Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam.pdf

Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 1. what is statistical rarity?: used to identify behaviors or traits that deviate from the norm, aiding in recognizing potential psychological disorders based on their uncommon occurrence. 2. what is norm...

Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 1. what is statistical rarity?: used to identify behaviors or traits that deviate from the norm, aiding in recognizing potential psychological disorders based on their uncommon occurrence. 2. what is norm violation?: behaviors or actions that deviate from accepted soci- etal or cultural norms, potentially leading to social disapproval or consequences for the individual. 3. what is distress?: emotional or psychological discomfort that can impact an individual's well-being and functioning, often indicating a need for support or inter- vention. 4. what is dysfunction?: impaired or disrupted functioning in a person's thoughts, emotions, behaviors, or relationships, often indicating a potential psychological or mental health issue that interferes with daily life. 5. What does clinically significant mean?: a level of intensity or impact of symp- toms or behaviors that is considered meaningful and relevant in the context of a psychological or medical assessment, indicating the need for intervention or treatment. 6. what is affect?: an individual's outward display of emotions, mood, or emotional tone, which can be observed through facial expressions, body language, and vocal intonations. 7. what is syndrome?: a collection of related symptoms and characteristics that often occur together, indicating a specific medical or psychological condition or disorder. 8. what are ventricles?: fluid-filled spaces within the brain that help produce, circu- late, and regulate cerebrospinal fluid, which provides cushioning and support to the brain and spinal cord. 9. what is an SSRI?: Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor, is a type of medication commonly prescribed to treat depression and anxiety disorders by increasing the levels of serotonin in the brain, which helps regulate mood and emotions. 10. what is psychotherapy?: a therapeutic approach that involves talking and working with a trained mental health professional to address emotional, psychologi- cal, and behavioral challenges, with the goal of improving well-being and promoting personal growth. 11. what is the reality principle?: the ego's ability to balance and navigate between the demands of reality and the gratification of immediate desires, seeking realistic and socially acceptable ways to satisfy needs. 12. What is the pleasure principle?: the human tendency to seek immediate gratification of desires and minimize discomfort or pain, often driven by the id, the primitive part of the mind. 1 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 13. What are neuroses?: are psychological disorders characterized by distressing emotional symptoms, anxiety, and maladaptive coping mechanisms, but without severe detachment from reality or loss of contact with it, as seen in psychosis. 14. what are psychoses?: severe mental disorders characterized by a significant disruption in a person's thoughts, emotions, and perceptions, often leading to a loss of contact with reality, including symptoms like hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. 15. what is systematic desensitisation?: a therapeutic technique used to treat phobias and anxiety disorders, involving gradual exposure to fear-inducing stimuli while pairing it with relaxation techniques to reduce the emotional response and fear associated with the stimulus. 16. What is a token economy?: a behavioral intervention that involves providing in- dividuals with tokens or rewards for desired behaviors, which can then be exchanged for privileges, goods, or services, aiming to reinforce positive behaviors and promote behavior change. 17. What is modeling?: a learning process where individuals observe and imitate the behavior of others, often leading to the acquisition of new behaviors, skills, or attitudes through observation and replication. 18. what is cognitive restructuring?: a therapeutic technique used to challenge and change negative thought patterns and beliefs that contribute to emotional distress, by replacing them with more balanced and adaptive thoughts, aiming to improve emotional well-being and behavior. 19. What is a behavioural experiment?: a structured approach in cognitive-be- havioral therapy where individuals test the accuracy of their beliefs or expectations through real-life actions or situations, helping them gain insight into the validity of their thoughts and potentially leading to shifts in behavior and cognition.a structured approach in cognitive-behavioral therapy where individuals test the accuracy of their beliefs or expectations through real-life actions or situations, helping them gain insight into the validity of their thoughts and potentially leading to shifts in behavior and cognition. 20. What is self-actualisation?: a concept from humanistic psychology that refers to the process of fulfilling one's innate potential and striving to become the best version of oneself, encompassing personal growth, creativity, and the pursuit of meaningful goals 21. What is unconditional positive regard?: a concept in humanistic psychology where individuals are accepted, valued, and respected without judgment or condi- tions by others, fostering their self-esteem, growth, and well-being. 2 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 22. What are conditions of worth?: the conditions or standards set by others for individuals to receive approval, love, or acceptance, leading to a reliance on external validation and potentially hindering authentic self-expression and personal growth. 23. What is psychopathology?: to the scientific study of mental disorders and abnormal behaviors, as well as the patterns and causes of psychological distress, dysfunction, and impairment. 24. What is a therapeutic alliance?: a trusting and collaborative relationship be- tween a therapist and a client, where they work together to achieve therapeutic goals, promote positive change, and enhance the client's well-being. 25. What is the diathesis-stress model?: a psychological framework that sug- gests that the development of mental disorders results from a combination of a person's biological or genetic predisposition (diathesis) and exposure to stressful or triggering environmental factors (stress), which interact to contribute to the disorder's onset. 26. What is comorbidity?: the presence of two or more distinct medical or psycho- logical conditions or disorders in the same individual at the same time. 27. What is a specific phobia?: an anxiety disorder characterized by an intense and irrational fear of a specific object, situation, or activity, leading to avoidance behavior and significant distress when confronted with the feared stimulus. 28. What is panic disorder?: an anxiety disorder marked by recurrent and un- expected panic attacks, which are sudden episodes of intense fear or discomfort accompanied by physical and cognitive symptoms, often leading to anticipatory anxiety and changes in behavior. 29. What is agoraphobia?: an anxiety disorder characterized by a fear of situations or places where escape might be difficult or help unavailable, often leading to avoidance of such situations and resulting in limited daily activities and interactions. 30. What is social anxiety disorder?: an anxiety disorder characterized by an intense fear of social situations and scrutiny by others, leading to significant distress and avoidance of social interactions, often due to the fear of embarrassment or humiliation. 31. What is generalised anxiety disorder?: an anxiety disorder characterized by persistent and excessive worry or anxiety about a variety of everyday issues and situations, often accompanied by physical symptoms like restlessness, fatigue, and difficulty concentrating. 32. What is obsessive-compulsive disorder?: (OCD) is an anxiety disorder char- acterized by the presence of obsessions, which are intrusive and distressing thoughts, images, or urges, and compulsions, which are repetitive behaviors or mental acts performed to alleviate the anxiety caused by the obsessions. 3 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 33. What is posttraumatic stress disorder?: (PTSD) is a mental health disorder that can develop after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event, leading to symptoms such as intrusive memories, nightmares, hypervigilance, avoidance of reminders, and emotional distress. 