Exam 2 PDF

e. Abnormal co-stimulation of autoantibody production in places like vertebral, ribs, or bone marrow 4. Select all correct description about rejection of transplant: (MACA) a. Recognition of non-self antigens is performed by recipient B cells b. Donor agents from the...

e. Abnormal co-stimulation of autoantibody production in places like vertebral, ribs, or bone marrow 4. Select all correct description about rejection of transplant: (MACA) a. Recognition of non-self antigens is performed by recipient B cells b. Donor agents from the graft are processed & presented by recipient antigen presenting cells (APC) c. Graft blood vessels are the most protected from damage due to ABO matching before transplant d. Activated recipient T helper cells induce both cytotoxic & antibody response 5. One feature of the skin rash seen in SLE is that it is photosensitive. a. TRUE b. False 6. For the development of an autoimmune disease to occur there is loss to tolerance produced by genetic susceptibility and an environmental trigger. a. True b. False 7. The tissue damage caused by type III hypersensitivity is mediated by: a. Antigen-antibody complexes b. Activated T lymphocytes c. IgE interaction with mast cells d. Mainly IgG and IgM antibodies 8. An immature pre-T cell that is exposed & binds strongly to self antigens may be: a. Eliminated through apoptosis (negative selection) b. Going through receptor editing and tested again c. Promoted for training as cytotoxic cell through positive selection d. Changed into a NK cell 9. What Is not usually seen with SLE? a. Joint disease b. Malar rash c. Oral or nasal ulcers d. Sclerodactyly 10. Which of the following is not a clinical feature of CREST syndrome: a. Decreased motility of the esophagus  30. What is a true statement about systemic Lupus Erythematosus a. Mainly affects men at a ratio of 9:1 b. Never causes renal or neurological deficits c. Injury is usually caused by NK cells d. None of the statements are true e. All of the statements are true QUIZ 7A 1. While shaving one morning, a 23 year-old nicks his lip with a razor. Seconds after the injury, the bleeding stops. which of the following mechanisms is most likely to reduce blood loss from a small dermal arteriole? a. Protein C activation b. Vasoconstriction c. Platelet aggregation d. Fibrin polymerization 2. 29-year-old women has a history of frequent nose bleeds and increased menstrual flow. On physical examination, petechiae and purpura are present on the skin. Laboratory studies show a decrease in von Willebrand factor activity. The patient most likely has a derrangement of which step in hemostasis? a. Vasoconstriction b. Platelet adhesion c. Prothrombin generation d. Platelet aggregation 3. What causes pulmonary congestion? a. Chronic RVF b. Chronic LVF c. Acute LVF d. Acute RVF 4. What is the name for a bruise? a. Purpura b. Ecchymosis c. Hematoma d. Petechiae 5. The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of coagulation come together with the activation of what coagulation factor? a. X b. V c. VII d. VIII 6. What is the name for the hemorrhage into the skin or mucus membranes that is the size of a pinprick? a. Ecchymosis b. Purpura c. Hematoma d. Petechiae 7. Glymphatic system a. Drains the lymphatic fluid from the gonads b. Helps draining the lymphatic fluid from the glomerulus c. Helps draining lymphatic fluid from the gastric mucosa after meals d. Helps draining lymphatic fluid from the brain during sleep 8. Which of the following is NOT a direct factor in tissue fluid balance? a. Acethylcoline released by visceral/autonomic sensory terminals b. Permeability of the blood capillary wall c. ECM firmness d. Fluid pressure in blood vessels e. Macromolecules concentration in the interstitial fluid 9. The pressure in the interstitial tissue is regulated mostly by a. Content of salt b. Amount of globulins c. Extracellular matrix expansion d. Pressure of dissolved gasses 10. Dr Parker’s principle that “Nature will give me what I act like I already have” describes a connection between thoughts, expectations, and actions. a. True b. False 11. What produces the nutmeg liver due to passive congestion? a. Chronic LVF b. Acute LVF c. Acute RVF d. Chronic RVF 12. What is the first stage in hemostasis? a. Platelet aggregation b. Coagulation