Ethics Final Exam Paper PDF

Ethics Final Q1. What does the term 'vulnerability' refer to in ethical discussions? A. A person's ability to make choices B. Capability to be wounded or hurt (Correct Answer) C. The pursuit of happiness D. A state of moral superiority Q2. Which of the following best defines 'auton...

Ethics Final Q1. What does the term 'vulnerability' refer to in ethical discussions? A. A person's ability to make choices B. Capability to be wounded or hurt (Correct Answer) C. The pursuit of happiness D. A state of moral superiority Q2. Which of the following best defines 'autonomy' in a clinical setting? A. The duty to do no harm B. The ability to perform tasks as assigned C. Moral right to make one's own health decisions (Correct Answer) D. An emotional response to a client's pain Q3. What does 'beneficence' mean in ethical practice? A. Responsibility to contribute to health and well-being (Correct Answer) B. The right to confidentiality C. Preventing harm whenever possible D. The emotional connection with a client Q4. Which of the following describes 'non-maleficence'? A. Understanding the laws and ethics B. The responsibility to do good C. The duty to do no harm (Correct Answer) D. The ability of professionals to self-govern Q5. In ethical terms, what is meant by 'transference'? A. Client's emotional projection onto the practitioner (Correct Answer) B. Practitioner reflects feelings of past clients C. Professional's capability to provide informed consent D. A method of enhancing client comfort Q6. What key element does confidentiality safeguard? A. Client's emotional state B. Client's personal information (Correct Answer) C. Practitioner's professional opinion D. The scope of practice Q7. How is 'professional judgment' defined in the context of ethical practice? A. The ability to empathize with clients B. Interpreting ethical and legal requirements situationally (Correct Answer) C. Recognizing the responsibilities of autonomy D. Understanding the effects of pain on the body Q8. What does 'sympathy' refer to in an ethical context? A. Feeling WITH a client B. Feeling FOR a client (Correct Answer) C. Understanding the client's needs D. Evaluating the client's health status Q9. Which of these describes the 'circle of care'? A. The broader community impact B. The network involved in a client's care (Correct Answer) C. The legal documentation of treatment D. The ethical responsibilities of a practitioner Q10. What is meant by 'competence' in the context of a registered massage therapist (RMT)? A. The emotional understanding of clients B. Ability to meet legal and ethical standards C. Having the required skills and attributes (Correct Answer) D. Possessing knowledge of past client interactions Q11. Which of the following is NOT typically regarded as a professional value? A. Integrity B. Empathy C. Wealth accumulation (Correct Answer) D. Confidentiality Q12. What does the term 'ethical issue' imply? A. A trivial matter requiring no consideration B. A situation prompting questions about right and wrong (Correct Answer) C. A positive outcome guaranteed by a decision D. An established norm within professional practice Q13. Autonomy means that clients are required to follow the practitioner’s decisions. A. True B. False (Correct Answer) Q14. Confidentiality involves safeguarding client information without consent. A. True B. False (Correct Answer) Q15. Beneficence is the ethical principle of doing good. A. True (Correct Answer) B. False Q16. Non-maleficence refers to the obligation to not cause harm. A. True (Correct Answer) B. False Q17. Transference can occur when a client projects past experiences onto the therapist. A. True (Correct Answer) B. False Q18. Empathy is the same as sympathy. A. True B. False (Correct Answer) Q19. Competence includes an RMT's ability to perform assigned roles effectively. A. True (Correct Answer) B. False Q20. The scope of practice for massage therapy is defined by the Massage Therapy Act 1991. A. True (Correct Answer) B. False Q21. Professional values are subjective and vary between different practices. A. True B. False (Correct Answer) Q22. Collective accountability ensures practitioners are answerable for their individual standards of care. A. True (Correct Answer) B. False Q23. The ethical sense is an intuitive ability to distinguish right from wrong. A. True (Correct Answer) B. False Q24. Informed consent is optional when working with clients. A. True B. False (Correct Answer) Q25. What is the primary purpose of the therapeutic relationship between an RMT and a client in British Columbia? A. To generate profit for the RMT B. To entertain the client C. To serve the health and well-being of the client (Correct Answer) D. To provide social companionship Q26. What does the term 'dual relationship' refer to in the context of therapy? A. The relationship where two therapists work together B. A therapist blending therapeutic roles with other roles (Correct Answer) C. Having two clients at once D. A double appointment for one client Q27. Which of the following is a potential issue related to a conflict of interest for RMTs? A. Providing therapy without a diploma B. Placing personal interests above client's well-being (Correct Answer) C. Charging too little for services D. Giving services without consent Q28. What is the role of the CMTO in regulating Massage Therapy? A. Set prices for treatments B. Provide community support C. Establish standards of practice and competencies (Correct Answer) D. Offer discounts to clients Q29. How many public members are appointed to the RMTS elected council? A. 2 B. 4 (Correct Answer) C. 6 D. 8 Q30. What does SOP stand for in the context of professional massage therapy standards? A. Standard Operating Procedures B. Scope of Practice (Correct Answer) C. Service of Professionals D. Systematic Occupational Protocols Q31. In Manitoba, what minimum requirement must an RMT meet to ensure client safety? A. Have a private practice space B. Obtain liability insurance (Correct