Clinical Pharmacy Exam Questions PDF

E 1. Which of the following is not an outcome included in Zthe of pharmaceutical care? a. b. c. d. e. D 2. Active listening consists of which of the following tasks? a. b. c. d. B 3. Current prescription information includes all of the following, except: a. b. c. d. e. C 4. Wh...

E 1. Which of the following is not an outcome included in Zthe of pharmaceutical care? a. b. c. d. e. D 2. Active listening consists of which of the following tasks? a. b. c. d. B 3. Current prescription information includes all of the following, except: a. b. c. d. e. C 4. Which of the following is a disadvantage of reviewing all available information about a patient before interviewing the patient? a. b. c. d. e. D 5. During the interview, the pharmacist observes that the patient's clothing has a predominance of Velcro-type fastenings. This may indicate which of the following? a\. photosensitivity d. loss of manual dexterity b\. recent weight loss e. gout c. D 6. Skills required for patient-centered pharmacy practice include which of the following: a. b. c. d. e. E 7. Demographic patient information includes all of the following, except: a\. age d. ethnic origin b\. height e. dietary restrictions c. D 8. What information should be documented regarding a suspected medication allergy? a. b. c. d. e. B 9. A patient had an appendectomy 40 years ago. This information belongs in which section of the patient case? a\. HPI d. FH b\. PMH e. ROS c. B 10. Vital signs include all of the following, except: a\. blood pressure d. respiratory rate b\. cardiac output e. heart rate c. A 11. Cerebellar function is assessed using this test: a\. Romberg's test d. Weber's test b\. Doll's test e. Snellen's chart c. E 12. Which of the following are needed to monitor patient response to drug therapy? a. b. c. d. e. C 13. Which of the following is the first step on the monitoring process? a. b. c. d. e. D 14. Which of the following are important considerations when evaluating an original research article? a. b. c. d. e. D 15. Which of the following are important components involved in the provision of drug information? a. b. c. d. e. A 16. A consumer asks whether her new prescription drug is the cause of her insomnia. What type of drug information question is this? a\. adverse reaction d. indication and therapeutic use b\. dosing e. poisoning and toxicology c. D 17. A colleague asks if ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) is FDA approved for the treatment of asthma. What type of drug information question is this? a\. adverse reaction d. indication and therapeutic use b\. dosing e. poisoning and toxicology c. C 18. Which of the following is the most appropriate source of information regarding questions of fact such as usual dosage regimens? a. b. c. d. e. D 19. Which of the following types of questions should be avoided while interviewing the patient? a\. leading question d. all of the above b\. multiple questions e. none of the above c. D 20. Which of the following is a non-invasive test or procedure? a\. venipuncture d. ultrasonography b\. angiography e. radionuclide studies c. C 21. Which one of the following is a laboratory test for fungal skin infections? a. b. c. d. e. E 22. The macroscopic evaluation of sputum includes all of the following, except: a\. color d. odor b\. viscosity e. gram's stain c. C 23. Which of the following is not a subjective parameter? a\. anxiety d. insomnia b\. indigestion e. pain c. A 24. Which one of the following is not an objective parameter? a\. vertigo d. hemoglobin b\. urine output e. ejection fraction c. E 25. Which of the following is not a step in the selection of specific therapeutic regimens? a. b. c. d. e. B 26. Which of the following is an objective parameter? a\. blurred vision d. tinnitus b\. temperature e. fatigue c. A 27. Which of the following is the fundamental moral principle on which all ethical behavior is based? a. b. c. d. e. C 28. All of the following techniques are useful in communicating with the hearing- impaired elderly patient, except: a. b. c. d. e. C 29. For which kind of patient is the availability of monitoring data limited? a. b. c. d. e. D 30. Aspirin is the drug of choice used in: a. b. c. d. e. A 31. A patient with a dry hacking cough asks the pharmacist to recommend a cough medication. The pharmacist, who does not know the patient, recommends a popular nonprescription cough suppressant without checking the patient's medication profile. What error did the pharmacist commit? b. c. d. e. C 32. Which of the following metallic ions is especially required in the blood clotting process? a\. Ba c. Ca e. K b\. Na d. Mg B 33. An endoscopy may provide a helpful clue for the diagnosis of which of the following? a\. endocarditis d. diabetes mellitus b\. peptic ulcer disease e. constipation c. D 34. Most life-threatening adverse drug reactions affect the: a\. central nervous system d. cardiovascular and respiratory system b\. liver and kidney system e. gastrointestinal tract c. C 35. The emergency treatment of patients with congestive heart failure: a\. digitalis glycoside d. vasodilators b\. bed rest e. diuretics c. D 36. The responses of which of the following drugs should be monitored when it is used simultaneously with propranolol? a\. digoxin c. chlorothiazide b\. quinidine d. insulin E 37. Warfarin anticoagulation is used for a variety of cardiac conditions. Each of the following medications increases the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, except: a\. cimetidine d. vitamin K b\. quinidine e. none of the above c. A 38. Infection acquired after at least 2 days in the hospital: a\. nosocomial