exam GM 2024.pdf

80 0 30 EXAMEN $1 Receptors receiving stimuli outside of the body are: Exteroceptors Interoceptors Nociceptors $1 Receptors receiving stimuli within the body are: Interoceptors Exteroceptors Thermoreceptors $1 How is the stimulus, which receptor was adapted during evolution, called? Adequate stimulus Inadequate stimulus $1 How is the stimulus, which receptor was not adapted during evolution, called? Inadequate stimulus Adequate stimulus $1 What is the function of the receptors? Transformation of energy of stimulus in a nervous impulse Formation of sensation Carrying out of excitation in a brain $1 What is the function of pathways in sensory system? Carrying out of excitation from a receptors to the cerebral cortex Formation of sensation Perception of stimulus $5 Depending on type of stimulus energy receptors are subdivided into: mechanical receptors thermal receptors photoreceptors chemoreceptors nociceptors exteroceptors interoceptors $3 List types of sensory receptors which cause development of generator potential: Vision Audition Taste Smell Touch Pain $1 Specify correct sequence of auditory ossicles: malleus - incus - stapes incus - malleus - stapes stapes - incus - malleus $1 How many courses (or tubes) has the chohlea? 2,5 3 2 $2 Where does a perylymph of chohlea locate? In scala vestibule In scala tympani In scala media $1 Where does an endolymph of chohlea locate? Is scala media In scala vestibule In scala tympani $1 Where does an organ of Corti locate? Inside of scala media Inside of scala vestibule Inside of scala tympani $1 What function is carried out with the Eustachian tube? Levels pressure on the middle ear with atmospheric Reduces pressure on the middle ear $1 Than the scala vestibule is formed? Wall of the cohlea and Reissners (or vestibular) membrane Wall of the cohlea and the basilar membrane The vestibular and the membranes $1 What is the scala media formed? The vestibular and basilar membranes Wall of the cohlea and Reissners (or vestibular) membrane Wall of the cohlea and the basilar membrane $1 What is the scala tympani formed? Wall of the cohlea and the basilar membrane Wall of the cohlea and Reissners (or vestibular) membrane The vestibular and basilar membranes $1 The scala vestibular begins from: The oval window The round window $1 The scala tympani contacts with: The round window The oval window $1 What ions is contained more in endolymph, than in perilymph? K+ Na+ Ca2+ $3 What basic divisions does an ear form? The external ear The middle ear The internal ear The pinne The auditory canal $1 The handle of the malleus attaches with: the tympanic membrane the oval window the round window $1 The stapes contacts with: the oval window the round window the tympanic membrane $1 What contacts with the tectorial membrane? Stereocilia of the hair cells The hair cells The basilar membrane $1 Where does the auditory cortex locate? In the temporal lobe In the frontal lobe In the occipital lobe $1 What receptor cells does an organ of Corti form? Hair cells Cones Rods $1 Specify limits of sound frequencies for human hearing are: 20 - 20000 Hz 1000 - 3000 Hz 12 - 2000 Hz $1 Specify sound frequency of speech is: 1000 - 3000 Hz 20 - 20000 Hz 120 - 4000 Hz $1 Specify sound intensity of speech is: 65 dB 100 dB 140 dB $1 Specify intensity of a sound that damage sound receptors: 140 dB 100 dB 65 dB $1 The muscle responsible for the change of the shape of the lens is the: Ciliary muscle Arrector pili muscle Orbicularis oculi Superior rectus muscle $1 The layer that contains photoreceptors is the: Retina Cornea Sclera Iris $1 The area containing the highest concentration of cones is the: Fovea centralis Optic disc Macula lutea $1 Refractive power of optical system is measured in: Diopters Decibels Hertz $1 The clear jellulike substance behind the lens of the eye is the: Vitreous humor Aqueous humor Ciliary body $1 The bending of light at the cornea and lens is: Refraction Contraction Reflection Accommodation $1 Night blindness is a sign of: Vitamin A deficiency Cataracts Glaucoma Myopia $1 Sympathetic stimulation of the iris causes: Papillary dilation Papillary constriction Papillary inhibition $1 Parasympathetic stimulation of the iris causes: Papillary constriction Papillary inhibition Papillary dilation $2 Cone cells are photoreceptors that: Respond to colored light Respond to bright light Respond to low light levels $1 Rod cells are photoreceptors that: Respond to low light levels Respond to colored light Respond to bright light $1 The region where the lens focuses the image on the retina is the: Fovea centralis Blind spot Yellowish pigmented spot $1 Photoreceptors release more neurotransmitters: In darkness In brighter light Only when stimulated by bipolar cells $1 Aqueous humor: Is present in the anterior and posterior chambers Is produced from capillaries in the iris Provides nutrients for the retina $1 What structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye? Iris Lens Pupil $1 Vision is the most acute when light rays are brought to focus on the: Fovea centralis Optics disc The outermost layer of the retina $1 Where does the visual cortex localise? In the occipital lobes In the temporal lobe In the parietal lobe $3 What cells are a part of a retina? Photoreceptors Bipolar cells Ganglion cells Hair cells Neurons $4 List defects of a refraction of sight: Hypermetropia (hyperopia) Myopia Presbyopia Astigmatism Emmetropia $1 Defect of a refraction of sight at old age is: Presbyopia Emmetropia Hypermetropia Myopia $1 Optic nerve forms axon's cells of retina from: The ganglion cells The bipolar cells The horizontal cells $1 The place of an output of an optic nerve from an eyeball is: A blind spot A yellowish spot Fovea $1 In a place of an output of an optic nerve from an eyeball on the retina there are: No photoreceptors Cones Rods $1 At myopia focus is: Before a retina On a retina Behind a retina $1 At hyperopia focus is: Behind a retina Before a retina On a retina $1 A deuteranopia - is anomaly of color sight when the perception of following color is broken: Green color Red color Blue color Yellow color $1 A protanopia- is anomaly of color sight when the perception of following color is broken: Red color Blue color Yellow color Green color $2 A tritanopia- is anomaly of color sight when the perception of following color is broken: Blue color Violet color Green color Red color $1 Unequal refraction of rays of light by different sites of a cornea of an eye is: Astigmatism Myopia Accommodation $2 Chorda tympanic nerve innervates the following salivary glands: submandibular glands sublingual glands parotid glands $1 Glossopharyngeal nerve innervates the following salivary glands: parotid glands submandibular glands sublingual glands $4 The following structures take part in regulation of salivation: cerebral cortex gypotalamus medulla Spinal cord Cerebellum Mesencephalon $1 What is pH of a saliva? 6,0 - 7,4 8,6 - 8,8 0,8 - 1,5 2,0 - 2,5 $1 What is the basic role of gastrin? Stimulates secretion of a gastric juice Activates enzymes of a pancreas Transforms in a stomach a pepsinogen in pepsin Stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice $1 What is the reaction of juice in piloric region of a stomach? Slightly alkaline Acid Alkaline Neutral $1 Where is located the salivary center? In the brain stem (the reticular formation of the medulla) In the thalamys In the thoracic segments of the spinal cord $1 Fat has a double effect on a secretion of a gastric juice: In the beginning it brakes secretion, and then raises In the beginning it raises secretion, and then brakes Does not influence on secretion $1 The general duration of gastric secretion averages: 6-10 hours 2-4 hours 12 - 14 hours $5 Enumerate enzymes of a gastric juice: Pepsin A Pepsin B or parapepsin Pepsin C or gastricin Pepsin D or rennin Gastric lipase Trypsin Chymotrypsin $1 The gastric juice has acid reaction which is equal: 1,5 - 2 3-4 0,4 - 0,5 $1 Mucous cells of the stomach secrete: Mucus HCl Pepsinogens $1 The chief cells of the stomach secrete: Pepsinogens HCl Mucus $1 The parietal cells of the stomach secrete: HCl Pepsinogens Mucus $6 Hydrochloric acid of gastric juice: Activates a pepsinogen Possesses bactericidal action Promotes swelling of proteins in a stomach Participates in the mechanism of transition of food from a stomach in a duodenal gut Participates in the mechanism of branch of bile Participates in formation of hormones of an intestinal tract Activates trypsin and chymotrypsin Digestion proteins, fats and carbohydrates $3 Enumerate the components of saliva: Alpha-amylase (or ptyalin) Maltase Lysozyme Enterokinase Trypsin Chymotrypsin $1 How many saliva is secreted per day? 1,5 - 2 litres 3 litres About 5 litres $1 The digestive system serves the following functions: All listed Digestion of food Secretion of various digestive juices Absorption of the digestive products, salts, water Excretion Incretion $5 Enumerate hormones of digestive tract: Gastrin Secretin Cholecystokinin Bombesin Somatostatin Adrenaline Tripsin Pepsin $1 The following process occure in the oral cavity: Initial mechanical and chemical processing of food Initial hydrolysis of proteins Initial hydrolysis of fats $2 What parasympathetic nerves innervate salivary glands? Glossopharyngeal nerve Chorda tympanic nerve Trigeminal nerve Hypoglossal nerve Vagus nerve $1 The first phase of gastric secretion is: The cephalic phase The gastric phase The intestinal phase $1 The second phase of gastric secretion is: The gastric phase The intestinal phase The cephalic phase $1 The third phase of gastric secretion is: The intestinal phase The cephalic phase The gastric phase $3 List types of normal movements of small intestine: Rhythmic segmentation Peristalsis Tonic conctraction Retropulsion $3 Fundic glands of the stomach contain following types of secretory cells: Chief cells Parietal cells Mucous cells Endocrine cells $2 Pyloric glands of the stomach contain following types of secretory cells: Mucous cells G-cells Chief cells Parietal cells $2 Where are pyloric glands of the stomach localized? The antrum region The pyloric region The fundus $4 List afferent fibres from the oral cavity: Chorda tympanic nerve Vagus nerve Glossopharyngeal nerve Trigeminal nerve (n. lingualis) Hypoglossal nerve $1 The appetite juice is secreted during: cephalic phase gastric phase intestine phase $3 The appetite juice has the following characteristics: Rich in pepsin Slightly acid in reaction Contains mucus Alkaline Not enough enzymes $3 Actions of cholecystokinin (CCK) are: Stimulates contraction of the gallbladder Stimulates secretion of the pancreatic enzyme Increases motility of small intestinal Inhibits secretion of the pancreatic enzyme Inhibits contraction of the gallbladder Decreases motility of small intestinal $1 How many bile is secreted per day? 0.5-1.5 1.5-2.0 2.5-3.0 $1 What is reaction (pH) of a bile? 7.0-8.6 5.5-6.5 2.5-3.5 1.5-2.0 $6 List the components of the bile: Bile salts Bile pigments Cholesterol Fatty acids Lecithin Mineral substances Cholecystokinin Pancreozymin Trypsin $2 List the primary bile acids: Cholic acid Chenodeoxycholic acid Glykocholic acid Taurocholic acid $2 List the secondary bile acids: Glykocholic acid Taurocholic acid Cholic acid Chenodeoxycholic acid $6 List the basic enzymes of pancreatic juice: Trypsinogen Chymotrypsinogen Procarboxypeptidase Pancreatic lipase Amylase Phospholipase A Enterokinase $8 Formation of bile is stimulated by: Acts of food Bile acid Hydrochloric acid Yolks of egg Mineral water Coarse food Products stand of protein Bile $4 Which of these hormones stimulate contraction of the gallbladder? Cholecystokinin Gastrin Secretin Bombesin Glucagon Calcitonin $2 Which of these hormones inhibite contraction of the gallbladder? Glucagon Calcitonin Cholecystokinin Gastrin Secretin Bombesin $2 List chemical stimulators of the intestinal juice secretion: Products of digestion of proteins and fats Pancreatic juice Gastric juice Saliva $8 List the basic enzymes of intestinal juice: Enterokinase Amylase Lipase Nuclease Peptidase Maltasa Lactase Sucrase (Invertase) Chymotrypsin $5 What hormones increase motility of small intestinal? Histamin Cholecystokinin Gastrin Serotonin Acetylcholine Norepinephrine $2 List hormones of pancreas as endocrine gland: Glucagon Insulin Secretin Bombesin Cholecystokinin $1 Parasympathetic nervous system is: usually excitatory on the functions of the gastrointestinal tract usually inhibitory on the functions of the gastrointestinal tract $1 Sympathetic nervous system is: usually inhibitory on the functions of the gastrointestinal tract usually excitatory on the functions of the gastrointestinal tract $1 What is reaction (pH) of a pancreatic juice? 