CIP 1st Year Solved Questions PDF

1.The date of commencement of the Indian constitution is (a) 26TH Nov 1949 ( b) 26TH Nov 1945 ( c) 26TH Jan 1950 (d) 15TH Aug 1947. 2.The source of authority of the Indian constitution is (a) the government (b)the peopl...

1.The date of commencement of the Indian constitution is (a) 26TH Nov 1949 ( b) 26TH Nov 1945 ( c) 26TH Jan 1950 (d) 15TH Aug 1947. 2.The source of authority of the Indian constitution is (a) the government (b)the people of India (c) the supreme court (d) the president 3.The word secular as used in the preamble indicates_____ (a) treating all the languages equally (b) special treatment to hindu religion (c) treating all the religions equally (d) none of these. 4.The right to equality means (a) treating all citizens equally (b) treating government servents equally (c) treating citizen differently (d) none of the above 5.State is authorized to make special provision for ______ (a) women and children (b) men only (c) men and women (d) none of the above 6.State can make special provisions for the advancement of ______ (a) socially and educationally backward classes citizens (b) economically backward classes of citizens (c) both (a) and (d) (d) none of these. 7.The freedom of speech includes (a) freedom of press (b) freedom of disturbing public peace (c) freedom to create nuisance (d) none of these 8. Classification of films into `A` and `U` is (a) valid (b) invalid (c) either (a) or (b) (d) none of these 9. Freedom of assembly means right to assemble peacefully___ (a) with arms (b) without arms (c) with deadly weapons (d) none of these 10.Right to property is a (a) ordinary right (b) fundamental right (b) moral right (d) not a right 11. The constitution guarantees fundamental rights to ____ (a) Both citizens and non citizens (b) citizens only (c) foreigners only (d) none of these 12. Ex-post facto law means ____ (a) law imposing penalties from a previous date (b) civil (c) law imposing penalties from a future date (d) none of these 13. Double Jeopardy means _______ (a) no prosecution and punishment for the same offence more than once (b)double benefit (c) there can be prosecution and punishment for the same offence more than once (d) none of these 14.Self – incrimination means ____ (a) compulsion to be a witness against himself (b) voluntary giving evidence (c) compulsion to be a witness against others (d) none of these 15. An arrested person must be produced before magistrate with in ____ hours of his arrest (a) 12 (b) 24 (c)36 (d) 48 16. Right to pollution free environment includes (a) right to life (b) freedom of speech and expression (c) right to religion (d)abolition of untouchability 17.Right to education is a ______ (a) fundamental right (b) ordinary legal right (c) not a right (d) both (a) and (b) 18.Right to education is a ______ (a) fundamental right (b) ordinary legal right (c) not a right (d) both (a) and (b) 19. Children below the age of _____ years are prohibited to be employed in hazardous employment (a) 21 years (b) 14 years (c) 18 years (d) 30 years 20. Cultural and educational rights are also known as (a) minority rights (b) majority rights (c) both ((a) and (b) (d) none of these 21.The founding father of the Indian constitution is _____ (a) dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Gandhiji (c) pandit nehru (d) sardar valabhi patel l 22.Habeas corpus means (a) you may have the body (b) what is your authority (c) arrest the person (d) none of these 23. Mandamus means ______ (a) command (b) request (c) permission (d) none of these 24.Writ of prohibition is issued against (a) inferior court (b) tribunal (c) both (a) and (b) (d) superior court 25.Quo- warranto means (a) what is your authority (b) direction (c) issuing warrant (d)none of these 26.Locus standi means (a) right to move the supreme court/high court (b) right to be defended (c) local authority (d) none of these 27.The number of articles in constitution presently is _____ (a) 368 (b) 395 (c) 400 (d)447 28.Preamble to the Indian constitution indicates (a) privileges given to the scs and sts (b) the power of government to make laws (c) the circumstances under which the constitution can be amended (d) the source of the Indian constitution 29.The freedom of movement under Art 19(1) (d) can be restricted in the interested of (a) women (b) law and order (c) general public (d) none of these 30.which of the following writ is issued by the supreme court if it sends on order to restrain a person from acting in an office to which he is not entitle. (a) habeas corpus (b) prohibition (c) certiorari (d) quo- warranto 31.No person can become a member of parliament unless he is educated up to class (a) seventh (b) tenth (c) fifth (d) none of the above 32.The first general elections were