DX MCQ Questions - DX Practice Questions PDF

lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Dx all MCQ Questions - DX Practice QS Diagnosis 1 (Murdoch University) Scan to open on Studocu Studocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 The purpose of the four valves of the heart is to ____. A) control the rate of blood flow B) ensure one-way blood flow C) keep the blood in the correct chamber D) maintain blood pressure E) generate rhythmic contractions Body cells surrounding capillaries usually have a ____. A) high oxygen concentration B) low oxygen concentration C) low carbon dioxide concentration D) high nutrient concentration E) low concentration of waste products Water is forced through capillary walls by ____. A) different concentrations of substances B) low pressure of the blood C) filtration D) osmosis E) diffusion In the clinical setting, blood pressure refers to _______. A) lymphatic pressure B) arterial pressure C) osmotic pressure D) venous pressure E) intracardiac pressure Blood pressure is greatest in the arteries ____. A) when the heart is between contraction and relaxation B) when the atria contract C) when the Purkinje fibers are stimulated D) when the SA node fires E) when the ventricles contract What causes a myocardial infarction? A) Damaged heart valves B) Weakened heart muscle C) Obstruction of blood flow to the heart muscle D) A serious dysrhythmia E) A defective SA node The ____ lies on top of the visceral pericardium. A) fibrous pericardium B) parietal pericardium C) myocardium D) endocardium E) epicardium Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Which of following is a membrane that covers the heart? A) Pericardium B) Myocardium C) Epicardium D) Endocardium E) Pericardial cavity The outermost layer of the heart wall, which contains fat that helps cushion the heart, is known as the _________. A) myocardium B) visceral pericardium C) parietal pericardium D) endocardium E) epicardium Which of the following is the thickest layer of the heart, which is made up of muscle? A) Epicardium B) Myocardium C) Endocardium D) Pericardium E) Pericardial cavity Which layer of the heart is the outermost layer, which contains fat to cushion the heart? A) Epicardium B) Myocardium C) Endocardium D) Pericardium E) Pericardial cavity Which of the following is the innermost layer of the heart, which is thin and smooth? A) Epicardium B) Myocardium C) Endocardium D) Pericardium E) Pericardial cavity Which of these layers of the heart wall contains Purkinje fibers? A) Epicardium B) Myocardium C) Endocardium D) Pericardium E) Pericardial cavity Which valve is between the left atrium and left ventricle? A) Tricuspid B) Bicuspid C) Pulmonary semilunar D) Aortic semilunar E) Right atrioventricular Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 What is the name of the valve that is also known as the mitral valve? A) Tricuspid B) Bicuspid C) Pulmonary semilunar D) Aortic semilunar E) Right atrioventricular The ____ valve is between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk. A) tricuspid B) bicuspid C) pulmonary semilunar D) aortic semilunar E) right atrioventricular The ____ valve prevents blood from flowing back into the left ventricle. A) tricuspid B) bicuspid C) pulmonary semilunar D) aortic semilunar E) left atrioventricular Which of the following valves prevents blood from flowing back into the right ventricle? A) Tricuspid B) Bicuspid C) Pulmonary semilunar D) Aortic semilunar E) Left atrioventricular Which component of the cardiac conduction system is located between the ventricles and splits into left and right branches? A) SA node B) AV node C) Bundle of His D) Purkinje fibers E) Bundle branches Which part of the cardiac conduction system is located in the wall of the right atrium? A) SA node B) AV node C) Bundle of His D) Purkinje fibers E) Bundle branches Which part of the cardiac conduction system is known as the pacemaker of the heart? A) SA node B) AV node C) Bundle of His D) Purkinje fibers E) Bundle branches Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Which part of the cardiac conduction system is located in the walls of the ventricles and cause the ventricles to contract? A) SA node B) AV node C) Bundle of His D) Purkinje fibers E) Bundle branches Which part of the cardiac conduction system receives the impulse from the SA node? A) SA node B) AV node C) Bundle of His D) Purkinje fibers E) Bundle branches The bundle of His splits into left and right bundle branches that carry an electrical impulse to the ____. A) SA node B) AV node C) AV bundle D) Purkinje fibers E) mitral valve Which of the following causes dysrhythmia when elevated? A) Exercise B) Body temperature C) Potassium ions D) Calcium ions E) Phosphate ions Which of the following can cause longer-than-normal heart contractions? A) Strenuous exercise B) Elevated body temperature C) High concentration of potassium ions D) High concentration of calcium ions E) Elevated heart rate Which of the following does not cause an increase in the heart rate? A) Strenuous exercise B) Elevated body temperature C) Parasympathetic nerve stimulation D) Sympathetic nerve stimulation E) Low concentration of potassium ions Which of the following decreases the heart rate? A) Strenuous exercise B) Elevated body temperature C) Parasympathetic nerve stimulation D) Sympathetic nerve stimulation E) Low concentration of potassium ions Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 The cardiac control center responds to ____. A) changes in blood pressure B) increase in potassium ion concentration C) strenuous exercise D) increase in calcium ion concentration E) Increase in body temperature The ____ have walls that are one cell thick. A) arterioles B) arteries C) veins D) venules E) capillaries Venules and arterioles are connected by ____. A) arterioles B) arteries C) veins D) venules E) capillaries Which of the following are the strongest blood vessels that function to carry blood away from the heart? A) Arterioles B) Arteries C) Veins D) Venules E) Capillaries The ____ are small vessels that carry oxygenated blood. A) arterioles B) arteries C) veins D) venules E) capillaries The ____ are small vessels that carry deoxygenated blood. A) arterioles B) arteries C) veins D) venules E) capillaries Which of the following results in an increased blood pressure? A) Increased cardiac output B) Loss of blood C) Vasodilation D) Dehydration E) Shock Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Which of the following does not decrease the blood pressure? A) Loss of blood B) Vasoconstriction C) Vasodilation D) Dehydration E) Decreased cardiac output Which of the following veins drains the intestines? A) Mesenteric B) Renal C) Brachial D) Iliac E) Intercostal Which artery supplies blood to the thigh? A) Left carotid B) Right subclavian C) Celiac D) Phrenic E) Femoral The blood supply for the teeth comes from the ____ artery. A) mesenteric B) axillary C) lumbar D) lingual E) maxillary Which arteries supply blood to the rib area? A) Intercostals B) External iliacs C) Axillaries D) Popliteals E) Occipitals The ____ arteries supply blood to the forearm and hand. A) brachial and popliteal B) ulnar and radial C) common iliac and external iliac D) femoral and tibial E) maxillary and lingual The ____ vein is the major vein in the legs. A) azygos B) intercostal C) saphenous D) jugular E) brachiocephalic Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Gluteal areas are served by the ____ veins. A) azygos B) intercostal C) saphenous D) iliac E) popliteal The ____ vein takes blood to the liver from the intestines. A) saphenous B) iliac C) mesenteric D) axillary E) gastric Blood leaves the armpits through the ____ veins. A) saphenous B) iliac C) mesenteric D) axillary E) brachial The ____ vein removes blood from the thorax and abdomen. A) azygos B) intercostal C) saphenous D) iliac E) axillary Which of the following causes of chest pain is heart-related? A) Pleurisy B) Heartburn C) Angina D) Inflammation of the pancreas E) Costochondritis Which of the following causes chest pain only when someone pushes on the chest? A) Heartburn B) Costochondritis C) Pulmonary embolism D) Sore muscles E) Pleurisy Mr. Jackson is being seen because of severe chest pain. He says the pain is sharp and severe and gets worse when he coughs or breathes in. Based on these symptoms, you might suspect that he has A) heartburn. B) costochondritis. C) a pulmonary embolism. D) sore muscles. E) myocardial infarction. Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Chest pain caused by ____ generally occurs only during body movements. A) heartburn B) costochondritis C) pulmonary embolism D) sore muscles E) panic attacks If chest pain follows a meal and increases when the patient bends over, it is generally due to ____. A) heartburn B) costochondritis C) pulmonary embolism D) sore muscles E) pleurisy Karyn has been having episodes of tachycardia (rapid heartbeat) associated with her congestive heart failure. Karyn does not want to add "yet another" medication to those she is already taking. Which of the following options might help Karyn control her rapid heartbeat without medication? A) Maze procedure B) Vagal maneuvers C) Increased exercise D) Increased caffeine intake E) Electrical shock Mr. Johnson is an overweight patient with a history of myocardial infarction four years ago. He is in the office today complaining that he just doesn't feel well. He is experiencing nausea, shortness of breath, and a little dizziness. His feet and ankles seem swollen and his neck veins are prominent. For which of the following conditions might the practitioner test given the patient's symptoms? A) Endocarditis B) Hypertension C) Mitral valve prolapse D) Congestive heart failure E) Acute myocardial infarction Mrs. Landon has been diagnosed with coronary artery disease. Her cholesterol level is high, and the physician advised her to get more exercise and follow a low-fat diet. At her follow-up appointment, however, the physician tests her cholesterol level and it is still unacceptably high. Which of the following medications might you expect the physician to prescribe to help lower her cholesterol? A) RhoGAM B) Lasix C) Lipitor D) Aspirin E) Ibuprofen A bulge or weak area in the wall of the aorta is called an aortic ________. A hardening of the fatty plaque deposits within the arteries is ________. The blood pressure is regulated partly by ________, which measure blood pressure and are located in the aorta and carotid arteries. Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Inflammation of the inner lining of the heart is called ________. If an embolus blocks a cerebral artery, the result may be a(n) ________, or stroke. The cusps of the AV valve are anchored to cardiac muscle by cord-like structures called ________ _________. When the ventricles relax, blood pressure in arteries is at its lowest. This pressure is called the ________ pressure. Fluid retention can cause swelling, or ________, in the legs or feet. A consistent resting blood pressure measured at 140/90 mm Hg or higher is diagnosed as ________. The atria are separated from each other by a walled membrane known as the ________. The ventricles of the heart are separated by the ________ septum. The ________ circuit is the route that blood takes from the heart to the lungs and back to the heart again. After the impulse flows through the ________, the ventricles contract and the SA node starts the flow of a new impulse. The _________ circuit is the route blood takes from the heart through the body and back to the heart. The pressure in the arteries caused by ventricular contraction is called the ________ pressure. Twisted, dilated veins that are usually seen in the legs are called ________ veins. The tightening or constriction of the muscular wall of an artery that increases blood pressure is called ________. The widening of the wall of an artery that decreases blood pressure is called ________. Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 The percentage of red blood cells found in a sample of blood is called the ____. A) WBC B) RBC C) hematocrit D) differential E) serum Plasma makes up what percentage of the blood? A) 25% B) 35% C) 45% D) 55% E) 65% The production of RBCs in the blood is controlled by which hormone? A) Thyroxin B) Oxyhemoglobin C) Cortisol D) Erythropoietin E) Oxytocin Red blood cells live for approximately ____. A) one month B) two months C) four months D) six months E) one year Bacteria and viruses are destroyed by white blood cells called ____. A) eosinophils B) neutrophils C) basophils D) lymphocytes E) erythrocytes Parasitic infections can be controlled by which of these WBCs? A) Eosinophils B) Neutrophils C) Basophils D) Lymphocytes E) Monocytes Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Which of these WBCs release histamine and heparin and promote inflammation? A) Eosinophils B) Neutrophils C) Basophils D) Lymphocytes E) Monocytes A bacterial infection has been present in a patient for about 2 weeks if the WBC differential shows _________. A) elevated eosinophils B) elevated monocytes C) elevated neutrophils D) decreased basophils E) decreased neutrophils Which of the following would the medical provider expect a patient with AIDS to have? A) Decreased granulocytes B) Decreased monocytes C) Increased erythrocytes D) Decreased lymphocytes E) Decreased erythrocytes Some WBCs leave the blood vessels by a mechanism called ____. A) osmosis B) diffusion C) diapedesis D) osmotic pressure E) filtration Blood platelets are essential for ____. A) carrying oxygen B) maintaining blood volume C) clotting D) maintaining blood pressure E) reducing inflammation When blood coagulates on a vessel wall in the absence of a known injury, it is correctly referred to as ____. A) an embolus B) hemostasis C) a clot D) a thrombus E) agglutination Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 When a part of a thrombus breaks off, it is referred to as ____. A) an embolus B) hemostasis C) a clot D) a thrombus E) agglutination An embolus is dangerous because it can eventually become lodged in a small artery in the ____. A) liver B) lungs C) intestines D) stomach E) kidneys Which of the following occurs when mismatched blood is given to a patient? A) The patient will die. B) The blood received will be destroyed. C) The blood will turn yellow. D) The blood will fail to circulate properly. E) No major problem will result. People with which blood type are universal donors? A) Rh-positive B) Rh-negative C) B D) AB E) O People with which blood type can receive only one type of blood? A) A B) B C) AB D) O E) Rh-positive A woman of childbearing age should know her Rh type because if she is Rh-negative and conceives a child that is Rh-positive, ____. A) her first pregnancy could prove fatal to her B) her first infant will have erythroblastosis fetalis C) her second baby will have erythroblastosis fetalis D) she will need blood transfusions after delivery E) her second pregnancy could prove fatal to her Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Globulins are plasma proteins that ____. A) pull water into the blood B) transport lipids and some vitamins C) aid in blood clotting D) maintain the blood pressure E) help control bleeding Fibrinogen is a plasma protein that ____. A) pulls water into the blood B) transports lipids C) aids in blood clotting D) transports some vitamins E) maintains the blood pressure When a blood vessel is broken, what is the body's first response? A) Platelet plug formation B) Vasodilation C) Smooth muscle contraction D) Blood coagulation E) Blood clot formation Jose, an 11-year-old child, was involved in a serious automobile accident and has lost a lot of blood. The emergency physician tells his mother that he will need a blood transfusion. The mother becomes frantic, saying that Jose has a "rare" blood type, AB, and she doesn't know if they will be able to match it. What would be the physician's best response to Jose's mother? A) "That is a rare type, but we can probably match it." B) "Most people with type AB blood can receive blood from any blood type." C) "If necessary, we will have blood brought in from another hospital." D) "Type AB is the most common type of blood." E) "People with type AB blood are called universal donors." Tina is a 47-year-old patient who has recently begun experiencing dizziness and shortness of breath. She gets frequent headaches. After the initial exam, the physician orders several blood tests. The results of the tests indicate that Tina has polycythemia vera. Which of the following treatment courses would you expect the physician to pursue with Tina? A) Blood transfusions B) Bone marrow transplants C) Radiation therapy D) Stem cell transplant E) Therapeutic phlebotomy Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Beth is a 16-year-old patient whose mother has brought her to the office because Beth is always complaining of being tired. Beth tells you that she has frequent headaches, and her feet are always cold. Her blood pressure is 100/64, and her heart rate is 84. When you ask if her menstrual periods are normal, she says she bleeds heavily for 7 or 8 days each month. Which of the following conditions might you suspect? A) Polycythemia vera B) Iron-deficient anemia C) Thalassemia D) Leukemia E) Sickle-cell anemia The formation of a blood clot is called ____. A) agglutination B) hemostasis C) coagulation D) diapedesis E) hemolysis Blood clots are formed from ____, which sticks to the damaged area of the blood vessel, creating a mesh that entraps blood cells and platelets. A) fibrin B) albumin C) globulin D) serum E) urea If an embolus lodges in a coronary artery, it may cause ____. A) a stroke B) pulmonary embolism C) high blood pressure D) pericarditis E) myocardial infarction The most likely result of agglutination following a blood transfusion is ____. A) cerebrovascular accident B) severe anemia C) pulmonary embolism D) myocardial infarction E) polycythemia vera Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Harold has A-positive blood. He is receiving a series of blood transfusions to treat anemia caused by AIDS. The local blood bank is running low on type A blood. If necessary, which other blood type can Harold receive? A) A-negative B) B-positive C) AB-positive D) AB-negative E) O-positive Which of the following individuals is most at risk for erythroblastosis fetalis? A) An Rh-positive mother B) An Rh-negative mother C) An Rh-negative father D) The first Rh-negative fetus born to an Rh-positive mother E) The second Rh-positive fetus born to an Rh-negative mother If a fetus develops erythroblastosis fetalis, what medical intervention is often required at birth? A) Multiple blood transfusions B) Supplemental oxygen C) Intravenous antibiotics D) UV light therapy E) RhoGAM injections The most common cause of anemia is ____. A) vitamin deficiency B) kidney failure C) AIDS D) iron deficiency E) chronic illness Which of the following populations is most affected by sickle cell anemia? A) Caucasians B) Asians C) African Americans D) Latino Americans E) Native Americans Which of the following is a sign or symptom of sickle cell anemia? A) Reddened skin B) Headache C) Nausea D) Delayed growth E) Enlarged spleen Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 About how much blood does the average adult body contain? A) 1 to 2 liters B) 2 to 4 liters C) 4 to 6 liters D) 6 to 8 liters E) 8 to 10 liters Which of the following is considered a normal WBC count? A) 2,600 cells B) 3,800 cells C) 6,700 cells D) 11,200 cells E) 12,300 cells Which of the following patients is most likely to have thalassemia? A) A patient of Mediterranean descent B) A native American C) A Latino American D) A Caucasian male E) A Caucasian female The clumping of red blood cells following a blood transfusion is ________. Monocytes and lymphocytes do not have granules in their cytoplasm and are two types of ________. When there are not enough red blood cells or hemoglobin in the blood to carry an adequate amount of oxygen to the body's cells, the person has the condition called ________. The white blood cells called ________ release substances such as histamine, which promotes inflammation, and heparin, which is an anticoagulant. The liver uses an orange pigment called _______ to make bile needed for the digestion of fats. When a red blood cell is destroyed, a pigment is released from that cell called _______. Hemoglobin that is not carrying oxygen is called deoxyhemoglobin, and because it may now carry carbon dioxide, it is also called ________. There are different types of lipoproteins found in blood. They include very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL), low-density lipoproteins (LDL), high-density lipoproteins (HDL), and ____________. Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 When a blood clot replaces the platelet plug at the site of a blood vessel injury, the process is called blood ________. The granules in the cytoplasm of granulocytes include neutrophils, ________, and basophils. Blood plasma proteins called ________ are used to transport lipids and some fat-soluble vitamins. White blood cells (WBCs), which are also called leukocytes, are divided into two categories: ________ and agranulocytes. Most blood cells are produced in red bone marrow by cells called ________. In ________ anemia, red blood cells are destroyed faster than they can be made. A condition in which the bone marrow produces a large number of abnormal white blood cells is ________. White blood cells (WBCs) are also called ________. If a patient has a white blood cell count above 10,000 cells per cubic millimeter of blood, the patient has ________ and probably has a bacterial infection. A white blood cell count that is below normal is called ________. Because lipids are not water-soluble and because plasma is mostly water, lipids must combine with molecules called ________ to be transported. The white blood cells that provide immunity for the body are the ________. Platelets come from cells called ________, which are found in red bone marrow. Hemoglobin that is carrying oxygen is called ________ and is bright red in color. The ________ antigen is a protein first discovered on red blood cells of the Rhesus monkey. It is important for women to know if they are positive or negative for this protein. Erythroblastosis fetalis is prevented by giving an Rh-negative woman the drug ________, which prevents an Rh-negative mother from making antibodies against the Rh antigen. The fluid that is left when all clotting factors are removed from plasma is called ________. An inherited form of anemia in which a defective hemoglobin chain causes microcytic, hypochromic, short-lived red blood cells is ________. Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Platelets that are important in the blood-clotting process are also called ________. The second Rh-positive child born to an Rh-negative mother may develop a condition called ________ if the mother is not given the drug RhoGAM to prevent her from making antibodies against the Rh antigen. Another name for red blood cells (RBCs) is ________. The percentage of red blood cells in a sample of blood is called the ________. Approximately 55% of the blood in a healthy person is made up of ________. The inability to absorb vitamin B12 is called ________ anemia. Bloodletting for the purpose of reducing the thickness of a person's blood is known as ________ phlebotomy. Which abbreviation is used for the term hemoglobin? A) RBC B) Hct C) Hgb D) CBC E) WBC Which of the following is the smallest of the plasma proteins that pull water into the bloodstream to help maintain blood pressure? A) Fibrinogen B) Albumins C) Globulins D) Platelets E) Thrombocytes Mature RBCs contain a pigment called ________. There are three major types of proteins in plasma: globulins, fibrinogens, and _____________. Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Which of the following is considered a physical reaction to a stressor? A) Decreased blood sugar B) Decreased blood pressure C) Increased heart rate D) Increased urinary output E) Decreased breathing rate Prolonged stress inhibits the body's immune responses by ____. A) using up all body reserves B) increasing the release of cortisol C) causing sodium and water retention D) causing weight loss E) increasing protein synthesis Which of these assessments would help to identify an endocrine problem in a child? A) Tracking the child's development on a standard growth chart B) Vision testing as early as possible C) Evaluating the child's balance and gait as soon as he or she begins to walk D) Evaluating the child's joint mobility E) Evaluating the child's speech patterns Chessie will have surgery next week to have her pituitary gland removed. She asks what effects this might have on her overall health. Which of the following conditions could she experience after this type of surgery? A) Hyperthyroidism B) Hyperadrenalism C) Hypothyroidism D) Disturbed circadian rhythms E) Diabetes Which of the following hormone categories requires G-protein to activate enzymes inside a cell? A) Steroidal B) Nonsteroidal C) Prostaglandins D) Gonadal E) Adrenal Which type of hormone can cross a cell membrane easily? A) Steroidal B) Nonsteroidal C) Prostaglandins D) Gonadal E) Adrenal Which hormones are made of amino acids and do not cross cell membranes easily? A) Steroidal B) Nonsteroidal C) Prostaglandins D) Gonadal Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 E) Adrenal Which of the following local hormones that typically are produced close to their target cells are produced by many body organs? A) Steroidal B) Nonsteroidal C) Prostaglandins D) Gonadal E) Adrenal The ____ hormones turn genes on or off in the nucleus. A) Steroidal B) Nonsteroidal C) Prostaglandins D) Gonadal E) Adrenal Which gland or organ secretes epinephrine and aldosterone? A) Thyroid B) Parathyroid C) Adrenal D) Pancreas E) Thymus The ____ gland secretes the hormone calcitonin. A) thyroid B) parathyroid C) adrenal D) pancreas E) thymus Which gland or organ secretes growth hormone and adrenocorticotropic hormone? A) Anterior pituitary B) Parathyroid C) Posterior pituitary D) Adrenal E) Thymus Which gland or organ has cells that release glucagon? A) Thyroid B) Parathyroid C) Adrenal D) Pancreas E) Hypothalamus Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin are released by the ____. A) anterior pituitary gland B) parathyroid gland C) posterior pituitary gland D) adrenal gland E) pineal body Which gland or organ releases luteinizing hormone? A) Anterior pituitary B) Parathyroid C) Posterior pituitary D) Adrenal E) Gonads The ____ gland releases PTH. A) anterior pituitary B) parathyroid C) posterior pituitary D) adrenal E) thyroid Which hormone stimulates the contraction of the prostate and vas deferens during male sexual arousal? A) Aldosterone B) FSH C) Calcitonin D) TSH E) Oxytocin Which of these hormones decreases blood sugar? A) Aldosterone B) Insulin C) Cortisol D) Glucagon E) Estrogen Which hormone increases blood sugar? A) Aldosterone B) Thyroid hormones C) Cortisol D) Glucagon E) Insulin Which hormone stimulates the body to retain sodium and water and is important for maintaining blood pressure? A) Aldosterone B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone C) Cortisol D) Calcitonin E) Epinephrine Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Which hormone increases energy production by cells, stimulates protein synthesis, and speeds up the repair of damaged tissues? A) Aldosterone B) Thyroid hormones C) Cortisol D) TSH E) FSH The hormone ____ lowers blood calcium by activating osteoblasts, which use excess blood calcium to build new bone tissue. A) cortisol B) glucagon C) calcitonin D) oxytocin E) melatonin The hormone that stimulates the thyroid gland to release hormones is ____. A) cortisol B) calcitonin C) oxytocin D) ACTH E) TSH Which of the following hormones decreases protein synthesis and inflammation? A) Aldosterone B) Thyroid hormones C) Cortisol D) Glucagon E) Calcitonin The ____ secretes a hormone called erythropoietin, which stimulates blood cell production. A) pineal body B) heart C) kidney D) thymus E) pancreas The hormone atrial natriuretic peptide is released by which organ? A) Stomach B) Small intestine C) Kidneys D) Heart E) Liver Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Which of the following releases melatonin, which regulates a person's biological clock? A) Pineal body B) Ovaries C) Testes D) Stomach E) Kidneys The ____ releases thymosin, which promotes the production of T cells. A) pineal body B) small intestine C) kidneys D) thyroid E) thymus Which of the following stimulates red blood cell production? A) Thymosin B) Melatonin C) Erythropoietin D) Atrial natriuretic peptide E) Calcitonin ____ regulates circadian rhythms. A) Thymosin B) Melatonin C) Erythropoietin D) Atrial natriuretic peptide E) Cortisol Which hormone, released by the heart, regulates blood pressure? A) Thymosin B) Melatonin C) Erythropoietin D) Atrial natriuretic peptide E) ACTH The hormone that stimulates production of T lymphocytes is ____. A) thymosin B) melatonin C) erythropoietin D) atrial natriuretic peptide E) ACTH When the thyroid gland does not produce adequate amounts of thyroid hormones, a condition called ____ may result. A) dwarfism B) gigantism C) Graves' disease D) myxedema E) Addison's disease Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Which of the following is the result of excess growth hormone in children? A) Acromegaly B) Cretinism C) Dwarfism D) Gigantism E) Goiter A high glucose level due to the inadequate secretion of insulin is ____. A) acromegaly B) cretinism C) Cushing's syndrome D) diabetes mellitus E) diabetes insipidus Which of the following is the result of an excess in growth hormone in adults? A) Acromegaly B) Cretinism C) Dwarfism D) Gigantism E) Goiter ____ is due to congenital hypothyroidism. A) Acromegaly B) Cretinism C) Dwarfism D) Gigantism E) Goiter In which of the following conditions is too much cortisol produced? A) Acromegaly B) Cretinism C) Cushing's syndrome D) Diabetes mellitus E) Addison's disease ____ is a condition in which too little growth hormone is produced in childhood. A) Acromegaly B) Cretinism C) Dwarfism D) Gigantism E) Graves' disease When a person develops antibodies that attack the thyroid gland, causing the thyroid to produce too many thyroid hormones, that person has ____. A) dwarfism B) gigantism C) Graves' disease D) myxedema E) Addison's disease Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Clara Simmons, a 62-year-old patient, has come to the medical office with a complaint of weight gain and puffy hands and feet. "This isn't like me," she says. "I exercise regularly and watch my diet." When you check her vital signs, you find that her blood pressure is 84/50, hear heart rate is 56, and her respirations are 12. For which of the following disorders might you expect the physician to test? A) Graves' disease B) Cushing's syndrome C) Myxedema D) Diabetes mellitus E) Diabetes insipidus Richard is a 36-year-old patient who is complaining of insomnia and weight loss. He tells you his heart often races. Richard's current weight is 126, and in his chart you notice that at his last visit 3 months ago, his weight was 142. He seems anxious while you are conducting the interview. For which of the following disorders might you expect the physician to test? A) Graves' disease B) Cushing's syndrome C) Myxedema D) Acromegaly E) Addison's disease Mr. Harrison came to the office last week because he was confused and concerned by recent physical developments. His hands and feet seem to be getting bigger, and he is developing gaps between his teeth. He is here today for a follow-up visit, and the physician informs him that he has a pituitary tumor that needs to be removed. Mr. Harrison's symptoms are typical of which of the following disorders? A) Graves' disease B) Cushing's syndrome C) Myxedema D) Addison's disease E) Acromegaly A person with ____ will have thin skin, high glucose levels, thin extremities, and a large abdomen. A) Graves' disease B) Cushing's syndrome C) myxedema D) acromegaly E) dwarfism Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 How does the level of carbon dioxide in the person's blood change when a person hyperventilates? A) Increases B) Decreases C) Increases only during inhalation D) Increases only during exhalation E) Decreases only during exhalation Which of the following can normally cause an increased respiratory rate and depth? A) Increased carbon dioxide levels in the blood B) Decreased carbon dioxide levels in the blood C) Increased oxygen level in the blood D) Increased pH in the blood E) Decreased pH in the blood Which of the following can normally cause an increased respiratory rate and depth? A) Increased carbon dioxide levels in the blood B) Decreased carbon dioxide levels in the blood C) Increased oxygen level in the blood D) Increased pH in the blood E) Decreased pH in the blood Which of the following describes the function of cilia? A) Mucus-secreting cells in the lower bronchial tree B) Tiny structures in the airways that trap and hold foreign material C) Tiny hair-like structures in the airways that push mucus toward the pharynx D) Composed of macrophages and destroy inhaled pathogens E) Flap-like structures that close off the larynx during swallowing Which of the following extend(s) from the lateral walls of the nasal cavity? A) Pharynx B) Nasal septum C) Nasal conchae D) Cilia E) Paranasal sinuses Which of the following lines the nasal cavity and helps remove pathogens? A) Pharynx B) Nasal septum C) Nasal conchae D) Cilia E) Paranasal sinuses Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 The nasal cavity is divided by the ____. A) pharynx B) nasal septum C) nasal conchae D) cilia E) paranasal sinuses Which of these are tiny air sacs surrounded by capillaries where gas