7.8-8.4 1.5-2.0 3.5-4.0 $1 How many pancreatic juice is maked per day? 2.0-2.5 L 0.5-1.0 L 2.7-3.0 L $1 Trypsinogen can be activated by: Enterokinase HCl Lipase Chymotrypsin $1 Chymotrypsinogen can be activated by: Trypsin Pepsin HCl Lipase $3 List phases of secretion of pancreatic juice: Cephalic phase Gastric phase Intestinal phase Nervous phase Chemical phase $1 Which hormone stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice in a cephalic phase? Acetylcholine Norepinephrine Adrenalin Gastrin Serotonin $1 Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves: increase secretion of pancreatic juice decrease secretion of pancreatic juice $1 Stimulation of sympathetic nerves: decrease secretion of pancreatic juice increase secretion of pancreatic juice $4 What hormones increase secretion of pancreatic juice? Secretin Cholecystokinin Bombesin Gastrin Glucagon Serotonin $1 What pancreatic juice is allocated by action of secretin? It is a lot of bicarbonates, it is not enough enzymes It is not enough bicarbonates, it is a lot of enzymes $1 What pancreatic juice is allocated by action of cholecystokinin? It is not enough bicarbonates, it is a lot of enzymes It is a lot of bicarbonates, it is not enough enzymes $1 The major stimulus for primary peristalsis in the esophagus is: swallowing presence of food in the esophagus regurgitation of food from the stomach closing of the upper esophageal sphincter opening of the lower esophageal sphincter $1 Which of the following will inhibit stomach contractions? Secretin Acetylcholine (ACh) Motilin Gastrin Histamine $1 The major stimulus for gastric acid (HCI) secretion during the cephalic phase is: acetylcholine (ACh) histamine gastrin secretin somatostatin $1 The major stimulus for the release of secretin is: hydrochloric acid (HCI) protein digestion products histamine somatostatin cholecystokinin (CCK) $1 Fats are transported from intestinal cells to blood plasma in the form of: Chylomicrons micelles triglycerides fatty acids monoglycerides $1 Gastric acid (HCI) secretion is inhibited by: somatostatin high pH amino acids acetylcholine (ACh) $5 The major factor controlling the secretion of bile from the liver is the amount of: bile reabsorbed from the intestine secretin released during a meal fat entering the small intestine bile acids produced by the liver cholecystokinin (CCK) released during a meal $4 Intestinal motility is increased by: cholecystokinin (CCK) gastrin insulin motilin $1 All of the following stimulate cholecystokinin (CCK) secretion, EXCEPT: bile acids amino acids fatty acids hydrochloric acid (HCI) $2 Which stimulus are important for the regulation of gastric acid (HCI) secretion? Histamine Gastrin Secretin Cholecystokinin (CCK) Bombesin Motilin $1 Which hormone is most important for the regulation of gastrin secretion? Bombesin Secretin Histamine Cholecystokinin (CCK) Motilin $1 Which hormone is most important for the regulation of pancreatic enzyme secretion? Cholecystokinin (CCK) Secretin Histamine Bombesin Motilin $1 Which hormone is most important for the regulation of gallbladder emptying? Cholecystokinin (CCK) Secretin Histamine Bombesin Motilin $1 Where does the secretion of gastrin occur? Antrum of the stomach Fundus of the stomach Duodenum of the intestine Ileum of the intestine Colon $1 Where does the absorption of iron occur? Duodenum of the intestine Fundus of the stomach Antrum of the stomach Ileum of the intestine Colon $1 Where does the absorption of bile acids occur? Ileum of the intestine Fundus of the stomach Antrum of the stomach Duodenum of the intestine Colon $1 In which case a negative nitrogenous balance will be observed in the man? In significant decreasing of protein consistence in food During the pregnancy In the growing period In significant increasing of protein consistence in food $3 In which case a positive nitrogenous balance will be observed in the man? In the growing period During the pregnancy In the recovery period (after heavy diseases) In the senile age During the starvation During the physical loadings $1 How many proteins organism needs daily? 80-100 g 30-40 g 90-100 g 400-450 g $1 How many lipids organism needs daily? 90-100 g 30-40 g 400-450 g 800-900 g $1 How many carbohydrates organism needs daily? 400-450 g 90-100 g 50-60 g 800-900 g $1 What is the respiratory quotient named? It is the ratio of the volume of carbon dioxide produced by the volume of oxygen consumed It is the ratio of the volume of oxygen consumed by the volume of carbon dioxide produced Calories quantity which are released after absorbing 1 liter of oxygen $1 How is the oxygen caloric equivalent named? Calories quantity which are released after absorbing 1 liter of oxygen Attitude of the Extracted Carbon dioxide volume to the absorbed oxygen volume Attitude of the absorbed oxygen volume to the extracted carbon dioxide volume $1 What is the caloric coefficient for the proteins? 4,1 kcal /17,17 kJ/ 9,3 kcal /38,94 kJ/ 300 kcal /1256 kJ/ $1 What is the caloric coefficient for the carbohydrates? 4,1 kcal /17,17 kJ/ 9,3 kcal /38,94 kJ/ 300 kcal /1256 kJ/ $1 What is the caloric coefficient for the lipids? 9,3 kcal /38,94 kJ/ 300 kcal /1256 kJ/ 4,1 kcal /17,17 kJ/ $1 What is the respiratory quotient equality during the proteins oxidation? 0.8 0.7 1.0 $1 What is the respiratory quotient equality during the lipids oxidation? 0.7 0.8 1.0 $1 What is the respiratory quotient equality during the carbohydrates oxidation? 1.0 0.7 0.8 $4 What standard conditions for the identification of the main exchange (basal metabolism) are used? laying empty stomach physical and emotional resting temperature 18-20 degrees temperature 20-22 degrees after meal standing $1 What is the basal metabolism named? Energy quantity, which is spent for the vital activity support Energy quantity, which is spent with high activity during the day $4 Basal metabolism depends on: Age Height Weight Sex Temperature Physical loading Emotional condition $1 Basal metabolism is increased by: Hyperfunction of the thyroid gland Hypofunction of the thyroid gland Hyperfunction of the pancreatic gland $1 How is possible to judge about energy output by using the direct calorimetrical method? By the water temperature changes in the biocalorimetrical camera By the stock-taking of the released oxygen and excreted carbon dioxide By the caloric value of the nutritious substances $1 How is possible to judge about energy output by using the indirect calorimetrical method? By the stock-taking of the oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide output By the water temperature changes in the biocalorimetrical camera By the caloric value of the nutritious substances $1 What is the average equality of the basal metabolism rate? 1700 kcal /7117 kJ/ 2000 kcal /9200 kJ/ 3000 kcal /12560/ $1 How is the basal metabolism changed with the age? Decrease Increase No change $1 What is the difference of the basal metabolism between men and women with the same weight? femail exchange is lesser by 10% femail exchange is higher by 10% femail exchange is lesser by 20% femail exchange is higher by 20% $1 What is the labour metabolism named? Energy which is excreted by working Energy which is excreted during the meal Energy which is excreted during the vital activity processes $1 What groups is the population divided by their power inputs? 4 groups 3 groups 5 groups $1 What are the daily power inputs of the persons, who are engaged with the mental work (I group)? 2200 - 3300 kcal /9211 - 13816 kJ/ 2300 - 3500 kcal /9838 - 14654 kJ/ $1 What are the daily power inputs of the persons, who are engaged with the easy physical work (II group)? 2350 - 3500 kcal /9838 - 14654 kJ/ 2200 - 3300 kcal /9211 - 13816 kJ/ 2900 - 4200 kcal /12142 - 17585 kJ/ $1 What are the daily power inputs of the persons, who are engaged with the heavy physical work (IV group)? 3500 - 4200 kcal /14654 - 17585 kJ/ 2200 - 3300 kcal /9211 - 13816 kJ/ 2350 - 3500 kcal /9838 - 14654 kJ/ $1 The specific dynamic action of a food is: Increasing of the organism`s power inputs, which is connected with the feeding Decreasing of the organism`s power inputs, which is connected with the feeding $1 What is the value of specific dynamic action of a food during the mixed feeding? 15% 30% 6% $1 The regulation center of metabolism and energy exchange is situated in: Hypothalamus Medulla Cerebellum $1 The largest quantity of warmth is formed in: Working skeletal muscles Lungs Kidneys Connective tissue $1 When the temperature of surrounding environment increases, the skin capillaries: Dilate Narrow Don't change $1 This organ has the most height temperature in humans organism: Liver Brain Kidney $1 The main temperature centers are situated in: Hypothalamus Thalamus Cerebral cortex $1 The temperature constancy of the body is called as: Isothermia Hypothermia Hyperthermia $1 The increasing temperature of the body above 37 C degrees is called: Hyperthermia Hypothermia Isothermia $1 The cooling of organism down to 35 C degrees is called: Hypothermia Isothermia Hyperthermia Geterothermia $1 The processe of heat formation in human organism is called: Heat production Heat balance Heat emission (output) Heat redistribution $1 Changing the intensity of metabolism in cells influences on the processes of: Heat production Heat conducting Heat emission (output) Heat radiation $1 When the surrounding environment temperature increases, the heat emission from body surface: Increases Doesn't change Decreases $1 When the peripheral blood vessels contract by adrenalin, the heat emission: Decreases Increases $5 Inspiratory muscles include: external intercostal muscle the diaphragm greater and small chest scalenes sterno-cleido-mastoids internal intercostal muscle the abdominal muscles of a forward wall $2 Expiratory muscles include: internal intercostal muscle the abdominal muscles of a forward wall external intercostal muscle the diaphragm greater and small chest scalenes sterno-cleido-mastoids $4 A passive expiration appears due to: The lifted thorax elastic resistance of the lungs elastic resistance of costal cartilages of a thorax pressure organs of a belly cavity contraction of abdominal muscles of a wall peristaltic contractions the small intestine $3 What is the role of alveolar surfactant? possesses bacteriostatic effect interferes with an atelectasis decreases their surface tension during expiration regulates speed of a blood flow in lungs $1 The surface tension in lungs is regulated by: surfactant water pairs the gas $1 Negative pressure in a pleural cavity is caused by: elastic resistance of lungs contraction of the respiratory muscles presence of a serous liquid in a pleural cavity $3 Elastic resistance of lungs is caused by: surface tension of the intraalveolar fluid presence of elastic fibres in lungs a tone of bronchial muscles a difference partial pressure of gases $3 The vital capacity of lungs includes: Tidal volume Inspiratory reserve volume Expiratory reserve volume Residual volume $1 How does the volume of a pleural cavity change during inspiration? Does not change Increases Decreases $3 What is the function of the anatomic dead space? Provides a constancy of temperature of alveolar air Supports humidity of alveolar air Promotes clarification of inspired air Participates in gas exchange regulates volume of inspired air $2 Lungs don't fall down during the deepest expiration, because of: negative pressure in a pleural cavity presence of surfactant in alveoles presence the water pairs in alveoles presence a serous liquid in a pleural cavity $1 What is the tidal volume? Volume of air inspired or expired during quiet breathing Volume of air inhaled or exhaled during deep breathing $1 What is the residual volume of air? Volume of air which remains in lungs after the maximal expiration Volume of air which remains in lungs after a quiet expiration Volume of air which remains in lungs after removal of Tidal volume $1 The tidal volume is equal to: 300 - 500 ml 150 - 200 ml 1000 - 1500 ml $1 The pulmonary ventilation is: an exchange of gases between an atmosphere and alveoluses an exchange of gases between alveoluses and blood an exchange of gases between an atmosphere and blood $1 What is the percentage of oxygen in atmospheric air? 20,94 % 20,03 % 21,93 % $1 What is the percentage of oxygen in expired air? 16,3 % 17,00 % 16,56 % $1 What is the percentage of oxygen in alveolar air? 14,5 % 13,00 % 13,43 % $1 What is the percentage of a carbon dioxide in atmospheric air? 0,03 % 0,04 % 4,53 % $1 What is the percentage of a carbon dioxide in alveolar air? 5,50 % 0,03 % 4,50 % $1 What is the percentage of a carbon dioxide in expired air? 4,0 % 3,50 % 5,50 % $1 What is the size of residual volume? 