infection d. superinfection b\. superficial infection e. hirsutism c. E 39. The action of which of the following drugs will most likely be impaired by concurrent administration of tetracycline? a\. chloramphenicol d. erythromycin b\. sulfonamide e. penicillin c. C 40. A child shows evidence of poor growth, night blindness, dryness of the conjunctiva, keratinization of the cornea and a dry scaly skin. Which preparation is indicated for therapy? a\. calciferol d. thiamine b\. dried yeast e. pantothenic acid c. D 41. Acetaminophen has limited value in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis because: a. b. c. d. e. B 42. Drugs to be avoided by a Parkinson patient include all of the following, except: a\. reserpine d. chlorpromazine b\. trihexyphenidyl e. pyridoxine c. A 43. Cretinism is the result of a metabolic disturbance related to: a\. hypothyroidism d. hyperparathyroidism b\. hyperthyroidism e. hyperfunction of anterior pituitary c. B 44. Tetracycline antibiotics may stain children's teeth between the ages of: a. b. c. d. B 45. Which of the following may be a feature of acromegaly? a\. crowded teeth d. micrognathia b\. large tongue e. echma c. E 46. A patient is wide-eyed, very nervous with an increased systolic pressure, increase ate, fine skin and hair and loss body weight. He is probably suffering from: a\. diabetes d. hypothyroidism b\. hyperpituitarism e. hyperthyroidism c. A 47. Thrombolytic agents such as streptokinase are useful for patients with: a\. myocardial infarction d. angina pectoris b\. hypertension e. arrhythmia c. B 48. The drug of choice in the treatment of arrhythmia caused by digitalis intoxication: a\. phenylephrine d. methyldopa b. C 49. Deficiency of vitamin B12 in the body leads to: a. b. c. d. A 50. The most commonly used diuretic in combination with antihypertensives: a\. hydrochlorothiazide c. ethacrynic acid b\. furosemide d. amiloride D 51. A 48-year old man with a history of major depressive disorder has had a recurrence. His doctor treated him with a standard dose of nortriptyline for 4 weeks without response. His blood level of nortriptyline is reported to be 30 mg/ml. His doctor may do which of the following? a. b. c. d. C 52. Second-line anti-tuberculosis drugs are the following, except: a\. ethionamide, cycloserine, pas c. pza, streptomycin, ethambutol b\. kanamycin, viomycin, capreomycin d. none of the above C 53. Ranitidine (Zantac) is effective in treating duodenal ulcer because it: a. b. c. d. A 54. Inflammation in the inner membranous lining of the heart usually caused by bacteria and fungi: a\. infective endocarditis c. congestive heart failure b\. angina pectoris d. none of the above B 55. Methotrexate is used as an antineoplastic agent and also used for the treatment of: a\. hyperuremia c. gopiter b\. arthritis d. none of the above C 56. The following are alkanizing potassium salts, except: a\. potassium citrate c. potassium chloride b\. potassium acetate d. potassium gluconate C 57. Which analgesic is useful for patients with myocardial infarction? a\. mefenamic acid d. aspirin b\. acetaminophen e. meperidine c. B 58. Mode of transmission of gastrointestinal infection: a\. dust c. aerosolized droplets b\. consumption of contaminated food and water d. mosquito bite D 59. throbbing headache is characteristically produced by which of the following drugs? a\. procainamide d. glyceryl trinitrate b\. propranolol e. nifedipine c. D 60. Active listening includes the following tasks: b. c. d. D 61. What information should be documented regarding a suspected medication allergy? b. c. d. A 62. Conversation regarding specific patient information and general health care issues, discussions, and debates must not take place in the following areas, except: a\. counseling area c. hallways b\. public areas d. elevators B 63. The following provide health care services and perform tasks under the direction of the physician, except: a\. cytotechnologist c. medical technologist b\. clinical pharmacist d. occupational therapist C 64. Patient-focused practice area: a\. outpatient clinic c. geriatrics and long term care b\. community pharmacies d. patient's home A 65. As a health care team member, the pharmacist provide drug information to physicians and other health professionals aimed at: a. b. c. d. B 66. Hospital pharmacists maintain medication profiles for in-patients and out-patients and use these to: a. b. c. d. D 67. Chronic disease diagnosed and stabilized by physician and maintenance care is provided by the pharmacist: a. b. c. d. B 68. Non-compliance to therapeutic regimens may result in the following, except: a\. additional diagnostic evaluation c. hospitalization b\. prevention of disease/symptoms d. unnecessary multiple regimens A 69. Are unwanted pharmacologic effects associated with medication: a\. adverse drug reaction c. toxidrome b\. side effects d. all of the above A 70. Pale red blood cells resulting from decreased hemoglobin content occurs in the following conditions, except: a\. vitamin B12 deficiency c. microcytic anemia b\. thalassemia d. iron deficiency anemia C 71. Tetracycline is contraindicated for children because: a\. it causes discoloration of teeth c. both of the above b\. severe gastric disturbance d. none of the above A 72. The purpose of patient-focused services is to improve patients' quality of life. The outcome include the following, except: a\. provide drug information c. prevention of disease/symptoms b\. cure of the disease d. elimination or reduction of symptoms A 73. Requirements in order to properly implement the philosophy of pharmaceutical care, except: a. b. c. d. B 74. Interpret the drug orders