34. What is negative reinforcement?: a behavioral concept where the removal or avoidance of an unpleasant stimulus following a behavior increases the likelihood of that behavior being repeated in the future. 35. What is prepared classical conditioning?: the phenomenon where certain associations between a conditioned stimulus (CS) and an unconditioned stimulus (US) are learned more readily due to the biological predisposition of organisms to form these connections, based on their evolutionary history. 36. What is exposure therapy?: a therapeutic technique used to treat anxiety disorders by gradually exposing individuals to fear-inducing stimuli or situations in a controlled and safe manner, with the goal of reducing fear and anxiety responses through repeated exposure and habituation. 37. What is in vivo exposure?: a form of exposure therapy where individuals confront feared situations or stimuli in the real world, rather than in imagination or virtual reality, to reduce anxiety and promote habituation to the feared stimuli. 38. What is flooding?: a therapeutic technique used in exposure therapy where individuals are exposed to their most feared or distressing stimuli at an intense and prolonged level, aiming to accelerate the process of habituation and reduce anxiety responses. 39. What is self-efficacy?: the belief in one's ability to successfully perform specific tasks or achieve goals, influencing motivation, effort, and resilience in pursuing challenging endeavors 40. What is a panic attack?: a sudden and intense episode of extreme fear or discomfort, accompanied by physical and cognitive symptoms such as rapid heart rate, shortness of breath, dizziness, and a sense of impending doom. 41. What is neuroticism?: a personality trait characterized by a tendency to expe- rience negative emotions such as anxiety, worry, moodiness, and irritability, often leading to heightened emotional reactivity to stressors. 42. What is anxiety sensitivity?: the fear of experiencing anxiety-related sensa- tions and a belief that these sensations may lead to negative outcomes or loss of control, contributing to the development and maintenance of anxiety disorders. 43. What is interoceptive exposure?: a therapeutic technique used in the treat- ment of anxiety disorders, involving deliberate exposure to internal bodily sensations (such as increased heart rate or shortness of breath) that are associated with anxiety, aiming to reduce fear and avoidance of these sensations. 4 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 44. What is safety behaviour?: coping strategies or actions that individuals with anxiety disorders use to reduce anxiety or avoid feared situations, but these behav- iors often prevent them from learning that the situations are not as dangerous as they perceive. 45. What are meta-beliefs?: higher-level beliefs about one's own thoughts and beliefs, influencing how individuals interpret and respond to their own cognitive processes, and often playing a role in the development and maintenance of psy- chological disorders. 46. What is the avoidance theory of worry?: suggests that excessive worrying serves as a way to avoid or cope with more distressing emotions or situations, ef- fectively providing a temporary sense of relief from the discomfort of these emotions. 47. What is the intolerance of uncertainty model?: that individuals with certain anxiety disorders have a reduced tolerance for uncertainty, leading to heightened distress and increased worry in response to uncertain situations, ultimately con- tributing to the development and maintenance of anxiety symptoms. 48. What is body dysmorphic disorder?: (BDD) is a mental health disorder char- acterized by an obsessive focus on perceived flaws or defects in one's appearance, leading to distress, preoccupation, and impaired functioning, even if the perceived defects are minor or nonexistent. 49. What is the neuropsychological model?: that psychological disorders can be understood by examining how disruptions or dysfunctions in brain structures and processes contribute to cognitive, emotional, and behavioral symptoms. 50. What is the basal ganglia?: a group of interconnected structures located deep within the brain that plays a crucial role in various functions, including movement control, reward processing, decision-making, and emotional regulation. 51. What is the cognitive model?: suggests that an individual's thoughts, beliefs, and interpretations of events influence their emotions, behaviors, and mental health, emphasizing the role of cognitive processes in shaping psychological experiences. 52. What is exposure and response prevention?: (ERP) is a cognitive-behavioral therapy technique used primarily in the treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), involving the exposure to anxiety-provoking situations (exposure) without engaging in compulsive behaviors (response prevention) to reduce the anxiety associated with the obsessions. 53. What is major depressive disorder?: (MDD) is a mood disorder characterized by persistent and severe symptoms of low mood, loss of interest or pleasure in activities, changes in sleep and appetite, fatigue, difficulty concentrating, feelings of worthlessness, and thoughts of death or suicide. 54. What is a major depressive episode?: a period of at least two weeks char- acterized by pervasive and persistent symptoms of low mood, loss of interest or 5 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 pleasure, and other associated symptoms such as changes in sleep, appetite, energy, and concentration 55. What is anhedonia?: a symptom commonly associated with depression and other mood disorders, referring to the reduced ability or inability to experience pleasure or interest in activities that were once enjoyable or rewarding. 56. What is a specifier?: specific features or patterns of symptoms that further define a particular mental disorder, providing more detailed information about the nature of the condition and its presentation. 57. What is anorexia nervosa?: an eating disorder characterized by a severe restriction of food intake, intense fear of gaining weight, distorted body image, and a relentless pursuit of thinness, often leading to extreme weight loss and negative physical and psychological consequences. 58. What is dysthymic disorder?: (PDD), is a chronic mood disorder characterized by a long-lasting pattern of mild to moderate depressive symptoms that persist for at least two years, affecting mood, functioning, and overall well-being. 59. What is disruptive mood dysregulation disorder?: (DMDD) is a mental health disorder typically diagnosed in children and adolescents, characterized by severe and frequent temper outbursts that are out of proportion to the situation, along with a consistently irritable or angry mood between outbursts. 60. What is conduct disorder?: a childhood and adolescent behavioral disorder characterized by a pattern of persistent and repetitive behaviors that violate the rights of others and societal norms, including aggression, lying, theft, and other forms of rule-breaking or antisocial behavior. 61. What is oppositional defiant disorder?: (ODD) is a childhood and adolescent behavioral disorder characterized by a consistent pattern of defiant, disobedient, and hostile behavior toward authority figures, such as parents, teachers, or other adults, but without the more severe aggressive or antisocial behaviors seen in conduct disorder. 62. What is cortisol?: a hormone produced by the adrenal glands in response to stress and low blood glucose levels. It plays a role in regulating metabolism, immune response, and stress response, often referred to as the "stress hormone." 63. What is the negative cognitive triad?: a pattern of negative thinking about oneself, the world, and the future, where individuals with depression tend to interpret experiences and situations in a consistently negative and pessimistic way. 64. What is expressed emotion?: the emotional climate within a family or close relationship, particularly how family members or caregivers communicate emotions like criticism, hostility, and emotional overinvolvement, which can impact the course and management of mental disorders, especially conditions like schizophrenia. 6 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 65. What are protective factors?: factors, traits, or conditions that reduce the likelihood of an individual developing a mental disorder or experiencing negative outcomes, often serving as buffers against the effects of risk factors and promoting resilience and well-being. 