Bio Final Study PDF

Bio Final Study 1. Why does fat store more energy than carbohydrates? Compared to carbohydrates, fatty acid chains have a higher ratio of bonds with high potential energy to bonds with low potential energy. 2. The drug cytochalasin B blocks the function of actin. Which of the following aspects of th...

Bio Final Study 1. Why does fat store more energy than carbohydrates? Compared to carbohydrates, fatty acid chains have a higher ratio of bonds with high potential energy to bonds with low potential energy. 2. The drug cytochalasin B blocks the function of actin. Which of the following aspects of the cell cycle of animal cells would be most disrupted by cytochalasin B? Cleavage furrow formation and cytokinesis. 3. If you disrupt all hydrogen bonds in a protein, what level of structure will be preserved, if any? Primary structure. 4. What is the most likely pathway taken by a newly synthesized protein that will be secreted by a cell? ER => Golgi => Vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane. 5. A patient was involved in a serious accident and lost a large quantity of blood. An inexperienced observer suggests replenishing body fluids by adding distilled water to the blood directly via one of their veins. What would be the most probable result of this transfusion? The patient’s red blood cells will swell and possibly burst because the liquid portion of the blood has become hypotonic compared to the cells residing in it. 6. Changing a single amino acid in a protein consisting of 100 amino acids would... Always alter the primary structure of the protein, sometimes alter the tertiary structure of the protein, and sometimes affect its biological activity. 7. Which of the following crosses amphipathic lipid bilayers the fastest? A small, nonpolar molecule like oxygen (O2). 8. How do the a and B forms of glucose differ? Their ring structures differ in the spatial arrangement of a hydroxyl group. 9. Asbestos is a material that was once used extensively in construction. One risk from working in a building that contains asbestos is the development of asbestosis caused by the inhalation of asbestos fibers. Cells will phagocytize asbestos but are not able to degrade it in their “recycling centers”. As a result, asbestos fibers accumulate in... Lysosomes. 10. Stanley Miller’s 1953 experiments supported the hypothesis that... Organic molecules can be synthesized abiotically under conditions that may have existed on early Earth. 11. Which of the following does NOT occur during mitosis? Replication of DNA. 12. The partial negative charge in a molecule of water occurs because... The electrons shared between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms spend more time around the oxygen atom nucleus than around the hydrogen atom nucleus. 13. What is the major structural difference between amylopectin and glycogen? The amount of branching that occurs in the molecule. 14. The R-group, or side chain, of the amino acid threonine is –CH2-CH3-OH. The R-group, or side chain, of the amino acid valine is –CH-(CH3)2. If these amino acids were found in a globular protein in an aqueous (water) environment, where would you expect to find these amino acids? Valine would be in the interior facing away from water, and threonine would be on the exterior of the globular protein interacting with water. 15. Lipids that contain a high number of double bonds in their fatty acid chains will... Likely be liquid at room temperature. 16. Which of the following is characteristic of malignant tumors but not benign tumors? The ability to invade other tissues and spread to other parts of the body. 17. Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may be exported from the cell? Rough ER. 18. What are prions? Misfolded versions of normal protein that can cause disease. 19. You have two beakers. One contains pure water and the other contains pure vegetable oil (a lipid). You pour crystals of table salt (NaCl) into each beaker. Predict what will happen. NaCl crystals will dissolve readily in water but will not dissolve in oil. 20. How is plant cell cytokinesis different from animal cell cytokinesis? Plant cells deposit vesicles containing cell-wall building blocks on the metaphase plate; animal cells form a cleavage furrow. 21. The p53 protein is responsible for all of the following except one. Which of the following is NOT a function of the p53 protein? In the event of DNA damage, p53 slows down the rate of DNA replication by interfering with the binding of DNA polymerase. 22. Which of the following linkages would you expect to find at a branch point in glycogen or amylopectin? a-1,6-glycosidic linkage. 23. Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids? Carboxyl (or carbonyl) and amino groups. 24. Suppose you discovered a new amino acid. Its R-group contains only hydrogen, carbon, and oxygen atoms. Predict the behavior of this amino acid. It will be hydrophilic. 25. Regulatory proteins that prevent a cell from entering the S phase under conditions of DNA damage are also known as... Tumor suppressors. 26. You have just discovered an organism that lives in extremely cold environments. Which of the following would you predict to be TRUE about the phospholipids in its membranes, compared to phospholipids in the membranes of organisms that live in warm environments? The membrane phospholipids of cold-adapted organisms will have more unsaturated hydrocarbon tails. 27. Eukaryotic cells typically range in size from 5-100 micrometers. Express this in millimeters. 