1200 ml 2400 ml 1800 ml $1 The inspiration begins from: Contractions of inspiratory muscles From reduction of pressure in alveoluses From reduction of pressure in a pleural cavity $1 How changes the pressure in a pleural cavity during quiet breathing? Decreases up to-4-8 mm hg Decreases up to-1-3 mm hg Increases up to 4-8 mm hg Increases up to 1-3 mm hg $1 The Functional Residual Capacity is: Volume of air remaining in the lungs after a quiet expiration Volume of air remaining after a deep inspiration Volume of air remaining in the lungs after a deep expiration $3 The Vital Capacity includes: Inspiratory reserve volume Tidal volume Expiratory reserve volume Volume of air of dead space $2 What volumes make the Inspiratory Capacity? Tidal volume Inspiratory reserve volume Expiratory reserve volume $4 What volumes make the Total Lung Capacity? Tidal volume Inspiratory reserve volume Expiratory reserve volume Residual volume Volume of air of dead space $1 What is the pneumothorax? Presence of air in a pleural cavity Reduction of volume of alveoluses Reduction of volume of a pleural cavity Presence of a liquid in a pleural cavity $3 Blood transports the following gases: oxygen nitrogen carbon dioxide oxide $1 How does vagus influence on the bronchus lumen? contracts dilates $3 Which factors influence on the rate of gases exchange in lungs? gradient of partial pressure of gases square of environment diffusion thickness of alveolar-capillary membrane diameter of pulmonary capillary moisture of inspired air $2 How is oxygen transported by blood? dissolved in plasma in connection with haemoglobin in connection with oxygen receptors in the form of methemoglobin $3 How is carbonic acid transported by blood? dissolved in plasma in the form of carbhaemoglobin in the form of bicarbonates in the form of carboxyhemoglobin in the form of carbonates $2 Where are peripheral chemoreceptors located? in carotid sinus in arch of aorta in the vena cava in the bifurcation of aorta $1 Where are respiratory centre located in the narrow sense? in medulla in midbrain in pons in cerebellum in the cortex $1 How is called the short stoppage of respiration during hypocapnia? apnoe dyspnîe eipnîe asphyxia $1 Which of peripheral chemoreceptors play the main role in stimulation of respiratory centre? chemoreceptors of carotid sinus chemoreceptors of arch of aorta chemoreceptors of medulla $2 Medullary chemoreceptors are excited by: carbon dioxide hydrogen ions oxygen $2 Which of chemoreceptors are excited by oxygen dissolved in plasma? chemoreceptors of carotid sinus chemoreceptors of arch of aorta chemoreceptors of vena cava chemoreceptors of medulla $1 Impulses from mechanoreceptors of lungs enter the respiratory center by: afferent fibres of vagus nerve sympathetic nerve diaphragmatic nerve depressor nerve $3 Respiratory center is excited by: hypercapnia hypoxemia acidosis alkalosis hyperoxia hypocapnia $1 Where are located medullary chemoreceptors? in medulla in mesencephalon in hypothalamus $1 What is the afferent unit of reflex by Hering - Breuer? vagus nerve trigeminus nerve sympathetic nerve $1 Reflex by Hering-Breuer is originated from: pulmonary stretch receptors lung's chemoreceptors receptors of reflexogenic zones receptors of intercostals muscles $1 What is the amount of oxygen partial pressure in alveolar air? 100 mm Hg 46 mm Hg 40 mm Hg $1 What is the amount of carbon dioxide partial pressure in alveolar air? 40 mm Hg 100 mm Hg 46 mm Hg $1 What is the tension of oxygen in arterial blood? 100 mm Hg 46 mm Hg 40 mm Hg $1 What is the tension of carbon dioxide in arterial blood? 40 mm Hg 100 mm Hg 46 mm Hg $1 What is the tension of oxygen in venous blood? 40 mm Hg 100 mm Hg 46 mm Hg. $1 What is the tension of carbon dioxide in venous blood? 46 mm Hg 40 mm Hg 100 mm Hg $1 Steep part of oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is corresponded with the tension of oxygen: 20 - 60 mm Hg 10 - 20 mm Hg 60 - 100 mm Hg $1 What is the shape of oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve? sigmoid in shape linear shape exponential shape $4 Which factors increase the rate of oxyhemoglobin dissociation? decrease in tension of oxygen increase in tension of carbon dioxide increase in temperature acidosis alkalosis increase in tension of oxygen decrease in tension of carbon dioxide decrease in temperature $2 In which forms carbon dioxide is transported by red blood cells? carbhemoglobin potassium bicarbonate sodium bicarbonate carboxyhemoglobin $2 Which forms of carbon dioxide is transported in plasma? carbon dioxide dissolved in plasma sodium bicarbonate potassium bicarbonate $1 How do sympathetic nerves influence on bronchial tube lumen? dilate constrict do not influence $5 Which of central neurons take part in regulation of breathing? neurons of cerebral cortex neurons of hypothalamus neurons of pons neurons of medula neurons of spinal cord neurons of cerebellum neurons of thalamus $1 The breathing in calm state is called: eipnoe dyspnoe apnoe tachypnoe $1 Hypoxemia is: decreasing content of oxygen in blood decreasing content of oxygen in tissues increasing content of oxygen in blood decreasing content of carbon dioxide in blood $1 Hyperoxia is: increasing content of oxygen in blood increasing content of oxygen in tissues increasing content of carbon dioxide in blood $1 Hypoxia is: deficit of oxygen in tissues deficit of oxygen in blood $1 The tension of carbon dioxide in arterial blood during hypercapnia is: 45 - 50 mm Hg 30 - 40 mm Hg 25 - 30 mm Hg $3 Which experiments determined localization of medullary respiratory centre? brain structures transection registration of electrical activity of neurons local electrical irritation breathing of gas mixture denervation of reflexogenic zones $1 Breathing after nervus vagus transection: become rare and deep become an impossible be realized by diaphragm only no change $1 Breathing after transection under medulla: becomes an impossible becomes rare and deep no change be realized by diaphragm only $1 Breathing after transection between cervical and thorax segments of spinal cord: is realized by diaphragm only becomes an impossible becomes rare and deep no change $1 What is the role of reflex by Hering-Breuer? contribute to replacement of respiratory phases make inspiration deeper make expiration longer $1 What does experiment by Hering-Breuer demonstrate? role of pulmonary stretch sensors (receptors) in replacement of inspiration to expiration role of chemoreceptors in stimulation of inspiratory neurons role of proprioceptors in stimulation of respiratory centre $1 Inhalation mixed gases with 5-6% of carbon dioxide makes respiration: deep and rapid rare superficial $1 Mountain's sickness develops in altitude: 4 - 5 km 2 - 3 km 7 - 8 km $1 How does gases tension in blood change by submergence on a great depths? increases decreases doesn't change $1 How does oxygen tension in blood change by ascent to a high altitude? decrease increase no change $3 Where are the parasympathetic centers located? In the middle brain In the medulla In the sacral segments of spinal cord In the pectoral segments of spinal cord In the lumbar segments of spinal cord $2 Where are the sympathetic centers located? In the thoracical segments of spinal cord In the lumbar segments of spinal cord In the middle brain In the medulla In the sacral segments of spinal cord $4 How does vegetative nervous system distinguishe from somatic nervous system? by localization of nuclei in CNS by absence of segmental distribution in periphery by the little diameter of fibers by interruption of fibers in peripheral ganglions by segmental distribution of fibers in periphery by large diameter of fibers $1 Vegetative nervous system has isolated a) centripetal tracts b) centrifugal tracts: a) no b) yes a) yes b) no a) yes b) yes a) no b) no $1 The transmitter of preganglionic fibers of: a) sympathetic system b) parasympathetic system is: a) acetylcholine b) acetylcholine a) acetylcholine b) noradrenaline a) noradrenaline b) acetylcholine a) noradrenaline b) noradrenaline $1 The transmitter of postganglionic fibers of: a) sympathetic system b) parasympathetic system is: a) noradrenaline b) acetylcholine a) sympatin b) acetylcholine a) acetylcholine b) sympatin a) acetylcholine b) noradrenaline $1 What part of diencephalon controls the parasympathetic nervous system? Anterior section of hypothalamus Middle section of hypothalamus Posterior section of hypothalamus Lateral section of hypothalamus $4 Enumerate the effects of sympathetic nervous system stimulation: Increase heart rate Inhibition the motor activities of gastrointestinal tract Dilatation the bronchial tube Dilatation the pupil (mydriasis) Inhibition heart rate Increase the motor activities of gastrointestinal tract Constriction the bronchial tube Constriction the pupil (miosis) $4 Enumerate the effects of parasympathetic nervous system stimulation: Inhibition the heart rate Increase the motor activities of gastrointestinal tract Constriction the bronchial tube Constriction the pupil (miosis) Increase heart rate Inhibition the motor activities of gastrointestinal tract Dilatation the bronchial tube Dilatation the pupil (mydriasis) $4 What changes may be observed during irritation the posterior nuclei group of hypothalamus? Dilatation the pupil (mydriasis) Increase the heart rate Constriction the blood vessels and increase of blood pressure Inhibition the motor activities of gastrointestinal tract Constriction the pupil (miosis) Decrease the heart rate Decrease the tone of arteries and blood pressure Increase the motor activities of gastrointestinal tract $5 What changes may be observed during irritation the anterior nuclei group of hypothalamus? Constriction the pupil (miosis) Constriction the bronchial tube Decrease the heart rate Increase the motor activities of gastrointestinal tract Urination and dejection Dilatation the pupil (mydriasis) Increase the heart rate Constriction the blood vessels and increase of blood pressure Inhibition the motor activities of gastrointestinal tract $1 Where are located the centers of saturation and hunger? Middle section of hypothalamus Anterior section of hypothalamus Posterior section of hypothalamus Lateral section of hypothalamus Thalamus $1 What type of nervous fibers are preganglionic fibers? Type B Type C Type A $1 What type of nervous fibers are preganglionic fibers? Type C Type B Type A $1 What is the velocity of nerve impulses in preganglionic fibers? 3 - 18 m/sec 1 - 3 m/sec 70-120 m/sec $1 What is the velocity of nerve impulses in postganglionic fibers? 