66. What are psychotic symptoms?: symptoms characterized by a significant break from reality, including hallucinations (false sensory perceptions) and delusions (strongly held false beliefs), often seen in conditions like schizophrenia and certain mood disorders. 67. What is electroconductive therapy?: (ECT) is a medical treatment for severe mental disorders that involves passing electrical currents through the brain to induce controlled seizures. It's used primarily in cases of severe depression, mania, and certain other mental health conditions when other treatments haven't been effective. 68. What is seasonal affective disorder?: (SAD) is a type of depression that occurs at a specific time of year, typically during the fall and winter months when there is less natural sunlight. It is characterized by symptoms of depression such as low mood, fatigue, changes in sleep and appetite, and a lack of interest in activities. 69. What is pleasant activity scheduling?: a therapeutic technique commonly used in treating depression, involving planning and engaging in enjoyable and rewarding activities to counteract the lack of interest and pleasure often associated with depression, aiming to improve mood and motivation. 70. What is meta-analysis?: a statistical technique that involves combining and analyzing data from multiple independent studies on a particular topic in order to draw more robust and generalized conclusions, often used to synthesize and summarize research findings in scientific studies. 71. What is interpersonal psychotherapy?: (IPT) is a short-term, goal-oriented psychotherapy that focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and address- ing specific life events that may be contributing to psychological distress, making it particularly effective in treating mood disorders and other mental health issues. 72. What is an example of relapse prevention for depression?: teaching individ- uals to recognize early signs of worsening mood, such as negative thought patterns or social withdrawal, and providing them with coping strategies to manage these signs effectively, thereby preventing a full-blown depressive episode. 73. What is bipolar disorder 1?: a mood disorder characterized by the presence of at least one manic episode, which is a period of abnormally elevated mood and energy, often accompanied by impulsive behavior and disrupted thinking. Depres- sive episodes may also occur, alternating with manic episodes. 74. What is bipolar disorder 2?: a mood disorder characterized by recurring episodes of major depression and hypomania. Hypomania is a less severe form of 7 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 mania, involving elevated mood and energy but without the extreme disruption seen in full-blown manic episodes. 75. What is rapid cycling bipolar disorder?: a subtype of bipolar disorder where individuals experience frequent shifts between manic or hypomanic episodes and depressive episodes, often occurring within a year and sometimes even within a week or days. 76. What is cyclothymic disorder?: a mood disorder characterized by chronic fluctuations between periods of hypomania (elevated mood and energy) and mild depression. These mood swings are less severe than those seen in full-blown manic or depressive episodes, but they are persistent and can impact daily functioning. 77. What are underdiagnosis problems?: situations where certain medical condi- tions, including mental health disorders, are not accurately identified or diagnosed in individuals who actually have the condition, leading to missed opportunities for treatment, support, and appropriate interventions. 78. What are overdiagnosis problems?: when medical conditions, including men- tal health disorders, are diagnosed more frequently than necessary or when mild symptoms are misinterpreted as indicative of a more serious condition, potentially leading to unnecessary treatments, interventions, and labels that may not be bene- ficial or accurate. 79. What is a hypomanic episode?: a period of abnormally elevated mood and energy that is less severe than a full manic episode. It is a hallmark of Bipolar Dis- order 2 and is characterized by increased activity, talkativeness, and a heightened sense of well-being, often accompanied by impulsivity and increased goal-directed behavior. 80. What are amphetamines?: a group of central nervous system stimulant drugs that increase the release of certain neurotransmitters, such as dopamine and nor- epinephrine, leading to effects like increased alertness, energy, and euphoria. They are sometimes used medically to treat conditions like attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and narcolepsy 81. What is substance misuse in bipolar?: the problematic or excessive use of alcohol or drugs, often as a way to cope with the mood swings and symptoms associated with the disorder. Substance misuse can worsen the course of bipolar disorder, interfere with treatment effectiveness, and lead to more severe mood episodes and impaired functioning. 82. What is the goal dysregulation model?: that individuals with bipolar disorder experience difficulties in regulating and maintaining goal-directed behavior due to the influence of elevated or depressed mood states. This can lead to impulsive and erratic behaviors during manic or hypomanic episodes and reduced motivation and energy during depressive episodes. 8 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 83. What is the function of temperament in developing bipolar?: certain tem- peramental traits, such as high levels of emotional reactivity, impulsivity, and sensi- tivity to reward and punishment, can contribute to the risk of developing the disorder, particularly when combined with genetic and environmental factors. 84. What is psychoeducation?: a therapeutic approach that involves providing individuals and their families with information and education about a specific mental health condition, its symptoms, causes, treatment options, and strategies for man- aging symptoms and improving overall well-being. It empowers individuals to better understand and cope with their condition. 85. What is interpersonal and social rhythm therapy?: (IPSRT) is a psychother- apeutic approach used primarily in the treatment of bipolar disorder. It combines strategies from interpersonal therapy and behavioral therapy to help individuals establish regular daily routines and manage social relationships, aiming to stabilize mood and prevent mood episodes by regulating daily rhythms and minimizing stressors. 86. What are positive symptoms in schizophrenia?: Experiences or behaviours that go beyond typical human experiences like hallucinations, delusions, disorgan- ised thinking, or disorganised or abnormal motor behaviour. 87. What is thought disorder?: disruptions in the normal flow of thought process- es, leading to difficulty in forming coherent and logical connections between ideas. Individuals with thought disorders may exhibit disorganized speech, tangential think- ing (going off-topic), and difficulty conveying their thoughts in a clear and organized manner. 88. What are negative symptoms in schizophrenia?: the absence or reduction of normal emotional and cognitive functioning like affective flattening, alogia, anhedo- nia, avolition, or social withdrawal. 89. What is affective flattening?: reduced range and intensity of emotional expres- sion in facial expressions, gestures, and voice tone 90. What is alogia?: the limitation of meaningful speech, where individuals provide brief and minimal responses, often struggling to convey their thoughts clearly or expansively. 91. What is an auditory hallucination?: a type of hallucination where an individual perceives sounds, voices, or noises that are not actually present in their external environment. 