0.005-0.1mm. 28. A cell begins G1 phase with 12 unreplicated chromosomes. This cell undergoes S, G2, and M phases. Hoem many chromosomes will the daughter cells contain? 12 or 24. 29. If you were going to develop a new antibiotic against bacteria, you would probably need to become an expert on which of these carbohydrates? Peptidoglycan. 30. The evolution of eukaryotic cells most likely involved... Endosymbiosis of an aerobic bacterium in a larger host cell – the endosymbiont evolved into mitochondria. 31. What is the difference between an aldose and a ketose sugar? The position of the carbonyl group. 32. Spinach leaves that are immersed in fresh water for several hours become stiff. Spinach leaves left in a 0.2 M salt solution become limp. From this, we can deduce that the freshwater environment... Is hypotonic and the salt solution is hypertonic to the cells of the spinach. 33. In a plant cell, DNA may be found... In the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts. 34. Bacteria, insects, and plants use carbohydrates to build structures. Which of the following is TRUE of structural carbohydrates? Structural carbohydrates are long fibers, which are chemically linked into a network. 35. Somatic cells of roundworms, which are diploid, have four individual chromosomes per cell (2n=4). How many chromosomes would you expect to find in an egg from a roundworm? n=4/2=2. 36. When does DNA replication take place regarding meiosis? Occurs before meiosis I begins. 37. You are looking at a slide of onion root tip cells and counting the number of cells in each phase of the cell cycle. You count 10 cells in interphase, 8 in prophase, 3 in metaphase, 4 in anaphase, and 2 in telophase. What is the mitotic index for this selection of cells, rounded to the nearest whole number? Prophase + Metaphase + Anaphase + Telophase / Total cells x 100 = 63%. 38. You conducted an experiment in which you grew pea plants in full sun, partial sun, and full shade. You measured the height of the pea plant each week over 7 weeks. You want to create a graph showing how tall the plants grew after 7 weeks. What type of graph should you use, and what variable will be on the x-axis and the y-axis? Line graph; x-axis – time(weeks); y-axis – plant height (cm). 39. Crossing over normally takes place during which of the following processes? Prophase I. 40. Plants produce more seeds when they reproduce asexually. Yet most plants reproduce sexually in nature. What is the probable explanation for the prevalence of sexual reproduction? Sexual reproduction... Mixes up DNA, thus increasing genetic diversity in a species which is beneficial for adaptation. 41. Cinnabar eyes is a sex-linked, recessive characteristic in fruit flies. If a female having cinnabar eyes is crossed with a wild-type male, what percentage of the F1 males will have cinnabar eyes? 100 percent. 42. A scientist is testing a new drug to see if it is effective against harmful bacteria. She adds the new drug to one sample of cultured bacteria, a regular antibiotic to another sample, and distilled water to a third sample. What is the negative control? Distilled water. 43. What does it mean when we say the genetic code is redundant? More than one codon can specify the addition of the same amino acid. 44. Mendel crossed yellow-seeded and green-seeded pea plants and then allowed the offspring to self-pollinate to produce an F2 generation. The results were as follows: 6022 yellow and 2001 green (8023 total). The allele for green seeds has what relationship to the allele for yellow seeds? Recessive. 45. According to the central dogma, what molecule should go in the blank? DNA =>... => Proteins mRNA. 46. You and three of your classmates calculate the mitotic index for four different slides of onion root tip cells and get the following numbers: 50%, 22%, 70%, and 65%. What is the standard error for this sample? 10.79%. 47. Mendel accounted for the observation that traits that had disappeared in the F1 generation reappeared in the F2 generation by proposing that... Traits can be dominant or recessive, and the recessive traits were obscured by the dominant ones in the F1 generation. 48. Assuming independent assortment for all gene pairs, what is the probability that the fallowing parents, AABbCc x AaBbCc, will produce an AaBbCc offspring? 1/8. 49. The karyotype of one species of primate has 48 chromosomes. In a particular female, cell division goes awry and she produces one of her eggs with an extra chromosome (n=25). The most probable source of this error would be a mistake in which of the following? Either anaphase I or II. 50. A researcher is conducting an experiment to test the effectiveness of a new drug, XyloCure, on inhibiting bacterial growth. The experiment includes three petri dishes: Dish A contains bacteria and a standard antibiotic known to inhibit bacterial growth, Dish B contains bacteria and XyloCure and Dish C contains bacteria with no treatment applied. After 24 hours, bacterial growth is observed in Dish C, but no growth was found in Dishes A or B. What do the results from the positive and negative controls indicate about the experiment? The lack of bacterial growth in Dishes A and Dish B suggests that both the standard antibiotic and XyloCure are effective at inhibiting bacterial growth. 51. In cats, black fur color is caused by an X-linked allele; the other allele at this locus causes orange color. The heterozygote is tortoiseshell (splotches of black and orange fur). What kind of offspring would you expect from the cross of a black female and an orange male? Tortoiseshell females; black males. 