1 - 3 m/sec 3 - 18 m/sec 70-120 m/sec $4 Which of the nerves endings release acetylcholine? Parasympathetic nerves Sympathetic nerves which innervate vessels of skeletal muscles Sympathetic nerves of sweat glands In the synapses of fibrae preganglionares Sympathetic fibrae postganglionares $1 Which of enzyme breaks down acetylcholine? Acetylcholinesterase Monoamine oxidase Adenilatcyclase Carboanhidrase $1 Which of enzyme breaks down noradrenaline? Monoamine oxidase Acetylcholinesterase Adenilatcyclase Carboanhidrase $1 What receptors lose sensitivity to acetylcholine being under influence of atropine? Cholinergic receptors Adrenergic receptors $1 The highest centre of vegetative nervous system is: Hypothalamus Thalamus Basal ganglions Cerebellum $2 The functions of anterior-superior colliculi are: the centre of position-finding optic reflexes the centre of watch reflexes the auditry centre the olfactory centre $2 What functions have posterior-inferior colliculi? It is the centre of position-finding auditory reflexes It is the auditory centre It is the centre of watch reflexes It is the olfactory centre $1 What changes of the muscle tone happen after decerebrate preparation? The muscle tone of extensors rises The muscle tone doesnt change The muscle tone of flexors rises The muscle tone of flexors and extensors rises $4 What receptors take part in realization of straightening reflexes? Otolithic receptors of the vestibular apparatus Proprioreceptors of neck muscles Irritation of skin receptors of one side a trunk Receptors of eye retina Semicircular canals of vestibular apparatus $2 What receptors take part in realization of the first phase of straightening reflexes- straightening of the head? Otolithic receptors of the vestibular apparatus Irritation of skin receptors of one side a trunk Semicircular canals of vestibular apparatus Proprioreceptors of neck muscles Receptors of eye retina $3 What receptors take part in realization of the second phase of straightening reflexes- straightens of the trunk? Proprioreceptors of neck muscles Irritation of skin receptors of one side a trunk Receptors of eye retina Vestibular apparatus $1 What receptors take part in realization of statokinetic reflexes? Receptors of semicircular canals Otolithic receptors of the vestibular apparatus Irritation of skin receptors of one side a trunk $2 Enumerate static reflexes: positional-tonic reflexes Straightening reflexes Reflexes of descent and rise (lifting and landing reflexes) Reflexes of linear accelerations Reflexes of angular accelerations $1 Where are positional-tonic reflexes localized in the brain? Medulla oblongata Midbrain Spinal cord Cerebral cortex $2 Where are straightening reflexes localized in the brain? Midbrain Medulla oblongata Spinal cord cerebellum $2 How does the muscular tone of the limbs change after turning the head to the side? The muscle tone of extensors from the same side rises The muscle tone of extensors from the other side lows The muscle tone of flexors from the same side rises The muscle tone doesnt change $1 What is the sequence of phases of straightening reflex? At first - straightening the head, than - the trunk At first - straightening the trunk, than - the head $1 How does the muscular tone of the limbs change during the lifting reflex? In the beginning of rise- the muscular tone of flexors arising, at the end of rise - extension of limbs occurs. When descending-the given reactions occur in the reverse sequence. In the beginning of rise- the muscular tone of extensors arising, in the end of rise - flexion of limbs occurs. When descending-the given reactions occur in the reverse sequence. $1 Where is the centre of pupil reflex in the brain? In midbrain In medulla oblongata In thalamus $1 What does dystony mean? Disturbance of muscular tone The arising of muscular tone The lowing of muscular tone $1 What does dysdiadochokinesia mean? It is difficult to repeate supinations and pronations of the arms It is impossibility of long muscular contraction It is disturbance of muscular tone $1 What does dysmetria mean? It is condition in which errors in the direction and force of movements prevent a limb from being moved smoothly to a desired position It is repeated supinations and pronations of the arm are difficult to execute It is disturbance of muscular tone $3 The functions of spinal cord are: Reflex function Function of conductivity Analysis information from proprioreceptors and some interoreceptors $5 The somatic reflexes of spinal cord are: Myotatic reflexes Tendon reflexes Flexion reflexes Tonic neck reflexes Extension reflexes Micturition reflexes Low vasomotor reflexes Sweat reflexes $4 The vegetative reflexes of spinal cord are: Micturition reflexes Low vasomotor reflexes Sweat reflexes Sexual reflexes Myotatic reflexes Tendon reflexes Flexion reflexes Extension reflexes $1 Motoneurons of spinal cord regulate contraction of: All muscles of the body, except the head muscles All muscles of the body The head and neck muscles $1 Where is necessary to cut the brain for getting decerebrate rigidity? Section under nucleus ruber in midbrain Section between medulla oblongata and spinal cord Section inside thalamus $2 Enumerate statokinetic reflexes: Reflexes of linear accelerations Reflexes of angular accelerations Reflexes of positional-tonic Straightening reflexes $2 Reticular formation regulates the muscle tone influencing on: Y - motoneurons a - motoneurons $1 What is the influence of reticular formation of the centers of spinal cord? Activation and inhibition Only activation Only inhibition Doesnt influence $1 Which motoneurons of spinal cord innervate extrafusal fibres of skeletal muscles? a - motoneurons y - motoneurons Interneurons $2 In what case are the receptors of nuclear bag irritate? When the muscle relaxes When the intrafusal fibres contract When the muscle contracts $1 Which motoneurons of spinal cord innervate intrafusal fibres of skeletal muscles? y - motoneurons a - motoneurons Interneurons $1 What motoneurons of spinal cord get afferent impulses from the nuclear bag? a -motoneurons y - motoneurons $2 How does vestibulo-spinal pathway influence on spinal centers? It inhibits flexor a - and y - motoneurons It excites extensor a - and y - motoneurons It inhibits extensor a - and y - motoneurons It excites flexor a - and y - motoneurons $2 How does reticulo-spinal medial pathway influence on spinal centers? It inhibits flexor a - and y - motoneurons It excites extensor a - and y- motoneurons It inhibits extensor a - and y - motoneurons It excites flexor a - and y - motoneurons $2 How does reticulo-spinal lateral pathway influence on spinal centers? It excites flexor a - and y - motoneurons It inhibits extensor a - and y - motoneurons It excites extensor a - and y - motoneurons It inhibits flexor a - and y - motoneurons $2 How does rubro-spinal pathway influence on spinal centers? It excites flexor a - and y - motoneurons It inhibits extensor a - and y - motoneurons It excites extensor a - and y - motoneurons It inhibits flexor a - and y - motoneurons $2 How does cortico-spinal pathway influence on spinal centers? It excites flexor a - and y - motoneurons It inhibits extensor a - and y - motoneurons It excites extensor a - and y - motoneurons It inhibits flexor a - and y - motoneurons $2 What are the functions of cerebellum? Regulation posture and muscle tone Regulation body movies Regulation voluntary activities Control of dream and keeping awake $1 Which muscles does vestibulo-spinal pathway influence on? Proximal limb muscles Distal limb muscles Doesn't influence $1 Which muscles (on the whole) does reticulo-spinal pathway influence on? Proximal limb muscles Distal limb muscles Doesn't influence $1 Which muscles does rubro-spinal pathway influence on? Distal limb muscles Proximal limb muscles Doesn't influence $1 Which muscles does cortico-spinal pathway influence on? Distal limb muscles Proximal limb muscles Doesn't influence $4 Contraction of extrafusal fibres causes: Relax of intrafusal fibres Reduction activity of recepors in nuclear bag Reduction coming afferent impulses from nuclear bag to spinal cord Lowering the tone of a - motoneurons of spinal cord Stretch of intrafusal fibres Arising of coming afferent impulses from nuclear bag to spinal cord Arising the tone of a - motoneurons of spinal cord $3 Relaxation of extrafusal fibres causes: Stretch of intrafusal fibres Arising of coming afferent impulses from nuclear bag to spinal cord Arising the tone of a - motoneurons of spinal cord Relax of intrafusal fibres Reduction coming afferent impulses from nuclear bag to spinal cord Lowering the tone of a - motoneurons of spinal cord $1 Static reflexes are directed on: Keeping safe a normal position and coordination of movements without body shift Keeping safe a normal position and body coordination of movements during different accelerations $1 Statokinetic reflexes are directed on: Keeping safe a normal position and body coordination of movements during different accelerations Keeping safe a normal position and coordination of movements without body shift $2 Enumerate component parts of blood: plasma blood cells tissue fluid lymph $1 What is the ratio of plasma and blood corpuscles? plasma-55-60%, blood corpuscles - 40-45% plasma- 40-45%, blood corpuscles - 55-60% plasma - 45-50%, blood corpuscles - 50-55% plasma - 50-55%, blood corpuscles - 45-50% plasma - 60-65%, blood corpuscles - 35-40% $1 What is the amount of blood in adults (in relation to body weight)? 6-8% 2-4% 10-12% 14-16% $1 What is expressed as the hematocrit? the ratio of plasma and blood corpuscles erythrocyte sedimentation rate haemoglobin concentration osmotic resistance of erythrocytes $1 What is the amount of blood viscosity (in standard unit)? 5 1 10 $1 What is the amount of specific gravity of whole blood? 1,050 - 1,060 1,025 - 1,034 1,090 - 1,100 $1 What is the amount of osmotic presuure of blood? 7,6 atmospheres 6,6 atmospheres 8,6 atmospheres 25 - 30 mm Hg $1 What is the amount of reaction of arterial blood? 7,4 7,35 8,1 $1 What is the amount of reaction of venous blood? 7,35 7,4 8,1 $4 Which of buffer systems of the body maintain the constancy of blood reaction? hemoglobin buffer system carbonate buffer system phosphate buffer system buffer system of plasma proteins sulphate buffer system sodium chloride buffer system $1 Choose the most strong buffer system: haemoglobin buffer system buffer system of plasma proteins carbonate buffer system phosphate buffer system $1 How is named the shift of blood reaction to acid direction? acidosis alkalosis $1 How is named the shift of blood reaction to alkaline direction ? alkalosis acidosis $3 Enumerate proteins of blood plasma: Albumin Globulin Fibrinogen Globin Troponin $1 What is the amount of albumin in the solid residue of plasma? about 4,5 % 2-3 % 0,2 - 0,4 % $1 What is the amount of globulin in the solid residue of plasma? 2-3 % 4,5 % 0,2 - 0,4 % $1 What is the amount of fibrinogen in the solid residue of plasma? 0,2-0,4 % 4,5 % 2-3 % $1 What is the amount of glucose in normal blood? 4,4-6,7 mmol/l 2,1-3,9 mmol/l 7,5-9,1mmol/l 10,6-12,7mmol/l $1 What solutions are named isotonic? The solutions having the same osmotic pressure as blood The solutions having greater osmotic pressure, than blood The solutions having smaller osmotic pressure, than blood $1 What substances define oncotic pressure of blood? Proteins of blood Salts of blood Proteins and salts of uniform elements Proteins of uniform elements $2 What substances define osmotic pressure of blood? Proteins of blood Salts of blood Proteins and salts of uniform elements Proteins of uniform elements $1 What is the amount of oncotic pressure of blood plasma? 0,03 - 0,04 atmospheres 7,6 atmospheres 15,3 atmospheres $1 What proteins define oncotic pressure of blood? Albumins Globulins Fibrinogen Globin Troponin $5 What are the functions of plasma proteins? produce the oncotic pressure of blood transport of hormones, vitamins, lipids, drugs perfom a protective function promote the maintenance of blood reaction (pH) take part in blood coagulation $1 What is the amount of red blood cells in males and females? in males-4,0-5,0 10/12 L, in females- 3,9-4,7 10/12 L in males-3,5 10/12 L, in females - 5,5 10/12 L $1 What is the main function of erythrocytes? oxygen carrying antibodies formation take part in blood coagulation phagocytosis $1 What is the amount of leucocytes? 