Male Genital Tract Diseases PDF

Male genital tract diseases. 1. The failure of testicular descent into the scrotum is called: a. testicular atrophy b. cryptorchidism c. verrucous carcinoma d. orchiopexy e. phimosis 2. The main cause of benign prostatic hyperplasia is: a. chronic prostatitis b. bacille Calmette-Guérin c. increased...

Male genital tract diseases. 1. The failure of testicular descent into the scrotum is called: a. testicular atrophy b. cryptorchidism c. verrucous carcinoma d. orchiopexy e. phimosis 2. The main cause of benign prostatic hyperplasia is: a. chronic prostatitis b. bacille Calmette-Guérin c. increased level of androgens d. chronic pelvic pain syndrome e. increased level of estrogens 3. Most prostatic carcinomas arise from the: a. peripheral zone of the prostate b. central zone of the prostate c. proximal urethral zone of the prostate d. periuretheral zone of the prostate e. transitional zone of the prostate 4. Nodular hyperplasia of prostate arises from: a. central zone of the prostate b. periurethral zone of the prostate c. periuretheral zone of the prostate d. transitional zone of the prostate e. peripheral zone of the prostate 5. The main substrate of prostatic carcinomas is: a. chronic prostatitis b. bacille Calmette-Guérin c. excessive estrogen-dependent growth of stromal and glandular elements d. chronic pelvic pain syndrome e. excessive androgen-dependent growth of stromal and glandular elements 6. The consequences of cryptorchidism are: a. testicular carcinoma b. phimosis c. tubular atrophy d. infertility e. prostatitis 7. Morphological changes of testicles in cryptorchidism a. normal size in early age b. microscopic evidence of tubular atrophy c. hyalinization of basal membranes of seminiferous tubes d. normal size on puberty e. increased size on puberty 8. Testicular germ cell tumors are subclassified into: a. seminomas b. neuroendocrine tumors c. nonseminomatous germ cell tumors d. leydigomas e. sertoliomas 9. Identify gross appearance of seminomas: a. may contain foci of coagulation necrosis b. soft consistency c. well-demarcated d. gray-white tumors that bulge from the cut surface e. contain foci of hemorrhage and necrosis 10. Microscopically, seminomas are composed of: a. large, uniform cells with distinct cell borders b. clear, glycogen-rich cytoplasm c. large cells with basophilic cytoplasm d. round nuclei with conspicuous nucleoli e. large nuclei with prominent nucleoli 11. Yolk sac tumors are: a. the most common primary testicular neoplasm in children younger than 3 years of age b. it has a very bad prognosis c. in adults, yolk sac tumors most often are seen admixed with embryonal carcinoma d. on gross inspection, these tumors often are large e. a distinctive feature is the presence of Schiller-Duvall bodies 12. Microscopically the typical seminoma is composed of: a. intratubular germ cells b. sheets of uniform cells divided into poorly demarcated lobules c. delicate septa of fibrous tissue contain a moderate amount of lymphocytes d. large cells with distinct cell borders, pale nuclei with prominent nucleoli e. cells contain a round nucleus and eosinophilic cytoplasm; 13. Nodular hyperplasia of prostate: a. appears from the glands located in the central zone b. produces early urinary obstruction c. arises from glands located in periuretheral zone d. are palpable during digital examination of the rectum e. arises from glands located in peripheral zone 14. Benign prostatic hyperplasia is characterized by: a. proliferation of benign glandular elements and stroma b. hyperplastic glands are lined by two cell layers c. hyperplastic glands are lined by one cell layer d. acute urinary obstruction e. proliferation of stratified squamous epithelium 15. Identify the factors involved in the pathogenesis of prostate cancer: a. androgens b. estrogens c. heredity d. external environment e. somatic mutations 16. Characteristics of prostate carcinoma are: a. occurs mainly in men older than 50 years of age b. is the less common form of cancer in men c. advanced lesions appear as firm, gray-white foci d. lesions without well-defined margins that infiltrate the adjacent glands e. lesions without well -defined margins that don’t infiltrate the adjacent glands 17. The characteristic of malignant glands vs benign glands in prostate carcinoma: a. malignant glands typically are smaller than benign glands b. malignant glands are lined by a single uniform layer of cuboidal or columnar epithelium c. malign glands are bigger than benign ones d. the basal cell layer always present in malignant glands e. malignant glands are crowded together and characteristically lack branching and papillary infoldings 18. Choose microscopic features for carcinoma of the prostate: a. nuclei are enlarged and often contain one or more prominent nucleoli b. small nuclei with prominent nucleoli c. mitotic figures are uncommon d. irregular or ragged glandular structures e. pleomorphism is not marked 19. Choose the correct statements: a. grading of prostate cancer is made by Gleason system b. Gleason system correlates with stage and prognosis of prostate cancer c. grading of prostate cancer is made by Nottingham system d. carcinoma of the prostate is a common cancer of old men between 65 and 75 years of age e. carcinoma of the prostate is a common cancer of young men between 30 and 35 years of age 20. Embryonal carcinoma characteristics are: a. more aggressive than seminomas b. primary tumors are smaller than seminomas c. do not replace the entire parenchyma of testis d. frequently spread through the