52. The recombination frequency between gene F and gene G is 6.4%, the recombination frequency between gene F and gene H is 4.0%, and the recombination frequency between gene G and gene H is 10.4%. Which is the correct arrangement of these genes on a chromosome? GFH. 53. A group of students are conducting an experiment to understand the factors affecting the growth rate of a particular type of bacteria. They propose the following hypothesis: “If the temperature of the environment and the pH level of the growth medium are increased, then the bacteria will grow faster because both higher temperatures and more alkaline conditions stimulate bacterial metabolism.” Evaluate the quality of the proposed hypothesis for a scientific experiment. It is a problematic hypothesis because it lacks specificity and tests two independent variables simultaneously making it difficult to determine which variable is responsible for any observed changes in bacterial growth. 54. Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. This ratio suggests that... The parents were both heterozygous for the particular trait. 55. For a species with a haploid number of 23 chromosomes, how many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible for the gametes? About 8 million. 56. If a species is diploid and a certain gene found in the species has 18 known alleles (variants), then any given individual of that species can/must have which of the following? Up to two different alleles for that gene. 57. Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis I? Homologous chromosomes of a pair are separated from each other. 58. Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The flower color trait in radishes is an example of which of the following? Incomplete dominance. 59. A diploid organism has 10 total chromosomes (2n=10). At a given point in time, a cell from this organism has 5 total chromosomes and 10 sister chromatids. This cell could be at which of the following stages of cell division? Prophase II. 60. In rabbits, the homozygous CC is normal, Cc results in deformed legs, and cc results in very short legs. The genotype BB produces black fur, Bb brown fur, and bb white fur. If a cross is made between brown rabbits with deformed legs and white rabbits with deformed legs, what percentage of the offspring would be expected to have deformed legs and white fur? 25 percent. 61. Homologous chromosomes... Carry the same genes that code for the same traits. 62. Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. Two people with normal color vision have a color-blind son. What are the genotypes of the parents? XN Xn and XN Y. 63. Imagine an individual had a mutation such that the SRY gene typically found on the Y chromosome was now located on chromosome 3. This individual had two children. Both children have two X chromosomes and both have a chromosome 3 with the SRY gene. What is the chromosomal sex of these 2 children? What is the likely gonadal sex of these two children assuming SRY and other genes involved in sex determination are fully functional? Female; Male. 64. A man has extra digits (six fingers on each hand and six toes on each foot). His wife and their daughter have a normal number of digits. Having extra digits is a dominant trait. The couple’s second child has extra digits. What is the probability that their next (third) child will have extra digits? ½. 65. Transcribe the following coding strand DNA sequence: 5’ ATG CGC TTA CCC TTA CTC CTA TAA 3’. 5’ AUG CGC UUA CCC UUA CUC CUA UAA 3’. 66. Which of the following statements about the DNA in one of your brain cells is TRUE? It is the same as the DNA in one in one of your heart cells. 67. Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they... Express different genes. 68. If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive 32p-labeled phosphate which of these molecules will be labeled? Amino acids. 69. In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts? DNA contains phosphorous, whereas protein contains sulfur. 70. A researcher is studying gene expression in cancer cells and notices that certain genes which are typically active have decreased expression. Upon further investigation, it is found that the DNA of these genes is heavily methylated in the promoter regions. What is the likely impact of DNA methylation on these genes? Methylation has decreased transcription of these genes. 71. Put the following steps of DNA replication in chronological order. (1) Single-stranded binding protein attach to DNA strands. (2) Hydrogen bonds between base pairs of antiparallel strands are broken. (3) Primase synthesizes RNA primers on leading and lagging strands. (4) DNA polymerase III synthesizes DNA along leading and lagging strands. (5) DNA ligase catalyzes phosphodiester bonds to join DNA segments. 2,1,3,4,5. 72. Which of the following is an example of posttranscriptional control of gene expression? The removal of introns and alternative splicing of exons. 73. In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around... Histones. 74. Which of the following types of mutation, resulting in an error in the mRNA just after the AUG start of translation, is likely to have the most serious effect on the polypeptide product? A deletion of two nucleotides. 75. Imagine that you’ve isolated a yeast mutant that contains histones resistant to acetylation. What phenotype do you predict for this mutant? The mutant will show low levels of gene expression. 