4-9 10/9 L 10-14 10/9 L 2,5-3,5 10/9 L $1 Choose the leucocytes relating to granulocytes: neutrophil, eosinophil, basophile lymphocyte, monocyte $1 Choose the leucocytes relating to agranulocytes: lymphocyte, monocyte neutrophil, eosinophil, basophile $1 Choose the the right answers (differencial count of leukocytes): basophiles- 0-1, eosinophils - 1-5, neutrophils - 45-75, lymphocytes - 20-40, monocytes - 2-10% basophiles - 8-10, eosinophils - 0-1, neutrophils - 20-40, lymphocytes -45-75, monocytes - 1-5% basophiles- 0-1, eosinophils - 20-40, neutrophils - 45-75, lymphocytes - 2-10, monocytes - 0-1% $1 Choose the the right answers (the amount of neutrophils): young forms- 0-1, band neutrophil -1-5, polymorphonuclear -45-70% young forms- 8-10, band neutrophil- 0-1, polymorphonuclear - 45-70% young forms- 1-5, band neutrophil - 10-20, polymorphonuclear- 25-30% $1 What are the main functions of basophiles? histamine and heparin production antitoxic function phagocytosis immunity formation $2 What are the main functions of eosinophils? antitoxic function histaminase excretion histamine and heparin production phagocytosis immunity formation $1 What is the main function of neutrophils? phagocytosis histamine and heparin production antitoxic function immunity formation $1 What is the main function of lymphocytes? immunity formation histamine and heparin production antitoxic function phagocytosis $1 What is the main function of monocytes? phagocytosis histamine and heparin production antitoxic function immunity formation $1 What is leukocytosis? increase the amount of leucocytes above standard reduction the amount of leucocytes below standard $4 Enumerate the kinds of physiological leukocytosis: digestive myogenous emotional by sensation of pain reactive $1 What is leukopenia? reduction the amount of leucocytes below standard increase the amount of leucocytes above standard $1 What means nuclear shift to the left? increase the amount of young forms of neutrophils -myelocytes, band neutrophils reduction the amount of young forms of neutrophils $1 What is the amount of protein in the solid residue of plasma? 7-8% 0,9% 1-3% 4-5% 10% $1 What is the amount of platelets in 1 microliter of blood in healthy adult? 200-400 000 4 - 5 millions 6 - 8 000 $2 It is typical for erythrocytes: are formed in cells of bone marrow are destroyed in splen and liver life span is about 5 days nucleated cells $1 What solutions are named isotonic? The solutions having the same osmotic pressure as blood The solutions having greater osmotic pressure, than blood The solutions having smaller osmotic pressure, than blood $1 What substances define osmotic pressure of blood? Proteins and salts of bloods uniform elements Proteins of plasma Salts of plasma $1 What is the osmotic pressure in blood? 7,6 at 8,6 at 6.6 at $3 Enumerate proteins of blood plasma: Albumin Globulin Fibrinogen Globin $2 Haemoglobin consists of: Globin Haem Globulin $1 The average normal content of haemoglobin in blood is: Men - 150 g/l; women - 130 g/l; Men - 130 g/l; women - 145 g/l; Men - 120 g/l; women - 110 g/l; $3 Enumerate physiological types of haemoglobin: Primitive Fetal Adults Methaemoglobin $1 Connection of haemoglobin with oxygen is named: Oxyhaemoglobin Carbohaemoglobin Carboxyhaemoglobin $5 Enumerate types of haemolysis: Biological Chemical Osmotic Mechanical Thermal Electric $1 When red cells are placed into hypotonic solution, erythrocytes burst and this phenomenon is called: Osmotic haemolysis Chemical haemolysis Biological haemolysis Immune haemolysis $1 What solution erythrocytes must be added to form «Varnished» blood? Into distilled water Into hypotonic solution Into hypertonic solution $1 Normal values of ESR are: Males - 1-10 mm/h; females - 2 - 15 mm/h Males - 3-9 mm/h; females - 7-12 mm/h Males - 15-20 mm/h; females - 1-4 mm/h $1 What is necessary to add into the blood for analyses ESR? Anticoagulant Hydrochloric acid Physiological solution $1 What solutions are named hypotonic? The solutions having lesser osmotic pressure, than blood The solutions having the same osmotic pressure as blood The solutions having greater osmotic pressure, than blood $1 What solutions are named hypertonic? The solutions having greater osmotic pressure, than blood The solutions having the same osmotic pressure as blood The solutions having lesser osmotic pressure, than blood $1 Connection of haemoglobin with CO2 is named: Carbhemoglobin Oxyhemoglobin Carboxyhemoglobin $1 Connection of haemoglobin with CO is named: Carboxyhemoglobin Carbohemoglobin Oxyhemoglobin $1 How does the increasing of fibrinogen in blood plasma influence on ESR: It increases It decreases It does not change $1 How does the increasing of globulin in blood plasma influence on ESR: It increases It decreases It does not change $1 When the red cells are placed in acid, erythrocytes burst and this phenomenon is called: Chemical haemolysis Osmotic haemolysis Biological haemolysis Immune haemolysis $3 Enumerate connections of haemoglobin with gases: Oxyhaemoglobin Carboxyhaemoglobin Carbohaemoglobin Primitive Fetal Adults $1 Choose the correct answer: Fetal haemoglobin has more affinity to oxygen than adults haemoglobin Fetal haemoglobin has less affinity to oxygen than adults haemoglobin Fetal haemoglobin has no affinity to oxygen than adults haemoglobin $1 Methaemoglobin - is: Oxydate haemoglobin was made by influence of strong oxidazes Connection of haemoglobin with oxygen Connection of haemoglobin with CO Connection of haemoglobin with CO2 $1 Haemoglobin molecule consists of: One molecule of globin and four molecules of gem Two molecules of gem Two molecules of globin $1 Thermal haemolysis is the result of: Freezing and refreezing of blood Strong shaking up of blood Blood transfusion $1 What analysis of blood is nearest to the norm: Erythrocytes 4,5-5.10/12 L,leucocutes- 6-8.10/9 L, Hg.-140 g/l ESR- 6 mm/h Erythrocytes 3,5.10/12 L,leucocutes- 3.10/9 L, Hg.-100 g/l ESR- 15 mm/h Erythrocytes 4,0.10/12 L,leucocutes- 4-6.10/9 L, Hg.-130 g/l ESR- 30 mm/h Erythrocytes 3,5.10/12 L,leucocutes- 9.10/9 L, Hg.-110 g/l ESR- 20 mm/h $1 What is the name of haemoglobin, which gives oxygen back? Reduced haemoglobin Methaemoglobin Carboxyhaemoglobin $2 Enumerate pathological types of haemoglobin: Methaemoglobin Carboxyhaemoglobin Carbohaemoglobin Oxyhaemoglobin Myoglobin $1 The minimal border of osmotic resistance of erythrocytes correspond to: The concentration of chloride of sodium at which haemolysis begins The concentration of chloride of sodium at which appears full haemolysis The concentration of chloride of sodium at which there is no haemolysis $1 The maximal border of osmotic resistance of erythrocytes correspond to: The concentration of chloride of sodium at which appears full haemolysis The concentration of chloride of sodium at which haemolysis begins The concentration of chloride of sodium at which there is no haemolysis $1 Mechanical haemolysis is the result of: Strong shaking up of blood Blood transfusion Freezing and refreezing of blood $1 How does the level of cholesterol and lecithin influence on ESR? Cholesterol increases ESR, lecithin decreases it Cholesterol decreases ESR, lecithin increases it Cholesterol and lecithin doesnt influence $1 How does the decreasing of salts Ca2+ in blood plasma influences on ESR? Increases Decreases Does not change $3 When does ESR increase? Considerable decreasing content of red cells in blood Decreasing content of mineral salts in blood plasma Availability in blood antigen, cholesterol, antibodies Increasing content of red cells in blood Increasing content of mineral salts in blood plasma $2 When does ESR decrease? Increasing content of red cells in blood Increasing content of mineral salts in blood plasma Availability in blood antigens, cholesterol, antibodies Considerable decreasing content of red cells in blood Decreasing content of mineral salts in blood plasma $1 How does the increasing of metabolic acidosis in blood plasma influence on ESR? It decreases It increases It does not change $1 How does the increasing of metabolic alkalosis in blood plasma influence on ESR? It increases It decreases It does not change $1 For the identification of the blood groups you need: Serum of the 1,2,3 blood groups Serum of the 1,3,4 blood groups Serum of the 1,2,4 blood groups Plasma of the 1,2,3 blood groups $4 You may transfuse a first group of blood in a little portions into: the first group the second group the third group the fourth group $1 You may transfuse a fourth group of blood into: the fourth group the first group the third group the second group $1 It is forbidden to transfuse the second group of blood to the recipient of the third group of blood, because: in the second group of blood there is a agglutinogen A, and in the third group of blood there is an agglutinins alpha in the second group of blood there is agglutinogen B, and in the third group of blood there is a agglutinins beta in the second group of blood there is agglutinogen A,B and in the third group - agglutinins alpha and beta $1 What you must consider during the blood transfuse? aglutinogens of the donor and agglutinins of the recipient agglutinins of the donor and Agglutinogens of the recepient $1 What does the serum of the second group of blood contain? Beta agglutinins Alpha agglutinins Alpha and beta agglutinins $1 What does the serum of the third group of blood contain? Alpha agglutinins Beta agglutinins Alpha and beta agglutinins $1 What does the serum of the fourth group of blood contain? 0-agglutinins Alpha agglutinins Beta agglutinins Alpha and beta agglutinins $1 When in the obstetric practice you may observe a rhesus-conflict during the repeated pregnancies? if the father has a rhesus-positive blood, and mother - rhesus-negative if the father has a rhesus-negative blood, and mother - rhesus-positive if the both parents have rhesus-positive blood if the both parents have rhesus-negative blood $1 What do you need to determinate bloods rhesus-accessory? Standard antirhesus-serum Standard serum with agglutinins of the 1 group of blood Standard serum with agglutinins of the 2 group of blood Standard serum with agglutinins of the 3 group of blood Standard serum with agglutinins of the 4 group of blood $4 Vascular-platelet hemostasis includes consecutive stages: momentary vessels spasm adhesion of the platelets aggregation of the platelets retraction of the platelets clot formation of the fibrin $7 Following plasma factors take part in the formation of the blood prothrombinase: Factor XII Factor XI Factor X Factor IX Factor VIII Factor V Factor IV Factor VII Factor II $2 In the Fibrinogen-Fibrin conversion take part next plasma factors: Factor IV Factor XIII Factor V Factor VIII Factor IX $4 Blood coagulation is prevented by: Smooth surface of the vessels endothelium Negative charge of the vessels walls and formed elements High blood stream speed Presence of the natural anticoagulants in blood $1 Coagulation hemostasis provides blood coagulation: in the big vessels with a high blood pressure in the micro circulative vessels with a low blood pressure $1 At the first stage of the coagulation occurs: Formation of the blood and tissue protrombinase Transformation of the prothrombin to the thrombin Formation of the fibrin from the fibrinogen Clots retraction Decay of the fibrin $1 At the third stage of the coagulation occurs: Formation of the fibrin from the fibrinogen Transformation of the prothrombin to the thrombin Formation of the blood and tissue protrombinase Clots retraction Decay of the fibrin $1 Formation of the tissue prothrombinase continues: 5-10 sec 2-3 min 5-10 min $1 Fermentative fibrin phase ends with a formation of: Fibrin-monomer Fibrin-polymer Total fibrin $1 Physic-chemical phase of the fibrin ends with a formation of: Fibrin-polymer Fibrin-monomer Total fibrin $1 Third phase of the fibrin formation ends with a forming of: Total fibrin Fibrin-polymer Fibrin-monomer $1 What have we take account for transfusion donor's blood to recipient? donor's agglutinogens and recipient's agglutinins donor's agglutinins and recipient's agglutinogens $1 The red blood corpuscles consist of: agglutinogens antibodies agglutinins $1 The blood plasma consist of: agglutinins antigens agglutinogens $1 Agglutinogens and agglutinins have the same name: A and alfa; b and beta A and beta; b and alfa $1 What is consisted in the I blood group? alfa and beta AB and O A and beta B and alfa $1 What is consisted in the II blood group? A and beta alfa and beta AB and O B and alfa $1 What is consisted in the III blood group? B and alfa A and beta alfa and beta AB and O $1 What is consisted in the IV blood group? AB and O B and alfa A and beta alfa and beta $1 What is named the serum? plasma without fibrinogen blood without fibrinogen plasma without globulin blood without globulin $1 Where is consisted the Rh factor: in red blood corpuscles in white blood corpuscles in plasma of blood in platelets $2 Rh factor has the meaning by: a repeated transfusion Rh+ blood to a Rh- patient during pregnancy the fetus may be Rh+ whereas the mother Rh- determining hemolysis blood coagulation a repeated transfusion Rh- blood to a Rh+ patient transfusion of large amount of blood $1 Determinate the succession of blood coagulation: I phase - formation of tissue and blood prothrombinase; II phase - conversion prothrombin in thrombin; III phase - formation of fibrin I phase - conversion prothrombin in thrombin; II phase - formation of tissue and blood prothrombinase; III phase - formation of fibrin I phase - formation of tissue and blood prothrombinase; II phase - formation of fibrin; III phase - conversion prothrombin in thrombin $4 The following factors take part in formation tissue prothrombinase: factor X factor VII factor V factor IV factor IX factor XII factor XI factor VIII $1 A vascular - platelets hemostasis provides blood clotting in: microcirculatory vessels which have low blood pressure large vessels which have high blood pressure $1 What is happened during the second phase of blood coagulation? conversion prothrombin in thrombin formation of fibrin from fibrinogen formation of tissue and blood prothrombinase fibrinolysis clot retraction $3 Fibrinolysis consists of following phases: formation of blood activator of plasminogen formation of plasminogen to plasmin breaking up of fibrin formation of fibrin from fibrinogen formation of tissue and blood prothrombinase $1 Formation of blood prothrombinase lasts: 5 - 10 minutes 1- 3 minutes 5- 10 seconds $4 Name the substances that help to coagulation of blood: calcium ion adrenalin noradrenalin serotonin heparin sodium citrate $2 Name the substances that prevent coagulation of blood: heparin sodium citrate adrenalin calcium ion $3 Functions of platelets are: release chemicals that stimulate vasoconstriction form a plug by sticking to each other provide phospholipids needed for the intrinsic pathway $2 Living organisms can be situated in the next conditions: rest activity complete rest complete activity $1 Irritability is - the ability to respond for changing environment and internal condition of organism change the level of physiological functions activity $3 Enumerate the excitable tissues: neural tissue muscular tissue glandular tissue bone tissue connective tissue epithelial tissue $1 What is the specific function of muscular tissue? contractility conductivity ability to secretion reabsorption $1 What is the specific function of neural tissue? conductivity contractility ability to secretion reabsorption $1 What is the specific function of glandular tissue? ability to secretion contractility conductivity reabsorption $1 The cause producing the response - is: irritant irritation excitation $5 Enumerate the physical irritants: temperature mechanical electrical light sound drugs toxins $4 Enumerate the physicochemical irritants: change of the osmotic pressure change of the pH change of the electrolytic composition change of the colloidal state drugs toxins hormones waste products $1 Enumerate the irritant used usually in physiological experiment: electrical current change the osmotic pressure change the pH change the electrolytic composition waste products temperature mechanical $1 Can the excitable structures respond to unequal irritants? yes no $1 What is the threshold of stimulation for equal irritants? low high $1 What is the threshold of stimulation for unequal irritants? high low $1 What equal irritant for photoreceptors do you know? light mechanical electrical sound drugs toxins change the pH change the electrolytic composition waste products $1 The law of force is: then the higher is the force of irritant the more is the index of response at the maximum level then the higher is the force of irritant the less is the index of response $1 Which of irritants is called threshold irritant? the minimal force causes physiological function the minimal force causes maximum physiological function the maximum force causes maximum physiological function $1 What is the measure of excitability? threshold of stimulation subthreshold of stimulation maximum force of stimulation $1 What is named latency time? the time from beginning of irritant action to origin of responce the threshold time of irritant that have magnitude as two rheobase $1 What is chronaxia? it is the time of irritant that have magnitude as two rheobase it is the time from beginning of irritant action to beginnings of excitement it is the time threshold irritant takes for beginning of excitement $1 What is the purpose of use the chronaximetry? for measuring excitability for measuring contractility for measuring conductivity $1 What is rheobase? the minimal current strength is able to cause excitation the minimal excitation force acting during available time magnitude of irritant that cause responce $1 How is formulated the law of gradient? the gradient of irritation is higher the response of living organisms is greater (up to well-known limit) the gradient of irritation is higher the response of living organisms is smoler irritation must have gradient $1 What is the physiological sense of accommodation? reduction in sensitivity to irritants that have slow speed of increase increase in sensitivity to irritants that have slow speed of increase reduction in sensitivity to irritants that have slight force $1 Does excitability change? yes no $1 When does excitability change? at excitation at rest at reabsorption $1 Specify the phases of excitability change in right order: absolute refractory period - relative refractory period - supernormal phase - subnormal phase absolute refractory period - supernormal phase - relative refractory period - subnormal phase absolute refractory period - supernormal phase -subnormal phase - relative refractory period relative refractory period - supernormal phase - subnormal phase - absolute refractory period $1 During absolute refractory period excitability: Is absent Decreases Increases $1 During relative refractory period excitability: Decreases Increases Is absent $1 During supernormal phase excitability: Increases Is absent Decreases $1 The absolute refractory period of a neuron: Occurs only during the depolarization phase Occurs only during the repolarization phase Occurs during depolarization and the first of the repolarization phase $1 The relative refractory period of a neuron: Occurs only during the repolarization phase Occurs only during the depolarization phase Occurs during depolarization and the first of the repolarization phase $1 Where is concentration of K+ ions more? In cytoplasm of cell In the intercellular liquid $1 Where is concentration of Na+ ions more? In the intercellular liquid In cytoplasm of cell $1 Where is concentration of Ca2+ ions more? In the intercellular liquid In cytoplasm of cells $1 The voltage-dependent ionic channel is controlled by: The charge on a membrane Concentration of ions in a cell A chemical substance (a ligand) $1 The chemical gating ionic channel is controlled by: A chemical substance (a ligand) The Charge on a membrane Concentration of ions in a cell $1 Choose the correct sequence of phases of the action potential: The depolarization phase - peak of the action potential (overshoot) the repolarization phase after-depolarisation phase after-hyperpolarization phase The depolarization phase - peak of the action potential (overshoot) after-hyperpolarization phase- the repolarization phase Peak (overshoot) - the depolarization phase - the repolarization phase after-hyperpolarization phase $1 What charge does the membrane on peak of the action potential have? Inside positively, outside negatively Inside negatively, outside positively $3 What ions take part in generation of the resting potential? K+ Na+ Cl- Ñà2+ $1 What charge does the membrane have? Inside negative, outside positive Inside positive, outside negative $1 What ions take the main part in generation phase of depolarization? Na+ K+ Ñà2+ Cl- $2 What ions take the main part in generation phase of after-hyperpolarization? K+ Cl- Na+ Ca2+ $1 What ions take the main part in generation phase of repolarization? K+ Na+ Cl- $4 The basic functions of a membrane are: Barrier Regulation and transport of substances Generation of the membrane potential Intercellular interaction (transfers signals from a cell to a cell) $4 The membrane consists of: Phospholipids Cholesterol Glucolipids Proteins Phosphate The fatty acid $3 What is the function of integral proteins of the membrane? Channels Carriers Pumps Receptors Enzymes $1 Enumerate basic type of water transport: Osmosis Active transport Passive transport $2 Enumerate types of active transport: Primary active transport Secondary active transport Diffusion Osmosis $2 Enumerate types of passive transport: Simple diffusion Facilitated diffusion Sodium-potassium pupm $2 List types of gates in Na+ channel: m gate h gate n gate $1 When the cell is at rest, the Na+ channels are: Closed by the m gate, opened the h gate Opened by the m gate, opened the h gate Closed by the h gate, opened the m gate $1 When the cell is depolarized, the Na+ channels are: Opened by the m gate, opened the h gate Closed by the m gate, opened the h gate Closed by the h gate, opened the m gate $1 During inactivation, the gates of Na+ channels are: m gate is opened, h gate is closed m gate is closed h gate is opened m gate is closed h gate is closed $3 Enumerate the structures of chemical synapse: the presynaptic membrane the postsynaptic membrane the synaptic cleft axon hillock $1 The feature of the presynaptic membrane of chemical synapse is: A lot of voltage-dependent Ñà2+-channels A lot of voltage-dependent K+-channels A lot of voltage-dependent Nà+-channels A little quantity of voltage-dependent Ñà2+-channels A little quantity of voltage-dependent Na+-channels $2 The feature of the postsynaptic membrane of chemical synapse is: The presence of chemical gating channels for ions K+ and Na+ The presence of chemical gating Cl- channels The presence of chemical gating Ñà2+ channels $1 What is neurotransmitter? Substance by means of which the action potential is carried out from the presynaptic membrane to the postsynaptic membrane Substance by means of which the action potential is carried out from the postsynaptic membrane to the presynaptic membrane $1 What is the quantum of neurotransmitter? The quantity of transmitter in one vesicle The quantity transmitter, causing generation EPP (the end plate potential) $1 What potential is generated on the postsynaptic membrane of neuromuscular junction? EPP (the end plate potential) EPSP (excitatory postsynaptic potential) IPSP (inhibitory postsynaptic potential) The action potential $1 Chemical synapse transmits the signals: in one direction (the principle of one-way conduction) in both directions $1 Electrical synapse transmits the signals: in both directions in one direction (the principle of one-way conduction) $1 The nervous fibres are divided into: 3 types 4 types 5 types $2 The myelinated nerve fibres are: Type A Type B Type C $1 The unmyelinated nerve fibres are: Type C Type A Type B $1 Conduction velocity of nerve impulse in fibres of type A alfa is: 70-120 m/sec. 40-70 m/sec. 15-30 m/sec. 3-15 m/sec. $1 Conduction velocity of nerve impulse in fibres of type B is: 3-15 m/sec. 70-120 m/sec. 40-70 m/sec. 15-30 m/sec. S1 Conduction velocity of nerve impulse in fibres of type C is: 0,5-3 m/s 40-70 m/s 15-30 m/s 3-15 m/s $1 What does represent myelin in the electric attitude? Insulator Conductor Semi-conductor $1 The node of Ranvier is: The site of a membrane of a nerve fibre without myelin The site of a membrane of the nerve fibre covered by myelin $1 What is the feature of a membrane of a nerve fibre in node of Ranvier? A lot of voltage-dependent channels for sodium ions A lot of voltage-dependent channels for potassium ions $1 The local circular current is: A ñurrent proceeding between the depolarized areas of the membrane to the adjacent resting membrane areas of a nerve fibre A ñurrent proceeding between two nerve fibres A current proceeding from the beginning and up to the end of a nerve fibre $1 Why does the current arise between the depolarized areas of the membrane and the adjacent resting membrane areas of a nerve fibre? Because they have different charge on a membrane Because they have nodes of Ranvier Because they have an identical charge on a membrane $1 What is the conductivity of action potential on myelinated nerve fibres? Saltatory conduction, from one node of Ranvier to another Circuit conduction from the beginning of a fibre up to the end $1 The action potential is propagated on the entire length