c. Thrombosis is d. Vasoconstriction 13. What causes pulmonary edema? a. Chronic RVF b. Acute LVF c. Chronic LVF d. Acute RVF  14. What is a cause of passive hyperemia? a. Active physiological due to exercise b. Active physiological due to acute inflammation c. Passive venous congestion QUIZ 7B 1. Hemorrhage a. Purpura b. Petechiae 2. Active Hyperemia a. Inflamed skin b. Exercising 3. Congestion a. Nutmeg liver b. Congestive heart failure 4. What produces a localized edema? a. Hypoproteinemia b. Cardiac failure c. Allergic edema d. Anaphylaxis e. Acute inflammation f. Septicemia 5. What produces a nutmeg liver due to passive congestion? a. Acute LVF b. Chronic RVF c. Chronic LVF d. Acute RVF 6. Major principle that "Interference with transmission in the body is always directly or indirectly due to subluxations in the spinal column" was suported during Dr Parker's times by new scientific discoveries including functional MRI, immune staining of viral particle inside the spinal neurons, and mechanoreceptors in dorsal root ganglia. a. True b. False 7. Where would an arterial obstruction produce a red infarction? a. Brain b. Liver c. Fingers d. Prostate 8. When an individual experiences chest pain, they should rest and not go out and exercise in order to? a. Increase the rate of development of the occlusion b. Test the integrity of the collateral circulation c. Increase tissue susceptibility to ischemia d. Decrease tissue metabolic rate 9. Why if there obstruction to the retinal artery will there be necrosis of the retina? a. Rich collateral vessels b. No collateral circulation c. Some collateral circulation but not enough to keep all tissue viable 10. A 72 year old man who was hospitalized 3 weeks ago for a cerebral infarct (stroke) is attempting to walk for the first time within minutes, he has sudden onset of dyspnea and dies. An autotopsy is performed and a big saddle thrombus was discovered on the bifurcation of the pulmonary artery. Which factor contributed most to this finding? a. Bronchopneumonia b. Atherosclerosis c. Venous stasis d. Factor V mutation 11. Cytoskeleton alteration and formation of membrane blebs are a sign of: a. Na/K pump activation b. Early cellular injury c. Chromosomal damage d. Early fibrosis 12. Fibroblasts are very susceptible to the effect of decreased blood flow and die in minutes. a. True b. False 13. Abrupt exposure to cold after active vasodilation will increase capillary permeability potentially leading to chronic inflammation and immune reactions by increasing intercellular spaces. a. True b. False 14. Venous occlusion of a deep leg vein will result in a warm, swollen leg, with pitting edema. a. True b. False 15. A normal state of endothelial cells is associated with all of the following EXCEPT: a. Secretion of thrombomodulin and heparin-like factors b. Smooth blood flow and high shear stress c. Production of NO d. Exposure of collagen and tissue factor. 16. Arterial occlusion of a leg artery will result in a warm, swollen leg a. True b. False 17. A pulmonary embolus always produces a pulmonary infarction. a. True b. False 18. Neurons are very susceptible to the effect of decreased blood flow because they do not have the ability to adapt. a. True b. False 19. A white infarction usually occurs when there is a block of an end artery. a. True b. False 20. What produces pulmonary edema? a. Acute Hypertension  b. Acute RVF c. Acute thromboflebitis of a deep leg vein’ d. Acute LVF 21. During initial phase of ischemia a. Fibroblasts are recruited and activated b. There are membrane fragments that de extracelluarly c. There is a depletion of ATP and failure of Na/K ATP pump d. There is a influx of oxygen 22. If there is an obstruction to the renal artery will there be necrosis of the kidney due to: a. Some collateral circulation but not enough to keep all tissue viable b. No collateral circulation c. Rich collateral vessels 23. Where would an arterial obstruction produce a red infarction? (Same question as 7, different answers) a. Kidneys b. Lungs c. Spleen d. Prostate 24. What produces a generalized edema? a. Acute inflammation b. Allergic edema c. Nephrotic syndrome d. Lymphatic obstruction 25. During initial phase of ischemia (same question as 21, different answers) a. There are membrane lipid fragments that are