exchange occurs? A) Bronchioles B) Alveoli C) Pleura D) Cilia E) Bronchi Which of the following allow the lungs to move freely in the thorax due to the secretion of a serous fluid? A) Bronchioles B) Alveoli C) Cilia D) Glottis E) Pleura The ____ are the part of the respiratory tree to which the alveoli are attached. A) bronchioles B) alveoli C) pleura D) epiglottis E) capillaries What is the medical term for the opening between the vocal cords? A) Bronchus B) Nasal cavity C) Glottis D) Epiglottis E) Pharynx Which of the following prevents food from entering the airway during swallowing? A) Alveoli B) Pleura C) Glottis D) Epiglottis E) Pharynx Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Which of the following does not occur when air enters the lungs? A) Thoracic pressure decreases. B) The diaphragm flattens. C) The diaphragm relaxes. D) The intercostal muscles raise the ribs. E) The amount of space in the thoracic cavity increases. Which of these occurs when air leaves the lungs? A) The diaphragm relaxes. B) Thoracic pressure decreases. C) The diaphragm flattens, enlarging the thoracic cavity. D) The intercostal muscles raise the ribs. E) Air pressure in the lungs becomes lower than atmospheric pressure. Which of the following does not affect the respiratory rate? A) Pons B) Carbon dioxide in the blood C) Medulla oblongata D) pH of the blood E) Pain Which of the following exerts control on the respiratory rhythm? A) Fear B) Pons C) pH of the blood D) Medulla oblongata E) Pain Which of the following is the sum of tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, and expiratory reserve volume? A) Inspiratory capacity B) Residual volume C) Vital capacity D) Total lung capacity E) Forced vital capacity What is the amount of air forcefully exhaled after a normal exhalation called? A) Tidal volume B) Inspiratory reserve volume C) Peak expiratory flow D) Residual volume E) Expiratory reserve volume Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 The amount of air that moves in or out of the lungs during a normal breath is the ____. A) tidal volume B) inspiratory reserve volume C) expiratory reserve volume D) residual volume E) inspiratory capacity What is the amount of air that can be forcefully inhaled after a normal inhalation called? A) Tidal volume B) Inspiratory reserve volume C) Expiratory reserve volume D) Residual volume E) Inspiratory capacity What is the amount of air that remains in the lungs at all times called? A) Expiratory reserve volume B) Functional residual capacity C) Vital capacity D) Total lung capacity E) Residual volume The ____ is the total amount of air that the lungs can hold. A) expiratory reserve volume B) residual volume C) vital capacity D) total lung capacity E) peak expiratory flow The total amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after the deepest inhalation possible is the ____. A) expiratory reserve volume B) residual volume C) vital capacity D) total lung capacity E) tidal volume Which of the following is caused by a virus and lasts 5-10 days? A) COPD B) Influenza C) Legionnaire's disease D) Pleurisy E) Emphysema Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 In which condition does inflammation cause an obstruction in the tubes of the bronchial tree? A) Asthma B) Bronchitis C) Pleurisy D) Pneumonia E) Atelectasis Smokers are much more likely to develop ____ than are nonsmokers, and repeated episodes increase a person's chance of eventually developing lung cancer. A) asthma B) bronchitis C) pleurisy D) pneumonia E) atelectasis In which disorder is airflow to the lungs limited and do the alveoli become enlarged? A) Asthma B) Tuberculosis C) COPD D) Pneumonia E) Allergic rhinitis Which of the following is an acute type of bacterial pneumonia caused by bacteria found in air conditioning systems? A) COPD B) Influenza C) Legionnaire's disease D) Pleurisy E) Laryngitis Which of these is a chronic condition that damages the alveoli of the lungs due to stretching of the spaces between the alveoli and paralyzes the cilia of the respiratory system? A) Asthma B) Emphysema C) Pleurisy D) Pneumonia E) SARS Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Which of the following is a collection of air in the chest around the lungs, which may cause atelectasis? A) Pulmonary edema B) Pulmonary embolism C) SARS D) Emphysema E) Pneumothorax Which of the following conditions may occur when heart function declines and fluid fills spaces of the lungs? A) Pulmonary edema B) Pulmonary embolism C) TB D) Pneumothorax E) RDS ____ is a blocked artery in the lungs and is frequently the result of immobility. A) Pulmonary edema B) Pulmonary embolism C) Pneumothorax D) Sinusitis E) Pneumoconiosis Which of the following is a relatively new respiratory disease caused by a virus that is very contagious and sometimes fatal? A) SARS B) Sinusitis C) SIDS D) TB E) RDS It is best to position a baby on its back for sleep to decrease the chance of ____. This is especially important for those known to be at risk, those with previous apneic episodes, or those who have lost a sibling. A) SARS B) COPD C) SIDS D) TB E) RDS Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Which of the following is caused by smoking or by exposure to radon, asbestos, or industrial carcinogens? A) Influenza B) Legionnaire's disease C) Lung cancer D) Pleuritis E) Atelectasis Which of these is not caused by cigarette smoking? A) Laryngitis B) Bronchitis C) Pleuritis D) Lung cancer E) Emphysema Which of the following is not a form of pneumoconiosis? A) Anthracosis B) Bronchitis C) Asbestosis D) Silicosis E) Black lung disease THE NEXT PAGE IS SHORT ANSWER WITH ANSWERS UNDERNEATH. PROCEED WITH CAUTION Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Allergic _______ is a hypersensitivity reaction to various airborne allergens Answer: Rhinitis Lung disease that results from years of exposure to different environmental or occupational types of dust are called __________. Answer: Emphysema another name for an upper respiratory tract infection (URI) or the common cold is ________. Answer: Coryza The third carriage of the larynx is called the ________ cartilage, which forms most of the posterior wall of the larynx and a small part of the anterior wall. Answer: Cricoid Symptoms of atelectasis include dyspnea, ________ or excessive perspiration, anxiety, tachycardia, and intercostal muscle retraction. Answer: Diaphoresis The medical term for a collapsed lung is _______. Answer: Atelectasis The medical term for when a patient has difficulty breathing is __________. Answer: dyspnea A pleural effusion caused by an infective process may result in a pus buildup, which is known as _________. Answer: Empiema The larynx is formed by three carriages: the thyroid cartilage, the _______ cartilage, and the cricoid cartilage. Answer: Epiglottis The respiratory symptoms of lung cancer include a cough that worsens over time and __________, or coughing up blood. Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Answer: hemoptysis A pleural effusion may consist of blood in the pleural cavity, called a(n) __________. Answer: Hemothorax A pleural effusion cause dry fluid in the pleural cavity is called a(n) ______. Answer: Hydrothorax Breathing rapidly and deeply, which decreases the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood, is called __________. Answer: Hyperventilation Inadequate oxygenation of the cells is called _________. Answer: Hypoxia Difficulty breathing, especially when lying down, is a condition known as ___________. Answer: Orthopnea A pleural _________ may consist of blood, fluid, air, or pus in the pleural cavity. Answer: Effusion Pleuritis, or __________, is a condition in which the pleura of the lungs become inflamed. Answer: pleurisy A condition in which the pleura become inflamed is _______ or pleurisy. Answer: pleuritis A pleural effusion that consists of air in the pleural cavity is also called a(n) ___________. Answer: Pneumothorax A pleural effusion that consists of pus in the pleural cavity is called a(n) ___________. Answer: pyothorax Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 The fatty substance that helps maintain the inflation of the alveoli so that they do not collapse in on themselves between inspirations is called __________. Answer: Serfactant when a patient has fluid and/or pus in the pleural cavity a(n)___________ is done to remove it. Answer: Thoracocentesis A(n) __________ requires insertion of a tube into the pleural cavity to continually drain the fluid. Answer: Thoracostomy The function of the respiratory system is to move air in and out of the lungs. This process is called _______, respiration, or breathing. Answer: ventilation Most of the oxygen int he bloodstream binds to the heme portion of _________ in red blood cells. Answer: Hemoglobin Hemoglobin bound to oxygen is bright red in color and is called __________. Answer: Oxyhemoglobin When carbon dioxide binds to hemoglobin, it forms________. Answer: Carboxyhemoglobin Most of the cabin dioxide that enters the blood is converted to _________ by red blood cells Answer: Carbonic Acid Carbon monoxide gas is poisonous to humans and is particularly dangerous because it binds to the same receptor sites on hemoglobin as does ________. Answer: Oxygen The __________ is the flap-like structure that closes off the larynx during swallowing so that food and liquids do not enter the respiratory system when swallowing occurs. Answer: Epiglottis Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 In which way does an individual develop a naturally acquired active immunity? A) When antibodies from the mother cross the placenta to the fetus B) When antibodies from the fetus cross the placenta to the mother C) From immunization with antibodies to a disease-causing organism D) From exposure to organisms that cause a disease E) From administration of a vaccine with killed or weakened organisms The medical provider has explained to Cherise that she has an abscess in her spleen and the spleen will need to be removed. When the medical assistant who is educating Cherise on the procedure asks if she has any questions, she asks if the spleen removal will cause a health problem. What is the best response to her question? A) "There is no effect. It is done all the time." B) "You may have frequent headaches." C) "The liver will take over most of the spleen's functions." D) "What makes you ask that?" E) "You will no longer be able to eat certain foods." Which of these nonspecific body defenses utilizes enzymes in body fluids to destroy pathogens? A) Chemical barriers B) Mechanical barriers C) Inflammation D) Phagocytosis E) Species resistance The nonspecific body defense in which neutrophils and monocytes can leave the bloodstream to attack pathogens in other tissues is ____. A) a chemical barrier B) a mechanical barrier C) inflammation D) phagocytosis E) species resistance Interferon in the blood acts as which type of nonspecific body defense? A) Chemical barrier B) Mechanical barrier C) Fever D) Inflammation E) Phagocytosis Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Which of the following results occurs in response to an injury? A) Chemical barrier B) Mechanical barrier C) Fever D) Species resistance E) Inflammation Which nonspecific defense activates cells in the body to attack pathogens? A) A