of the nerve or muscle fibres: Without decrement With decrement $1 The conduction velocity of action potential on nerve fiber depends on: The diameter of the nerve fibre The length of the nerve fibre $1 What will occur at mechanical damage of a nerve fibre? Conduction of action potential will stop Speed of conveying of action potential will increase Speed of conveying of action potential will decrease $1 Is it possible to break conductivity of a nerve, not breaking it's anatomic integrity? Yes No $1 What is specific property of a nerve? Conductivity Contraction Excitability $1 Thickness of synaptic cleft in chemical synapse is: 10-50 nM 1-5 nM 80-100 nM $1 Thickness of synaptic cleft in electrical synapse is: 1-5 nM 10-50 nM 80-100 nM $2 The synapses can be (according to the mechanism of action): Chemical Eletrical Osmotic Physical Mechanical $1 Secretion of one quantum of the neurotransmitter changes the charge on postsynaptic membrane for: 1 mV 5 mV 0,1 mV $1 Action potential on presynaptic membrane causes: Incoming Ca2+ into synaptosome Going out Ca2+ from synaptosome No changes $1 The synaptic vesicles are activated by action potential with the help of: Ca2+ K+ Na+ S1 The time of synaptic delay for chemical synapses is: 0,2 msec. 0,02 msec. 2,0 msec. 1,0 msec. $1 Chemical synapses by there functions can be: Excitatory and inhibitory Only excitatory Only inhibitory $1 Electrical synapses by there functions can be: Only excitatory Only inhibitory Excitatory and inhibitory $1 Chemical synapses are characterized by: High sensitiveness to pathogenic influences Low sensitiveness to pathogenic influences $1 The EPSP (excitatory postsynaptic potential) is generated on the postsynaptic membrane, because the neurotransmitter connects with: Chemical gating Na+ channels Chemical gating Cl- channels Chemical gating Ca2+ channels Chemical gating K+ channels $2 Nerve fibers type A-alfa are: Motor fibers of skeletal muscles (somatic motor) Afferent fibers from muscles receptors (proprioception) Efferent motor fibers to muscle spindles Afferent fibres from receptors of pain, temperature $1 Nerve fibers type A-sigma are: Afferent fibres from receptors of pain, temperature Efferent motor fibers to muscle spindles Motor fibers of skeletal muscles (somatic motor) Afferent fibers from muscles receptors (proprioception) $1 Nerve fibers type A-beta are: Afferent fibres from receptors of touch, pressure Afferent fibres from receptors of pain, temperature Efferent motor fibers to muscle spindles Motor fibers of skeletal muscles (somatic motor) Afferent fibers from muscles receptors (proprioception) $1 Nerve fibers type A-gamma are: Efferent motor fibers to muscle spindles Afferent fibres from receptors of pain, temperature Motor fibers of skeletal muscles (somatic motor) Afferent fibers from muscles receptors (proprioception) $1 Nerve fibers of type B are: Vegetative preganglionic nerve fibres Vegetative postganglionic nerve fibres Motor fibers of skeletal muscles (somatic motor) Afferent fibers from muscles receptors (proprioception) Efferent motor fibers to muscle spindles $1 Nerve fibers of type C are: Vegetative postganglionic nerve fibres Vegetative preganglionic nerve fibres Afferent fibers from muscles receptors (proprioception) Efferent motor fibers to muscle spindles Motor fibers of skeletal muscles (somatic motor) $3 After generation EPSP (excitatory postsynaptic potential) neurotransmitter in synaptic cleft: Is moved away Is taken away to presynaptic structures Is broken down by enzymes Stay there for ever $1 The neuromuscular junction produces: Only acetylcholine (ACh) ACh and other mediators Epinephrine $1 The neuromuscular junction is: A chemical synapse between axon and muscle fibers A chemical synapse between axon and cell body A chemical synapse between axon and a gland $2 Contractile elements of the myofibril are: Myosin filaments Actin filaments Troponin Tropomyosin $2 Regulatory proteins of the myofibril are: Troponin Tropomyosin Actin Myosin $1 Where are troponin and tropomyosin? On actin filament On myosin filament $1 What is specific property of muscles? Contraction Excitability Conductivity $1 Isotonic contraction of muscle - is the change of it's: Length Tension Nothing varies $1 Isometric contraction of muscle - is the change of it's: Tension Length The length and tension of a muscle $1 A single muscular or nerve fibre during irritation submits: To the law "all or none" To the "law of strength" $1 The whole muscle during irritation submits: To the "law of strength" To the law "all or none" $1 Specify correct sequence of phases of the single muscle contraction: The latent period-phase of contraction -a phase of a relaxation A phase of contraction - a phase of a relaxation -the latent period A phase of contraction - the latent period - a phase of a relaxation $1 The skeletal muscle contracts in organism in the form of: Tetanus contraction Single contraction $1 Regulatory protein of the smooth muscle is: Calmodulin Troponin Tropomyosin $1 The heart automatism -is: Heart ability to get excited spontaneously Heart ability to excitation Myocard ability to conduction of impulses Conductive system ability to conduction of impulses $6 Parts of the heart conductive systema are: Synoatrial node Conductive ways of the atrium Atrioventricular node Bundle of His Branches of bundle of His Purkinie fibers Typical fibers Cardiomyocytes $1 The pacemaker of the first order is: Synoatrial node Atrioventricular node Bundle of His Purkinie fibers $1 The pacemaker of the second order is: Atrioventricular node Synoatrial node Bundle of His Purkinie fibers $1 The pacemaker of the third order is: Purkinie fibers Synoatrial node Atrioventricular node Bundle of His $1 What is the reason of the heart automatisity? Slow diastolic depolarization Slow repolarisation Low rising steepness of the action potential $1 The SPECIFIC property of the heat is: automatism excitability conductivity labiality refractivity $4 Point out some properties of heart's conductive system: Poor in the myofibrils Rich in the sarcoplasma Poor in mitochondria Identical to the embryonic muscular tissue Rich in the myofibrils Poor in the sarcoplasma $4 The features of peacemaker's cells are: Low level of membrane potential Ability to the spontaneous slow diastolic depolarization Low action potential amplitude Absent or low reversal expression $1 Slow diastolic depolarization - is: spontaneous decreasing of the membrane potential to the threshold during diastole decreasing of the membrane potential to the zero level spontaneous appearance of the action potential $3 Slow diastolic depolarization occurres due to: Increasing permeability for Na+ Decreasing permeability for K+ Falling of Na-Ca pump's activity Decreasing permeability of Na+ for membrane Increasing permeability of K+ for membrane Increasing of Na-pumps activity $2 Latent pacemakers of the heart are: Atrioventricular node Purkinie fibers Synoatrial node $2 The latent pacemakers obey to the synoatrial node because: The velocity of LDD is lower in the latent pacemakers than in the sinus node The velocity of LDD is higher in the latent pacemakers, than in the sinus node Excitation in the latent pacemakers occurs due to own spontaneous depolarization $1 The accordance between the excitability and the heart cycle phases is: Absolute refraction phase accords to systole, relative refraction phase - to diastole Relative refraction phase accords to systole, supernormal phase accords to diastole Subnormal phase accords to systole, absolute refract phase accords to diastole $1 Atria and ventricles cannot contract at the same time because: there is delay during transmission of impulse in the atrioventricular node there is delay during transmission of impulse in the synoatrial node there is diffusive spreading of impulse through the conductive system $1 Rhythmical contractions of the heart depend on: Sinus node automatism Heart ability to constrict by the law "all or none" Long absolute refractory period Heart ability to constrict by the "Starling Law" $1 What changes are observed in the heart activity after first Stannius ligature? Stoppage of the atria and ventricle Stoppage of the atria Stoppage of the ventricle $1 Extrasistole appears when the extrastimulation coincides with: dyastole systole or begining of dyastole begining of systole $1 What is the compensatory pause? It is long diastole, which appears after ventricular extrasystole It is long diastole, which appears after atria extrasystole $3 The properties of the heart muscle are: Automatism Long absolute refractory period Reacts by the law `all or nothing` Has a plastic tonus Reacts by the law of force $1 Heart muscle has no ability to the tetanical contraction, because it: Has a long duration of the absolute refractory period Constricts by the all or nothing law Obeys to the "law of Starling" $4 Enumerate properties of working myocardium: High membrane potential level High amplitude of action potential Big duration of action potential Expressed action potential reversion Low membrane potential level Ability to the slow diastolic depolarization Low amplitude of action potential $4 Enumerate phases of the action potential in working myocites: Depolarization Fast initial repolarization Plateau Fast final repolarization Repolarization Hyperpolarization $1 Which ions initiate contraction process? Ca2+ K+ Na+ Cl- $1 What is the velocity of transmission of impulse by the myocardium: 0,9 - 1 m/sec 2 - 3 m/sec 4 - 5 m/sec $1 The great circulation circle begins: From the left ventricle From the right ventricle From the right atrium From the left atrium $1 The small circulation circle begins: From the right ventricle From the left ventricle From the right atrium From the left atrium $1 Where is the final point of great circulation circle? Right atrium Left atrium Right ventricle Left ventricle $1 Where is the final point of small circulation circle? Left atrium Right atrium Left ventricle Right ventricle $1 Blood comes to the right atrium: By the vena cawa By the lungs veins By the trunk By the aorta $1 Blood comes to the left atrium: By the lungs veins By the vena cawa By the aorta By the trunk $1 Blood ejects out from the left ventricle: Into aorta Into lungs trunk Into hollow veins Into lungs veins $1 Blood ejects out from the right ventricle: Into lungs trunk Into aorta Into lungs veins Into hollow veins $1 Where are the atrioventricular valves? Between the atria and ventricles Between the ventricles and vessels In the estuary of the lungs trunk In the estuary of the lungs veins $2 Where are the semilunar valves? In the estuary of the aorta In the estuary of the lungs trunk In the estuary of the vena cawa In the estuary of the lungs veins $1 What is the frequency of heart's contraction in adult man? 60-80 per minute 80-100 per minute 50-60 per minute $1 What is called stroke volume? Blood volume, which is throw out by the heart ventricles during one systole Blood volume, which is throw out by the ventricles during one minute Attitude of the volume, which is throwing out by the ventricles during the systole, to the body surface area acclivity $1 How much is the stroke volume? 60-80 ml 100-120 ml 40-60 ml 80-100 ml $3 List phases of the heart's cycle: Systole of atria Systole of ventricles Common diastole Diastole of atria Diastole of ventricles $1 What is the duration of the heart cycle if the frequency of the heart beating is 75 per minute? 0.8 sec 1 minute 0,6 sec $1 What is the duration of atrium's systole? 0,1 sec 0,33 sec 0,03 sec 0,37 sec $1 What is the duration of atrium's diastole? 0,7 sec 0,1 sec 0,47 sec 0,33 sec 0,33 sec $1 What is the duration of ventricle's systole? 0,33 sec 0,37 sec 0,47 sec 0,7 sec 0,1 sec $1 What is the duration of ventricle's diastole? 0,47 sec 0,37 sec 0,33 sec 0,7 sec 0,1 sec $1 What is called as a common pause of the heart? Ventricles and atria diastole Ventricles and atria systole Atria diastole and ventricles systole Ventricles diastole and atria systole $2 What is the state of semilunar and atrioventricular valves during the fulfilling period of ventricles? Semilunar valves are closed Atrioventricular valves are opened Atrioventricular valves are closed Semilunar valves are opened $2 Which heart chambers are fulfilled with the blood during the common pause? Atria Ventricle $1 What is the maximal pressure developed in the atria during their systole? 