92. What is a delusion?: a false and strongly held belief that is resistant to reason or evidence. Delusions can be bizarre or non-bizarre and often involve beliefs that are implausible or impossible, such as believing one has special powers, is being controlled by external forces, or is someone else entirely 9 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 93. What is a paranoid delusion?: a type of delusion characterized by unfounded and irrational beliefs that one is being persecuted, harmed, or targeted by others, often involving suspicion, mistrust, and a heightened sense of threat or danger. Individuals with paranoid delusions may believe that others are plotting against them or spying on them, even in the absence of credible evidence 94. What is a delusion of reference?: a type of delusion where an individual believes that everyday events, objects, or actions hold special and personal sig- nificance directed toward them. They may interpret random occurrences as having hidden messages or meanings meant specifically for them, even when there is no actual connection between the events and the individual 95. What is a somatic delusion?: a type of delusion where an individual has false beliefs about their own body. These beliefs often involve the perception that they have a physical defect, disease, or malfunction, even when there is no objective evidence to support such beliefs. Somatic delusions can lead to excessive worry about health and may contribute to behaviors like seeking unnecessary medical interventions. 96. What is a grandiose delusion?: a type of delusion where an individual holds an exaggerated belief of their own importance, power, knowledge, or identity. They may believe they have exceptional abilities, special connections to famous figures, or a unique role in significant events, often far beyond what is realistic or reasonable 97. What is an erotomaniac delusion?: also known as De Clerambault's syn- drome, is a type of delusion where an individual believes falsely that someone, often of higher status or celebrity, is in love with them. They may interpret ordinary gestures, letters, or behaviors as evidence of this imagined romantic interest, despite no real basis for such beliefs. 98. What is disorganised thinking?: difficulties in forming and expressing coher- ent and logical thoughts. People with disorganized thinking may exhibit tangential speech (going off-topic), loose associations (shifting between unrelated topics), and incoherent speech that is difficult to follow. 99. What is catatonic behaviour?: Catatonia can include a wide spectrum of symptoms, such as immobility (catatonic stupor), excessive and purposeless motor activity (catatonic excitement), or adopting and holding unusual or rigid body posi- tions (catatonic posturing). 100. What is onset depression?: the point at which a person starts to experience the emotional, cognitive, and physical changes associated with depression. 101. What is paranoia?: a psychological state characterized by intense and irra- tional mistrust, suspicion, and fear of others. Individuals experiencing paranoia may believe that others have harmful intentions or are plotting against them, even in the absence of evidence to support these beliefs. 10 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 102. What is schizophrenia?: a severe and complex mental disorder characterized by a range of symptoms that can include hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking, disorganized or abnormal motor behavior, and negative symptoms like affective flattening, alogia, anhedonia, avolition, and social withdrawal. It often interferes with an individual's ability to think clearly, manage emotions, and relate to others. 103. What is the premorbid phase?(Schizophrenia): the time period before the first noticeable symptoms of the disorder appear. It can encompass various factors, such as early signs, behaviors, personality traits, and social functioning that might provide insights into the development and progression of the disorder. 104. What is the prodromal phase? (Schizophrenia): the period immediately preceding the onset of the first significant symptoms of the disorder. During this phase, individuals may begin to experience subtle changes in thoughts, emotions, and behaviors, which can be early indicators of the emerging illness. These changes might not yet meet the full diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia but could signal the need for closer monitoring and potential intervention. 105. What is the acute phase? (Schizophrenia): the period during which an individual experiences pronounced and active symptoms of the disorder. These symptoms can include severe hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking, and intense emotional distress. The acute phase often requires immediate intervention, such as hospitalization and medication, to manage the symptoms and ensure the safety and well-being of the individual. 106. What is the early recovery phase? (Schizophrenia): the period after the acute symptoms have been stabilized and brought under control through treatment, often involving medication, therapy, and support. During this phase, individuals may experience a reduction in the severity of symptoms and an improvement in their overall functioning. It's a time when they begin to regain their daily functioning, social interactions, and some level of independence. 107. What is the late recovery phase? (Schizophrenia): a stage in the long-term management of the disorder where individuals experience sustained improvement in their symptoms, functioning, and overall quality of life. During this phase, individuals have developed effective coping strategies, improved social relationships, and a higher level of independence. While some residual symptoms might still be present, they are generally less severe and less disruptive to daily life compared to earlier phases of the disorder. 108. What is enduring psychosis?: the persistent presence of psychotic symp- toms, such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking, over an extended period of time. This term is often used to describe cases where individuals continue to experience these symptoms despite receiving treatment and interventions. 11 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 109. What is concordance rate?: a statistical measure that describes the propor- tion of pairs of individuals that share an attribute, given that one already possesses this trait. A pair is considered concordant if they both possess an attribute of interest, and discordant if they differ 110. What is gene-environment interaction?: when two different genotypes re- spond to environmental variation in different ways 111. What is the function of neurotransmitters in the dopamine hypothesis?- : dysregulation of neurotransmission in brain dopaminergic circuits with excessive dopaminergic signaling in the mesolimbic pathway (causing positive symptoms) and reduced signaling in the mesocortical pathway (resulting in negative symptoms) 112. What is tardive dyskinesia?: a neurological syndrome caused by the long-term use of neuroleptic drugs. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive involuntary purposeless movements. Features of the disorder may include grimacing tongue protrusion lip smacking puckering and pursing and rapid eye blinking. 113. What is disassociation?: a disconnection and lack of continuity between thoughts, memories, surroundings, actions and identity. 114. What are psychosomatic disorders?: a psychological condition involving the occurrence of physical symptoms, usually lacking a medical explanation. People with this condition may have excessive thoughts, feelings or concerns about the symptoms — which affects their ability to function well. 115. What is hypnosis?: a changed state of awareness and increased relaxation that allows for improved focus and concentration. It also is called hypnotherapy. 116. What is somatic symptom disorder?: also known as somatoform disorder, is defined by one or more chronic physical symptoms that coincide with excessive and maladaptive thoughts, emotions, and behaviors connected to those symptoms 117. What is illness anxiety disorder?: a psychiatric disorder defined by excessive worry about having or developing a serious undiagnosed medical condition. 118. What is conversion disorder?: (CD) a condition in which a person experi- ences physical and sensory problems, such as paralysis, numbness, blindness, deafness or seizures, with no underlying neurologic pathology. 119. What is la belle indifference?: a paradoxical absence of psychological dis- tress despite having a serious medical illness or symptoms related to a health condition. This condition is most commonly associated with conversion disorder (CD) 12 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 120. What is factitious disorder?: a condition in which a person, without a malin- gering motive, acts as if they have an illness by deliberately producing, feigning, or exaggerating symptoms, purely to attain a patient's role. 121. What is sensory disturbance?: disruptions in sensory perceptions, which can involve any of the five senses: sight, hearing, touch, taste, and smell. Sensory disturbances can manifest as alterations in how individuals perceive sensory stim- uli, leading to experiences such as hallucinations, altered sensations, or sensory processing issues. 