chemical barrier B) Fever C) Inflammation D) Phagocytosis E) A mechanical barrier Mucous membranes and skin are examples of which type of nonspecific body defense? A) Chemical barriers B) Mechanical barriers C) Fever D) Inflammation E) Phagocytosis In which nonspecific body defense do blood vessels dilate, bringing more blood to the area, which in turn brings phagocytic white blood cells to the area to attack the pathogen, proteins to replace injured tissues, and clotting factors to stop any bleeding? A) Mechanical barriers B) Fever C) Inflammation D) Phagocytosis E) Chemical barriers Most lymphocytes in the blood are ____. A) T cells B) antibodies C) cytokines D) B cells E) natural killer (NK) cells Which of these become plasma cells in response to an antigen and make antibodies against the specific antigen? A) Macrophages and lymphocytes B) T cells C) B cells D) Natural killer (NK) cells E) Monocytes Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 What are the major WBCs involved in specific defenses? A) Macrophages and lymphocytes B) T cells C) Cytokines D) B cells E) Haptens Which of the following bind to antigens on cells and attack them directly? A) T cells B) Cytokines C) B cells D) Natural killer (NK) cells E) Haptens Which of the following produce memory cells that trigger a strong response to future exposures to the same antigen? A) Macrophages and lymphocytes B) T cells C) B cells D) Natural killer (NK) cells E) Complements Which of the following increase B cell production and stimulate red bone marrow to produce more WBCs? A) Macrophages and lymphocytes B) T cells C) Monokines D) Natural killer (NK) cells E) Memory cells Which of the following secrete lymphokines? A) Macrophages and lymphocytes B) T cells C) Cytokines D) Natural killer (NK) cells E) Monokines Which of the following cells mainly target cancer cells? A) Macrophages and lymphocytes B) T cells C) B cells D) Monokines E) Natural killer (NK) cells Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Which of the following is unique to an individual, is present on every cell in that person's body, and activates T cells? A) Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) B) Cytokines C) B cells D) Natural killer (NK) cells E) Complements Which of the following secrete chemicals that produce holes in the membranes of harmful cells but do not have to recognize a specific antigen to start destroying pathogens? A) Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) B) Cytokines C) B cells D) Natural killer (NK) cells E) T cells Which of the following activated T cells is active against viruses and protects the body against cancer? A) Cytotoxic B) Helper C) Memory D) NK E) Macrophage Which type of activated T cells prevents a person from having the same disease twice? A) Cytotoxic B) Helper C) Memory D) NK E) Macrophage Which activated T cells increase phagocytosis and antibody formation? A) Cytotoxic B) Helper C) Memory D) NK E) Macrophage Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Which of the following is the immunoglobulin that primarily binds to antigens on food, bacteria, or incompatible blood cells? A) IgG B) IgA C) IgM D) IgE E) IgD Which type of immunoglobulin recognizes bacteria, viruses, and toxins? A) IgG B) IgA C) IgM D) IgE E) IgD Which of these antibodies is found in secretions of the body and prevents pathogens from entering the body? A) IgG B) IgA C) IgM D) IgE E) IgD Which immunoglobulin triggers an allergic reaction? A) IgG B) IgA C) IgM D) IgE E) IgD Which immunoglobulin is thought to control the activity of B cells? A) IgG B) IgA C) IgM D) IgE E) IgD Which of the following does not describe a secondary immune response? A) It is a very rapid response. B) It causes memory cells to develop. C) It is carried out by memory cells. D) It requires re-exposure to an antigen. E) It prevents a person from developing a disease from the antigen. Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Which of the following describes a primary immune response? A) It is a very rapid response. B) It is carried out by memory cells. C) It takes several weeks. D) It requires re-exposure to an antigen. E) It prevents a person from developing a disease from the antigen. Which of the following types of immunity crosses the placenta and passes through the breast milk? A) Naturally acquired active B) Artificially acquired active C) Naturally acquired passive D) Artificially acquired passive E) Species resistance Which type of immunity results from exposure to an antigen? A) Naturally acquired active B) Artificially acquired active C) Naturally acquired passive D) Artificially acquired passive E) Species resistance Which type of immunity requires injection with an antibody? A) Naturally acquired active B) Artificially acquired passive C) Naturally acquired passive D) Artificially acquired active E) Species resistance Which type of immunity results simply from being human, as opposed to being a cow or plant? A) Naturally acquired active B) Artificially acquired passive C) Naturally acquired passive D) Artificially acquired active E) Species resistance Which type of immunity results from having an infectious disease? A) Naturally acquired active B) Artificially acquired passive C) Naturally acquired passive D) Artificially acquired active E) Species resistance Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Which type of immunity results from a vaccine? A) Naturally acquired active B) Artificially acquired active C) Naturally acquired passive D) Artificially acquired passive E) Species resistance Allergies can be treated effectively by which of the following over-the-counter medications? A) Anti-emetics B) Anti-inflammatories C) Pain relievers D) Antihistamines E) Analgesics Which of the following is an excessive immune response that involves IgE antibodies? A) Allergy B) Mononucleosis C) Anaphylaxis D) Lymphedema E) Chronic fatigue syndrome Which of the following causes a rapid drop in blood pressure and is a life-threatening event? A) Allergy B) Mononucleosis C) Anaphylaxis D) Mononucleosis E) AIDS Which of these is used to rescue a person experiencing anaphylaxis? A) Anti-inflammatory B) Allergen C) Analgesic D) Epinephrine E) Anti-emetic Which of the following identifies how far cancer cells have spread? A) Chemotherapy B) Radiation C) Biopsy D) Staging E) Immune therapy Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Elisa has just been diagnosed with stage II breast cancer. The practitioner has explained what this means, but Elisa is upset and confused. She asks the medical assistant if her cancer is serious. Which of the following is the best response to her question? A) "No, breast cancer is not serious until it reaches stage IV." B) "Breast cancer is 100% treatable." C) "All cancers are potentially serious, but your cancer has not spread beyond the breast." D) "No, in stage II, the cancer cells are localized in a few cell layers and are easily treatable." E) "It is serious because in stage II, the cancer cells have spread to other organs." Any factor that causes the formation of cancer is a(n) ____. A) carcinogen B) allergen C) irritant D) antigen E) antibody Which of the following are not signs or symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus? A) Numbness of fingers and toes B) Tender lymph nodes in the neck C) "Butterfly" rash D) Renal failure E) Headaches Which of the following are signs or symptoms of chronic fatigue syndrome? A) Numbness of fingers and toes and weight loss B) Hair loss and renal failure C) "Butterfly" rash and fever D) Tender lymph nodes and joint pain E) Runny nose and coughing Which of the following actions causes lymph to flow through the lymphatic vessels? A) Gravity B) The force of the heart's pumping C) The contraction of the muscles in vessel walls D) The squeezing action of the skeletal muscles E) Filtration If lymph cannot be pushed through the vessels, ____. A) blood pressure rises immediately B) the kidneys excrete it C) edema develops D) the arteries and veins take over that function E) the lymph is reabsorbed into the blood Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Which of the following describes the spleen? A) It is located in the thorax, above the heart. B) It removes aged RBCs from circulation. C) It decreases in size as a person ages. D) It produces T-lymphocytes. E) It produces thymosin. Which of the following describes the thymus? A) It decreases in size as a person ages. B) It removes aged RBCs from circulation. C) It is the largest lymphatic organ. D) It is filled with blood and macrophages. E) If it is removed, the liver takes over its functions. Ted came to the office feeling weak and has had significant weight loss recently. His blood tests show that his T-cell count is 178, his temperature is 102.4, and his blood pressure is 100/62. Based on his signs and symptoms, the practitioner might perform further tests to rule out ______. A) systemic lupus erythematosus. B) chronic fatigue syndrome. C) lymphedema. D) AIDS. E) mononucleosis. Sherry is a 17-year-old patient who arrives at the office complaining of fever, headache, frequent cough, and being tired all the time. She is concerned because her boyfriend has similar symptoms and was recently diagnosed with mononucleosis. Which of the following precautions should you take while you are working with Sherry? A) None, because mononucleosis is only spread by kissing B) Wear a mask while you are in the exam room C) Use full PPE, including a gown, gloves, and mask D) Put on gloves before checking her blood pressure E) Ask Sherry not to cough while you are in the room Large phagocytic cells that produce monokines and digest pathogens in the lymph are called ________. The most active phagocytes in the blood are neutrophils and ________. White blood cells called ________ engulf and destroy pathogens and unwanted debris in the body. In a(n) ________ disease, the body begins to attack its own antigens. Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 When normal cells create growths, the growths are called ________, meaning they are not cancerous. Major proteins in serum that attack pathogens and can also attract macrophages to pathogens and stimulate inflammation are called ________. Some foreign substances in the body are too small to start an immune response by themselves, so they join to proteins in the blood, where they are able to trigger an immune response. These substances are called ________. Fluids in the body are called ________. The body's mechanisms to protect itself against pathogens in general are called nonspecific defenses or ________ immunity ________, which is contained in blood, acts as a chemical barrier and blocks viruses from infecting cells. The fluid that exists between cells, called _______ fluid, is destined to become lymph. The blockage of lymphatic vessels that drain excess fluids from the body causes ________. T cells respond to antigens by secreting cytokines called ________, which increase T cell production and directly kill cells that have antigens. In tears, ________ act as a chemical barrier and destroy pathogens on the surface of the eye. Cytokines known as ________ assist in regulation of the immune response by increasing B cell production and stimulating red bone marrow to produce more white blood cells. A highly contagious viral infection spread through the saliva of the infected person and frequently affects teenagers is ________. The nonspecific body defense mechanism, in which monocytes leave the bloodstream and become macrophages to attack pathogens in other tissues, is called _________. A substance that triggers an allergic response is called a(n) ________. When an area of the body becomes injured or infected with a pathogen, ________ can result, causing blood vessels in the injured area to dilate and become leaky. A(n) ________ is the presence of a pathogen in or on the body. A foreign substance in the body is called a(n) ________. Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 A(n) ________ is a disease-causing agent such as a bacterium, virus, toxin, fungus, or protozoan. A life-threatening condition caused by an allergy in which vessels dilate so quickly that blood pressure drops too quickly for organs to adjust is called ________. Lymphocytes known as ________ cells primarily target cancer cells, killing these harmful cells on contact by secreting chemicals that produce holes in the membranes, causing them to burst. The cells of the lymphatic system produce proteins known as ________, which assist in immune response regulation. Two types of these proteins are monokines and lymphokines. Which disorder is an immune reaction linked to eating gluten that triggers a reaction causing the body to attack the small intestinal mucosa? A) Mononucleosis B) Lymphedema C) Lupus D) Chronic fatigue syndrome E) Celiac Masses of lymphoid tissue not surrounded by a capsule that are distributed in the connective tissue of mucosa are known as _______. A) lymphocytes B) macrophages C) lymph nodes D) thymus E) spleen _______ are three sets of lymphoid tissue that include pharyngeal, palatine, and lingual. Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 what is the palates main function A. assists in speech B. destroys bacteria and viruses C. separates oral and nasal cavities D. secretes saliva E. prevents food from entering the nose during swallowing Answer: separates oral and nasal cavities which of the following enzymes, which breaks down carbohydrates, is contained in saliva A. amylase B. trypsin C. chyme D. pepsin E. lactase Answer: amylase what is the main function of the epiglottis A. it helps propel food to the esophagus B. it secretes digestive enzymes C. it contains vocal chords D. it covers the opening of the larynx E. it separates the nasal and oral cavities Answer: it covers the opening of the larynx the esophageal hiatus is the A. lower section of the esophagus B. upper section of the esophagus C. part of the esophagus that connects to the stomach D. part of the esophagus that connects to the pharynx E. hole in the diaphragm that the esophagus goes through Answer: hole in the diaphragm that the esophagus goes through the gallbladder's only function is to _____ A. performs digestion of fat B. release bile in response to the response to the hormone cholecystokinin C. increase the absorption of fatty acids and cholesterol D. produce the enzymes amylase and lipase E. store vitamins and iron Answer: release bile in response to the hormone cholecystokinin Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 which layer of the wall of the alimentary canal contracts to move materials through the canal A. mucosa B. submucosa C. muscular layer D. serosa E. peritoneum Answer: muscular layer the ______, which is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal wall, absorbs nutrients A. mucosa B. submucosa C. muscular layer D. serosa E. peritoneum Answer: mucosa which of the following layers of the alimentary canal wall has blood vessels that carry nutrients away A. mucosa B. submucosa C. muscular layer D. serosa E. peritoneum Answer: submucosa also known as the visceral peritoneum, the ______ of the alimentary canal wall secretes serous fluid to keep other organs from sticking to the structures of the alimentary canal A. mucosa B. submucosa C. muscular layer D. serosa E. alimentary layer Answer: serosa which layer of the alimentary canal wall secretes mucus and enzymes A. mucosa B. submucosa C. muscular D. serosa E. peritoneum Answer: mucosa Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 which organ of the digestive system begins the chemical breakdown of foods A. mouth B. pharynx C. esophagus D. stomach E. gallbladder Answer: mouth which organ of the digestive system connects the mouth and esophagus A. larynx B. pharynx C. epiglottis D. hiatus E. palate Answer: pharynx the proximal portion of the ______ absorbs water and electrolytes A. esophagus B. stomach C. small intestine D. large intestine E. rectum Answer: large intestine the ______ is the main site of nutrient absorption A. esophagus B. stomach C. small intestine D. large intestine E. rectum Answer: small intestine which of the following uses peristalsis to push food to the stomach A. mouth B. pharynx C. esophagus D. larynx E. trachea Answer: esophagus Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 food is mixed with bile and pancreatic juices in which of the following A. stomach B. small intestine C. large intestine D. rectum E. liver Answer: small intestine which of the following organs of the digestive system secretes acid and enzymes A. esophagus B. stomach C. small intestine D. large intestine E. rectum Answer: stomach which cells of the stomach secrete hydrochloric acid and the intrinsic factor A. acinar cells B. mucous cells C. chief cells D. parietal cells E. serous cells Answer: parietal cells the ______ of the stomach secrete pepsinogen A. mucous cells B. chief cells C. acinar cells D. parietal cells E. serous cells Answer: chief cells the cells that protect the lining of the stomach are the ______ A. mucous cells B. chief cells C. acinar cells D. parietal cells E. serous cells Answer: mucous cells Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 which statement describe the jejunum A. it is directly attached to the large intestine B. it forms the majority of the small intestine C. it is the beginning of the small intestine D.it is c-shaped and short E. it passes food to the duodenum Answer: it forms the majority of the small intestine which statement describes the ileum of the small intestine A. it is directly attached to the large intestine B. it forms the majority of the small intestine C. it is the middle portion of the small intestine E. it is at the beginning of the small intestine Answer: it is directly attached to the large intestine which of these enzymes digest proteins in the small intestine A. intestinal lipase B. sucrase C. nuclease D. lactase E. peptidase Answer: peptidase which of these enzymes digest sugars in the small intestine A. intestinal lipase and amylase B. sucrase, maltase, and lactase C. nuclease and amylase D. peptidase and nuclease E. amylase and lactase Answer: sucrase, maltase, and lactase which of the following enzymes digest fats in the small intestine A. intestinal lipase B. sucrase C. nuclease D. peptidase E. maltase Answer: intestinal lipase Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 which pancreatic enzyme digests protein A. nuclease B. pancreatic lipase C. pancreatic amylase D. maltase E. trypsin Answer: trypsin the pancreatic enzyme that digests carbohydrates is ______ A. nuclease B. pancreatic lipase C. pancreatic amylase D. trypsin E. maltase Answer: pancreatic amylase which pancreatic enzyme digests lipids, or fat A. nuclease B. pancreatic lipase C. pancreatic amylase D. trypsin E. maltase Answer: pancreatic lipase Which of these vitamins is a fat-soluble vitamin? A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin B1 D. Vitamin B6 E. Vitamin B12 Answer: vitamin E which of these are water-solubl A. vitamin A B. vitamin C C. vitamin D D. vitamin K E. vitamin E Answer: vitamin C Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 which vitamin is essential for blood to clot A. vitamin D B. vitamin E C. vitamin K D. niacin E. biotin Answer: vitamin K which vitamin is essential for normal growth of bones and teeth, and the production of visual receptors A. vitamin A B. vitamin B6 C. vitamin D D. vitamin E E. vitamin K Answer: vitamin A the vitamin needed for production of collagen and absorption of iron is A. vitamin A B. vitamin B6 C. vitamin D D. vitamin E E vitamin C Answer: vitamin C which vitamin is needed for production of DNA and red blood cells A. niacin B. vitamin B6 C. folic acid D. vitamin C E. cyanocobalamin Answer: folic acid which vitamin is an antioxidant that prevents the breakdown of certain tissues A. vitamin A B. vitamin B6 C. vitamin D D. vitamin E E. vitamin K Answer: vitamin E Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 which of the following vitamins is needed for protein synthesis A. vitamin A B. vitamin B6 C. vitamin C D. vitamin E E. vitamin K Answer: vitamin B6 what vitamin is needed for metabolism of fats A. vitamin A B. vitamin B6 C. niacin D. folic acid E. vitamin K Answer: niacin the vitamin neede for the absorption of calcium is A. vitamin A B. vitamin B6 C. vitamin C D. vitamin D E. vitamin K Answer: vitamin D in which condition are stomach acids pushed into the esophagus A. crohn's disease B. diverticulitis C. GERD D. gastritis E. colitis Answer: GERD in which of these conditions does the stomach lining become inflamed A. crohn's disease B. diverticulitis C. GERD D. gastritis E. cholelithiasis Answer: gastritis Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 ______is a chronic liver disease in which normal tissue is replaced with scar tissue A. hepatitis B. crohn's disease C. diverticulitis D. GERD E. cirrhosis Answer: cirrhosis which of the following causes the stomach to rise up through the diaphragm A. crohn's disease B. diverticulitis C. hiatal hernia D. stomach ulcer E. inguinal hernia Answer: hiatal hernia which of these is an autoimmune disease A. crohn's disease B. diverticulitis C. gastritis D. hepatitis E. GERD Answer: crohn's disease ______is the inflammation of abnormal dilations of the intestinal wall A. crohn's disease B. diverticulitis C. gastritis D. hemorrhoid E. cholelithiasis Answer: diverticulitis inflammation of the liver is ______ A. diverticulitis B. gastritis C. hepatitis D. Cirrhosis E. diverticulosis Answer: hepatitis Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 which of these results from the breakdown of the lining of the stomach A. crohn's disease B. gastritis C. hiatal hernia D. stomach ulcer E. colitis Answer: stomach ulcer the condition in which distended veins in the rectum or anus become irritated is ______ A. hemorrhoids B. diverticulitis C. gastritis D. hiatal hernia E. colitis Answer: hemorrhoids The practitioner has determined that Janellyn, a 22-year-old patient, is at risk for cirrhosis of the liver. The practitioner would like the medical assistant to educate Janellyn on how to minimize this risk. Which of the following statements might be included in this type of teaching? A) "Avoid drinking alcohol." B) "Wash your hands frequently." C) "Try to gain a little weight to offset the risk." D) "Use only over-the-counter drugs when you are ill." E) "Limit your intake of red meat to no more than twice a week." Answer: Avoid drinking alcohol Gerri is a 32-year-old mother of two children who is in the office for a routine annual examination. She tells you that she feels good most of the time, but she has frequent problems with constipation. Which of the following recommendations would help Gerri? A) "Stop taking any medications that list constipation as a side effect." B) "Increase the amount of fiber in your diet." C) "Reduce your daily fluid intake." D) "Reduce your level of activity when constipation occurs." E) "Use an enema once or twice a week." Answer: Increase the amount of fiber in your diet Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Larry is a 47-year-old patient who reports several episodes of diarrhea. While taking his history, you discover that his favorite foods are sushi, beef, cabbage, broccoli, and new potatoes. He exercises four times a week at a local gym, when diarrhea does not prevent it. What would you review with him to try to prevent diarrhea in the future? A) Activity level B) Fluid intake patterns C) Food handling practices D) Duration of his symptoms E) Personal cleanliness Answer: Food handling practices Mr. Beall is an elderly patient who has severe arthritis in both hands. When you ask how he manages the pain, he tells you about taking what seems like a large dose of acetaminophen. You will respond by A) asking if it relieved his symptoms. B) explaining that too much acetaminophen could damage his liver. C) telling him that it is a very safe drug and may be used liberally. D) telling him he should not take acetaminophen. E) suggesting that ibuprofen might work better. Answer: explaining that too much acetaminophen could damage his liver. Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Urea and uric acid are products of the breakdown of ____. A) proteins B) sugars C) fats D) drug metabolites E) cholesterol When a female patient develops cystitis, the most likely cause is from ____. A) dehydration B) fecal contamination C) drinking a lot of water D) frequent urination E) wiping front to back Yolanda has been diagnosed several times in the last year with cystitis. She asks the practitioner if there is anything she can do to prevent future episodes of cystitis. What is the best response to her question? A) "Using a condom during sexual intercourse can help prevent cystitis." B) "Always clean the perineal area from front to back." C) "You can call us every three months for a refill on your antibiotics." D) "Avoid using public toilets whenever possible." E) "Limit your fluid intake after 8 p.m." You would anticipate that a patient who has had ____ may develop cystitis. A) multiple pregnancies B) a history of international travel C) pelvic inflammatory disease D) an indwelling urinary catheter E) multiple sexual partners When taking a urine sample from a patient for testing, you notice it is cloudy. This could indicate ____. A) cystitis B) renal failure C) renal calculi D) incontinence E) poor cleansing when collecting the urine An immune disorder is a possible cause for which disease? A) Cystitis B) Glomerulonephritis C) Pyelonephritis D) Polycystic kidneys E) Chronic renal failure Renal calculi could result from ____. A) obstruction in the tubules B) dehydration C) anaphylactic reactions D) overhydration E) bladder infections Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 How does pyelonephritis begin? A) As an infection in the kidneys B) As an autoimmune reaction C) As a side effect of some medications D) With a loss of kidney function E) With a bladder infection Which of these urinary diseases is likely to be treated with corticosteroids? A) Cystitis B) Acute renal failure C) Glomerulonephritis D) Polycystic kidneys E) Incontinence The portion of the renal cortex that extends between the pyramids is the ____. A) renal pelvis B) renal cortex C) renal medulla D) renal column E) renal papilla Which of the following is the outermost layer of the kidneys? A) Ureter B) Renal pelvis C) Renal cortex D) Renal medulla E) Renal papilla What are the muscular tubes that carry urine to the bladder called? A) Hilum B) Ureters C) Renal pelvis D) Renal cortex E) Renal tubule Which of these is the medial depression of a kidney? A) Renal sinus B) Hilum C) Ureter D) Renal pelvis E) Renal medulla What is the name for the hormone that regulates blood pressure? A) Erythropoietin B) Renin C) Cortisol D) Prolactin E) Oxytocin Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 The kidneys are in which position when compared to the peritoneal cavity? A) Lateral B) Superior C) Retroperitoneal D) Inferior E) Distal Which of these is a hormone that helps to regulate red blood cell production? A) Erythropoietin B) Renin C) Aldosterone D) ADH E) Oxytocin The ____ contains the renal artery, renal vein, and ureter. A) renal sinus B) hilum C) renal pelvis D) renal cortex E) renal column The expansion of the ureter inside the kidneys is the ____. A) renal pelvis B) renal cortex C) renal medulla D) renal column E) renal pyramid The middle portion of the kidneys is the ____. A) renal pelvis B) renal cortex C) renal medulla D) renal column E) hilum Which of the following is composed of a mass of capillaries called a glomerulus and is where blood filtration occurs? A) Renal corpuscle B) Renal tubule C) Glomerular capsule D) Proximal convoluted tubule E) Minor calyx The group of capillaries that forms the renal corpuscle is called the ____. A) renal tubule B) glomerulus C) afferent arterioles D) peritubular capillaries E) renal cortex Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 The ____ join with other, similar structures from other nephrons to form collecting ducts. A) afferent arterioles B) distal convoluted tubules C) efferent arterioles D) peritubular capillaries E) proximal convoluted tubules Located between the proximal and distal tubules is the ________. A) renal corpuscle B) minor calyx C) peritubular capillaries D) loop of Henle E) collecting duct Which section of the tubule is connected to the glomerulus? A) Renal corpuscle B) Collecting duct C) Glomerular capsule D) Proximal convoluted tubule E) Distal convoluted tubule Which structure surrounds each glomerulus? A) Renal corpuscle B) Renal tubule C) Bowman's capsule D) Proximal convoluted tubule E) Loop of Henle What are the tiny vessels that surround the tubules? A) Proximal convoluted tubules B) Renal tubules C) Peritubular capillaries D) Loop of Henle E) Distal convoluted tubules The ____ deliver blood to the peritubular capillaries. A) afferent arterioles B) distal convoluted tubules C) efferent arterioles D) peritubular capillaries E) proximal convoluted tubules Which process of urine formation decreases when the blood pressure decreases, and increases when the blood pressure increases? A) Glomerular filtration B) Tubular reabsorption C) Tubular secretion D) Elimination E) Micturition Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 During the ____ process of urine formation, substances move from the blood into the renal tubules. A) glomerular filtration B) tubular reabsorption C) tubular secretion D) elimination E) micturition During ____, the hormone ADH controls the amount of water the body keeps. A) glomerular filtration B) tubular reabsorption C) tubular secretion D) elimination E) micturition Which of the following occurs in the renal corpuscles? A) Glomerular filtration B) Tubular reabsorption C) Tubular secretion D) Elimination E) Micturition The filtrate flows into the proximal convoluted tubule during which process of urine formation? A) Glomerular filtration B) Tubular reabsorption C) Tubular secretion D) Elimination E) Micturition During which process of urine formation do drugs and hydrogen ions enter the filtrate? A) Glomerular filtration B) Tubular reabsorption C) Tubular secretion D) Elimination E) Micturition In which process of urine formation are nutrients, ions, and water returned to the body? A) Glomerular filtration B) Tubular reabsorption C) Tubular secretion D) Elimination E) Micturition Substances such as drugs, ions, and waste products are moved during the ____ process of urine formation and are eliminated in urine. A) glomerular filtration B) tubular reabsorption C) tubular secretion D) elimination E) micturition Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Which urinary system structure takes urine away from the bladder? A) Ureters B) Renal tubule C) Urethra D) Kidney E) Glomerulus The ____ use(s) a peristaltic action to take urine to the bladder. A) ureters B) renal tubule C) urethra D) kidney E) glomerulus The detrusor muscle is part of the ____. A) ureters B) bladder C) urethra D) kidney E) liver Which of the following describes acute renal failure? A) Kidneys slowly lose function B) Commonly caused by high blood pressure or diabetes C) Can result from poisons and/or alcohol abuse D) Surgical repair of obstructions may correct failure E) Can be caused by nervous system disorders Which of the following does not describe acute kidney failure? A) Kidneys suddenly lose function B) Commonly caused by high blood pressure or diabetes C) May cause excessive urine production D) Can result from hemorrhaging E) May be a result of food poisoning Which of the following describes chronic renal failure? A) Kidneys suddenly lose function B) Commonly caused by high blood pressure or diabetes C) May cause excessive urine production D) Can result from hemorrhaging E) May cause frequent seizure activity Which of the following does not describe chronic renal failure? A) Kidneys slowly lose function B) Commonly caused by high blood pressure or diabetes C) Can result from poisons and/or alcohol abuse D) Surgical repair of obstructions may correct failure E) May cause headache and mental confusion Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Carol recently had surgery to repair a urinary sphincter. Since then, she has had trouble with urinary incontinence. The physician has assured her that this will be a temporary condition, but she wants to know what she can do to help alleviate this problem. Which of the following is your best reply? A) "Wear incontinence pads for a while; it takes a long time to heal after surgery." B) "You can do Kegel exercises to increase your control of the urinary sphincters." C) "We can perform another surgery to repair your urethral sphincter." D) "Try using an over-the-counter diuretic to make the urge to urinate stronger." E) "Stop taking your prescription diuretic until you recover from the surgery." Donna came to the office today complaining of back pain, fever, nausea, and blood in her urine. She has a recent history of bladder infection. The physician diagnoses pyelonephritis. Which of the following would you expect the physician to prescribe? A) A systemic antiviral agent B) Bladder surgery C) Low-sodium, low-protein diet D) Kegel exercises E) Pain medication and antibiotics You are working at an urgent care clinic when a patient is brought in by several of his friends. He is conscious but seems very confused. At first, the friends say they're worried because he had too much to drink, but then they admit that he was using drugs also. The patient's hands are shaking, and when he wipes his nose with a tissue, you can see blood on the tissue. Which of the following conditions would the physician likely be most concerned about? A) Pyelonephritis B) Glomerulonephritis C) Polycystic kidney disease D) Acute renal failure E) Renal calculi Which of the following removes metabolic waste products