from the chart: a\. nurse c. physician b\. pharmacist d. all of the above C 75. Associated with intense marrow erythropoietic activity: a\. basophilic stippling c. nucleated RBC's b\. Heinz bodies d. schistocytes C 76. Its increase is strongly correlated with coronary artery disease: a\. triglycerides c. low density lipoprotein b\. high density lipoprotein d. lipids A 77. Proteinuria occurs with many conditions such as: a. b. c. d. A 78. Glucosuria usually indicates the presence of: a\. diabetes mellitus c. multiple myeloma b\. diabetes myeloma d. acute hepatitis C 79. Alkaline phosphatase below normal value indicates: a. b. c. d. C 80. Situation wherein there is an increase in total bilirubin; direct bilirubin is usually normal or slightly elevated and urine color is normal and no bilirubin is found in the urine: a\. biliary stone c. hemolysis b\. cirrhosis d. iron deficiency anemia C 81. When albumin level is above normal, it indicates: a\. neoplastic disease c. dehydration and shock b\. hepatic insufficiency d. malnutrition C 82. It provides basic information regarding renal function, urinary tract disease and the presence of certain systemic diseases: a\. creatinine clearance c. urinalysis b\. blood urea nitrogen d., renal function tests A 83. Specific gravity of urine is elevated in the following conditions, except: a\. diabetes insipidus c. nephrosis b\. diabetes mellitus d. all of the above D 84. Ketonuria usually indicates uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, but it may also occur with: a. b. c. d. D 85. Above normal level of uric acid indicates: a\. urinary tract infection c. acute hepatitis b\. urethral contamination d. gout D 86. Below normal level of uric acid indicates: a\. urethral contamination c. gout b\. urinary tract infection d. cystitis D 87. It plays a dominant role in immunologic activity and appear to produce antibodies: a\. neutrophils c. monocytes b\. basophils d. lymphocytes D 88. Derived from the bone marrow, it provides humoral immunity and produce antibodies: a\. leucocytes c. T lymphocytes b\. monocytes d. B lymphocytes C 89. Consists of the hemoglobin, hematocrit, red blood cell count, WBC count, mean cell volume, mean cell hemoglobin and mean cell hemoglobin count: a\. red blood cell inclusions c. complete blood count b\. blood smear d. Burr cells A 90. When Blood Urea Nitrogen is above the normal values, it indicates the following conditions, except: a\. liver disease c. gastrointestinal bleeding b\. renal disease d. dehydration B 91. This refers to the maximum effect a drug can produce, regardless of the dose required to produce the effect: a\. drug potency c. drug threshold b\. drug efficacy d. drug response D 92. Refers to the likelihood that the study results can be useful for clinical decision making: a\. reasoning c. evaluative b\. validity d. applicability B 93. This occurs whenever the combined effect of two drugs with different sites of activity is greater than the algebraic sum of their independent effects: a\. summation c. potentiation b\. synergism d. heterergic B 94. Primary sources of drug information, except: a\. Medical Journal c. Pharmacy and Pharmacology Journals b\. The Medical Letter d. none of the above D 95. MAO enzymes inactivates: a\. adrenaline c. serotonin b\. noradrenaline d. all of the above B 96. Kernicterus is a drug induced disorder that may occur in the neonate following therapy with which of the following drugs? a\. isoniazid c. phenytoin b\. sulfisoxazole d. gentamicin A 97. Drugs capable of inducing hemolysis, except: a\. arsenicals c. chloramphenicol b\. aspirin d. probenecid A 98. Which of the following is the last step in the monitoring process? a. b. c. d. D 99. Which of the following is the most appropriate source of information regarding questions of fact such as usual dosage regimens? a\. a colleague c. an on-line search of the published literature b\. drug manufacturer d. a standard pharmacy textbook D 100. Secondary and tertiary literature consist of the following, except: a. b. c. d. C 101. This is a metabolic disease caused by insufficiency on the levels of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase: a\. ketoacidosis c. phenylketonuria b\. idiosyncracy d. none of the above B 102. It is an altered response that is caused in a cell by the drug: a\. drug action c. drug safety b\. drug effect d. drug interaction C 103. It refers to the in-vivo phenomenon that occurs whenever an interactant chemical modifies the expected therapeutic results of a drug: a\. adverse drug reactions c. drug interaction b\. anaphylaxis d. idiosyncracy B 104. It is a genetically determined abnormal response to ordinary doses of a drug: a\. anaphylaxis c. drug allergy b\. idiosyncracy d. none of the above D 105. Which of the following are important considerations when evaluating a literature review? a. b. c. d. C 106. Defined as an organized, directed post-graduate training program in a defined area of pharmacy practice: a\. training c. residency b\. practicum d. none of these A 107. Tour of a specific area with visits to the patient's bedside together with the various members of the health care team: a\. rounds c. KARDEX b\. training d. patient B 108. A term used to denote hypersensitivity to specific substance: a\. antigen c. antibody b\. allergy d. ADR E 109. A pathogen is: a\. a bacillus d. a septic substance b\. a virus e. any disease producing organism c. C 110. Outpatient health care settings include the following, except: a\. clinics c. rehabilitation centers b\. day surgery units d. emergency rooms A 111. The best way to deal with physically challenged patients is to do the following: a. b. c. d. B 112. The best way to deal with antagonistic patient is to do which of the following? a. b. c. d. D 113. A patient states that he has smoked two packs of cigarettes a day for 30 years. What is the patient's pack year smoking history? a\. 