Answer) C. Develop marketing strategies D. Specialize in multiple techniques Q32. What is the primary objective of the 'Code of Ethics' according to the RMTS? A. Generate profit for therapists B. Guide therapists in professional conduct (Correct Answer) C. Encourage competition among therapists D. Regulate fees charged by RMTs Q33. Within the context of therapeutic practice, which principle is NOT part of the Code of Ethics? A. Confidentiality B. Respect C. Profit maximization (Correct Answer) D. Integrity Q34. What does IPAC stand for in the scope of massage therapy regulations? A. Infection Prevention and Control (Correct Answer) B. International Practice Assessment Criteria C. Integrated Patient Awareness Campaign D. Interprofessional Academic Council Q35. What document outlines the competencies an RMT candidate must meet? A. Code of Ethics B. Scope of Practice (Correct Answer) C. Fitness to Practice D. Regulatory Requirements Q36. The therapeutic relationship focuses on the client's well-being above all other interests. A. True (Correct Answer) B. False Q37. Dual relationships are always acceptable within therapeutic settings. A. True B. False (Correct Answer) Q38. A conflict of interest occurs when a therapist prioritizes personal interests over their duty to the client. A. True (Correct Answer) B. False Q39. The CMTO sets the maximum fees an RMT can charge for services. A. True B. False (Correct Answer) Q40. RMTs must always maintain confidentiality according to the Code of Ethics. A. True (Correct Answer) B. False Q41. The Scope of Practice is irrelevant to the requirements of RMTs in their professional duties. A. True B. False (Correct Answer) Q42. Liability insurance is optional for RMTs in many provinces. A. True B. False (Correct Answer) Q43. In Manitoba, RMTs must adhere to strict documentation guidelines relating to client information. A. True (Correct Answer) B. False Q44. IPAC and the MOPH are unrelated to the practices of RMTs. A. True B. False (Correct Answer) Q45. Public members play a crucial role in the governance of RMTS councils. A. True (Correct Answer) B. False Q46. The Code of Ethics allows RMTs to disclose client information without consent for any reason. A. True B. False (Correct Answer) Q47. Proper draping practices are essential for ensuring privacy and comfort during therapy. A. True (Correct Answer) B. False Q48. What is the definition of sexual abuse as per the course content? A. Physical assault without consent B. Any act targeting intimate areas with consent C. Engagement in any sexual behavior without the express consent of the other party (Correct Answer) D. Professional misconduct without any physical contact Q49. Which document outlines the 'Duty to Inactive General & Registration Status'? A. Report 915 (Correct Answer) B. Annual Fees Document C. Circle of Care Guidelines D. Discipline Hearing Decision Act 2004 Q50. When are the annual fees due for registration in this context? A. January 1 B. November 1 (Correct Answer) C. February 15 D. December 31 Q51. Which type of relationship is considered a boundary violation in the context of massage therapy? A. Therapeutic Friendship B. Dual Relationships (Correct Answer) C. Professional Networking D. Personal Attention Q52. What is one of the major focuses of the discipline process within the context of rehabilitation? A. Punitive Measures B. Immediate Dismissal C. Lifelong Suspension D. Rehabilitation (Correct Answer) Q53. In terms of consent, what does 'IC' signify? A. Informed Consent (Correct Answer) B. Interpersonal Communication C. Immediate Confirmation D. Independent Certification Q54. What are 'serious issues of incompetence' generally related to? A. Legal Violations B. Common Practice Conflicts C. Fitness to Practice (Correct Answer) D. Administrative Matters Q55. Which of the following is a form of misconduct mentioned in the course content? A. Late Cancellations B. Emotional Intimacy (Correct Answer) C. Scheduling Conflicts D. Professional Advancement Q56. Who is responsible for reviewing complaints related to fitness to practice? A. Registrar B. Discipline Committee C. ICRC (Correct Answer) D. General Public Q57. What must be documented when giving consent, according to the guidelines? A. Only verbal agreements B. Documented timestamps (Correct Answer) C. Only written forms D. No documentation necessary Q58. Under which condition can a name be considered an identifying detail? A. When only verbal communication occurs B. When the name is absent C. When it relates to safety concerns (Correct Answer) D. When discussing general practices Q59. What does 'transference' refer to in the therapeutic context? A. The exchange of goods between parties B. The therapist transferring feelings to the client C. The client transferring feelings towards the therapist (Correct Answer) D. Change of therapist within treatment Q60. Which of the following is NOT a category of sexual abuse mentioned? A. Touch B. Intercourse C. Flirting (Correct Answer) D. Remark Q61. Consent can only be verbal and must be documented. A. True B. False (Correct Answer) Q62. The 'Duty to Breach' occurs when the safety of individuals is compromised. A. True (Correct Answer) B. False Q63. Massaging family and friends is always considered ethical practice. A. True B. False (Correct Answer) Q64. Hearing decisions must always include terms and limitations. A. True (Correct Answer) B. False Q65. The ICRC is responsible for issuing a reprimand if deemed necessary. A. True (Correct Answer) B. False Q66. Emotional intimacy is viewed positively in therapeutic relationships. A. True B. False (Correct Answer) Q67. Documents from 2004 govern the handling of personal health information. A. True (Correct Answer) B. False Q68. Dual relationships are encouraged in therapeutic contexts. A. True B. False (Correct Answer) Q69. The age of consent varies in different jurisdictions. A. True (Correct Answer) B. False Q70. ICRC stands for Independent Committee for Review and Conduct. A. True B. False (Correct Answer)