5 - 8 mm Hg 2 - 3 mm Hg 15 - 20 mm Hg $1 What is the maximal pressure developed in the ventricles during their systole? 25 - 30 mm Hg; 120 - 130 mm Hg 15 - 20 mm Hg; 70 - 80 mm Hg 70 - 80 mm Hg; 120 - 130 mm Hg $1 If the pressure increases in reflexogen zones: Heart work gets slow, vessels tonus decreases Heart work gets fast, vessels tonus increases $1 When does the tonus of vasomotor's center decrease? During the baroreceptors irritation During hemoreceptors irritation During the skin receptors irritation $1 What law is realised with heterometrical regulation mechanism: "Heart law" by Frank-Starling "Phenomenom of Bowditch" law "All or nothing" Anrep`s effect $2 What laws are realised with homeometrical regulation mechanism: Anreps effect "Phenomenom of Bowditch" "Heart law" by Frank-Starling Law "all or nothing" $1 Where is the center of vagus located? On the bottom of the IV-th ventricle of medulla In the lateral horns of the upper V thoracic segments of the spinal cord In the lateral horns of the lower III cervical segments of the spinal cord In intramural ganglions In vertebral ganglions $1 Where are the sympathetic centers, innervated heart, located? In the lateral horns of the upper V thoracic segments of the spinal cord On the bottom of the IV - th ventricle of medulla In the lateral horn of the lower III cervical segments of the spinal cord In intramural ganglions In vertebral ganglions $1 What kind of neurotransmitter is released from preganglionar parasympathetic fibers? acetylcholine noradrenalin serotonin dopamine GABA $1 What kind of neurotransmitter is released from preganglionar sympathetic fibers? acetylcholine noradrenalin serotonin dopamine GABA $1 What kind of neurotransmitter is released from the ending of postganglionar sympathetic fibers? noradrenalin acetylcholine serotonin dopamine GABA $1 Acetylcholine is interacted in the myocardium with: M-cholinergic receptors N- cholinergic receptors Alfa - adrenergic receptors Betta - adrenergic receptors $1 Noradrenalin is interacted in the myocardium with: Betta - adrenergic receptors M-cholinergic receptors N- cholinergic receptors Alfa- adrenergic receptors $4 The influences of vagus on the heart are: negative chronotropic effect negative inotropic effect negative batmotropic effect negative dromotropic effect positive chronotropic effect positive inotropic effect positive batmotropic effect positive dromotropic effect $4 The influences of sympathetic fibers on the heart are: positive chronotropic effect positive inotropic effect positive batmotropic effect positive dromotropic effect negative chronotropic effect negative inotropic effect negative batmotropic effect negative dromotropic effect $1 Chronotropic effect - is the change of: Frequency of heart beats Force of heart contractions Myocardium excitability Myocardium condactivity $1 Inotropic effect - is the change of: Force of heart contractions Frequency of heart beats Myocardium excitability Myocardium condactivity $1 Batmotropic effect - is the change of: Myocardium excitability Frequency of heart beats Force of heart contractions Myocardium condactivity $1 Dromotropiceffect - is the change of: Myocardium condactivity Frequency of heart beats Force of heart contractions Myocardium excitability $2 The heart is innervated by the following efferent nerves: Sympathetic vagus Aortic sinocarotic $3 The heart activity is increased by the following factors: Calcium ions Thyroxin Noraadrenalin Acetylcholine Potassium ions $2 The heart activity is decreased by the following factors: Acetylcholine Potassium ions Calcium ions Thyroxin Noraadrenalin $1 The presence of vagus tone is proved by: increasing the heart beats after cutting the vagus decreasing the heart beats after cutting the vagus $1 Reflex of Golz - is: stoppage of heart beats after the slap in the frog's stomach increasing of heart beats after the slap in the frog's stomach decreasing of heart beats after the press on the eyes balls $3 Mechanism of noradrenalin action on the pacemaker cells of the heart includes: activation of sodium channels increasing the velocity of the slow diastolic depolarization increasing the permeability of membrane for the calcium ions activating potassium channels decreasing the velocity of the slow diastolic depolarization $3 Mechanism of acetylcholine action on the pacemaker cells of the heart includes: activating of potassium channels decreasing the velocity of the slow diastolic depolarization decreasing the permeability of membrane for the calcium ions activating sodium channels increasing the velocity of the slow diastolic depolarization increasing the permeability of membrane for the calcium ions $1 How does change the frequency of heart beats after stopage the influence of the vagus? Increases Decreases No change The heart stops $1 How change the frequency of heart beats after the slap in the frog's stomach? The heart stops No change Increase $1 How change the frequency of heart beats after pressing on the eyes balls (reflex by Danyny-Ashner)? Decrease The heart stops No change Increase $1 How change the frequency of heart beats during raising the blood pressure in the aortic and sinocarotic reflexogenic areas? Decrease The heart stops No change Increase $1 How change the frequency of heart beats during falling the blood pressure in the aortic and sinocarotic reflexogenic areas? Increase Decrease The heart stops No change $1 Which nerve exerts on the heart more pronounced action? vagus Sympathetic Aortic Sinocarotic $1 Excitation the sympathetic nerve innervated the heart exerts increase of heart activity because: Spontaneous depolarization of pacemaker cells accelerates Spontaneous depolarization of pacemaker cells becomes slower Hyperpolarisation of pacemaker cells develops $1 Increase the stretching of myocardium of the right atrium exerts increase the contraction of left ventricle at the expense of: Intracardial reflexes Heart law by Starling Change of vagus tone $1 What does the ECG mean? Recording of the electrical activity of the heat Registration of the body shifting during the heart work Heart constriction registration method $1 What does the ECG shows? dynamic of the heart excitement dynamic of the heart contraction $1 The I lead of the electrocardiography is recorded from: right hand - left hand right hand - right leg right leg - left leg left leg - left hand $1 The II lead of the electrocardiography is recorded from: right hand - left leg right hand - left hand right hand - right leg right leg - left hand $1 The III lead of the electrocardiography is recorded from: left hand - left leg right hand- left hand right hand - right leg right leg - left leg $1 P wave of ECG shows: Process of atrium excitement Process of ventricles excitement Process of atrium contration Process of ventricles contraction $1 QRS complex of ECG accords to: The excitement of ventricles Process of atrium excitement The beginning of the ventricles contraction $1 T wave of ECG accords to: Repolarization of ventricles Depolarization of ventricles $1 P-Q interval of ECG accords to: spreading of excitement from the atriums to ventricles spreading of excitement along the pulmonary muscles spreading of excitement towards the ventricles base $1 Which interval shows the electrical systole? Q-T QRS P-T $1 The highest voltage of ECG waves is recorded in normal heart position: In lead II In lead I In lead III $2 What properties of myocardium is judged by ECG? excitability conductivity contractivity $1 Duration of P-Q interval is: 0,12 -0,18 sec 0,06 -0,12 sec 0,18 -0,20 sec $1 Duration of QRS complex is: 0.06 - 0.09 sec 0.12 - 0.18 sec 0.03 - 0.06 sec $1 The frequency of heart's contraction during bradicardia is: 40 - 50 per minute 60 - 80 per minute 90 - 100 per minute $1 The frequency of heart's contraction during tachycardia is: 90 - 100 per minute 40 - 50 per minute 60 - 80 per minute $1 Ballistocardiography is the method of recording: The body shifting which appears during the blood ejection from the ventricles Electrical phenomenons which depend on the heart work $1 What properties of myocardium is judged by BCG? contractility excitability conductivity $1 The heart tones are: Sound phenomenons which accompany the heart activity Electrical phenomenons which accompany the heart activity $1 First heart tone is: Deaf, long, low Short and high $1 Second heart tone is: Short and high Deaf and high $1 Phonocardiography is a method of recording: Sound phenomenons, which are accompany heart activity Body displacement, which appears when the blood is banished from the ventricles Electrical phenomenons, which accompany the heart work $1 First phonocardiography tone appears when: Atrioventricular valves are closing Semilunar valves are closing $1 Second phonocardiography tone appears when: Semilunar valves are closing Atrioventricular valves are closing $1 Third phonocardiography tone appears: During the fast ventricular fulfilling phase During the slow ventriclular fulfilling phase During presystole $1 The fourth phonocardiography tone appears: During the systole of atria During the fast ventricular fulfilling phase During the slow ventricular fulfilling phase $1 When does the tonus of blood vessels increase? during constriction during dilatation $1 When does the tonus of blood vessels decrease? during dilatation during constriction $1 If the blood pressure increases in the reflexogen zones- heart work gets slow, vessels tonus decreases heart work gets fast, vessels tonus increases $1 When does the vasomotor center tonus decreases? During the baroreceptors irritation During chemoreceptors irritation During the skin receptors irritation $1 The velocity of pulsing wave spreading is: 4-13 m/sec 0,4-0,5 m/sec 15-25 m sec $2 Enumerate methods of investigation arterial pulse: Palpatoric Sphygmografic Phlebografic rheographic $1 What is anacrota? Ascending of the curved sphygmogramm, connected with systole Descending of the curved sphygmogramm, connected with diastole Ascending of the curved sphygmogramm, connected with diastole Descending of the curved sphygmogramm, connected with systole $1 What is katacrota? Descending of the curved sphygmogramm, connected with diastole Ascending of the curved sphygmogramm, connected with diastole Ascending of the curved sphygmogramm, connected with diastole Descending of the curved sphygmogramm, connected with systole $1 What is the main factor of the pulse fulfilling? Systolic blood volume Systolic blood pressure Diastolic blood pressure $1 What doest the pulse exertion shows? systolic pressure value diastolic pressure value blood flowing value $1 Recording of the venal pulse is called: phlebography sphygmography reogramma pletismogramma $2 Enumerate the blood vessels of elastic type: Aorta Large arteries Little arteries Arterioles Precapillary sphincters Capillaries Venulles Big veins Little veins Arterio-venullar anastomosis $3 Enumerate resisting precapillary vessels: Little arteries Arterioles Precapillary arteries Capillaries Venulles Arterio-venullar anastomosis veins $2 Enumerate resisting postcapillary vessels: Venulles Little veins Arteries Arterioles Precapillary sphincters Capillaries Big veins Arterio-venullar anastomosis $1 Choose exchanging vessels: Capillaries Aorta Arteries Arterioles Precapillary sphincters Big veins Arterio-venullar anastomosis $1 What is the function of the magistral vessels? Transform pulsing blood flow into the equal Make a resistance to the blood flow Define blood pressure value in the capillaries Deponate the blood Defines all blood system volume $3 What are the functions of the resistive vessels? Make the resistance to the blood flow Define the blood pressure in the capillaries Define the filtration pressure in the capillaries value Provide the substances exchange of the filtration pressure in the capillaries Transform the pulsing blood flow in the equal Deponate the blood $1 Which factors help the blood moving through the vessels? pressure difference in the beginning and the ending parts of vascular system low blood pressure in the capillaries big diameter of the veins $1 Which factors inhibit blood moving through the vessels? Vessels resistance to the moving of blood Difference of the pressure in the beginning and the ending

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