2 packs c. 30 packs years b\. 15 packs years d. 60 packs years A 114. Which of the following questioning techniques is least likely to result in accurate assessment of patient compliance? a\. direct questioning c. sympathetic confrontation b\. gentle probing d. nonjudgmental questioning B 115. Which of the following is a disadvantage of documenting a medication history using the freestyle format? a. b. c. d. B 116. Is the act of transmitting facts, feelings and meaning by word, gestures or other actions: a\. counseling c. consulting b\. communication d. all of these B 117. Can result in cancer or 'birth defects' in cells of an offspring: a\. germ cell mutation c. replication b\. somatic cell mutation d. mitosis B 118. A type of drug reaction which requires immediate treatment and is often fatal: a\. drug allergy c. tachyphylaxis b\. anaphylaxis d. none of the above C 119. It is a legal document that includes section for hospital specific admission, initial history, physical exam, daily progress notes, etc.: a\. medical record c. both a and b b\. patient chart d. none of the choices B 120. Responsible for the physical and psychosocial needs of patients and carry out physician-directed orders regarding patient care: a\. resident physicians c. clinical pharmacists b\. nurses d. dieticians A 121. Diabetes mellitus should be considered in which of the following conditions, except: a\. shortness of breath d. frequent urination b\. blurred vision e. unexplained weight loss c. B 122. The ability to shift attention in demand, adapting to the total flow of communication: a\. clarification c. sequencing b\. flexibility d. none of the above B 123. The following are true for health care team, except: a. b. c. C 124. Area within the pharmacy curriculum which deals with patient care with emphasis on drug therapy: a\. dispensing pharmacy d. both a and c b\. radiopharmacy e. all of the above d. C 125. Reaction which arise from the known pharmacological action of the drug and may be due to excessive dose of a drug: a\. precaution d. type B ADR b\. contraindication e. drug interactions c. B 126. This identifying information includes: color, birthplace, nationality, religion and social status: a\. informant d. occupation b\. racial stock e. none of the above c. C 127. Best type or mode of questioning during the middle phase of interview: a. b. c. d. e. B 128. A basic component of clinical pharmacy practice where in the pharmacist gives advise on therapeutic matters to the patient or other members of the health field: a\. communication c. consulting b\. counseling d. all E 129. Before entering the patient's room, the pharmacist should NOT: a. b. c. d. e. A 130. The following statements are correct about the pharmacist conducting an interview, EXCEPT: a. b. c. d. A 131. Tetracycline-Iron preparation produces complexation reaction when given concurrently, what is the best management for this combination? a. b. c. d. B 132. Care centers with diagnostic and treatment facilities that may or may not be attached to or associated with an acute care hospital: a\. day care centers c. health centers b\. ambulatory care centers d. medical centers C 133. Physical and emotional stress can trigger the production of: a. b. c. d. A 134. A type of radiologic procedure wherein a substance is instilled into the rectum for the purpose of examining the large intestines and the rectum: a\. barium enema d. all of the above b\. barium meal e. none of the choices c. E 135. The triad of tremor, rigidity and bradykinesia is associated with which one of the following? a\. rheumatoid arthritis d. angina pectoris b\. mania e. parkinsonism c. B 136. Primary means to achieve the goal of clinical interview: a\. literary skill c. culinary skill b\. effective communication d. counseling C 137. Generally, the presence of the impaired renal function or overt renal failure in a patient reduce his requirements for: a. b. c. d. D 138. A test for kidney function is: a\. CBC d. BUN b\. CHF e. EKG c. C 139. Type of drug distribution system wherein the prescription is compounded and dispensed in the usual manner as in the purchase of medicines from a local drug store: a. b. c. d. e. A 140. The following are purposes of the admission history except: a. b. c. d. D 141. The following are the qualities of the introduction in the interview process, except: a. b. c. d. D 142. The recognition of the disease by its sign s and symptoms: a\. prognosis c. diagnosis b\. diaphoresis d. assessment A 143. Patients about to undergo electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) are usually given succinylcholine to: a. b. c. d. C 144. In this severe form of erythema multiforme, there is involvement of the oronasal anogenital mucosa: a\. exfoliative dermatitis c. Steven-Johnson's syndrome b\. photosensitive eruptions d. all of these D 145. Having a professional obligation to disseminate drug information appropriately: a\. teacher c. sales clerk b\. medical practitioner d. pharmacist B 146. Type of patient who requires the service of the hospital during the critical time of his illness or injury, a time he may not be able to may his needs known: a\. home care patient d. self-care patient b\. intensive care unit e. none of the choices c. A 147. Type of endocarditis which involves a more virulent organism and resists the body's natural defense mechanism: a\. acute endocarditis c. right-sided endocarditis