Indian Constitution Question Bank PDF

BMS INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY AND MANAGEMENT Avalahalli, Doddaballapur Main Road, Bengaluru – 560064 Department of Humanities and Social Sciences...

BMS INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY AND MANAGEMENT Avalahalli, Doddaballapur Main Road, Bengaluru – 560064 Department of Humanities and Social Sciences Question Bank Course Course Name Indian Constitution BICOK107/207 Code Name of the Course Mrs. Tejaswini B J Coordinator (s) 1. The President can be removed by impeachment procedure on the ground of violating the constitution by A. The Supreme Court B. The Lok Sabha only C. Both houses of Parliament D. The High Court 2. The Vice-President of India is elected by the A. People B. Members of State-Legislative Assembly C. Members of Rajya Sabha D. Members of both houses of Parliament 3. Who discharges the duties of the President in the event of President and Vice-President being not available? A. The Prime Minister B. The Chief Justice of India C. The Speaker of Lok Sabha D. The Attorney General of India 4. Which one of the following can the President of India declare? A. Emergency due to threat of war, external aggression or armed rebellion B. Emergency due to breakdown of constitutional machinery in the state C. Financial emergency on account of threat to the financial credit of India D. All of the above. 5. Which of the following Legislative Powers is enjoyed by the Governor of a State? A. He can summon or prorogue the State Legislature B. He can appoint one sixth of the members of the Legislative Council. C. He can dissolve Legislative Assembly. D. All of above Powers. 6. The members of the Legislative Assembly are A. Directly elected by the people B. Nominated by Governor C. Nominated by President D. None of the above 7. The Governor of State is A. Directly elected by the people B. Elected by the State legislature C. Appointed by the President D. Nominated by the Parliament 8. Reprieve means A. Death due to drowning B. Awarding lesser punishment C. Temporary suspension of death sentence D. Painless death 9. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office before the expiry of term by the A. Chief Justice of India B. Prime Minister C. President on the recommendation of Parliament after the impeachment D. President on the advice of Chief Justice of India 10. The quorum of minimum number of members required to hold the meetings of either house of Parliament is A. One-tenth B. One-fifth C. One-third D. one-fifth 11. The Governor reserves the right to issue ordinances A. When the state legislature is not in session and he feels that there is an immediate need of action. B. Whenever the state is under President’s rule C. Whenever he likes D. None of these 12. The members of Rajya Sabha except the nominated ones are elected by A. The people B. members of local Self-Governing bodies C. members of Legislative Assemblies of the states D. Both (B) & (C) 13. The Vice-President is the Ex-Officio Chairman of A. The Rajya Sabha B. The National Development Council C. The Planning Commission D. None of the above 14. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is A. Appointed by the President B. Appointed by the President on the recommendations of the Prime Minister C. Elected by the members of two houses at a joint sitting D. Elected by members of Lok Sabha 15. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house but A. One-third of its members retire every two years B. One-half of its members retire very three years C. One-fifth of its members retire every year D. One half of its members retire every two years. 16. A person to be appointed as a Governor of a state must have completed the age of? A. 30 years. B. 35 years. C. 45 years. D. 50 years. 17. The Chief Justice of High Court is appointed by? A. President. B. Chief Minister. C. Prime Minister. D. Governor. 18. The membership of Legislative Assembly of states varies between A. 60 & 500. B. 100 & 300. C. 150 & 450. D. 100 & 400. 19. The Legislative Council does not include members elected from A. Teachers constituency. B. Reserved Constituency. C. Local bodies. D. Registered graduates constituency. 20. The tenure of members of Legislative Council is? A. 2 years. B. 3 years. C. 5 years. D. 6 years. 21. The total members in the legislative council should not be less than? A. 250. B. 80. C. 20. D. 40. 22. Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court and the Supreme Court? A. Disputes between the Centre and the state B. Disputes between the states C. Protection of Fundamental rights D. Disputes on inter-state rivers 23. Council of Ministers is headed by the ____________ and are appointed by President on the advice of _____________ A. Prime Minister and Prime Minister B. President and Prime Minister C. Prime Minister and President D. President and Chief Justice of India 24. Rajya Sabha is also Known as A. Council of States B. Council of the Lok Sabha C. Council of Cabinet D. Council of Union Administration 25. The life of Lok Sabha shall not exceed 6 months after the end of A. War B. President’s rule C. States term D. National Emergency 26. The minimum attendance of the members required for proceedings of any house to begin is known as A. Assembly B. Parliament C. Quorum D. Legislature 27. It refers to the end of session of the Parliament. Pending bills do not lapse by the act of A. Adjournment B. Session C. Prorogation D. Parliament 28. The Governor shall hold office for a period of 5 years, subject to the pleasure of_________ A. President of India B. Prime Minister of India C. Chief Minister D. Central Ministers 29. In India, the Advocate General is a legal advisor to the A. Central Government B. State Government C. Prime Minister D. Chief Minister 30. The strength of the Council of Ministers including the Chief Minister in a state shall not exceed _____________ of the strength of Legislative Assembly A. 25% B. 30% C. 15% D. 20% 31. The Supreme Court has the power to A. Create High Courts C. Create the whole judicial system B. Abolish the High Court D. None of these 32. How many members are nominated to Rajya Sabha by the President of India? A. 12 B. 2 C. 1/6th D. 20 33. High Court Judges retire at the age of A. 65 Years B. 60 Years C. 62 years D. 58 years 34. Money Bill will be introduced only in A. Lok Sabha B. Rajya Sabha C. Cabinet D. any one of these 35. Who is the presiding officer of the Joint-session to discuss on the controversial bill of the Parliament? A. Chairman of Rajya Sabha B. Speaker of Lok Sabha C. President D. Prime Minister 36. Who has the power to pardon the death sentence? A. Law Minister B. Attorney General C. Governor D. President 37. Under Article 360 when the President is satisfied that there is a threat due to financial instability, he can declare A. President’s Rule B. National Emergency C. State Emergency D. Financial Emergency 38. When a State Emergency is declared, who can assume all the functions of State Government? A. Prime Minister B. President of India C. Governor of a state D. Union Cabinet 39. Which of the following cannot be removed by Impeachment? A. President B. Judges of Supreme Court C. Prime Minister D. Judges of the High Court. 40. Which was the lengthiest amendment to constitution? A. 24th B. 42nd C. 43rd D. 44th 41. What is the minimum age to become judges of Supreme Court of India? A. 25 years B. 30 years C. 35 years D. None of these 42. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right? A. Right to Property B. Right to strike C. Right to die D. All the above 43. The Directive Principles of State Policy are A. Not Enforceable by court B. Enforceable by court C. Absolute Principles D. None of these 44. The Practice of awarding titles is prohibited under A. Article 14 B. Article 17 C. Article 18 D. Article 15 45. “Equal pay for Equal Work” for the men and women is included under A. Preamble B. Directive Principles of State Policy C. Fundamental Rights D. Fundamental Duties 46. The Right to freedom of silence is included in Freedom of A. Speech & Expression B. Assembly C. Association D. Trade 47. The protection “No person shall be forced to be a witness against himself” is A. Ex-Post-Facto Law B. Double Jeopardy C. Testimonial Compulsion D. Self- Incrimination 48. Which Article recognizes the International Law under the Constitution? A. Article 15 B. Article 21 C. Article 32 D. Article 51 49. A Writ of Habeas Corpus means A. Command to perform B. Produce the person before the Court C. Quash the decision D. What’s your authority? 50. Any law made by Parliament in contravention to Fundamental rights is declared as A. Valid B. Illegal C. Void D. incorrect 51. Who are not entitled to form a Union or Association? A. Police B. Students C. Teachers D. Workmen of Industry 52. Under Fundamental Rights, minority may be considered on the basis of A. Regional or National B. Religious or Linguistic C. Racial or Regional D. Caste or Racial 53. The Right against exploitation prohibits A. Labourers B. Mining Employees C. Traffic in human beings D. None of these 54. Which writ can be issued to quash the decision of lower courts? A. Certiorari B. Quo-Warranto C. Habeas Corpus D. Mandamus 55. The rights of citizens to carry out processions or meeting is conferred by A. Right to form an Association B. Right to move anywhere in India C. Right to Assembly D. Right to carry on trade 56. Under which Article, the State has been directed to secure the citizens a ‘Uniform Civil Code’ in India A. Article 40 B. Article 45 C. Article 50 D. Article 44 57. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty? A. Respect the National Flag and National Anthem B. Parents or wards duty not to send their child to school C. Not to destroy public property D. Protection of environment and forest 58. The Constitution empowered State Government to make special law for the protection of A. Unemployed Youth B. Farmers C. Women and Children D. Youth 59. Which is the landmark judgement passed by the Supreme Court with respect to Freedom of Silence? A. Keshavananda Bharathi Case B. Maneka Gandhi Case C. Mohini Jain Case D. National Anthem Case 60. The aim of the Directive Principles of State Policy is to establish  A. Capitalistic State B. Communistic State C. Welfare State D. Democratic State 61. Who can appoint the Chief justice of Supreme Court of India? A. Prime Minister B. Law Minister C. Attorney General D. President 62. Who can disqualify the MLAs if they act against anti-defection law? A. Speaker of Legislative Assembly B. Chairman of Legislative Council C. Speaker of Lok Sabha D. Chairman of Rajya Sabha 63. What is the term of members of Rajya Sabha? A. 5 years B. 3 years C. 6 years D. 4 years 64. The seat of Supreme Court is in A. Bengaluru B. Delhi C. Mumbai D. Chennai 65. Which fund is utilized to meet the unforeseen expenditure? A. Contingency Fund B. Consolidated Fund C. Public Revenue Fund D. Political rally fund 66. Attorney General of India is appointed by A. Prime Minister B. Law Minister C. Chief Justice of India D. President 67. Who can appoint Prime Minister of India? A. President of India B. People of India C. Ruling Legislative Party D. Election Commissioner 68. What is the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha? A. 238 B. 552 C. 545 D. 250 69. Vice-President of India is elected by A. People of India B. Members of Parliament C. Members of Rajya Sabha D. Members of State legislature 70. Chief Minister of state is appointed by A. Governor B. President C. High command of a political party D. Chief Justice of High Court 71. The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India to its citizens can be protected by A. Parliament B. President C. Supreme Court D. Prime Minister 72. What is the basis or test for classification of people under Article 14? A. Caste B. Intelligible Quotient C. Intelligible Differentia D. Annual income 73. The Indian Independence Act 1947 was passed by the A. Constituent Assembly B. British Parliament C. Governor General of India D. Provincial Government 74.India is a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic. This expression occurs in A. Fundamental Rights B. Preamble C. Directive Principles D. Fundamental Duties 75. The Indian Constitution which provides for elected President indicates that India is A. Sovereign state B. Socialistic state C. Republic State D. Democratic state 76. Ex-post-facto law means A. An outdated law B. An invalid law C. Passing criminal law with retrospective effect D. A law applicable only during emergency. 77. Minorities have the right to establish educational institution under the fundamental rights to A. Equality B. Culture and Education C. Freedom D. religion 78. On the right to practice any profession or to carry on any trade or business, the state can put reasonable restrictions on the ground of A. Public Order B. Public Morality C. Sovereignty & Integrity of India D. Interest of general public 79.________________ is the guardian of public finances A. Attorney General B. Comptroller and Auditor General C. Finance Minister D. Advocate General 80. The size of Council of Ministers in the center shall not exceed A. 15% of the strength of Lok Sabha B. 15% of the strength of Rajya Sabha C. 25% of the strength of Lok Sabha D. 10% of the strength of Lok Sabha 81. Which Fundamental Right is not suspended on declaration of National Emergency in the country? A. Article 15 B. Article 19 C. Article 21 D. All of the above 82. Who cannot issue an Ordinance? A. President B. Governor C. Prime Minister D. None of the above 83. 1/3rd of the members to the Legislative Council are elected from A. Teachers constituency. B. Reserved Constituency. C. Local bodies. D. graduates constituency. 