calcified b. DNA is transcribed in an emergency mode c. There is an efflux of Ca ions d. There is a decrease protein synthesis 26. A white infarction usually occurs due to venous obstruction. a. True b. False 27. Acute decompression sickness is the result of what type of embolus? a. Gas embolus b. Thromboembolism c. Cardiac embolus  d. Fat embolus 28. What produces a localized edema (same as question 4, but different answers) a. Septicemia b. Hypopriteinemia c. Acute inflammation d. Cardiac failure 29. A 21 year-old sustains multiple injuries, including fractures of the right femur, tibia and humerus in a motor vehicle accident. She is admitted to the hospital and stabilized. However, two days later, she suddenly complains of difficulty breathing. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her new symptoms? a. Pulmonary edema b. Cardiac tamponade c. Pulmonary infarction d. Fat embolus 30. Endothelium can be either anticoagulant or procoagulant depending on the situation. a. True b. False 31. A patient has an anaphylactic reaction after getting an injection of penicillin. They had said that they had not had a previous reaction after being given an injection of penicillin. That is correct because the first injecton sensitized the patient but had no reaction. a. True b. False 32. Passive congestion occurs due to venous obstruction. a. True b. False 33. The highest risk of death from shock are septic and cardiogenic shock. a. True b. False 34. Septic shock induces systemic inflammation in addition to peripheral vasodilatation a. True b. False 35. The mechanism of cardiogenic shock is to directly reduce cardiac output. a. True b. False 36. One Major mechanism of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is activation of coagulation cascade by massive tissue necrosis a. True b. False 37. Wide spread clotting as seen in Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) may be a severe complication in cases like obstetric problems, burns or cancer. a. True b. False 38. Proper correction of tissue tone after an injury will improve healing through epigenetic mechanisms a. True b. False 39. There is no proof that mechanical tension applied to a human tissue can alter its cells DNA expression a. True b. False 40. IgM are the first antibodies secreted in an infection a. True b. False 41. One feature of the skin rash seen in SLE is that it is photosensitive. a. True b. false 42. If unregulated, the inflammatory response itself can lead to injury and tissue damage.  a. True b. false 43. Chemical damage can be induce even by simple, common molecules such as glucose or salt, if they are in hypertonic solutions a. True b. False 44. Although rheumatoid arthritis involves joints predominantly it is also a systemic disease. a. True b. False 45. One major mechanism of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is activation of coagulation cascade by massive tissue necrosis a. True b. False 46. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may lead to hemorrhage by consuming platelets and coagulation factors. a. True b. False 47. A pulmonary embolus always produces a pulmonary infarction. a. True b. False 48. Neurons are very susceptible to the effect of decreased blood flow because they do not have the ability to adapt. a. True b. False 49. A complication of shock is the necrosis of intestines producing infection a. True b. False 50. The mechanism of anaphylactic and cardiogenic shock is mainly vascular dilatation that decreases venous return a. True  b. False 51. The late phase reaction of Type I hypersensitivity reactions is mediated by vasoactive amines and lipid mediators. a. True b. False 52. When acute inflammation causes significant necrosis it will end up producing fibrosis and scar formation. a. True b. False 53. Type III hypersensitivity is mediated by immune complexes a. True b. False 54. Skin that becomes cold and clamy displays major signs of acute inflamation a. True b. False 55. Fibroblast are very susceptible to the effect of decreased blood flow and die in minutes a. True b. False 56. A white infarction usually occurs when there is a block of an end artery. a. True b. False 57. A white infarction usually occurs due to venous obstruction. a. True b. False 58. Proper correction of tissue tone after an injury