b\. sub-acute endocarditis d. none of the above B 148. Introduction of a virus or disease producing microorganism into the body to five protection against certain disease/s: a\. injection c. inspissation b\. inoculation d. none of the above A 149. Which of the following is not a sign or symptom occurring in CHF? a\. bradycardia d. decrease exercise capacity b\. shortness of breath e. edema c. D 150. Major dimensions of clinical interview: a\. interpersonal experience c. communication b\. scientific inquiry d. both a and b A 151. Foundation of clinical pharmacy, except: a\. compounding d. patient counseling b\. drug information e. patient education c. E 152. The following are the fundamental functions of the hospital except: a. b. c. d. e. B 153. Most highly trained expert on drugs and has the best opportunity to keep up to date on developments in this field: a\. physician c. nurse b\. pharmacist d. medical technologist D 154. Objectives of clinical pharmacy include the following, except: a. b. c. d. A 155. Inflammation of the tongue: a\. glossitis c. tongusitis b\. tonsillitis d. both a and c A 156. A patient who has recently suffered a myocardial infarction will most likely have elevated serum levels of: a\. creatinine phosphokinase d. alkaline phosphatase b\. amylase e. cholinesterase c. C 157. The admission sheet should contain the following, except: a\. the unit record number c. laboratory test result b\. the patient's name d. admission diagnosis C 158. Hypothyroidism should be treated with daily administration of which one of the following thyroid hormone preparations? a\. dextrothyroxine d. methimazole b\. propylthiouracil e. chlorpropamide c. D 159. The conclusion of an interview should contain the following, except: a. b. c. d. C 160. The hematocrit measures the: a. b. c. d. e. C 161. Patient who is able to walk: a\. in-patient d. hospitalized patient b\. ICU patient e. all of the above c. D 162. A common result of 'slow metabolic acetylation' of isonizid is: a. b. c. d. B 163. Diabetes mellitus affects: a\. protein metabolism d. lipid metabolism b\. carbohydrate metabolism e. all of the above c. B 164. The inability to control elimination of urine and the feces: a\. defecation d. pyresis b\. incontinence e. diuresis c. A 165. In monitoring drug therapy, it must be ensured that the patient receives drugs that are: a\. effective, safe c. al of the above b\. least effective d. none of the above C 166. A common disease affecting teenagers primarily, which is precipitated by occlusion of the duct-draining sebaceous glands: a\. psoriasis c. acne vulgaris b\. urticaria d. photoallergic reaction C 167. The following are clinical functions of pharmacist, except: a. b. c. d. E 168. Which is not a sign and symptom of DM? a\. delayed wound healing d. excessive hunger and thirst b\. blurred vision e. tachypnea c. C 169. Hyper-alimentation is indicated for: a\. renal and hepatic failure c. both of the above b\. Crohns disease d. none of the above B 170. The protrusion of a loop or knuckle of an organ or tissue through an abnormal opening: a\. fracture c. puncture b\. hernia d. none of the above B 171. Is the totality of services offered by all health disciplines: a\. social security system c. medicare b\. health care system d. all of these A 172. Abnormal reactivity of the skin to sunlight: a\. photosensitivity c. ,multiforme eruptions b\. photosynthesis d. none of these B 173. The following are the clinical functions of the pharmacist, except: a. b. c. d. e. B 174. Gross and microscopic examination of tissues or cells removed from a living patient, for the purpose of determining the diagnosis or prognosis of disease, or the confirmation of normal conditions: a\. phlebotomy d. x-ray b\. biopsy e. none of the above c. C 175. Factors that influence the development of clinical pharmacy: a. b. c. d. A 176. Pharmacists provide pharmaceutical care by: a. b. c. d. B 177. The drug of choice for congestive heart failure is: a\. tetracycline c. quinidine b\. digitalis glycosides d. none A 178. Should not be added to intravenous solutions of amphotericin B to prevent salting out of the drug: a\. electrolytes c. antibiotics b. A 179. A decrease in the hemoglobin content of the RBCs: a\. hypochromia c. macronomia b\. normochromia d. target cells A 180. A 32-year old man presents with repetitive generalized motor convulsions that continue for 35 minutes until 10mg diazepam are administered intravenously. The nest course of action should be to administer: a\. phenytoin intravenously d. thiopental intravenously b\. carbamazepine intravenously e. propranolol intravenously c. B 181. Non-selective beta-blockers are the following, except: a\. Pindolol c. Nadolol b\. Metoprolol d. none of the above D 182. Indicative of rapid gastrointestinal transit and mal-absorption syndromes: a\. black stools c. hard stools b\. gray stools d. water stools B 183. These are drugs in chronic bronchitis except: a\. sympathomimetic agents c. anticholinergic b\. beta-adrenergic blocking agent d. none A 184. Focuses on preventing complications of disease conditions: a\. secondary care c. tertiary care b\. primary care d. quaternary care C 185. Which of the following hormones of the anterior pituitary act on other endocrine glands 1\. growth hormone 2\. anti-diuretic hormone 3\. adrenocorticotropic hormone 4\. thyroid-stimulating hormone a\. 3 and 4 c. 2, 3 and 4 b\. 