84. Council of Ministers in the state is headed by the ____________ and are appointed on the advice of _____________ A. Chief Minister and Chief Minister B. President and Prime Minister C. Prime Minister and President D. Governor and Chief Minister 85. Rajya Sabha is also Known as A. Council of States B. Council of the Lok Sabha C. Council of Cabinet D. Council of Union 86. Which amendment to constitution removed Right to property from Fundamental Rights category? A. 24th B. 42nd C. 43rd D. 44th 87. Right to Education (RTE) was introduced in ____________ Amendment A. 46th B. 61st C. 76th D. 86th 88. This is not a function of the Election Commission A. Selection of candidate B Preparing Electoral Rolls C. issue code of conduct D. Allotment of symbols 89. The tenure of Chief Election Commissioner of India is A. 6 years or 65 years of age B. 5 years or 65 years of age C. 6 years or 62 years of age D. 5 years or 60 years of age 90. Election disputes can be heard by A. High Court B. Election Commission C. President D. Civil Court 91. The Constitution of India derives its authority from the A. Parliament of India B. People of India C. Supreme Court D. Constituent Assembly 92. When was the Indian Constitution enacted and adopted? A. 26/10/1949 B. 26/12/1949 C. 26/11/1949 D. 26/1/1950 93. Which of the following word was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act 1976? A. Socialist B. Sovereign C. Federal D. Republic 94. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution has been amended so far A. 4 times B. 3 times C. Twice D. Once 95. Which is the landmark judgement passed by the Supreme Court with respect to Preamble of the Constitution? A. Mandal Commission case B. Vishaka vs State of Rajasthan C. Keshavananda Bharati case D. Maneka Gandhi case 96. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution indicates A. Power to make laws B. date of commencement C. Power of parliament to amend the constitution D. Source of the constitution 97. One of the salient features of our constitution is A. It is fully rigid B. It is fully flexible C. It is partly rigid and partly flexible D. None of these 98. Which of these is not a Fundamental right? A. Right to freedom B. Right to constitutional remedy C. Right to property D. Right to equality 99. How many schedules are there in the Indian Constitution? A. 7 B. 12 C. 5 D. 6 100. The Fundamental Rights of Indian Citizens are contained in ____________ of the constitution A. Part III B. Part IV C. 7th Schedule D. None of these 101. How much time was taken for framing the constitution? A. 1year 11 months 18 days B. 4 years 11months 18 days C. 2 years 11 months 18 days D. 3 years 11 months 18 days 102. The basic feature of the Indian constitution is found in A. Fundamental Duties B. Preamble C. Fundamental Rights D. Directive Principles of state policy 103. Chairman of the Constituent Assembly was _____________ and _________________was the chairman of the drafting committee. A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Dr. B.R.Ambedkar B. Dr. B.R.Ambedkar and Dr. Rajendra Prasad C. Jawaharlal Nehru and Dr. B.R.Ambedkar D. Sardar Vallabhai Patel and Dr. B.R.Ambedkar 104. Which of the following laws exercised the most profound influence in framing Indian Constitution? A. British Constitution B. US Constitution C. Irish Constitution D. The Government of India Act, 1935 105. The preamble is the modified version of which of the following: A. Bill of Rights in USA B. Objective Resolution C. British Magna Carta D. Ideals of Communism 106. A state in which there is absence of monarchism is called a ____________ state A. Sovereign B. Socialist C. Democratic D. Republic. 107. Which of these proposed for partition of then India into two? A. Cripps Proposal B. Cabinet Mission Plan C. Lord Mountbatten Plan D. Minto Morley Reforms 108. Fundamental rights are borrowed from the Constitution of A. UK B. USA C. Germany D. Ireland 109. Sovereign means A. Absolutism B. Independent Supreme Authority C. Dependent Authority D. Dictatorship 110. Federal type of government means A. Division of powers between Centre and state B. Distribution of power between Executive and Legislature C. Separation of Powers between President and Prime Minister D. None of the above 111. Any law made by Parliament in contravention to Fundamental rights is declared as A. Valid B. Illegal C. Void D. incorrect 112. Who acted as the Constitutional Advisor of the Drafting Committee A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar B. Dr. Babu Rajendra Prasad C. B.N.Rao D. Dr. Sachidanand Sinha 113.The three types of Justice referred in our Preamble are A. Social, Economic, Political B. Economic, International, Political C. Economic, Religious, Social D. Religious, Social and Political 114. What was the exact Constitutional status of the Indian Republic on January 26, 1950 when the constitution was inaugur A. Democratic Republic B. Sovereign Democratic Republic C. Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic D. Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic 115. The source of authority of the Indian Constitution is A. The Government of India B. The People of India C. Appointed by the President D. Nominated by the Parliament 116. In the final form of the constitution adopted by the Constituent Assembly, how many Articles and Schedules were there A. 397 Articles and 7 Schedules B. 395 Articles and 4 Schedules C. 400 Articles and 10 Schedules D. 395 Articles and 8 Schedules 117. The preamble of the Indian Constitution does not contain concept of A. Democratic B. Adult Franchise C. Sovereignty D. Fraternity 118.The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held in A. 1949 B. 1950 C. 1947 D. 1946 119. The Constitution of India is A. based on conventions B. Unwritten constitution C. Written and bulky document D. None of these 120. The Indian Constitution came into force on A.26th Nov 1949 B. 26th Nov 1945 C. 26th Jan 1950 D. 15th Aug 1957 121.India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic and Republic. In the Indian constitution, this expression occurs in A. Fundamental Rights B. Directive Principles of State Policy C. Preamble D. None of these 122. The Preamble is amended through A. 42nd Amendment B. 44th Amendment C. 73rd Amendment D. 86th Amendment. 123. It is not the objective enshrined in the preamble A. Equality of status B. Secure shelter and proper livelihood to all C. Liberty of thought and expression D. Social, economic and political justice 124. The Indian Constitution Day is celebrated on A.26th November B. 28th November C. 26th January D. 15th August  125. The members to constituent assembly which drafted the constitution of India were A. Nominated by British Parliament B. Nominated by Governor General C. Elected by legislative assemblies D. Elected from various provinces and princely states 126. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the preamble of the Indian constitution A. Liberty of thought B. liberty of expression C. economic liberty D. Liberty of belief 127. The Constituent Assembly was created under which of the following schemes? A. Cabinet Mission B. Simon Commission C. Transfer of Power Plan D. Mountbatten Plan 128. The minds of makers of the Indian Constitution is reflected in which of the following A. The Preamble B. The fundamental Rights C. Fundamental duties D. directive Principles of State Policy 129. Which one of the following best describes the parliamentary form of Government? A Principles of cooperation and Coordination between the Executive and legislative organs B. Doctrine of separation of powers between the two organs C. Written Constitution D. Rigid Constitution 130. In Re -Berubari Case, the Supreme Court held that Preamble is A. Part of the Constitution B. Not Part of the Constitution C. An introduction and part of the constitution D. none of the above 131. The following are enshrined in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution: i. Equality of status and opportunity ii. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship iii. Justice-social, economic and political iv. Fraternity assuring the dignity of an individual v. unity and Integrity of the nation Which one of the following is the correct order in which they appear A. iii, ii, i, iv, v B. i,iii,ii,iv,v C. v.iv,iii,ii,i D. iii,i,ii,v,iv 132. The Governor of State is A. Directly elected by the people B. Elected by the State legislature C. Appointed by the President D. Nominated by the Parliament 133. Reprieve means A. Death due to drowning B. Awarding lesser punishment C. Temporary suspension of death sentence D. Painless death 134. The right to live with human dignity is included in the right to A. Social justice B. Equal protection of laws C. life and personal liberty D. right against exploitation 135. The following article is not available to non-citizens of India A. Article 14 B. Article 19 C. Article 21 D. Article 25 136. The President of India can exercise his veto power in relation to A. Declaring National Emergency B. Appointment of Judges of Supreme Court C. Declaring war by India against any nation D. Assent legislation 137. If there is a dispute between two states A. High Court has jurisdiction to decide that case B. Only Supreme Court has jurisdiction to decide that case C. With the consent of both the states, High Court may decide that case D. either High Court or Supreme Court has jurisdiction to decide that case 138. To contest for the election of Lok Sabha, the person should be A. Resident of India for at least 10 years B. Resident of India for at least 12 years C. Resident of India for at least 5 years D. Citizen of India 139. The oath of Office to a Governor of state is administered by A. The Prime Minister of India B. The President of India C. The Chief Minister of the state D. The Chief Justice of the respective High Court 140. When a State Emergency is declared, all or any of the functions of the Government are assumed by A. Governor B. Prime Minister C. President D. Union Cabinet