122. What is malingering?: the deliberate and intentional exaggeration or feigning of physical or psychological symptoms for secondary gain, such as seeking financial compensation, avoiding work or legal responsibilities, or obtaining medications. It involves pretending to have a medical or psychological condition to achieve certain external benefits, rather than having genuine symptoms. 123. What is the hormonal stress response system? (Somatic symptom dis- order): also known as the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis, the HPA axis can become dysregulated, leading to abnormal patterns of stress-related hormone release, such as cortisol. Dysregulation of the HPA axis is believed to contribute to the development and maintenance of somatic symptoms and related distress. 124. What is alexithymia?: a difficulty or inability to identify, understand, and ex- press one's own emotions. Individuals with alexithymia may have trouble distinguish- ing between physical sensations and emotions, struggle to describe their feelings, and find it challenging to recognize emotions in themselves and others. 125. What is somatosensory amplification?: the tendency to perceive and inter- pret bodily sensations as being more intense, distressing, or alarming than they actually are. 126. What is culture-bound syndrome?: a collection of symptoms and behaviors that are recognized and considered a distinct illness or disorder within a specific cultural group or community. These syndromes often reflect the cultural beliefs, norms, and values of that group and may not fit neatly into Western medical diagnostic categories. 127. What is self-monitoring?: the process of observing and recording one's own thoughts, feelings, behaviors, or physical sensations over time. It is often used as a therapeutic technique to increase self-awareness and understanding of patterns, triggers, and changes in psychological or physical experiences. 128. What is amnesia?: a condition characterized by partial or complete loss of memory. It can affect memories of past events, personal information, or even periods of time. 129. What is depersonalisation?: Depersonalization is a dissociative experience characterized by feeling detached from oneself or one's body. Individuals with de- 13 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 personalization may perceive themselves as if they are observing their own actions or experiences from a distance, leading to a sense of unreality or detachment from their own thoughts, emotions, and physical sensations. This can be distressing and is often associated with anxiety, trauma, and other mental health conditions. 130. What is derealisation?: a dissociative experience characterized by a sense of detachment from one's surroundings or the external world. Individuals with dereal- ization may perceive their environment as unfamiliar, dreamlike, or distorted, leading to feelings of unreality and a sense that their surroundings lack the usual depth and authenticity. 131. What is depersonalisation disorder?: a dissociative disorder characterized by recurrent and persistent episodes of depersonalization (feeling detached from oneself) and/or derealization (feeling detached from the external world). 132. What is identity confusion?: a state of uncertainty or lack of clarity about one's personal identity, including aspects such as self-concept, values, goals, and roles. In more severe cases, identity confusion can be a symptom of certain mental health conditions. 133. What is identity alteration?: also known as "identity switching" or "dissocia- tive identity alteration," is a dissociative phenomenon in which an individual experi- ences shifts or changes in their sense of self and identity. This can involve adopting different personalities, behaviors, memories, and even physical characteristics. A key feature of dissociative identity disorder (DID). 134. What is dissociative fugue?: Dissociative Fugue, also known as fugue state, is a dissociative disorder characterized by a sudden and unexpected departure from one's usual life and surroundings, often accompanied by amnesia for one's past and the assumption of a new identity or confusion about one's identity. During a fugue state, individuals may travel long distances, adopt a new name or persona, and engage in unfamiliar activities. Once the fugue state ends, individuals may not remember the events that occurred during it. Dissociative fugue is considered a rare and severe form of dissociation. 135. What is dissociative amnesia?: a dissociative disorder characterized by a significant and selective memory loss, often involving traumatic or highly distressing events. Individuals with dissociative amnesia may be unable to recall important personal information or events, even though there is no physical damage to the brain. The memory gaps typically extend beyond what would be considered normal forgetfulness. This disorder can be temporary or persistent, and memory recovery may occur spontaneously or with therapy. 136. What is dissociative identity disorder?: previously known as Multiple Per- sonality Disorder, is a complex dissociative disorder characterized by the presence of two or more distinct identity states or personality fragments within a single 14 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 individual. Individuals with DID often experience memory gaps, amnesia, and a lack of continuity in their sense of self. 137. What is a structured interview?: a standardized and systematic method of conducting an interview where the interviewer follows a predetermined set of questions and guidelines. 138. What is post-hypnotic amnesia?: a temporary memory loss or inability to recall events or experiences that occurred during a hypnotic trance or session. 139. What is the relationship between the hippocampus and the amygdala? (Dissasociation): Dissociation can involve disruptions in memory, consciousness, and identity. Traumatic experiences, such as those leading to dissociative disorders, can impact the interaction between the hippocampus and the amygdala. Traumatic memories might be stored differently, leading to fragmented recall or amnesia; or emotional responses may become dysregulated, contributing to emotional numbing or heightened reactivity. 140. What is state-dependant memory?: the phenomenon where memory recall is improved when an individual's internal physiological or psychological state during recall matches the state that was present during the initial encoding of the informa- tion. 141. What is iatrogenesis?: harm or negative effects that are caused inadvertently by medical treatment, interventions, or procedures. 142. What is bulimia nervosa?: an eating disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating, during which individuals consume a large amount of food in a short period of time and feel a lack of control over their eating. These behaviours are usually followed by compensating for the excessive calorie intake, such as self-induced vomiting, laxative use, fasting, or excessive exercise. 143. What is binge eating disorder?: an eating disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of consuming large amounts of food in a short period of time, accompanied by a sense of loss of control during the binge. Unlike bulimia nervosa, individuals with binge eating disorder do not engage in regular compensatory behaviors like vomiting or excessive exercise. 144. What is pica?: an eating disorder characterized by the consumption of non-nu- tritive, non-food substances over a persistent period of time. These substances can include things like paper, chalk, hair, dirt, and even metal objects. 145. What is rumination disorder?: an eating disorder characterized by the re- peated regurgitation of food, which is then re-chewed, re-swallowed, or spit out. Rumination disorder often starts in infancy or early childhood and can persist into adulthood if left untreated. 146. What is the eating disorders inventory?: (EDI) is a psychological assess- ment tool used to measure various attitudes, behaviors, and psychological traits 15 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 related to eating disorders. The subscales include: drive for thinness, bulimia, body dissatisfaction, ineffectiveness, perfectionism, and interpersonal distrust. 