held in India in (a) 1950- 51 (b) 1951-52 (c) 1949-50 (d) none of these 33.voting age of citizens is changed from 18 years by constitutional amendment (a) 7TH (b) 42ND (c) 61st (d) 55TH 34.Under the provision of – Article of the constitution, the government abolished the practice Of untochability (a) 17 (b) 16 (c) 20 (d) 18 35.In which one of the following states, there is no reservation for the scs for lok – sabha (a) arunchal Pradesh (d) meghalaya (d) jammu and Kashmir (d) all of these 36.Which are the two states having common capital (a) jharkhand and bihar (b) panjab and haryana © uttaranchal and himachal (d) punjab and himachal Pradesh 37.Which part of the constitution incorporates special provisions to the state of jammu and kashmir (a) XXI (b) XX (c) XV (d) XI 38. Who was the first chief justice of India ? (a) B.K. mukherjee (b) S.R. das (c) harlal j. Kania (d) Dec 1948 39. The work of framing the constitution of India started in Dec 1946 and completed in (a) Nov 1949 (b) Jan 1949 (c) Jan 1950 (d) Dec 1948 40. Magna carta is a written document of 13TH century assuring liberties awarded to (a) Indian citi (b) french citizen (c) British citizen (d) citizen of the world by UNO 41.How many times was the preamble of the constitution amended a) 3 times b) 2 times c) 1 times d) not amended 42.Directive principles of state policy are contained in which part of the constitution (a) part – I (b) part –III (c) part –IV (d) part –II 43.The underlying objective of the directive principles is to achieved (a) welfare state (b) police state (c) secular state (d) none of these 44.There is right to adequate means of livelihood guaranted to (a) both men and women equally (b) women only (c) men only (d) either men or to women 45.Equal pay for equal work is an accompaniment of (a) right freedom (b) right to equality (c) right to freedom of religion (d) right to constitutional remedies 46.The directive principles of state policy (a) can be enforced in any court (b)can be enforced in highcourt (c) cannot be enforced in any court ( d) can be enforced only in the supreme court 47.Directive principles of state policy are (a) political rights (b) social rights (c) constitutional rights (d) legal rights 48.Uuiform civil code means (a) uniform civil procedure code (b) civil law applicable to common man (c) common civil law applicable to all (d) civil law applicable to hindu women and children 49.Free and compulsory education for all children is provided under Article 45 until they attain the age of (a) 14 years (b) 21 years (c) 18 years (d) 16 years 50.State should take steps to separate (a) judiciary from executive (b) legislature from executive (c) judiciary from legislature (d) all the 3 organs from each others 51.Part IV (a) consists of – fundamental duty (a) 10 (b) 9 (c) 11 (d) 12 52.Part IV (a) was added to the constitution the year (a) 1950 (b) 1972 (c) 1978 (d) 1976 53.Which of the following is not a fundamental duty (a) to protect and improve natural environment (b) not to practice corruption (c) to develop scientific temper (d) to abide by constitution 54.Fundamental duties in the constitution are addressed to the (a) politicians (b) people (c) workers (d) students 55.The constitution makers have borrowed the directive principles from (a) constitution of spain (b) constitution of U.K (C) Constitution of U.S.A (d) constitution of ireland 56.The parliament of India has enacted ____ for the enforcement of Article 39(d) (a) child lab our abolition act (b) equal remuneration act (c) protection of human right act (d) none of these 57. Education below the age of 14 years is inserted as a fundamental rights by (a) 42ND amendment (b) 44TH amendment (c) 85TH amendment (d) 86TH amendment 58. To protect and improve the natural environment and wild life is one of (a) fundamental rights (b) notional policy (c) directive principles (d) none of the above 59.monuments and places and objects of national importance are protected because India is country with ( a) written constitution (b) lengthiest constitution (c) rich cultural heritage (d) diverse culture 60.The fundamental rights and directive principle are (a) conflicting with each other (b) unrelated to each other (c) complement and supplement each other (d) none of them 61. Fundamental duty demands (a) to work sincerely and respect the rights of others (b) to abide by the constitution (c) to prevent corruption (d) to abide by the ethical values 62.The directive principles under Article 46 considered ___ as educationally and economically/weaker section of the society (a) women and children (b) disabled (c) scs and sts (d) none of these 63.Now, free legal aid and speedy trial are (a) only directives (b) duty of the citizens (c) fundamental rights (d) none of these 64. In child lab