with CNC machines? A) It allows dimensions to be written without the zeros in front of the decimal point. B) It is used to reduce the number of zeros in the full format dimensions. C) It allows dimensions to be written without the zeros after the decimal point D) Where eight digits are required for each dimension. 85. Which of the following would be a reason to cut a groove into a workpiece? https://trades.exambank.com/cgi-bin/examinator2/1429?session=1717638783&key=3708386302&action=getexam 9/15 6/5/24, 9:47 PM ExamBank Login A) To relieve strain at the shoulder. B) To allow a nut to tighten against a shoulder. C) To provide a seat for an O-ring or snap. D) All of the above. 86. Which of the following CNC bed material; is known for its excellent shock and vibration dampening? A) Meehanite cast iron. B) Concrete. C) Polymer. D) Titanium alloys. 87. How many primary axes are used on CNC lathes and turning centres? A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1 88. What historic event had a large impact on the manufacturing sector? A) The creation of suburbs. B) World War Two. C) The need for large farm equipment due to the opening of the west. D) The fall of the stock market. Unit C: Trade Mathematics 89. What kind of taper does a taper pin have? A) It has 1 inch taper per foot. B) It has inch taper per foot. C) It has inch taper per foot. D) It has inch taper per foot. 90. Which of the following best describes a taper mandrel? A) It has an internal taper only to accept the tapered shank of a drill. B) The outside of the spindle nose is tapered as well as the inside. C) It is designed to align a milling cutter and to release easily. D) It is used in lathe work when a work piece must be held by its bore. 91. What is the perimeter of a triangle that has sides of 6 feet 4 inches, 8 feet 3 inches and 10 feet 6 inches? A) The perimeter is 24 feet 3 inches. B) The perimeter is 24 feet 6 inches. C) The perimeter is 25 feet 1 inch. D) The perimeter is 26 feet 2 inches. 92. Which of the following best describes an improper fraction? A) It can be described as numerator is equal to or greater than the denominator. B) It can be described as numerator and the denominator are always equal. C) It can be described as denominator is equal to or greater than the numerator. D) It can be described as fraction that always has two numerators. 93. A stack of 35 pieces of steel weighs 1800 pounds. A stack of 43 pieces of the same material will weigh how many pounds? A) 1465 pounds. B) 2211 pounds. C) 3265 pounds. D) 1987 pounds. https://trades.exambank.com/cgi-bin/examinator2/1429?session=1717638783&key=3708386302&action=getexam 10/15 6/5/24, 9:47 PM ExamBank Login 94. In the above diagram, how many inches will side be when = 6 inches and = 4 inches? A) Side will be 21.5 inches. B) Side will be 8.34 inches. C) Side will be 7.21 inches. D) Side will be 5.62 inches. 95. What is the calculated amount of tailstock offset to cut a taper having a large diameter of 60 mm, a small diameter 55 mm, a taper length of 110 mm and an overall length of 320 mm? A) 11.62 B) 10.31 C) 7.27 D) 3.51 96. What is the fraction expressed as a percentage? A) It would be 0.47 percent. B) It would be 4.7 percent. C) It would be 46.7 percent. D) It would be 53.3 percent. 97. What would 12.5% be when converted to a decimal expression? A) 12.5 B) 1.25 C) 0.125 D) 0.0125 98. How is the amount of taper expressed in the imperial system? A) It is expressed as taper per 20 inches. B) It is expressed as taper per foot. C) It is expressed as taper per inch. D) It is expressed as taper per mil. 99. What is the decimal value of 0.065 expressed in words? A) It would be sixty-five. B) It would be sixty-five tenths. C) It would be sixty-five hundredths. D) It would be sixty-five thousandths. 100. Perform the following function: What is the result expressed in the lowest terms? A) B) https://trades.exambank.com/cgi-bin/examinator2/1429?session=1717638783&key=3708386302&action=getexam 11/15 6/5/24, 9:47 PM ExamBank Login C) D) 101. Given that 1 pound = 0.454 kg, what is the value below? 125 lbs = ______ kg A) 275.33 B) 56.7 C) 5.67 D) 27.53 102. Refer to the above diagram. If is equal to 36 units and is equal to 15 units, what is the value for angle ? A) 25.2° B) 27.4° C) 58.7° D) 65.4° 103. The sum of the angles in a triangle will always equal how many degrees? A) It will always equal 90 degrees. B) It will always equal 120 degrees. C) It will always equal 180 degrees. D) It will always equal 360 degrees. 