147. What is incidence?: the rate at which new cases of a specific condition, disease, or event occur within a population during a defined period of time. It provides information about the risk of developing the condition or experiencing the event within a particular time frame. 148. What is inpatient treatment?: involves receiving medical, psychological, or psychiatric care within a specialized facility where patients stay overnight. 149. What is daypatient treatment?: involves receiving structured medical, psy- chological, or psychiatric care during the day while returning home or to a supportive environment in the evenings. 150. What is outpatient treatment?: involves receiving medical, psychological, or psychiatric care without staying overnight in a medical facility or hospital. Outpatient treatment is suitable for individuals whose condition does not require 24-hour monitoring or intensive care. 151. What is motivational enhancement therapy?: (MET) is a therapeutic ap- proach commonly used in the treatment of substance abuse and addiction. It is designed to increase an individual's motivation and readiness to change problematic behaviors by exploring their ambivalence and helping them recognize the benefits of change. MET is typically a short-term intervention and involves techniques such as reflective listening, open-ended questions, and feedback about the consequences of their behavior. 152. What is a decisional analysis sheet? (MET): involves creating a list of the advantages and disadvantages associated with both continuing the current behavior and making a change. 153. What is muscle dysmorphia?: a psychological disorder characterized by an obsessive preoccupation with perceived inadequacy in muscularity or body size. Individuals often believe they are "too small" despite a well-developed physique. 154. What is withdrawal?: the set of physical and psychological symptoms that occur when a person who is dependent on a substance suddenly reduces or stops using that substance. The symptoms can range from physical discomfort, mood changes, to sleep disturbances depending on the level of dependence. 155. What is the disease model of addiction?: portrays addiction as a chronic medical condition rooted in changes to the brain's structure and function, often caused by prolonged substance abuse. It emphasizes treatment and support over moral judgment. 156. What are impaired control theories?: propose that addiction arises from difficulties in regulating one's behavior or impulses, leading to the loss of control over substance use. 16 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 157. What is the endogenous opioid-system?: refers to a group of neurotrans- mitters and receptors in the brain and body that are naturally produced. These substances, such as endorphins and enkephalins, play a crucial role in regulating pain perception, mood, and reward pathways. 158. What is gambling disorder?: a mental health condition characterized by persistent and problematic gambling behavior, leading to significant distress or impairment in various areas of life. 159. What is the diagnostic criteria for gambling disorder?: To be diagnosed with gambling disorder, an individual needs to exhibit at least four of the following symptoms within a 12-month period: - Needing to gamble with increasing amounts of money to achieve the desired excitement. Being restless or irritable when attempting to cut down or stop gambling. - Making repeated unsuccessful efforts to control, cut back on, or stop gambling. - Preoccupied with gambling (e.g., reliving past gambling experiences, planning future gambling). - Gambling when feeling distressed. - Chasing losses (returning to gamble more to recover losses). - Lying to conceal the extent of gambling involvement. - Jeopardizing or losing a significant relationship, job, or educational/career oppor- tunity due to gambling. - Relying on others for money to relieve a desperate financial situation caused by gambling. 160. What are cognitive errors?: systematic patterns of inaccurate or biased think- ing that can lead individuals to perceive reality inaccurately and respond in ways that may not be helpful or adaptive. Some examples are: black-and-white thinking, catastrophizing, overgeneralization, mind reading, discounting the positive, emotional reasoning, personalisation, should statements, labelling and mislabelling, and selective attention. 161. What is the public health model?: approaches health issues from a popula- tion-wide perspective, focusing on prevention, promotion, and intervention strategies to improve overall health and well-being. It's an approach that considers the broader social, economic, and environmental factors that influence health outcomes, with the goal of reducing the burden of disease and improving the quality of life for communities and populations. 162. What is sexual dysfunction?: Difficulties in sexual function that hinder sexual satisfaction, including issues like erectile dysfunction, premature ejaculation, and low sexual desire. Addressing sexual dysfunction is crucial for maintaining healthy relationships and overall well-being. 17 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 163. What is the desire phase? (Sexual response cycle): characterized by feel- ings of sexual interest, attraction, and the initiation of sexual thoughts or fantasies. It's important as it sets the stage for sexual activity and plays a significant role in maintaining a healthy sexual relationship. 164. What is the arousal phase? (Sexual response cycle): involving physiological changes such as increased heart rate, blood flow to genital areas, and muscle tension. 165. What is hyperactive sexual desire disorder?: also known as hypersexuality or compulsive sexual behavior disorder, refers to a condition where individuals experience an excessive and intense preoccupation with sexual thoughts, urges, or behaviors that may be difficult to control. This can lead to distress, impairment in daily functioning, and negatively impact relationships. 166. What is female sexual arousal disorder?: a sexual dysfunction characterized by the difficulty or absence of becoming sexually aroused, even in the presence of appropriate sexual stimuli. 167. What is hypertension?: abnormally high blood pressure. Stress, anxiety, and certain emotional states can temporarily raise blood pressure as well as impede on social and sexual relationships. 168. What is the sexual dysfunction model?: categorizes sexual dysfunctions into three main components: biological, cognitive, and interpersonal factors that can influence sexual dysfunction. 169. What are sensate focus exercises?: are a therapeutic technique used to enhance physical and emotional intimacy between partners, often as part of sex therapy or couples counseling. In these exercises, partners engage in a series of structured and gradual touching activities that focus on sensory experiences and mutual exploration of each other's bodies, without the pressure of sexual performance or expectations. 170. What is androgen and estrogen therapy?: Androgen Therapy: This involves supplementing or replacing androgens, which are the male sex hormones (e.g., testosterone). Androgen therapy might be used to address conditions like low testosterone levels in men or certain medical conditions in women. Estrogen Therapy: Estrogen therapy involves supplementing or replacing estrogen, which is the primary female sex hormone. It's often used to manage menopausal symptoms in women, such as hot flashes, vaginal dryness, and mood changes. 171. What are paraphilias?: a group of sexual disorders characterized by intense and persistent sexual interests, fantasies, or behaviors that involve atypical objects, activities, or situations. These can include a wide range of specific behaviors or interests, such as exhibitionism, voyeurism, fetishism, pedophilia, and more. 18 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 172. What is exhibitionistic disorder?: a paraphilic disorder characterized by re- current and intense sexual arousal from exposing one's genitals to an unsuspecting person. 173. What is fetishistic disorder?: a paraphilic disorder involving recurrent and intense sexual arousal from nonliving objects or specific body parts that are not typically associated with sexual pleasure. 174. What is frotteuristic disorder?: a paraphilic disorder characterized by recur- rent and intense sexual arousal from touching or rubbing against non-consenting individuals. 