our abolition case the supreme court has held that the children below the age Of ___ cannot be employed in any hazardous industry (a) 16 years (b) 18 years (c) 21 years (d) 14 years 65.The directive principles of state policy are the obligation of (a) central government (b) state government (c) central and state government (c) citizen of India 66.In child labour abolition case the supreme court has held that the children below the age of __ Cannot be employed in any hazardous industry (a) 16 years (b) 18 years (b) 21 years (d) 14 years 67.The directive principles of state policy do not direct the state to Endeavour to protection (a) forest (b) the interest of minorities (c) the object of artistic interest of national importance (d) the environment 68.To provide justice to economically disabled citizens the directive principles of state policy Direct the state to provide (a) employment in the govt service (b)reserve seats in public educational institution (c) proper economic and social security (d) none of the above 69.The directive principles of state policy direct the state to promote (a) cottage industry (b) technical education (c) women and children welfare scheme (d) protective homes for old sick and invalid 70.Which one of the following is not a fundamental duty (a) to safeguard public property (b) to render national service (c) to uphold national sovernighty (d) to honor inter cast marriage 71. In which five year plan, we are now in 2002- 2007 (a) 8TH (b) 9TH (c) 10TH (d) 11TH 72.Who is know as the first citizen of India (a) the president (b) prime minister (c) chief election commissioner (d) speaker 73.What is the term of the office of the president (a) 4 years (b) 5 years (c) 6 years (d) 2 years 74.who is the supreme commander of the defence force of India (a) prime minister (b) parliament (c) chief justice (d) the president 75.What is the total strength of the rajya – sabha (a) 544 (b) 225 © 250 (d) 238 76.Who has the power to declare emergency (a) parliament (b) president © prime minister (d)supreme court 77. Who can supervise and control the business of the administration (a) the priminister (b) cabinet © president (d) supreme court 78.Who can conduct and postpone the cabinet meetings (a) the prime minister (b) speaker © parliament (d) the president 79.How many houses are there in parliament (a)five (b) two © three (d) house 80.What is the maximum strength of the lok sabha (a) 550 (b) 425 © 545 (d) 560 81.What is the term of the lok sabha (a) 2 years (b) 6 years © 4years (d) 5 years 81.The required age contest in the election the lok sabha is (a) below 25 years (b) 30 years © 25 years (d) 35 years 82.How many readings a bill has to cross In house to get passed (a) two (b) four © five (d) three 83.Who will present the budget in the monthof march every year in the lok- sabha (a) finance minister (b) prime minister © home minister (d) speaker 84.The minimum age prescribed for the membership of the rajya – sabha is (a) 25 years (b) 30 years © 35 years (d) 40 years 85.The parliament consist of (a) two organs (b) three organs © four organs (d) five organs 86.Annual ststement of income and expenditure of the government is known as (a) agenda (b) cataloge © calendar (d) budget 87.Out of 250members how many members are nominated by the president to rajy sabha (a) 50 (b) 12 (c) 25 (d) 5 88.Who will act as speaker in his absence (a) vice president (b) defence minister (c) home minister (d) deputy speaker 89.Name the highest or apex court of India (a) federal court (b) lok- adalath (c) supreme court (d) international court 90.How is the supremacy of the constitution safeguarded (a) by independent and impartial judiciary (b) by the parliament (c) by the cabinet (d) presst 91. What is the total strength of the supreme court (a) 30 (b)twenty five judges and one chief justice together 36 (c) 35 (d) 29 92.Who does appoint the judges of the supreme court (a) cabinet (b) president on his own (c) president appoints the judges after consulting thechief justice of India (d) president consulting prime minster 93.Who does appoint chief justice of the supreme court (a) by the president (b) by the priminister (c) by the cabinet (d) by the speaker of lok sabha 94.On what grounds the judges are removed (a) failed to give effective judgment b) proved misbehaviour, incapacity (c) absconding from duty (d) none of these 95.Name the article, empowering the supreme court to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights (a) under article 32 (b) 33 (c) 35 (d) 40 96.The governor of a state is (a) direcly elected by the people (b) elected by the state legislatur (c) appointed by the president (d) appointed by the prime minister 97.The governor power do not include (a) legislative powers (b) military power (c) pardoning