tunica albuginea into the epididymis e. slow-growing tumor that does not produce metastases 21. Embryonal carcinoma characteristics are: a. well formed glands are present b. often variegated c. poorly demarcated at the margins d. foci of hemorrhage or necrosis e. the cells grow in alveolar patterns 22. Choose the correct statements for testicular tumors: a. are the most common cause of painless testicular enlargement b. germ cells are the source of 95% of testicular tumors c. germ cell tumors may be composed of a single histologic pattern 60% of cases d. germ cell tumors may be composed of a single histologic pattern 40% of cases e. mixed histologic pattern consists about 40% of cases 23. Choose correct statements: a. most commonly mixed tumors is: embrional carcinoma plus teratoma b. one of the most commonly mixed tumor is: teratocarcinoma c. most commonly mixed tumor is: seminoma plus choriocarcinoma d. most commonly mixed tumor is: seminoma plus teratoma e. the germ cell tumors with one histologic pattern are: seminoma, embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumors, teratoma and choriocarcinoma 24. Choose correct statements: a. testicular germ cell tumors can be devided into two groups: seminomas and nonseminomas b. testicular germ cell tumors can be devided into three groups: seminomas, teratomas and nonseminomas c. distant spread of seminomas is frequent d. seminomas spread mainly to paraaortic lymph nodes e. distant spread of seminomas is rare 25. Choose correct statements: a. nonseminomatous tumors tend to spread earlier b. nonseminomatous tumors tend to spread by both lymphatics and blood vessels c. nonseminomatous tumors tend to spread later d. non-germ cell tumors are: leydigoma and seminoma e. non-germ cell tumors are: sertoli cell tumor and leydigoma Syfilis. 1. Choose features for neurosyphilis: a. its late tertiary phase b. diffuse cerebral cortical neuronal loss c. meningovascular lesions is asociated with those parenchymatous d. an agent consisting solely of protein e. affects the basal ganglia, hippocampus, and brain stem 2. Histologic features of neurosyphilis are: a. large numbers of plasma cells infiltrating the meninges b. the leptomeninges are congested and opaque containing an exudate c. caseous granulomatous inflammation with fibrosis d. marked fibrosis and obliterative vasculitis e. granulomas are not present 3. Complications of chronic meningitis in neurosyphilis are: a. obliterative vasculitis (endarteritis obliterans) b. fibrosis around the fourth ventricular foramina c. cranial nerve fibrosis d. general paresis e. tabes dorsalis 4. Meningovascular syphilis characteristics are: a. chronic inflammation of meninges with fibrosis and endarteritis b. presence of gummas c. mild lymphocytic meningeal infiltrate  d. diffuse cerebral cortical neuronal loss; chronic encephalitis; presence of spirochetes e. degeneration of spinal cord (posterior columns) and sensory nerve root; absence of spirochetes 5. Parenchymatous brain syphilis characteristics are: a. chronic inflammation of meninges with fibrosis and endarteritis. b. presence of gummas c. proliferation of microgial cells d. diffuse cerebral cortical neuronal loss; chronic encephalitis; presence of spirochetes e. degeneration of spinal cord (posterior columns) and sensory nerve root; absence of spirochetes 6. Identify types of syphilis: a. primary b. tertiary c. secondary d. idiopatic e. congenital 7. Syphilis is caused by: a. treponema pallidum b. ureaplasma urealyticum c. candida albicans d. trichomonas vaginalis e. gardnerella vaginalis 8. Primary syphilis characteristics are: a. incubation period: 2-6 weeks b. incubation period :10-20 weeks c. hard chancre d. condylomata lata e. maculopapular skin rash 9. Secondary syphilis characteristics are: a. incubation period: 2-6 weeks b. the incubation period after: 10-20 weeks c. hard chancre d. condylomata lata e. maculopapular skin rash 10. Tertiary syphilis characteristics are: a. gummas b. cardiovascular syphilis c. neurosyphilis d. hard chancre e. condylomata lata  Female genital tract diseases. Diseases of pregnancy and postpartum period. 1. Carcinoma of the cervix usually begins at the junction of the: a. ectocervix and endocervix b. endocervix and endometrium c. deep and superficial endocervical glands d. vagina and cervix e. cervix and paracervical tissue 2. Prognostic factors in invasive breast carcinoma include all of the following, EXCEPT: a. tumor size b. type of carcinoma (ductal, inflammatory, etc.) c. location of primary tumor within breast d. lymph node involvement by tumor e. grade of tumor 3. Which of the following neoplasms is derived from all three germ layers: a. carcinoma b. teratoma c. sarcoma d. apudoma e. gonadoblastoma 4. All of the following are true of endometrial carcinoma, EXCEPT: a. most cases occur in postmenopausal women b. it is caused by prolonged stimulation of the endometrium by progesterone c. it is preceded by endometrial hyperplasia in most cases d. it can metastasize via lymphatic and/or hematogenous routes e. the most important prognostic factor is the stage of the tumor 5. All of the following are true of cervical squamous cell carcinoma, EXCEPT: a. it is preceded by squamous cell dysplasia in most cases b. It is caused by human papillomavirus (HPV) c. early age at first intercourse is a risk factor d. most cases occur in women over 65 years old e. the Pap smear is an important screening test 6. Which of the following is true regarding ovarian neoplasms: a. most are malignant b. they are symptomatic if even still small (