1, 2 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C 186. The following statements are correct, except: a. b. c. d. B 187. A patient wearing shoes with toes and other areas cut-out may suggest a history of what disease: a\. photosensitivity c. recent weight loss b\. gout d. none of the above C 188. Which drug is said to possess a high first pass liver metabolism? a\. Aspirin d. digoxin b\. amikacin e. penicillin d. A 189. The clinical pharmacist function focuses on: a\. the patient c. education and training b\. cost effective therapy d. drug product A 190. Counsels clients and support persons about social problems such as finances, marital difficulties and adoption of children: a\. social worker c. physician b\. chaplains d. psychologist B 191. This is a disorder marked by permanent alveolar enlargement distal to the terminal bronchioles and there is inflammation and excessive mucous secretion which cause air trapping in the alveoli: a\. chronic bronchitis c. pulmonary edema b\. emphysema d. none A 192. The alternative drug for meclizine HCl: a\. scopolamine c. eserine b\. hyoscyamine d. ergotamine D 193. Which psychotropic drug has a long duration of action in the geriatric patient because of lipid storage? a\. digoxin d. chlorpromazine b\. cisplatin e. aspirin c. B 194. A young male patient who is receiving medication for hypertension complains of mental depression, tremors and rigidity of limbs and impairment of sexual function. This patient is most likely being treated with: a\. gaunethidine c. propranolol b. B 195. Complete blood count consist of the following except: a\. hematocrit c. WBC count b\. platelet count d. hemoglobin A 196. A non-drug therapy for angina pectoris is: a\. avoiding strenuous exercise c. both b\. taking nitrates d. none B 197. This anti-ulcer drug competitively inhibit the action of histamine, reducing the volume and hydrogen ion concentration of gastric acid secretions: a\. antacid c. anticholinergic b\. H2-receptor antagonist d. none A 198. Traditionally called nursing homes: a\. long term care facilities c. hospices services b\. rehabilitation centers d. day care centers C 199. A chart based on the identified problem list, present or potential, with the patient: a\. patient-oriented chart c. problem-oriented medical chart b\. source-oriented system chart d. computer assisted chart D 200. Effective way of taking the patients medical history: a\. direct questioning c. either b\. indirect questioning d. both B 201. Which hormone aids in the conversion of glycogen to glucose in the liver: a\. insulin c. estrogen b\. glucagons d. parathormone D 202. The pharmacist's role in pharmaceutical care involves identifying, resolving and preventing drug related problems that come form: a\. under treatment c. inappropriate treatment b\. over treatment d. all of the above B 203. The drug of choice for gout, since this drug deceases the formation of uric acid by inhibiting xanthine oxidase: a\. colchicines c. quinine b\. allopurinol d. all of the above C 204. It means a slowness in performing common voluntary movements like standing or walking: a\. akinesia c. bradykinesia b\. gait d. none C 205. A condition that may happen if beta-blockers are suddenly stopped: a\. bronchodilation c. reflex tachycardia b\. vasodilation d. none C 206. Which of the following has no therapeutic use for the prophylaxis of classic migraine headache? a\. methylsergide c. lithium b\. clonidine d. all of the above A 207. "A pattern of effects associated with drug allergy" best describes the term: a\. hypersensitivity c. hypo-reactivity b. C 208. This drug class is used for mild symptoms, predominantly tremors in Parkinson's disease: a\. dopamine agonist c. anticholinergics b\. dopamine precursor d. none C 209. All of the following are adverse reaction to sulfonamides except: a\. skin eruption c. 'gray baby' syndrome b. B 210. Which of the following statement is true? a. b. c. d. C 211. In what order should the physical examination proceed? a. b. c. d. e. B 212. This drug is to be used with caution for diabetics with hypertension because of its side effect which inhibit the liver to convert glycogen to glucose: a\. alpha-adrenergic blockers c. both b\. noncardioselective beta blockers d. none C 213. The following are symptoms of diabetes mellitus, except: a\. polyphagia c. polyneuritis b\. polyuria d. none C 214. What happens to the erythrocytes when the spleen of a person is removed: a. b. c. d. B 215. This drug is contraindicated in patient with gastric ulcers because they prolong gastric emptying: a\. antacid c. sucralfate b\. anticholinergic d. none B 216. Ives is a first year medical student. One day, she was opening the neck of the cadaver. She picked up a bottle which she thought was her water canteen and accidentally drank the liquid. The liquid is usually used to prevent the polymerization of formalin. She kept the incident to herself (she was worried that her classmates who were elitists might make fun of her.) Two years later, she lost her eyesight. What was the poison? a\. ethylene glycol d. thinner b\. methanol e. acetone c. E 217. These are possible laboratory evaluation for hypertension, except: a\. electrocardiogram d. chest x-ray b\. BUN level e. microscopic examination d. D 218. Which agent is flammable when electrical switches are used in its presence? a\. Aspirin d. ether b\. digoxin e. penicillin c. A 219. The mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers is: a\. decrease cardiac contractility c. increase the need of oxygen b\. increase cardiac contractility d. none A 220. Drinking beer after taking disulfiram causes flushing, nausea and tachycardia. This occurs because disulfiram inhibits the: a\. metabolism of acetaldehyde c. accumulation of acetaldehyde b. D 221. All of the following statements concerning upper respiratory infections are true, except: a. b. c. d. a\. complex partial seizures d. hyperthyroidism