175. What is paedophilic disorder?: a paraphilic disorder characterized by recur- rent and intense sexual fantasies, urges, or behaviors involving sexual activity with prepubescent children (typically under the age of 13). The urges do not constitute as a disorder, rather the distress, impairment, or harm to others. 176. What is sexual sadistic disorder?: a paraphilic disorder characterized by recurrent and intense sexual arousal from inflicting physical or psychological pain, humiliation, or suffering on others. 177. What is sexual masochistic disorder?: a paraphilic disorder characterized by recurrent and intense sexual arousal from experiencing physical or psychological pain, humiliation, or suffering. 178. What is transvestic disorder?: a paraphilic disorder characterized by recur- rent and intense sexual arousal from cross-dressing (wearing clothing traditionally associated with the opposite gender). 179. What is gender dysphoria?: the distress that can accompany the incongru- ence between an individual's experienced or expressed gender and their assigned gender at birth. 180. What is voyeuristic disorder?: a paraphilic disorder characterized by re- current and intense sexual arousal from observing others while they are naked, undressing, or engaged in sexual activity, without their consent or knowledge. 181. What is social skills training?: a therapeutic approach designed to help individuals develop and improve their interpersonal and communication skills, lead- ing to more effective interactions and relationships. It involves teaching individuals specific skills and strategies to navigate social situations, understand social cues, and engage in appropriate behaviors. 182. What are expressive skills?: the ability to convey thoughts, emotions, and ideas effectively to others using various forms of communication. 183. What are receptive skills?: the ability to understand and interpret information, messages, or cues from others. 184. What are the three main clusters of personality disorders? (including nine main types of personality disorders): Cluster A (Odd or Eccentric Behaviors): This 19 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 cluster includes personality disorders characterized by behaviors that are perceived as odd, eccentric, or peculiar. It includes: - Paranoid Personality Disorder - Schizoid Personality Disorder - Schizotypal Personality Disorder Cluster B (Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic Behaviors): This cluster encompasses personality disorders characterized by behaviors that are dramatic, emotional, and often impulsive. It includes: - Antisocial Personality Disorder - Borderline Personality Disorder - Histrionic Personality Disorder - Narcissistic Personality Disorder Cluster C (Anxious or Fearful Behaviors): This cluster comprises personality disor- ders characterized by behaviors that are anxious, fearful, and marked by avoidance. It includes: - Avoidant Personality Disorder - Dependent Personality Disorder - Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder 185. What is schizotypal personality disorder?: a personality disorder charac- terized by patterns of behavior and thinking that are odd, eccentric, and involve discomfort with close relationships. Individuals with this disorder often experience cognitive or perceptual distortions, such as magical thinking, unusual beliefs, and odd speech patterns. 186. What is paranoid personality disorder?: a personality disorder character- ized by pervasive and unjustified distrust and suspicion of others' motives and in- tentions. Individuals with this disorder are often hypervigilant, guarded, and interpret others' actions as demeaning or threatening. 187. What is schizoid personality disorder?: a personality disorder characterized by a pattern of emotional detachment, limited expression of emotions, and a prefer- ence for solitary activities. 188. What is narcissistic personality disorder?: a personality disorder charac- terized by a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy for others. Individuals with this disorder often have an exaggerated sense of self-importance, believe they are unique and deserving of special treatment, and may exploit others to achieve their goals. 189. What is histrionic personality disorder?: a personality disorder character- ized by a pattern of attention-seeking behavior, excessive emotionality, and a need to be the center of attention. Individuals with this disorder often display dramatic and 20 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 exaggerated emotions, may be easily influenced by others' opinions, and may use their appearance to gain attention. 190. What is borderline personality disorder?: a personality disorder charac- terized by a pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and emotions. They might struggle with feelings of emptiness, fear of abandonment, and a sense of identity disturbance. 191. What is antisocial personality disorder?: a personality disorder character- ized by a pattern of disregard for the rights of others, lack of empathy, and violation of societal norms and rules. Individuals with this disorder often engage in deceitful and manipulative behavior, have a history of impulsivity and aggression, and may show a consistent disregard for the safety and well-being of others. 192. What is psychopathy?: Psychopathy is considered a more severe and spe- cific subset of antisocial personality disorder. Individuals who exhibit psychopathic traits may display charm, superficial charm, manipulation, and a tendency to engage in deceitful and antisocial behaviors without experiencing guilt or remorse. They might lack empathy, have shallow emotional responses, and show an elevated risk for engaging in criminal or harmful activities. 193. What is dependent personality disorder?: a personality disorder character- ized by a pattern of excessive dependence on others for decision-making, self-es- teem, and emotional well-being. Individuals with this disorder often have difficulty initiating tasks or making decisions independently, feel helpless when alone, and may tolerate mistreatment or abuse from others to avoid being alone. 194. What is avoidant personality disorder?: a personality disorder characterized by a pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation. Individuals with this disorder often avoid social interactions and situations due to fear of rejection or criticism. 195. What is obsessive-compulsive personality disorder?: (OCPD) is a per- sonality disorder characterized by a pattern of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, control, and a strict adherence to rules and routines. OCPD primarily pertains to personality traits rather than ritualistic behaviours. 196. What is Beck's cognitive model?: associated with cognitive therapy and CBT, it explains how individual's thoughts, emotions, behaviours, and physical sensations are interconnection and influence their mental health. The key components are: the cognitive triad, automatic thoughts, cognitive distortions, schemas, cognitive restructuring, and homework assignments. 197. What is Young's schema therapy model?: a therapeutic approach that inte- grates elements of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), psychodynamic principles, and attachment theory to address deep-seated emotional and relational patterns called "schemas.". The key components are: schemas, schema modes, limited 21 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 reparenting; cognitive, behavioural, and experimental techniques; schema domains, and limited reparenting. 198. What is Linehan's biosocial model?: a theoretical framework that underpins Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT), a therapeutic approach designed to treat indi- viduals with borderline personality disorder (BPD) and other emotion dysregulation issues. The model explains how a combination of biological predisposition and an invalidating environment contributes to the development of emotional dysregulation and related behaviors. 199. What is seperation anxiety disorder?: a psychological disorder character- ized by excessive fear or anxiety about separation from attachment figures or from home. Individuals with this disorder may experience distress and worry when they are apart from loved ones or familiar environments. These feelings often go beyond what is developmentally appropriate and can lead to avoidance of situations that involve separation. 200. What is the difference between dimensions and categories? (Diagnosis of disorders): Dimensions view psychological disorders as existing on a continu- um, whereas categories view psychological disorder as distinct groups on specific criteria. 