power (d) emergency power 98.The governor of a state is responsible for his actions to (a) the state legislative assembly (b) the president (c) the prime minister (d) the chief justice of the high court 99. A high court judge retires at the age of (a) 65 (b) 63 (c) 60 (d) 62 100.This is not the power of the chief minister (a)formation of government (b) control over minister (c) chief advisor to the governor (d) control over state judiciary 101.The minimum for a person to be appointed as the governor of a state is (a) 35 (b) 40 (c) 30 (d)25 102.Who among the following, can remove a chief minister from office (a) state legislative assembly (b)governor (c) president (d) supreme court of India 103.Election to a state legislature is conducted by the (a) state governor (b) chief minister (c) chief secretary of the state (d) election commission 104.Members of the council of ministers are appointed by (a) chief minister (b) governor (c) governor on the advice of the chief minister (d) state legislative assembly 105. The authority to dissolve a state legislative assembly is vested in the (a) chief minister of a state (b) speaker of the state assembly (c)president of India (d) state governor 106. The total members in legislative council should not be less than (a) 250 (b) 80 (c) 20 (d) 40 107.The position of chief minister in council minister is (a) the first among equal (b) the supreme commander (c)the virtual dictator (d) no difference at all with regard To position and status 108.To become a judge of high court one must be a practicing advocate of the high court for at least (a) 6 years (b) 10 years (c) 15 years (d) 5 years 109.Public interest litigation can be entertained by high court whenever (a) the public are irresponsible(b) the public neglect the govt interest (c) the public interest become personal interest (d) the public interest undermined 110.The high court has (a) the power of superintendence over all other lower court (b) the power to create lower courts © the power to disengage the business of a lower court (d) the power to dissolve all 111.Judicial activism is (a)for the protection of the rights of the citizens (b) for curtailment of active organization (c) for curtailment of the power of the government (d) for follow up the court direction 112.The judges of the high court are a) appointment by the chief minister (b) appointment by the speaker of the vidhana sabha (c )appointment of president of India (d) appointment of the governor 113.Judicial review means (a) reviewing the laws passed by the legislature (b) examining the action of the executive © scrutinizing the lower courts order (d) supervising the implementation of The DPSP 115.To become a chief minister of a state on must have attained the age of (a) 25 years (b) 30 years © 35 years (d) 40 years 116.the judges of high court are (a) liable to be transferred (b) not liable to be transferred (c) liable to be transferred once in 2 years (d) none of 117.The number of ministers including the chief minister, in a state shall not be less than (a) 15 (b) 12 (c) 10 (d) 5 118.The chief minister is answerable for his acts of omission and commission to (a) The people (b) his party (c) Legislative assembly (d) investigation 119.Who among the following holds office doing the pleasure of the president (a) Governor (b) election commissioner (c) Prime minister (d) speaker of lok sabha 120.Who among the following is not appointed by the governor (a) Chief minister (b) high court judges © Members of the state public service commission (d) advocate general 121.Legislative council is (a) Dissolved after 6 years (b) Dissolved after 5 years (c) Dissolved after 3 years (d) not Dissolved 122.The list of scs and sts is drawn by ___ (a) Governor (b) president (c) Prime minister (d) none of these 123.National commission for scs and sts shall have all the powers of a (a) High court (b) supreme court (c) Civil court (d) criminal court 124.Special provisions for scs and sts are also contained in (a) Part I and II of the constitution (b) part III and IV of the constitution (c) Part X of the constitution (d) part XVI of the constitution 125.The legal permissible age for marriage of a boy and girl is (a) 21 and 18 years (b) 16 and 18 years (c) 25 and 23 years (d) none of these 126.Right to education has been guaranteed to children between the age of (a) 6-14 years (b) 7- 12 years (c) 8-10 years (d) none of these 127.The term backward class implies backwardness (a) Socially and educationally (b) economically (c) Culturally (d) none of these 128.Backward classes commission is appointed by the (a) Prime minister (b) president (c) Chief minister of all states (d) governor 129.Types of emergencies provided in the Indian constitution is (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3 