b\. alzheimer's disease e. Peduncular hallucinations c. A 223. Iron, a necessary dietary constituent, functions primarily: a\. in oxidation-reduction system c. growth and repair of tissues b\. to maintain water and electrolyte balance d. to stimulate none formation C 224. An endocrine disease characterized by increased susceptibility to infection, increased fatigability, recessive inheritance and polyuria is: a\. acromegaly d. Cushing's disease b\. Grave's disease e. Hashimoto's disease d. E 225. Arguments against indiscriminate use of antibiotics as chemotherapeutic agents include the following, except: a. b. c. d. e. D 226. Which of the following statements is correct regarding a patient recovered from hepatitis type B infection? a. b. c. d. A 227. Side effects occurring during the use of oral contraceptives include: a\. nausea c. increased glucose tolerance b\. weight loss d. none of the above B 228. The most serious side effect of ergonovine use would be: a\. stimulation of the uterus c. nausea and vomiting b. B 229. Which drug is notorious for causing hypersensitivity reactions? a\. penicillin d. amikacin b\. aspirin e. ether c. C 230. Control of congestive heart failure can be achieved by: a. b. c. d. E 231. Which of the following drug classes has been definitely established to be teratogenic in humans? a\. salicylates d. barbiturates b\. anti-anginals e. anti-neoplastic agents d. B 232. Which drug is used to treat gastrointestinal spasms and colic? a\. warfarin d. diazepam b\. propantheline e. Mylanta d. B 233. A disease associated with excessive mucus production by the tracheobronchial tree which results in airway obstruction: a\. asthma c. emphysema b. B 234. Which of the following group of drugs does not aggravate congestive heart failure? a\. estrogen c. beta-blocking agents b\. cardiac glycosides d. corticosteroids C 235. The emergency treatment of patients with congestive heart failure: a\. digitalis glycoside d. vasodilators b\. bed rest e. diuretics c. E 236. Patients on corticosteroid therapy should be given the following precautions, except: a\. appetitre stimulation d. hypertension b\. fluid and Na retention e. hyperkalemia d. B 237. Levodopa should not be taken with the following drugs, except: a\. pyridoxine c. MAOI b\. carbidopa d. antipsychotics E 238. Which is not a clinical manifestation of gastroenteritis? a\. fever d. diarrhea b\. vomiting e. night sweats c. C 239. In Schizophrenic syndrome, there is primarily: a\. increased cholinergic activity c. increased dopaminergic activity b\. decreased cholinergic activity d. decreased dopaminergic activity E 24. In terms of its major pharmacologic effect, metoprolol is most similar to : a\. isoproterenol d. hydrochlorothiazide b\. metaproterenol e. propranolol d. C 241. The ganglionic blocking agents are not extensively used as anti-hypertensive agents because: a. b. c. d. e. C 242. Completed patient hospital records or charts are the legal property of the: a\. patient d. patient's representative (lawyer) b\. Doctor-in-charge e. Insurance carrier c. C 243. When rendering first aid care to a severely injure person, priority should be given to: a. b. c. d. D 244. Administration of which of the following drugs would be contra indicated in patients with allergic bronchial asthma: a\. atropine d. propranolol b\. methacholine e. phentolamine c. B 245. When valproic acid is prescribed for petit mal epilepsy in a patient who is already receiving Phenobarbital: a. b. c. d. e. D 246. An important potential complication of corticosteroid therapy is: a. b. c. d. C 247. Which of the following best describes the condition known as hypoprothrombinemia? a. b. c. d. e. C 248. The clinical investigation of a new drug consists of four phases. Phase I of the clinical testing involves administering the drug: a. b. c. d. e. A 249. Myxedema is what kind of state? a\. hypothyroid d. hyperparathyroid b\. hypoparathyroid e. hypopituitarism c. D 250. A reversible cholestatic hepatitis with fever and jaundice that may be a specific hypersensitivity to the drug has been observed as an adverse drug reaction in patients taking erythromycin: a\. stearate d. estolate b\. ethylsuccinate e. gluceptate c. C 251. Nizatidine inhibits gastric acid secretion as a result of what kind of activity? a\. anti-cholinergic d. anti-anxiety b\. anti-adrenergic e. anorectic c. B 252. A physician has decided upon a course of tetracycline therapy for a patient with renal impairment. Which of the following drugs is least likely to accumulate in the patients' blood? a\. demeclocycline d. oxytetracycline b\. doxycycline e. tetracyclione c. B 253. Benztropine is often given to patients taking the anti-psychotic penothiazines because benztropine: a. b. c. d. e. B 254. A clinically noticeable drug interaction resulting from the displacement of drug A by drug B from common plasma protein binding sites is often seen when: a. b. c. d. e. A 255. Hemolytic anemia due to erythrocyte deficiency of glucose-6-phophate dehydrogenase would most likely be precipitated by: a\. primaquine d. phenytoin b\. ascorbic acid e. gentamicin c. B 256. The anticoagulant action of heparin is monitored by the: a. b. c. d. e. E 257. Two hours after receiving his last dose of heparin, a patient begins bleeding from his gums after brushing his teeth. What is the most appropriate therapeutic action? a. b. c. d. e. B 258. Large overdose of acetaminophen is likely to cause: a\. tinnitus d. renal tubular acidosis b\. hepatic necrosis e. seizures c. D 259. An adult who has ingested 30 acetaminophen tablets (325 mg/tab) six hours ago should be treated with/by: a. b. c. d. e. A 260. Which of the following