201. What is the labelling effect?: the phenomenon where individuals who are assigned a certain label or diagnosis may internalize and exhibit the behaviors asso- ciated with that label. This effect can influence how individuals perceive themselves and how others perceive and interact with them. 202. What is attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder?: (ADHD) is a neurodevel- opmental disorder characterized by persistent patterns of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that can significantly impact an individual's functioning and daily life. 203. What are executive functions?: a set of cognitive processes that involve higher-level thinking skills and are responsible for managing and regulating vari- ous mental tasks. These functions help individuals plan, organize, initiate, sustain, monitor, and adjust their behaviors in order to achieve goals and adapt to different situations. 204. What is specific learning disorder?: a neurodevelopmental disorder charac- terized by difficulties in acquiring and using academic skills, such as reading, writing, or mathematics, that are significantly below what is expected given the individual's age, intelligence, and educational background. 205. What is reading disorder?: also known as Dyslexia, is a specific learning disorder characterized by difficulties in accurate and/or fluent word recognition and by poor spelling and decoding abilities. 206. What is autism spectrum disorder?: (ASD) is a complex neurodevelopmen- tal disorder characterized by challenges in social communication and interaction, as 22 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 well as restricted and repetitive behaviors and interests. ASD is a spectrum, meaning that it varies widely in terms of its presentation and severity. 207. What is intellectual disability?: a neurodevelopmental disorder character- ized by limitations in intellectual functioning and adaptive behavior. It is typically identified during childhood and involves deficits in cognitive abilities and practical life skills. 208. What are externalising disorders?: a group of psychological disorders char- acterized by outwardly directed behaviors and emotions that disrupt relationships, social interactions, and functioning. These disorders are often associated with im- pulsive and aggressive behaviors that impact the individual's interactions with others and their environment. 209. What are internalising disorders?: a group of psychological disorders char- acterized by inwardly directed emotional experiences and behaviors, often involving excessive negative emotions, anxiety, and mood disturbances. 210. What is selective mutism?: an anxiety disorder characterized by an individ- ual's consistent inability to speak in specific social situations despite being able to speak comfortably in other settings. 211. What are elimination disorders?: group of childhood disorders characterized by difficulties in controlling elimination of urine or feces, beyond the age at which such control is expected. 212. What is enuresis?: commonly known as bedwetting, is a childhood disorder characterized by involuntary or intentional urination during sleep in children beyond the age at which bladder control is typically achieved. 213. What is the bell and pad method?: It involves a specialized moisture-sensing pad placed on the child's bed and connected to an alarm. When the pad detects moisture from urination, the alarm is triggered, waking the child to alert them to use the toilet, ultimately achieving dry nights. 214. What is secondary aging?: aging process that is influenced by external factors, environmental exposures, and lifestyle choices. 215. What is Alzheimer's disease?: a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that primarily affects memory, cognitive function, and behavior. It is the most common cause of dementia, a group of cognitive impairments that interfere with an individ- ual's ability to function independently. 216. What are cohort effects?: the influence of shared life experiences and histor- ical events on the attitudes, behaviors, and outcomes of individuals who are born during the same time period or belong to the same generation. 217. What is vascular dementia?: a type of dementia caused by impaired blood flow to the brain, resulting in cognitive decline and difficulties in thinking, reasoning, and memory 23 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 218. What are focal neurological symptoms?: specific neurological deficits or abnormalities that are localized to a specific area of the brain or nervous system. 219. What is aphasia?: a language disorder that impairs an individual's ability to understand, produce, or use language, both spoken and written. 220. What is apraxia?: a neurological disorder that impairs an individual's ability to plan and execute purposeful and coordinated movements, even though there is no paralysis or muscle weakness. 221. What is agnosia?: a neurological disorder characterized by the inability to recognize or interpret sensory stimuli, such as objects, people, or sounds, despite intact sensory perception. 222. What is lewy body dementia?: (LBD) is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the accumulation of abnormal protein deposits called Lewy bodies in the brain. It shares similarities with both Parkinson's disease and Alzheimer's disease, leading to a range of cognitive, motor, and behavioral symp- toms. 223. What is the geriatric anxiety inventory?: (GAI) is a self-report questionnaire designed to assess and measure symptoms of anxiety specifically in older adults. It consists of questions that cover aspects of anxiety, such as worry, tension, and physical symptoms to provide insights into the individual's anxiety levels. 224. What is health psychology?: it highlights the connection between mind and body, emphasizing how psychological factors can contribute to the development, prevention, and management of various health conditions. 225. What is the health belief model?: It proposes that people's willingness to take action to improve their health is influenced by their perceptions of the severity of a health issue, their susceptibility to it, the benefits of taking action, and the barriers or costs associated with those actions. 226. What is protection motivation theory?: a psychological framework that ex- plains how individuals assess threats to their health and make decisions about adopting protective behaviors. It emphasizes the role of both threat appraisal (per- ceived severity and susceptibility of a health threat) and coping appraisal (perceived efficacy of protective actions) in shaping behavior change. 227. What is the theory of reasoned action?: a psychological model that explains and predicts individuals' intention to engage in a specific behavior based on their attitudes toward the behavior and subjective norms. 228. What is the theory of planned behaviour?: a psychological model that extends the Theory of Reasoned Action (TRA) by incorporating the concept of perceived behavioral control. It explains how individuals' attitudes, subjective norms, and perceived behavioral control collectively influence their intention to engage in a specific behavior, which in turn predicts their actual behavior. 24 / 25  Clinical and Abnormal Psychology Exam Study online at https://quizlet.com/_djvne9 229. What is the stages of change model?: also known as the Transtheoretical Model (TTM), is a psychological framework that describes the process individuals go through when making behavior changes: precontemplation, contemplation, preper- ation, action, and maintenance. 230. What is self regulation theory?: a psychological framework that focuses on how individuals monitor, control, and manage their thoughts, feelings, behaviors, and goals to achieve desired outcomes. It emphasizes the role of self-regulation processes in guiding behavior, emotions, and cognitive functions. 231. What is social readjustment?: he process of adapting to changes in one's social environment, life circumstances, or daily routines. These changes can include major life events, transitions, and shifts in relationships, roles, or living situations. 232. What is the Maslach stress and burnout inventory?: (MBI) is a widely used psychological tool designed to measure levels of burnout among individuals, particularly in work-related contexts. The key dimensions are: emotional exhaustion, depersonalisation, and personal accomplishment. 25 / 25