76. During a genetic study, researchers discover a mutation in the hemoglobin gene of a mammalian species. This mutation changes a codon for glutamic acid into a codon for valine. What type of mutation is this and what could be its potential consequence? Missense mutation, could result in a hemoglobin disorder. 77. Why do histones bind tightly to DNA? Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged. 78. Imagine a bee larva has a mutation in the Dnmt3 gene such that this gene is not transcribed or translated. Will this bee become a worker or queen? Queen. 79. In an experimental situation, a student researcher inserts an mRNA molecule into the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell after she has removed its 5’ cap and poly-A tail. Which of the following would you expect her to find? The molecule is degraded because it is not protected at the 5’ end. 80. Nucleic acids have definite polarity, or directionality. State another way, one end of the molecule is different from the other end. How are these ends described? One end has an unlinked 3’ hydroxyl; the other end has an unlinked 5’ phosphate. 81. When nucleotides polymerize to form a nucleic acid,... A covalent bond forms between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of a second. 82. The leading and the lagging strands differ in that... The leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction. 83. During an experiment, to prevent bacterial growth a biologist adds an antibiotic that specifically targets the ribosome. Which step in the protein-making process is most likely directly inhibited by this antibiotic? Adding amino acids to the growing protein chain. 84. Which of the following mutations is likely to cause the most dramatic phenotypic change? A single nucleotide deletion in an exon coding for an active site of an enzyme. 85. Why might a point mutation in DNA make a difference in the level of a protein’s activity? It might substitute a different amino acid in the active site. 86. Which small-scale mutation would be most likely to have a catastrophic effect on the functioning of a protein? A base deletion near the start of a gene. 87. Which of the following allows more than one type of protein to be produced from one gene? Alternative forms of RNA splicing. 88. The functioning of enhancers is an example of... Transcriptional control of gene expression. 89. A researcher is investigating the effects of a new drug on gene expression in mammalian cells. After treatment, they notice an increase in mRNA production for several genes. Which stage of gene expression is directly influenced by this drug? Transcription. 90. If the sequence in the coding strand of DNA for a particular amino acid is 5’ AGT 3’, then the anticodon on the corresponding tRNA would be... 5’ACU 3’. 91. Put the following events of elongation in prokaryotic translation in chronological order. (1) Binding of mRNA with small ribosomal subunit. (2) Recognition of initiation codon. (3) Complementary base pairing between initiator codon and anticodon of initiator tRNA. (4) Base pairing of the mRNA codon following the initiator codon with its complementary tRNA. (5) Attachment of the large subunit. 1,2,3,5,4. 92. Imagine that you are studying the control of B-globin gene expression in immature red blood cells. If you deleted a sequence of DNA outside the protein-coding region of the bglobin gene and found that this increased the rate of transcription, the deleted sequence likely functions as... A silencer. 93. Two potential mechanisms that eukaryotic cells use to regulate transcription are... DNA methylation and histone modification. 94. If a double-stranded DNA sample was composed of 10 percent thymine, what would be the percentage of guanine? 40. 95. Among the last line of defenses against prolonged exposure to an extracellular pathogen is... Antibody production by plasma cells. 96. Which process in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally whether oxygen (O2) is present or absent? Glycolysis. 97. When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a direct by-product of... Splitting water molecules. 98. An inflammation-causing signal released by mast cells at the site of an infection is... Histamine. 99. Which of the listed statements describes the results of the following reaction? C6H12O6 + 6O2 => 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy C6H12O6 is oxidized and O2 is reduced. 100. CAM plants keep stomata closed in the daytime, thus reducing loss of water. They can do this because they... Fix CO2 into organic acids during the night. 101. What is the primary function of the Calving cycle? Synthesizing simple sugars from carbon dioxide. 102. Use the following information to answer the question below. A spaceship is designed to support animal life for a multiyear voyage to the outer planets of the solar system. Plants will be grown to provide oxygen and to recycle carbon dioxide. Since the spaceship will be too far from the Sun for photosynthesis, an artificial light source will be needed. If the power fails and the lights go dark, CO2 levels will... Rise as a result of both animal and plant respiration. 103. When electrons flow along the electron transport chains of mitochondria, which of the following changes occurs? The pH of the matrix increases. 104. Which of the following provides the best example of the adaptive relationship between form and function? Rabbit species native to hot regions have longer limbs and ears than those native to cold regions. 