will improve healing through epigenetic mechanisms a. True b. False QUIZ 8A 1. Epigenetic factors can alter the chromatin and its expression without changing the DNA sequence a. True b. False 2. Although known at the beginning of XXth century, fundamental forces and energies including gravity and electromagnetism were ignored in philosophical and scientific models of chiropractic before Dr Parker's time, being replaced by illusory universal forces and innate forces that made chiropractic a pseudoscience or even a cult. a. True b. False 3. The mechanism of cardiogenic shock is mainly vascular dilation that decreases venous return (I put true and got it wrong but it is listed as true on Quiz 7B #50, I put false and got it correct) This is a different question from 7B #50. a. True b. False  4. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is a protective mechanism against hemorrhage by strengthening the blood vessels wall with a fibrin clot. a. True b. False 5. Mechanical tension can alter DNA expression in certain cells like fibroblasts or endothelial cells, changing their behavior a. True b. False 6. Macrophages activation path (M1 to M2) can be changed by mechanical tissue properties (tension, stretch, etc) through epigenetic pathway a. True b. False 7. The preformed cell mediators can be released immediately following the injury but only last for about 30 minutes. a. True b. False 8. The mechanism of hemorrhagic shock is mainly volume loss that decreases venous return a. True b. False 9. The progression of shock is marked by increased production of lactic acid through anaerobic metabolism a. True b. False 10. Type III hypersensitivity is mediated by immune complexes a. True b. False 11. There is evidence that autoimmune diseases have higher incidence if there was a lack of infections in childhood a. True b. False 12. Microbiome represent the micromolecules that insure the tightness of the basement membrane a. True b. False 13. IgE are the antibodies secreted mostly on epithelia a. True b. False 14. NK cells are a subset of plasma cells a. True b. False 15. If unregulated, the inflammatory response itself can lead to injury and tissue damage. a. True b. False 16. A complication of shock is the necrosis of intestines producing infection a. True b. False 17. The mechanism of cardiogenic shock is to directly reduce cardiac output. a. True b. False 18. Amniotic fluid and snake venom may induce Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) by activating Complement cascade a. True b. False 19. A patient has an anaphylactic reaction after getting an injection of penicillin. They had said that they had not had a previous reaction after being given an injection of penicillin. That is correct because the first injection sensitized the patient but had no reaction.  a. True b. False 20. Endothelium can be either anticoagulant or procoagulant depending on the situation. a. True b. False 21. There is no proof that mechanical tension applied to a human tissue can alter its cells DNA expression a. True b. False 22. Proper correction of tissue tone after an injury will improve healing through epigenetic mechanisms a. True b. False 23. Neurons are very susceptible to the effect of decreased blood flow because they do not have the ability to adapt. a. True b. False 24. The highest risk of death from shock are septic and cardiogenic shock. a. True b. False 25. Mechanical tension can alter DNA expression in certain cells like fibroblasts or endothelial cells, changing their behavior a. True b. False 26. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may lead to hemorrhage by consuming platelets and coagulation factors. a. True b. False 27. One major mechanism of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is activation of coagulation cascade by massive tissue necrosis a. True b. False 28. Passive congestion occurs due to venous obstruction. a. True b. False 29. A white infarction usually occurs when there is a block of an end artery. a. True b. False 30. The mechanism of anaphylactic and cardiogenic shock is mainly vascular dilatation that decreases venous return a. True b. False 31. One feature of the skin rash seen in SLE is that it is photosensitive. a. True b. False 32. Monocytes and lymphocytes are the predominant cell found in acute inflammation. a. True b. False 33. Sentinel cells in inflammation are guarding the openings in the epithelia a. True b. False 34. There is evidence that low level of autoimmunity may be induced by the absence of other immune stimuli, so that the immune system stays prepared to act in case of a new infection a. True b. False 35. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may lead to hemorrhage by consuming platelets & coagulation factors. a. True b. False 36. The late phase of Type I hypersensitivity reactions is mediated by vasoactive amines & lipid mediators. a. True b. False 8B 1. THE QUESTIONS I-VII REFER TO THE FOLLOWING INFO: After extended space travel, a new phenomenon appeared: more and more men and women were able to perceive ultraviolet (UV) radiation as a new color. No adverse effects were noted. Extended investigation discovered a mutation on X chromosome in an uncoded area that produced a new Recessive gene (named UV 223). A young female discovered that even though she doesn’t see UV radiation as a color, she is a carrier of the UV 223. To maximize the chances of her children to see the new ccolor, she looked for men who also have the gene. And she found one who had it. Based on classical (mendellan) transmission of the gene, answer the following questions about the possible children of this family. (¼ = 25%, ½ = 50%, ¾ = 75%, 4/4 = 100%) QUESTION 1: The probability of a girl to inherit the gene is: i. 0% (none) ii. 50% iii. 100% (All)  iv. 25% 2. QUESTION 2: The probability of a girl to see UV as a color is: a. 0% (none) b. 75% c. 100% (All) d. 50% e. 25% 3. QUESTION 3: The probability of a boy to inherit the gene (and see the new color) is: i. 50% ii. 100% (All) iii. 0% (None) iv. 75% v. 25% 4. QUESTIONS IV-VIII ARE A CONTINUATION OF THE ABOVE SETUP, WITH THE FOLLOWING ADDITIONAL INFO: During a detailed consult it was revealed that due to a severe gastric ulcer the young man is following a strong antacid treatment for more than an year which altered his methylation processes and lead to imprinting of the area of UV223. Think about this new context, reecalculate the above probabilities in case they have changed, and answer the following questions based on all the information presented. QUESTION 4: Does imprinting affect the expression fo the UV 2233 genes? i. Yes ii. No, because imprinting it’s possible only during intrauterine growth iii. No, because there are no epigenetic factors connecting methylation to imprinting iv. There is no genetic imprinting in humans v. No, because only females can suffer from it vi. No, because imprinting changes the color of banding of the chromosome. 5. QUESTION 5: The probability of a girl to see UV as a color is: i. 0% (none) ii. 75% iii. 100% (all) iv. 50% v. 25% 6. QUESTION 6: The probability of a girl to inherit the UV223 gene is: i. 50% ii. 0% (none) iii. 25% iv. 75% v. 100% (All) 7. QUESTION 7: The probability of a boy to inherit the gene (and see the new color) is: i. 0% (None) ii. 25% iii. 100% (All) iv. 75% v. 50% 8. QUESTION 8: Assuming the imprinting is reversible, and the antacid treatment is stopped, what time would you counsel the couple to wait for the effects (if any) to be seen in all the sperm cells? i. More than 4 months ii. 1-2 months iii. 1-2 days iv. 1-2 weeks v. Change the partner. No changes are possible vi. No reason to wait. Epigenetics doesn’t affect sperm-cells 9. You have an 18 year old come to your clinic complaining of back pain. You see that the patient is tall with long arms and fingers, has cataracts as well as a heart murmur. Where is the defect that leads to these signs and symptoms? a. Fibrillin molecule b. RBC cytoskeleton c. Hemoglobin molecule d. Gycogen Storage 10. Which of the following is caused by a point mutation that causes a change in the amino acid during translation? a. Thalessemia b. Cystic fibrosis c. Hereditary spherocytosis d. Sickle cell anemia 11. What disease is caused by deletion of a whole triplet so there is a loss of one amino acid in the final protein? a. Sickle cell anemia b. Thalassemia c. Huntindons disease d. Cystic fibrosis 12. Mechanical tension can alter DNA expression in certain cells like fibroblasts or endothelial cells, changing their behavior. a. True b. False 13. Proper correction of tissue tone after an injury will improve healing through epigenetic mechanisms. a. True b. False 14. (MACA) select correct answers about the importance of epigenetic factors for human development: (D is not correct) a. Epigenetic factors are part of imprinting mechanism.  