130.The power to declare emergency is vested in the (a) Prime minister (b) president (c) Governor (d) chief minister 131.National emergency may be declared on the grounds (a) internal disturbance (b) political instability (c) war (d) national calamities 132.National emergency may be declared under the following articles (a) 360 (b) 2 (c) 352 (d) 375 133.National emergency can be declared when the cabinet communicates to the president (a) Orally (b) in writing (c) (a) or (b) (d) none of these 134.Proclamation of emergency must be approved with in (a) 2months (b) 1 month (c) 6 month (d) 1 year 135.A resolution approving the proclamation must be passed by (a) Simple majority (b) special majority (c) Either (a) or (b) (d) none of these 136. Once approved, proclamation of emergency remains in force for (a) 1 year (b) 6 year (c) 6 months (d) 3 months 137.During emergency the states can be give directions by the (a) Supreme court (b) centre (c) Parliament (d) none of these 138.During emergency thre is automatic suspentin of rights guaranted under (a) Article 14 (b) Article 21 (c) Article 19 (d) Article 18 139.So far national emergency has been declared times in India (a) Five (b) six (c) Three (d) one 140.State emergency can be declared when there is (a) War (b) failure constitutional machinery in state (c) Financial crisis (d) none of these 141. State emergency is also called as (a) President rule (b) prime minister (c) Governor rule (d) chief justice rule 142.President can impose state emergency when he receives a report from the (a) Chief minister (b) governor (c) Chief justice (d) attorney general 143.During state emergency the president exercise the power of the (a) Chief minister (b) prime mister (c) Governor (d) chief justice 144.Financial emergency may be declared when is (a) Financial instability (b) war (c) Internal disturbance (d) none of these 145. Declaration of financial emergency is (a) 6 months (b) 2 months (c) 3 months (d) 1 year 146.Federal constitution means a constitution in which powers are divided between the (a) Centre and state (b) state only (c) People and states (d) none of these  147.The powers to superintendent, direct and control elections is vested in the (a) Planning commission (b) election commission (c) Finance commission (d) none of these 148.election commission is____ member commission (a) single (b) double (c) multi (d four 149.The condition of the service of the election commissioners may be determined by the (a) Prime minister (b) governor (c) President (d) chief justice of India 150.The removal of chief election commissioner may be on grounds similar to that of (a) Judge of high court (b) judge of the supreme court (c) Attorney general of India (d) governor of a state 151.Election commissioners are appointed by the (a) Chief justice of India (b) Prime minister (c) President (d) none of these 152.Every citizen the age of ____ years is eligible to vte in an eletion (a) 21 years (b) 16 years (c) 25 years (d) 18 years 153.Seats are reserved in favor of (a) Scs and sts (b) aged person (c) Sick persons (d) disabled persons 154.No of seats to be reserved for anglo Indian community in lok sabha is (a) Three (b) two (c )One (d) unlimited 155.constitutions are classified into (a) rigid (b) flexible (c )rigid and flexible (d) none of these 156.The method of amending rigid constitution is by (a) Simple majority (b) special majority (c )Cannot be amended (d) none of these 157. Procedure amend the constitution is contained in (a) Article 268 (b) Article 368 (c ) Article 338 (d ) none of these 158.No of method of amending the constitution (a) Two (b) one (c )Three (d) four 159. 42ND amendment act came into force in (a) 1956 (b) 1960 (c ) 1976 (d) 1978 160.The words added to the preamble by this amendment were (a) Socialist only (b) secular only (c )Integrity only (d) all of these 161.Which among the following were given supremacy over fundamental rights (a) Fundamental duties (b) citizenship (c ) DPSP (d) none of these 162.Life of lokha sabha was increased from 5 to ___ years (a) 6 years (b) 7 (c) 4 months (d) 10 years 163.44TH constitutional amendment act came into force in (a) 1972 (b) 1976 (c ) 1978 (d) 1980 164.