105. Why is glycolysis described as having an investment phase and a payoff phase? It uses stored ATP and then forms a net increase in ATP. 106. Which of the following would be an example of an animal employing torpor to survive very cold weather? A hamster going into a deep sleep with reduced respiration and metabolism. 107. Plants contain meristems whose major function is to... Produce more cells. 108. The surface area of a plant’s root system is substantially larger than the surface area of its shoot system. The extensive surface area of roots is an adaptation associated with... Contact with soil particles for mineral and water absorption. 109. A function of antibodies is to... Mark pathogenic cells for destruction. 110. Which of the following is an example of a connective tissue? Blood. 111. Suppose a plant has a unique photosynthetic pigment and the leaves of this plant appear to be reddish yellow. What wavelengths of visible light are absorbed by this pigment? Blue and violet. 112. Chum salmon (Oncorhynchus keta) are born in freshwater environments and then migrate to the sea. Near the end of their lives, they return to the freshwater stream where they were born to spawn. In freshwater, water constantly diffuses into the body and ions are lost from the body. In salt water, body water diffuses out of the body and excess ions are gained from the water. A salmon’s gills have special cells to pump salt into or out of the body to maintain homeostasis. In response to the salmon’s moves between freshwater and salt water, some cells in the gills are produced and others are destroyed. These changes made in the cells of the gills during the lifetime of an individual salmon are an example of which of the following? Acclimatization. 113. Innate immunity... Is activated immediately upon infection. 114. Chlorophylls absorb most light in which colors of the visible range? Blue and red. 115. What type of immunoglobin is the most associated with breast feeding? IgA. 116. What is the major adaptative advantage of cellular respiration? To produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP). 117. Which of the following sequences correctly represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis? H2O => NADPH => Calvin cycle. 118. Following glycolysis and the citric acid cycle, but before the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation, the carbon skeleton of glucose has been broken down to CO2 with some net gain of ATP. Most of the energy from the original glucose molecule at that point in the process, however, is in the form of... NADH. 119. The energy of electron transport serves to move (translocate) protons to the outer mitochondrial compartment. How does this help the mitochondrion produce ATP? The translocation of protons sets up the electrochemical gradient that drives ATP synthesis in the mitochondria. 120. What major advantage is conveyed by having a system of adaptative immunity? It enables a rapid defense against an antigen that has been previously encountered. 121. Panting by an overheated dog achieves cooling by... Evaporation. 122. Tissues functioning together make up... Organs. 123. An elephant and a mouse are running in full sunlight, and both overheat by the same amount above their normal body temperatures. When they move into the shade and rest, which animal will cool down faster? The mouse will because it has the higher surface-area-to-volume ratio. 124. What is the main purpose of light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis? To produce NADPH and ATP. 125. Canine phosphofructokinase (PFK) deficiency afflicts Springer spaniels, affecting an estimated 10 percent of the breed. Given its critical role in glycolysis, one implication of the genetic defect resulting in PFK deficiency in dogs is... An intolerance for exercise. 126. Imagine you find a plant that produces seeds but has no flowers. What is it? Gymnosperm. 127. A potato is a type of... known as a... Modified stem; tuber. 128. What are the end products of glycolysis? 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP. 129. Pines have needlelike leaves, with the adaptative advantage of... Decreased surface area, reducing water loss. 130. Which of the following statements about NAD+ is TRUE? NAD+ is reduced to NADH during glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the citric acid cycle. 131. How many oxygen molecules (O2) are required each time a molecule of glucose (C6H12O6) is completely oxidized and water via aerobic respiration? 6. 132. You and a friend were in line for a movie when you noticed the woman in front of you sneezing and coughing. Both of you were equally exposed to the woman’s virus, but over the next few days, only your friend acquired flu-like symptoms and was ill for almost a week before recovering. Which one of the following is a logical explanation for this? You had an adaptative immunity to that virus. 133. The primary role of oxygen in cellular respiration is to... Act as an acceptor for electrons and hydrogen, forming water. 134. Plants photosynthesize... Only in the light but respire in light and dark. 135. Which process does not occur within a mitochondrion in a eukaryotic cell? Glycolysis. 136. Immunological memory accounts for... The ancient observation that someone who had recovered from the plague could safely care for those newly diseased. 137. Strolling in the Sonoran Desert, you come upon a stately Saguaro cactus. The large central “trunks” of this cactus are covered with numerous smaller spines. The central stalks are modified... used for water storage and spines are modified... used for protection. Stems; leaves.