b. Epigenetic factors are critical for regulation of tissue-specific gene expression. c. Epigenetic factors are critical for X chromosome inactivation. d. Epigenetic factors are part of an alternative healing theory requiring mental imprinting on the method of treatment. e. Epigenetic factors are part of transmission of multifactoral diseases. 15. What is the word for the physical expression of your DNA? a. Dominant b. Genotype c. Recessive d. Phenotype 16. Having an extra chromosome or being short one chromosome (monosomies and triosomies) are called: a. Aneuploidy b. A robertsonian translocation c. Polyploidy d. An inversion 17. C-reactive protein (CRP), one of the most measured acutephase proteins, acts mostly as: a. Opsonin b. Thrombin inhibitor c. Iron binding protein d. Plasmin Inhibitor 18. A 29 year-old woman has a history of frequent nose bleeds and increased menstrual flow. On physical examination, petechiae and purpura are present on the skin. Laboratory studies show a decrease in von Willebrand factor activity. The patient most likely has a derrangement of which step of hemostasis? a. Vasoconstriction b. Platelet adhesion  c. Prothrombin generation d. Platelet aggregation 19. Dr. Parker principles that “Thought plus action equeals feelings” and “My feelings attract my life to me” were his way of advising us that our attitude and feelings towards how we act (or learn) are the main force that creates the results. a. True b. False 20. Which of the following are x-linked disorder that arise as a result of trinucleotide repeats? a. Hereditary Spherocytosis b. Agammaglobulinemia c. Hemophelia A d. Fragile X 21. A patient has neurofibrosis 1. What is the type of problem that caused this? a. Disease of growth control proteins b. Within sequence coding for an enzyme c. Within sequence coding for a functional protein d. Within sequence coding for a structural protein 22. Macrophages activation path (M1 to M2) can be changed by mechanical tissue properties (tension, stretch, etc) through epigenetic pathway. a. True b. False 23. The allele of a gene that is present is always expressed is a _______ gene. a. Recessive b. Homozygous c. Genotype d. Dominant 24. What is a condition produced by a mutation that produces an abnormal cytoskeleton? a. Phenylketonuria  b. Hereditary spherocytosis c. Di George’s syndrome d. Marfan’s syndrome 25. Which of the following is an example of a disease caused by an alteration to enzyme structure and function? a. Phenylketonuria b. Sickle cell anemia c. Huntington Disease d. Cystic fibrosis 26. Which of the following statements are true of Cytogenetic disorders? a. Monosomies of sex chromosomes are typically incompatible with life b. Trisomies of sex chromosomes are usually incompatible with life c. Monosomies of autosomal chromosomes are usually incompatible with life d. Trisomies of autosomal chromosomes are usually incompatible with life. 27. The formation of an actual clot occurs during what part of the process of hemostasis? a. Fibrinolysis b. Secondary hemostasis c. Vasoconstriction d. Primary hemostasis 28. What is the most surviveable of the autosomal chromosomal defects? a. Patau’s syndrome b. Edward’s syndrome c. Down’s syndrome d. Turner’s syndrome 29. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for an inflammatory reaction: a. Recruitment, Removal, Regulation b. Recognition, Regulation, Removal c. Recruitment, Recognition, Repair d. Repair, Regulation, Recognition 30. How does hypovolemia cause shock? a. Causes peripheral vasodilation b. Produces obstruction to blood flow c. Decreases venous return d. Causes cardiogenic issues 31. The presence of which of the following would help cellular adaptation to occur? a. Presence of toxins b. Appropriate nerve supply c. The cell is a neuronal cell d. Inadequate blood supply 32. Inflammatory reactions may have adverse effects EXECPT for: a. Abscess formation b. Tissue necrosis c. Scar formation d. Resolution 33. Epigenetic factors can alter the chromatin and its expression without changing the DNA sequence A. True