____ Was restored to 5 years (a) Life of rajya sabha (b) life of lok sabha (c )Life of both (d) none of these 165.Establishment of ___ was the subject matter of 74TH amendment act (a) Corporation (b) municipalities (c ) High courts (d) none of these 166.Reservation in promotion to scs and sts is permitted in (a) Article 16 (b) Article 15(4) (c ) Article 16(4) (d) none of these 167.Right to education under article 21 (a) is now a (a) Legal right (b) constitutional right (c )Fundamental right (d) none of these 168.91ST amendment act 2003 strengthens (a) Anti defection law (b) preventive defection law (c )Civil law (d) none of these 169.The total member of ministers including the prime minister should not exceed (a) 10 % (b) 20% ©15% (d) 30% 170.Article 21 A was a gift of ___ amendment act (a) 81ST (b) 82ND (c )86TH (d) 89TH 171.Election disputes can be adjudicated only by (a) High court (b) criminal court (c )Election commission (d) civil court 172.Is it possible to separate professional ethics from personal ethics (a) No (b) yes (c )Possible to some extent (d) none of these 173.Do you agree that personal ethics is the foundation of professional ethics (a) As to some extent (b) yes and no (c )No (d) yes 174.What does the professional ethics deal (a) it deals with the ethical standards accepted by the professional (b) it deals with legal standards Community (c )It deals with the business aspects (d) it deals with the official 175.What standards on which the enginees have to comply with (a) Legal (b) commercial (c)The standards according model rules of professional conduct provided (d) ethical 176.Expand the abbreviated word NSPE (a) National scheme for professional ethics (b) national society for professional engg (c )National sector – wise programme efficiency (d) none of these 177.What are the codes provided by NSPE to apply in particular circumstances (a) To avoid the conflict of interest (b) to protect wealth (c )To understand the problems of engineers (d) to inspect the agenda 178.The following are the aims of the professional ethics (a) Developing analytical standards (b) toleration on agreement and ambiguity (c )Sense of developing ethical principles (d) recognition of ethical issues 179.Are engineers morally responsible for causing harm intentionally negligently for recklessly (a) No (b) yes (c )Yes to some extent (d) none of these 180. What is one of the three basic attitudes towards the responsibilities of engineers (a) Minimalist (b) uncritical acceptance of authority (c )Inspection (d) none of these 181.The responsibilities of engineers are divided into (a) Four (b) three (c )Two (d) five 182.What do you, mean by minimalist approach (a) Sticking on maximum acceptable standards (b) Sticking on minimum acceptable standards (c )Sticking on full acceptable standards (d) none of these 183.What is emphasized in reasonable considerable care – Attention to those who are at rist of being harmed and to prevent (a)The progress or adverse effect of harm (b) none of these (c) attention to those who are not at the risk (d) attention on both of the above 184. Is considerable care beyond the minimalist approach (a) No (b) yes (c )No to some extent (d) yes to some extent 185. In good work views focus is given on (a) Concept of skillful work (b) concept of legal work ©Concept of logical work (d) the concept of responsibility beyond And moral and call of duty 186.Is self –interest impediment or hindrance to responsibility (a) No (b) yes (c )Yes to some extent (d) none of these 187.Is fear impediment or hindrance to responsibility (a) No (b) Yes to some extent (c )Yes and no (d) yes 188.What is the other hindrance to the responsibility (a) Self deception (b) self assessment (c )Self realization (d) negligence 189.Honesty is (a)Perfect ness (b) readyness (c )Truthfulness (d) surrendering to god 190.Dharma is (a)Sincerity (b) caste belief (c )What is god for the self (d) truth of justice 191.Honesty is (a)Not liked by all (b) liked by all but not practical (c )Liked in others (d) liked by one add all 192.Engineering honesty is doing (a)What is right for oneself (b) what is good for the society (c )What is good for the employer (d) what earns money quickly 192.Engineers should not indulge in (a)Fraudulent business (b) constructive measures (c )Healthy attitudes to words society (d) none of these 195.telling the truth when should not is (a)honesty (b) dharma of an engineer (c )misusing the truth (d) business principle 196.misusing the truth is (a)disclosing information when should not (b) sincerity in engineering (c )doing good service to the customer (d) upholding dignity of the profession 197.Failure to reveal the truth means (a)Lying (b) protecting the employer is interest (c )Protecting the company interest (d) none of these 198.Deliberate deception means (a)An engineer is deliberately deceiving the customer (b) An engineer is deceiving the employer (c )An engineer is doing the service to the society (d) An engineer is doing good service to both Employer and society 198.Withholding information is (a)Ommiting necessary information to the customer (b) committing an offence (c )Ommiting necessary information to the employer (d) committing an error of judgement 199.Corrupting the truth means (a)Conflict of interest (b) conflict of judgement (c )Conflict of service (d) none of these