104. For the following proportion, what is the unknown value? A) 4 B) 92 C) 110 D) 132 Unit D: Print Reading 105. What is the combined maximum material condition and geometric tolerance called? A) Primary datum B) Virtual condition C) Bonus tolerance D) Feature control frame 106. https://trades.exambank.com/cgi-bin/examinator2/1429?session=1717638783&key=3708386302&action=getexam 12/15 6/5/24, 9:47 PM ExamBank Login Which of the above machine screw driving recesses represents a Slotted Spanner? A) A B) C C) D D) F 107. What is an LN fit intended for? A) It is intended for parts that are normally stationary. B) Where either a small amount of clearance or interference is acceptable. C) For parts that are normally stationary but must assembled and taken apart easily. D) Used when locational accuracy is the most important thing. 108. How many marks will a Grade 3 bolt have on its head? A) Two B) Three C) Five D) Six 109. When referring to machinist blueprints, what is the function of a break line? A) It shows that a part is the same on either side of the line. B) It allows a shape to be drawn in less space. C) It indicates where the sectional view came from. D) It determines the type of material to use. 110. Which of the following lay pattern symbols represents "angular in both directions"? A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1 111. Which of the following is NOT a short coming of conventional tolerancing? A) Ambiguous inspection requirements. B) Fixed-size tolerance zones. C) Square or rectangular tolerance zones. D) Specifying the size of features like chamfers. 112. When referring to machinist blueprints, what is the function of a cutting plane line? A) It shows that a part is the same on either side of the line. B) It allows a shape to be drawn in less space. C) It indicates where the sectional view came from. D) It determines the type of material to use. 113. Which of the following is the isometric drawing of the given orthographic drawing? https://trades.exambank.com/cgi-bin/examinator2/1429?session=1717638783&key=3708386302&action=getexam 13/15 6/5/24, 9:47 PM ExamBank Login A) B) C) 114. When referring to surface finishes, what does the term "nominal surface" mean? A) The pattern of groves or scratches left on the surface of a workpiece by the cutting action of the tool. B) The intended surface of the workpiece as specified in the drawing. C) The average deviation from the centerline measured in microinces or micro meters. D) The greatest spacing between adjacent grooves or scratches. 115. What is the best description for a close sliding fit? A) Running parts on modern machinery with moderate speeds and journal pressures. B) Accurate location of parts without perceptible play. C) Accurate location of parts where parts move and turn freely but are not intended to run freely. D) Work that must run freely but at slow speeds and light journal presses. 116. When referring to material section lines on a blueprint, which of the above would represent a material section for steel? A) #1 B) #2 C) #3 D) #4 117. When referring to machinist blueprint drawings, what assumption is made about all threads? A) It is assumed they are right hand unless otherwise noted. B) It is assumed they are centered unless otherwise noted. C) It is assumed they are left hand unless otherwise noted. D) It is assumed they are rotated unless otherwise noted. 118. What is the best description for a sliding fit? A) Running parts on modern machinery with moderate speeds and journal pressures. B) Accurate location of parts without perceptible play. C) Accurate location of parts where parts move and turn freely but are not intended to run freely. D) Work that must run freely but at slow speeds and light journal presses. https://trades.exambank.com/cgi-bin/examinator2/1429?session=1717638783&key=3708386302&action=getexam 14/15 6/5/24, 9:47 PM ExamBank Login 119. Which of the following statements best describes a micro-inch? A) It is one thousand of an inch B) It is one millionth of an inch. C) It is the metric unit of measurement for surface roughness. D) It is expressed as 1000000.00 of an inch. 120. What is an LC fit intended for? A) It is intended for parts that are normally stationary. B) Where either a small amount of clearance or interference is acceptable. C) For parts that are normally stationary but must assembled and taken apart easily. D) For parts that are very tight and never intended to be removed. Submit Test For Online Marking Get Answer Key Important! If you want the computer to mark your test for you, click on "Submit Test for Online Marking" above. Only click on "Get Answer Key" if you have printed this test, and want to get a corresponding answer key to print off as well. For most browsers, if you click on the wrong button, you will be unable to go back if you change your mind. Request took 0.127 seconds. Exam ID: 1717638783 Copyright © 2024, Syzygy Research & Technology Ltd. All rights reserved. Follow us; we're friendly! https://trades.exambank.com/cgi-bin/examinator2/1429?session=1717638783&key=3708386302&action=getexam 15/15

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