would be most dangerous to use in a patient already receiving high doses of gentamicin? a\. ethacrynic acid d. hydroDIURIL b\. tetracycline HCl e. pentobarbital sodium c. B 261. Ticarcillin may be preferred to carbenicillin for patients with congestive heart failure, renal failure and hypertension because it: a. b. c. d. e. D 262. A disadvantage of using cromolyn sodium powder for asthma is: a. b. c. d. e. C 263. Patients on lithium carbonate therapy should be advised: a. b. c. d. e. E 264. The best emergency advice that a pharmacist could give an individual who has just suffered burn is to: a. b. c. d. e. D 265. Which of the following should not be administered to a patient being treated for narrow-angle glaucoma? a\. physostigmine d. homatropine b\. pilocarpine e. carbachol c. E 266. Advantage(s) of timolol maleate over pilocarpine for the reduction of elevated intraocular pressure include(s): a. b. c. d. e. A 267. Epinephrine is a useful drug for lowering intraocular pressure in open-angle glaucoma because it: a. b. c. d. e. C 268. A patient with a documented allergy to morphine should not receive which of the following analgesics? a\. meperidine d. methadone b\. pentazocine e. butorphenol c. B 269. Hypertrophy refers to: a. b. c. d. e. D 270. Stenosis refers to: a. b. c. d. e. C 271. Phlebitis is most closely associated with which type of injections? a\. intradermal d. subcutaneous b\. intramuscular e. both IM and IV c. E 272. Which of the following anti-hypertensive drugs should be administered by slow intravenous infusion? a\. minoxidil d. prazosin b\. clonidine e. nitoprusside c. D 273. Which of the following phenothiazines is least likely to produce extrapyrimidal side effects? a\. chlorpromazine d. thioridazine c. D 274. The anti-emetic effect of which of the following drugs is the result of increasing the rate of gastric emptying? a\. amitriptyline d. metoclopramide b\. benztropine e. aluminum hydroxide gel c. B 275. A patient is admitted to the ER with marked hypotension and appears to be in shock. The drug of choice to treat the condition is probably: a\. dobutamine HCl d. nitroglycerine b\. dopamine HCl e. Nitroprusside c. D 276. Which of the following is considered to be the drug of choice for treating trigeminal neuralgia: a\. niacin d. carbamazepine b\. pentazocine e. hydroxyzine c. C 277. An advantage of loperamide over diphenoxylate as an anti-diarrheal is the fact that loperamide: a. b. c. d. e. B 278. Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of gout dies not affect urate metabolism or excretion? a\. allopurinol d. colchicines b\. probenecid e. none of the above c. C 279. An important advantage of using dopamine in cardiogenic shock is that dopamine: a. b. c. d. e. B 280. Peripheral veins are seldom used for the administration of TPN fluids because: a. b. c. d. e. C 281. Cyclosporine is a/an: a\. aminoglycoside antibiotic d. fungicide b\. third-generation cephalosphorins e. prostaglandin analog c. B 282. Potential problem of using nalbuphine in a patient who is dependent on codeine is the : a. b. c. d. e. E 283. Which of the following insulin would be expected to exert the longest duration of action: a\. semilente d. lente b\. NPH e. regular lente c. B 284. The most common cause of diabetic ketoacidosis and coma in the diagnosed and treated diabetic is: a. b. c. d. e. E 285. An elderly insulin-dependent diabetic is about to be placed on a beta blocker for his hypertension. Which of the following would be most appropriated for this type of patient? a\. propanolol d. nadolol b\. pindolol e. atenolol c. C 286. Which drug is used for the treatment of diarrhea and its resultant body fluid loss? a\. meclizine d. cyclizine b\. diphenhydramine e. terfenadine c. D 287. The rate of exchange of drugs form one fluid compartment to another is influenced by the : a\. pka of the drug c. rate of blood flow b\. pH of the fluid compartment d. all of the above D 288. The extent of protein binding is determined in vitro by: a\. dialysis c. molecular filtration b\. electrophoresis d. all of the above C 289. The affinity of low molecular weight substances to macromolecular structure in blood and tissue influences the: a. b. c. d. B 290. Compound used for the determination of secretory functions of the liver: a\. phenolphthalein c. inulin b\. bromosuphthalein d. all of the above D 291. Biliary recycling is influenced by: a. b. c. d. B 292. The administration of the same dose of active ingredient in different galenic forms: a. b. c. d. A 293. The larger the volume of distribution: a. b. c. d. D 294. Cholekinetics are substances which cause: a. b. c. d. D 295. Drugs which are excreted into the sweat include the following, except: a\. antipyrine c. benzoic acid b\. alcohol d. gentamicin B 296. When used to treat angina, nifedipine is much more likely than verapamil and diltiazem to cause: a\. hypokalemia d. mental depression b\. tachycardia e. bronchospasm c. A 297. A 55-year old patient with a 5-year history of angina and a recent myocardial infarction is admitted to the hospital because of malignant hypertension. Diazoxide should not be used in this patient because: a. b. c. d. e. a\. ephedrine d. albuterol b\. metaproterenol e. isoetherine c. B 299. An 80-year old woman with a history of congestive heat failure develops angina pectoris, her medications are adjusted to include furosemide, digoxin, nitroglycerin, propanolol and potassium supplements. Shortly thereafter, she develops intermittent frontal throbbing headaches. What should the physician do first? a. b. c. d. e. A 300. Which of the following events demand a change in dose size and dose requirement? a. b. c. d.