from the blood? A) Kidneys B) Ureters C) Urinary bladder D) Urethra E) Renal pelvis In the kidneys what combines with water and ions to form urine? A) Red blood cells B) Erythropoietin C) Metabolic wastes D) Red bone marrow E) Renin Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 which of the following begin the process of developing sperm cells? A. testes B. bulbourethral glands C. glans penis D. spermatogenic cells E. epididymis Answer: spermatogenic cells at the beginning of spermatogenesis, cells are called ______ and contain 46 chromosomes. A. spermatogenic cells B. semen C. spermatogonia D. spermatocytes E. sperm cells Answer: spermatogonia which of the following carries sperm cells from the epididymis to the urethra? A. vas deferens B. seminal vesicle C. seminiferous tubule D. bulbourethral gland E. prostate gland Answer: vas deferens the ______ produces a milky, alkaline fluid and secretes this fluid into the urethra just before ejaculation to protect the sperm when they enter the acidic environment of the female vagina. A. bulbourethral gland B. prostate gland C. seminal vesicle D. testis E. epididymis Answer: prostate gland Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 which structure secretes an alkaline fluid rich in sugars and prostaglandins? A. bulbourethral gland B. prostate gland C. seminal vesicles D. testes E. epididymis Answer: seminal vesicles what surrounds the proximal urethra in a male? A. bulbourethral gland B. prostate gland C. seminal vesicle D. testis E. epididymis Answer: prostate gland a mixture of sperm cells and fluids from the seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral glands form______ A. spermatogenic cells B. spermatogonia C. spermatogenesis D. seminal fluid E. semen Answer: semen which of the following are considered the primary organs of the male reproductive system because they produce sperm and testosterone? A. testes B. bulbourethral gland C. seminiferous tubules D. spermatogenic cells E. seminal vesicles Answer: testes Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 each lobule of the testes is filled with ______, which are filled with spermatogenic cells that give rise to sperm cells. A. spermatogonia B. spermatocytes C. seminiferous tubules D. bulbourethral gland E. spermatids Answer: seminiferous gland which of the following makes a fluid that lubricates the penis for sexual intercourse? A. testes B. bulbourethral gland C. seminiferous tubules D. spermatogenic cells E. prostate gland Answer: bulbourethral gland which of the following is the inability to maintain an erection long enough to complete sexual intercourse? A. testicular cancer B. impotence C. prostate cancer D. prostatitis E. benign prostatic hypertrophy Answer: impotence which of these conditions can cause pain during bowel movements? A. testicular cancer B. impotence C. prostate cancer D. prostatitis E. benign prostatic hypertrophy Answer: prostate cancer Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 a lower sperm count is a sign of which of the following disorders? A. testicular cancer B. impotence C. prostate cancer D. prostatitis E. benign prostatic hypertrophy Answer: prostatitis a lump in the testes can be caused by ______ A. testicular cancer B. impotence C. prostate cancer D. prostatitis E. benign prostatic hypertrophy Answer: testicular caner which of these structures of the female reproductive system produces progesterone and estrogen? A. fallopian tube B. cervix C. vagina D. ovary E. uterus Answer: ovary in the female reproductive system, what "catches" the ovum as it leaves the ovary? A. vestibular glands B. infundibulum C. vagina D. urethra E. cervix Answer: infundibulum Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 the ______ provides a passageway for delivery of offspring as well as for uterine secretions A. vestibular glands B. infundibulum C. vagina D. ovary E. fallopian tube Answer: vagina which of these secrete mucus during sexual intercourse? A. vestibular glands B. clitoris C. vagina D. ovary E. fallopian tube Answer: vestibular glands which of these contain the female erectile tissue and is rich in sensory nerves? A. vestibular glands B. clitoris C. vagina D. infundibulum E. cervix Answer: clitoris for which disorders are pap smears often effective in early detection? A. cervical cancer B. cervicitis C. dysmenorrhea D. ovarian cancer E. endometrial cancer Answer: cervical cancer what is the medical term for cramps that are severe enough to limit normal activities? A. cervical cancer B. cervicitis C. dysmenorrhea D. ovarian cancer E. fibroids Answer: dysmenorrhea Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 which of the following disorders may cause a discharge from the nipples? A. breast cancer B. cervical cancer C. cervicitis D. dysmenorrhea E. ovarian cancer Answer: breast cancer what is the medical term for benign tumors that grow in the uterine wall? A. endometriosis B. fibroids C. cervicitis D. vaginitis E. cervical cancer Answer: fibroids an abnormal amount of vaginal discharge is associated with ______ A. ovarian cancer B. fibroids C. endometriosis D. vaginitis E. dysmenorrhea Answer: vaginitis the signs and symptoms of ______ are usually mild or indistinct until the disease has spread to other organs,making early detection difficult. A. breast cancer B. cervical cancer C. cervicitis D. dysmenorrhea E. ovarian cancer Answer: ovarian cancer Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 an inflammation of the cervix is ______ A. endometriosis B. Fibroids C. cervicitis D. vaginitis E. dysmenorrhea Answer: cervicitis in which of the following disorders do the tissues of the uterine lining grow outside the uterus? A. endometriosis B. Fibroids C. cervicitis D. vaginitis E. dysmenorrhea Answer: endometriosis which of the following is caused by bacteria? A. herpes simplex 2 B. crabs C. trichomoniasis D. chlamydia E. aids Answer: chlamydia which STI causes blisters on or around the genitals or rectum and for which there is no treatment that will cure it? A. herpes simplex 2 B. crabs C. trichomoniasis D. chlamydia E. syphilis Answer: herpes simplex 2 Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 a parasitic protozoan causes ______ A. herpes simplex 2 B. crabs C. trichomoniasis D. chlamydia E. gonorrhea Answer: trichomoniasis ______ is caused by blood-sucking insects A. herpes simplex 2 B. crabs C. trichomoniasis D. chlamydia E. gonorrhea Answer: crabs which of these implants in the wall of the uterus? A. embryo B. ovum C. morula D. blastocyst E. zygote Answer: blastocyst which period of pregnancy includes week 2 - 8? A. embryonic B. cleavage C. neonatal D. fetal E. prenatal Answer: embryonic the ______ period includes week 9 until delivery. A. embryonic B. cleavage C. neonatal D. fetal E. prenatal Answer: fetal Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 which of these is the rapid cell division of the zygote? A. embryo B. amnion C. morula D. blastocyst E. cleavage Answer: cleavage which of the following travels down the fallopian tubes to the uterus and becomes a blastocyst A. embryo B. fetus C. morula D. cleavage e. zygote Answer: morula the middle layer of the embryo that becomes connective tissue is the______ A. amnion B. ectoderm C. mesoderm D. endoderm E. yolk sac Answer: mesoderm which of these makes new blood cells for the fetus? A. yolk sac B. amnion c. umbilical cord D. mesoderm E. ectoderm Answer: yolk sac Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 the ______ is the protective sac around the embryo A. yolk sac B. amnion c. umbilical cord D. mesoderm E. ectoderm Answer: amnion which of the following gives rise to epithelial tissues only? A. amnion B. ectoderm C. mesoderm D. endoderm E. yolk sac Answer: endoderm which if these gives rise to nervous tissue? A. amnion B. ectoderm C. mesoderm D. endoderm E. yolk sac Answer: ectoderm in fetal development, the ______ allows blood to bypass the liver A. foramen ovale B. ductus arteriosus C. ductus venosus D. amnion E. pulmonary trunk Answer: ductus venosus which of these is located between the right and left atria during fetal development? A. foramen ovale B. ductus arteriosus C. ductus venosus D. amnion E. pulmonary trunk Answer: foramen ovale Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 during fetal development, the ______is located between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta A. foramen ovale B. ductus arteriosus C. ductus venosus D. amnion E. extraembryonic cavity Answer: ductus arteriosus which method of contraception contains low doses of estrogen and progesterone? A. rhythm B. mechanical barriers C. oral contraceptives D. tubal ligation E. chemical barriers Answer: oral contraceptives which method of contraceptives relies on abstinence from intercourse when the female is ovulating? A. rhythm B. mechanical barriers C. oral contraceptives D. IUD E. coitus interruptus Answer: rhythm which form of contraception requires the male to withdraw before ejaculation? A. rhythm B. mechanical barriers C. coitus interruptus D. IUD E. oral contraceptives Answer: coitus interruptus Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 the diaphragm is an example of a ______ A. rhythm method B. mechanical barrier C. oral contraceptive D. IUD E. chemical barrier Answer: mechanical barrier which form of contraception prevent implantation of blastocyst A. rhythm B. mechanical barriers C. oral contraceptives D. IUD E. chemical barrier Answer: IUD Marilyn is a patient at the OB/GYN clinic where you work. After two years of trying, she has failed to become pregnant. She has had extensive testing, which did not turn up any abnormalities. However, she says, "I know there must be something wrong with me. My husband says it has to be my fault, because men never have fertility problems." How should you respond? A) "Don't worry; we will keep on testing until we find out exactly what your problem is." B) "Actually, 35% of the time, infertility is due to male causes." C) "There is nothing more we can do for you here; have you considered therapy?" D) "Your husband is wrong; there is nothing wrong with you, so there must be something wrong with him." E) "If you want to get pregnant, you have to start thinking more positively." Answer: "Actually, 35% of the time, infertility is due to male causes." Geneva is 8 months pregnant when she finds out that she has acquired the herpes simplex 2 virus. She is looking forward to having the baby and plans a natural childbirth at a nearby birthing facility. What is the greatest danger with this plan? A) Geneva may die in childbirth if she is having a herpes outbreak at the time. B) Her husband may leave her if the baby is born with herpes. C) There are no particular dangers, as long as both mother and baby receive antiviral medication. D) Geneva may have trouble delivering the baby naturally because she has herpes. E) Natural childbirth may cause the baby to contract the virus, with potentially fatal results. Answer: Natural childbirth may cause the baby to contract the virus, with potentially fatal results. Downloaded by Sheldon Lo ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|42936638 Lee comes to the clinic with flu-like symptoms and general malaise. Upon testing, it is noted that he has a Pneumocystis

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